What Is Respiration? Define Respiratory Substrate.

Respiration is a multistep enzymatic breakdown of organic compounds like glucose that releases small packets of energy at various steps. Glucose that is commonly broken down in respiration is called respiratory substrate. In the aerobic type of respiration, oxygen is used as a terminal oxidant. Besides energy, carbon dioxide is released.

respiration definition

Class 10 Biology Notes For Respiration Experiment

Carbon Dioxide Is Released During Respiration

Take two test tubes. Half-fill them with freshly prepared lime water. Blow air into one test tube by means of a tube. Note the time taken by lime water to turn milky. Now, blow fresh air into the second test tube by means of a syringe (or Pichkari). Repeatedly do it till lime water turns milky. Note the time taken. Compare the two time periods.

Lime water turns milky only when it reacts with carbon dioxide. Air blown out of the mouth is the one which has come out from the lungs. As it turns lime water milky very soon, it is clear that respiration releases carbon dioxide. ‘Atmospheric air contains comparatively very low concentrations of carbon dioxide as it takes a long time to change lime water milky.

what is respiration class 10

Class 10 Biology Notes For Respiration Cellular Respiration

What Is Cellular Respiration?

Break-down of respiratory substances occurs only inside living cells. It is, therefore, called cellular respiration. Oxygen used in cellular respiration and carbon dioxide produced by it are called respirators or metabolic gases.

Complex animals have three more steps for respiration—breathing, external respirator’ exchange and internal respiratory exchange. There is a direct respiratory exchange of gases in simple animals and most plants.

Types of cellular respiration

Class 10 Biology Notes For Respiration Release Of Energy ATP

How Much Energy Is Released By Breakdown Of One Molecule Of Glucose?

Respiration releases energy in small steps. A part of this energy is dissipated as heat while another part is used in the formation of adenosine triphosphate (ATP).

About 50% of the released energy is used in the formation of ATP from ADP and inorganic phosphate (Pi or P)

ADP + Pi or (P) + Energy ATP or ADP ∼ (P)

About 30.5 kJ or 7.3 kcal of energy is used in the synthesis of one molecule of ATP from ADP and Pi. The same energy is released whenever energy is required for any activity of the cell. ATP functions as the energy currency of the cell.

The energy is used in various functions of the cell (just as a batter) and can be used to provide electricity for diverse activities) for example, muscle contraction, nerve conduction, membrane permeability, active absorption, cyclosis or cytoplasmic streaming, working of genetic system, biosynthesis, etc.

describe the process of respiration

Class 10 Biology Notes For Respiration Respiration And Photosynthesis

What Is The Difference Between Respiration And Photosynthesis?

Respiration is a breakdown or catabolic process which releases energy stored in chemical bonds of the respiratory substrate. Photosynthesis is a build-up or anabolic process which traps solar energy and uses the same in the formation of chemical bonds in organic compounds. The two processes are complementary as the products of one are used as raw materials for the other.

Photosynthesis occurs only during the daytime in green cells. Respiration occurs all the time in all the living cells. However, the rate of photosynthesis is several times the rate of respiration, so a lot of food gets stored in plants after meeting their respiratory requirement.

Differences Between Respiration And Photosynthesis

Class 10 Biology Notes For Respiration Types Of Respiration

Respiration is of two types: anaerobic and anaerobic.

Aerobic Respiration. It is a mode of respiration in which the respiratory substrate is completely oxidised to form carbon dioxide and water. It is the common mode of respiration since it yields the maximum energy contained in the respiratory substrate.

characteristics of respiration

A part of the liberated energy is stored in some 38 ATP molecules. The rest is dissipated.

Aerobic respiration occurs in two steps, cytoplasmic and mitochondrial.

1. In cytoplasm glucose is broken into two molecules of 3-carbon compound pyruvic acid. Two ATP and two NADH₂ are also formed. This cytoplasmic step is called glycolysis.

2. In mitochondria one pyruvic acid undergoes decarboxylation and dehydrogenation to form 4NADH₂, one FADH₂; one ATP and 3 molecules of carbon dioxide.

The mitochondrial step is called the Krebs cycle after the scientist who discovered it in 1940. Both NADH₂ and FADH₂, are used in mitochondria to form ATP molecules through a process called oxidative phosphorylation. One NADH-, produces 3 ATP molecules while one FADH₂ forms two ATP molecules.

Total NADH₂ formed in aerobic respiration = Glycolysis – 2NADH₂

Kreb’s cycle — 4 NADH₂ x 2 = 8NADH₂

Total FADH₂ formed in aerobic respiration = 1 FADH₂ x 2 = 2FADH₂

Direct ATP formed = Glycolysis – 2ATP = Kreb’s cycle – 1 ATP x 2 = 2ATP

From 10 NADH₂, 10 x 3 = 30, From FADH₂ 2 x 2 = 4, Direct ATP = Glycolysis — 2, Krebs’ cycle — 2.

Total 30 + 4 + 4 = 38 ATP

Class 10 Biology Notes For Respiration Anaerobic Respiration

What Is Anaerobic Respiration? Why It Is Uncommon?

It is a breakdown of the respiratory substrate without using oxygen. A complete breakdown into inorganic products is absent At least one product of anaerobic respiration is an organic substance. Anaerobic respiration occurs in the cytoplasm only. It has two components, glycolysis and reduction of pyruvic acid produced in glycolysis.

Anaerobic respiration occurs in many bacteria, yeast and some other microorganisms. In yeast, the most common products are ethyl alcohol (C₂H₅OH) and carbon dioxide. Anaerobic respiration also occurs in striated muscles during heavy exercise. Here pyruvate is reduced to form lactic acid. Lactic acid causes pain in the muscles and forces the athlete to stop further exercise.

examples of respiration

Fermentation. It is an anaerobic breakdown of sugars by microorganisms that is usually accompanied by effervescence or bubbling out of waste gases and the formation of a variety of products like alcohol and organic acids.

The fermentation activity of yeast is used in the baking industry and brewing industries. The formation of yoghurt, curd, idli and dosa is also the fermentation activities of specific bacteria. Acids produced through fermentation include vinegar, citric acid, lactic acid and butyric acid.

Class 10 Biology Notes For Respiration Fermentation Experiment

In Fermentation, Yeast Produces Alcohol And Carbon Dioxide.

Take a test tube. Fill 5/6 of it with 10% glucose solution or some fresh fruit juice. Add half a spoonful of yeast to it. Pour a drop of non-drying oil over the surface of the solution to exclude oxygen. Fit a one-holed cork having a delivery tube into the mouth of the tube.

Dip the free end of the delivery tube in a tube having freshly prepared lime water. Note bubbles of gas coming out of the sugar solution. They pass into lime water. Lime water turns milky indicating that yeast is producing carbon dioxide. Remove the cork and smell the solution. It smells of alcohol. Yeast, therefore, produces alcohol and carbon dioxide during fermentation or anaerobic respiration.

physiology of respiration notes

Differences Between Anaerobic And Aerobic Respiration

Class 10 Biology Notes For Respiration Exchange Of Gases In Plants

Higher plants respire aerobically. The rate of respiration is different in different parts. Growing points of both stem and roots, cambial cells, floral buds, growing fruits and germinating seeds respire more actively than other parts.

Most parts respire slowly because being fixed, plants have a lower requirement of energy. Plants also do not have any transport system for gases. Instead, they have a well-connected network of intercellular spaces for the diffusion of gases. Even then every part of the plant has its own system of exchange of gases.

Leaves And Young Stems. They possess stomata for gaseous exchange. During day time carbon dioxide is consumed in photosynthesis and oxygen evolves. Stomata help in the inward diffusion of carbon dioxide and the outward diffusion of oxygen. The oxygen required for respiration is generated internally. Similarly, carbon dioxide produced in respiration is consumed in photosynthesis.

At night, plants also require oxygen for respiration. They may also release carbon dioxide. The exchange occurs through some partially opened stomata as well as gases stored in intercellular spaces during the daytime.

Older Stems And Roots. They possess permanently open pores called lenticels. A lenticel has a number of loosely arranged complementary cells. Their interspaces connect atmospheric air with air present in the intercellular spaces.

Young Roots. Epiblema cells and root hairs of young roots are permeable to metabolic gases. They are in contact with small spaces present in between soil particles. Oxygen from soil diffuses into roots while carbon dioxide comes out of the roots into air spaces. Soil air spaces are in contact with soil pores present on the surface of the soil.

However, in waterlogged soil, the soil aerating system disappears. In the absence of oxygen, young roots stop growth and fail to undertake active transport. Cell membranes lose permeability. As a result, the plant devoid of root aeration, withers and may die.

Class 10 Biology Notes For Respiration Multiple Choice Questions And Answers

Question 1. Anaerobic process

1. Takes place in yeast during fermentation
2. Takes place in the presence of oxygen
3. Produces energy only in the muscles of human beings
4. Produces ethanol, oxygen and energy.

Answer: 1. Takes place in yeast during fermentation

Class 10 Biology Notes For Respiration Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1. Explain how the exchange of gases occurs in plants across the surface of stem, root and leaves.
Answer:

1. Young Stems and Leaves. Through stomata between the atmosphere and intercellular spaces present in leaves and young stems. During daytime oxygen is passed out of them and carbon dioxide is absorbed. During night the reverse exchange of gases occurs.
2. Young Roots. There are no pores or stomata. The epiblema and root hairs are permeable to gases so the exchange of gases occurs between intercellular spaces of roots and the soil interspaces.
3. Old Stems and Old Roots. Lenticels or permanently open pores occur over the surface of old stems and roots. They are connected internally to intercellular spaces.
   • The exchange of gases occurs between the atmosphere and plant interior through the lenticels which have loosely held complementary cells.

What Is Nutrition? Why Food Is Necessary For A Living Organism?

It is the process of obtaining food and its utilisation in the body for obtaining energy and body-building materials. Food is a carbon-based material substance that is broken down to yield energy, body building materials for growth, development, repair and regulatory biochemicals.

Nutrition Functions

1. Body Building, Growth And Repair. Food provides materials for the synthesis of proteins and other body-building materials that are required for the maintenance, growth and repair of the body.
2. Energy. Food contains energy in the chemical form. Chemical linkages are broken down to release energy which is trapped in ATP (Adenosine Triphosphate). The released energy is used in all body functions including maintenance of cellular organisation.
3. Regulators. Hormones, vitamins and enzymes are products of biochemicals provided by food. They take part in regulating body functions and chemical changes including digestion, anabolism and catabolism.
4. Development. It is the food which provides raw materials for progressive changes in size, shape and function of the body during the lifetime of an individual.

How Do Living Things Get Their Food? There are two methods of obtaining food, autotrophic and heterotrophic. In autotrophic nutrition, the organisms obtain inorganic raw materials (carbon dioxide, water, minerals) from the environment, pick up energy from solar radiation and synthesise organic food. The organisms performing autotrophic nutrition are called autotrophs.

class 10 excretion notes

They include green plants, cyanobacteria, some bacteria and some protists. In heterotrophic nutrition, the organisms obtain readymade food from the outside. This food is made of complex substances. They are first broken down into simpler ones by means of enzymes.

The simpler substances are picked up by living cells to build up their protoplasm and energy molecules. Organisms performing heterotrophic nutrition are called heterotrophs. They include animals, fungi, protozoans and many bacteria.

Class 10 Biology Nutrition Notes Autotrophic Nutrition

It is a mode of nutrition in which organisms build their own organic food from inorganic raw materials with the help of energy obtained from outside. The common mode of autotrophic nutrition is photosynthesis.

Photosynthesis. It is the process of formation of organic food from inorganic raw materials (CO₂, H₂O) with the help of sunlight inside chlorophyll-containing cells. The initial product is glucose from which other biochemicals are formed.

class 10 science notes biology

• Excess glucose is stored in the form of starch, just as glycogen is stored in our body as a source of energy. The leaf is most suitable for photosynthesis as it is flattened to receive maximum sunlight, contains abundant stomata for quick exchange of gases and a large number of vascular strands for bringing in water and taking away products of photosynthesis.
• A small amount of photosynthesis also occurs in young stems.
• The site of photosynthesis is a green plastid called chloroplast Chloroplasts occur in good numbers in both palisade and spongy parenchyma cells of leaves. Chloroplasts contain the green photosynthetic pigment called chlorophyll. Chlorophyll is specialised to absorb solar energy and convert it into chemical energy.

Photosynthesis Events. Three events occur in quick succession in photosynthesis,

1. Absorption of light energy by chlorophyll.
2. Splitting of water and conversion of light energy into chemical energy.
3. Reduction of carbon dioxide to form carbohydrates and other biochemicals.

However, most desert plants do not follow this sequence. They absorb CO₂ during the night when their stomata are open. The same is stored as organic acid. During the day when stomata are closed, solar energy absorbed by chlorophyll is used to synthesise organic food.

science chapter 6

Raw Materials Of Photosynthesis

1. Chlorophyll. It is green coloured photosynthetic pigment which is specialised to absorb solar energy and convert it into chemical energy. Other photosynthetic pigments, called carotenoids, also take part in absorbing solar energy. They hand over the energy to chlorophyll for chemical conversion.
2. Carbon Dioxide. Land plants obtain CO₂ from the air through their stomata. Stomata function as turgor-operated valves. Their guard cells curve out when they swell up on absorption of water. It creates a pore in between them. As guard cells lose water, they shrink, become straight and close the pore.
   • When the stomata are open, a quick gaseous exchange occurs. It provides the required CO₂, to photosynthetic cells. However, open stomata also pass out a lot of water vapours in transpiration. Transpiration stops as the stomata close. However, gaseous exchange continues to occur on a smaller scale from the surface of stem, root and even leaves.
3. Water. In land plants, it is obtained from soil. The absorbed water is transported along with minerals to the photosynthetic areas through the xylem. Minerals help in the synthesis of specific biochemicals like sulphur in proteins, magnesium in chlorophyll, etc.
4. Light. It is the visible part of solar radiation with a wavelength of 390-760 nm. Photosynthetically active light is 400-700 nm. Light brings about the photolysis of water and excitation of chlorophyll.

life processes

The overall equation of photosynthesis is

Photosynthesis Importance

1. Food. Photosynthesis produces organic food. All the organisms depend upon this food for their survival.
2. Energy. Photosynthesis converts radiant energy into chemical energy.
3. Oxygen. It releases oxygen. Photosynthesis is the main source of oxygen in our environment.
4. Carbon Dioxide. It picks up carbon dioxide from the atmosphere and uses the same in building organic food.

Activity 1.1 Carbon Dioxide Is Necessary For Photosynthesis

Take two potted plants. Destarch them by keeping them in perfect darkness for 2-3 days. Place the detached potted plants on glass slabs. Place a watch glass having potassium hydroxide solution near one of them. Cover both the potted plants with bell jars. Seal the edges of the bell jars with Vaseline. Place the two plants in sunlight for 2-4 hours.

process notes

Afterwards, pluck one leaf from each potted plant and test the same for starch (dipping in boiled water, in hot alcohol, in hot water again, in iodine solution and wiping off iodine with water). The leaf of a potted plant with potassium hydroxide does not show a positive starch test showing that it has not performed photosynthesis.

The leaf of the other potted plant turns bluish black indicating the presence of starch and hence photosynthesis. The only difference between the two potted plants is the absence of CO₂ in the first and the presence of carbon dioxide in the second. Therefore, carbon dioxide is essential for photosynthesis.

Activity 1.2 Chlorophyll Is Necessary For Photosynthesis.

Take a potted plant of Coleus, Money plant or Croton having variegated leaves. Keep it in perfect darkness for three days in order to destroy its leaves. Place the potted plant in sunlight for 2-6 hours. Pluck one variegated leaf and draw the outline of its green and non-green areas on rice paper.

Dip the leaf in boiling water for 5-10 minutes. Dip the leaf in alcohol or spirit kept at 50°- 60° C with the help of a water bath. After 3045 minutes, the leaf will become decolourised due to the dissolution of chlorophyll.

“class 10 transportation notes “

Place the decolourised leaf in hot water in order to remove alcohol and soften it. Keep the leaf in a petri dish and pour dilute iodine over it. Remove iodine and wash the leaf with water by means of a dropper. Find that the leaf has two types of patches, bluish-black and pale-coloured.

Compare it with the sketch drawn on rice paper. The bluish-black colour of starch appears where the leaf is green. The pale colour represents the previous non-green areas. As starch develops only after photosynthesis, the chlorophyll-containing areas perform photosynthesis. Therefore, chlorophyll is necessary for photosynthesis.

Activity 1.3 Light Is Necessary For Photosynthesis.

Destarch a potted plant by keeping it in complete darkness for 2-3 days. Fix a strip of thick black paper on the upper surface of a leaf by means of cello tape. Expose the leaf to sunlight for 2-3 hours. Pluck the leaf and remove the black paper.

biology chapter 6 class 10 notes

Test for starch (by dipping in boiled water, then in hot alcohol, in hot water again and lastly in iodine solution). The covered part of the leaf remains pale-coloured due to the absence of starch, while the rest of the leaf becomes bluish-black due to the presence of starch. As the covered part does not show photosynthesis, light is necessary for photosynthesis.

Class 10 Biology Nutrition Notes Heterotrophic Nutrition

What Is Heterotrophic Nutrition? How The Organisms Get Their Food?

It is a mode of nutrition in which an organism obtains readymade food from an outside source for both bodybuilding and the liberation of energy. Heterotrophic nutrition is of three main types— saprophytic, parasitic and holozoic.

Differences Between Autotrophic And Heterotrophic Nutrition

1. Saprophytic Nutrition. It is obtaining nutrients from organic remains and food articles by performing external digestion. Here digestive enzymes are poured over the food particles which undergo solubilisation.
   • The solubilised materials are absorbed and assimilated. The organisms performing saprophytic nutrition are called saprophytes, for example, fungi like bread mould, yeast and mushrooms, and several bacteria.
2. Parasitic Nutrition. Here, a living organism called a parasite obtains food from another organism called the host. The parasite may live over the body of the host (ectoparasite, for example, leech, ticks, lice, Cuscuta or Amar Bel) or inside the body of the host (endoparasite, for example, Tapeworm, Ascaris). The parasites causing disease in the host are called pathogens.
3. Holozoic Nutrition (Ingestive Nutrition). Solid pieces of food are taken in. They are digested inside the body. Herbivores feed on plants. Carnivores prey upon other animals including herbivores.

Differences Between Saprophytes And Parasites

notes for biology class 10

Differences Between Photosynthetic And Holozoic Nutrition

Class 10 Biology Nutrition Notes Organisms Obtain Their Nutrition

How Does The Unicellular Organism Differ From the Multicellular Organism, In Obtaining Food?

There are many methods of obtaining nutrition in holozoic organisms. They depend upon the complexity of the organisms and the mode of their feeding. In all cases, holozoic nutrition involves five steps— ingestion, digestion, absorption, assimilation and egestion.

In unicellular organisms like Amoeba food can be taken in by the entire surface. As soon as a food particle comes in contact with the cell surface, it sends out pseudopodia all around it. As the tips of pseudopodia fuse, the food particle comes to lie in a vacuole called a food vacuole.

With the help of digestive enzymes brought by lysosomes, the food particle is digested. Its soluble products pass into the surrounding cytoplasm. The insoluble ingredients contained in the vacuole rise to the surface and are thrown out.

In some unicellular organisms like Paramecium, the cell has a definite shape and food is taken in through a temporary mouth or cytosome by cilia. After digestion, the digestible particles are thrown out through another temporary opening called cytotype.

In multicellular organisms, different parts of the body become specialised to perform different functions—ingestion by mouth, digestion in alimentary canal, circulation of digested food by blood and lymph, its absorption and assimilation by individual cells. The undigested part of food is thrown out of the alimentary canal in a process called egestion.

life processes notes

Class 10 Biology Nutrition Notes Nutrition In Human Beings

What Are The Different Parts Starting From Mouth To Anus?

Human beings are omnivorous with holozoic nutrition. They have a digestive system consisting of an alimentary canal and some glands attached to it, viz., salivary glands, liver and pancreas.

The alimentary canal or gut is a long tubular passageway through which food passes during its digestion and absorption. It is about 8-9 metres in length. The Alimentary canal begins at the mouth for ingestion and ends at the anus for egestion. In between the two are buccal cavity, oesophagus, stomach, small intestine and large intestine.

Mouth. It is a transverse aperture for the intake of food. The mouth is bounded by two movable sensitive lips.

Buccal Or Oral Cavity. It is enclosed between two powerful jaws. The upper jaw is fixed while the lower jaw is movable. Both the jaws bear teeth in semi-circular rows. The lower jaw also contains

• Tongue. It is a flattened, movable and protrusible structure attached posteriorly. The tongue bears taste buds. The tongue helps in moving food and cleaning teeth.
• Teeth. Human teeth are heterodont (of four types) and thecodont (partially embedded in sockets of jaw bones). Teeth are made of an ivory-like substance called dentine. The exposed parts of teeth are further covered by a shiny hard structure called enamel. The various teeth are incisors (chisel-shaped for biting), canines (dagger-shaped for tearing), premolars (cusped for grinding) and molars (cusped for crushing and grinding).

The dental formula for adult human is \(\frac{\text { One Half of Upper Jaw }}{\text { One Half of Lower Jaw }}=\mathrm{i} \frac{2}{2}, \mathrm{c} \frac{1}{1}, \mathrm{pm} \frac{2}{2}, \mathrm{~m} \frac{3}{3}=\frac{8}{8} \times 2=\frac{16}{16}=32\)

Dental Caries. They are cavities formed in teeth due to the activity of the bacteria Streptococcus mutAnswer: The bacterium feeds on food particles rich in sugar, forms plaques over teeth and secretes acids that corrode the teeth by dissolving enamel and dentine.

Brushing teeth after meals removes the plaque and does not provide space for bacteria. Otherwise, the dental caries or cavities increase in size and reach the pulp of teeth causing acute pain and falling of teeth.

Salivary Glands. Three pairs of glands pour saliva into the buccal cavity. They are parotid (below the ears), submaxillary (at the angles of the lower jaw) and sublingual (below the tongue). Saliva is mainly made of mucus and water for lubrication. It has antimicrobial enzyme lysozyme and a digestive enzyme ptyalin or salivary amylase.

• Ptyalin partially digests starch into maltose making the food sweet if kept in the mouth for a longer period.
• Food is moistened by saliva, crushed by teeth and partially digested by ptyalin. The softened food is rolled into a small ball or bolus and passes through the pharynx (common passage of respiratory and digestive tracts) into the oesophagus. The act is called swallowing.

Oesophagus (Food Pipe). It is a muscular tube that connects the buccal cavity with the stomach. Its muscles undergo rhythmic contraction and relaxation to push the food forward. The phenomenon is called peristalsis. It occurs throughout the digestive tract.

Stomach. It is the J-shaped widest part of the alimentary canal which secretes a digestive juice called gastric juice. Gastric juice contains HCl, mucus and an enzyme pepsin. HCl disinfects the food and makes it acidic for the action of pepsin. Pepsin takes part in the digestion of protein.

The stomach performs churning movements which mixes food with gastric juice and breaks it into smaller particles. The semi-digested food or chyme passes into the distal end of the stomach called pylorus. It has a sphincter which opens to pass only the pulpy food into the duodenum.

Small Intestine. This is the longest part of the alimentary canal which lies coiled extensively in the abdomen. Its length is longer in herbivorous animals as their food has a larger bulk and the cellulose of their diet requires longer time for digestion. The small intestine is comparatively shorter in carnivorous animals like lions as their diet of meat has a small bulk and is easily digestible.

• In human beings, the small intestine is about 6 m in length. It is differentiated into three parts—duodenum, jejunum and ileum. The duodenum is the proximal part which receives the secretion from the liver and pancreas.
• The small intestine also possesses a large number of digestive glands (intestinal glands). Their juice is called succus entericus. The intestinal wall has numerous finger-like projections called villi. They increase the surface area of the intestine several times for rapid absorption of digested food. Further villi have a rich supply of blood vessels and a lymph vessel.
• The semi-digested food entering the duodenum from the stomach is acidic. It is neutralised and made alkaline by the secretion of a liver called bile. Bile has no digestive enzyme. Besides making the food alkaline for the action of pancreatic juice, it breaks fat into small globules.
• The process is called emulsification. It is similar to the action of soap. The emulsified fat can be easily broken down by the enzyme lipase.

Pancreatic juice contains enzymes for the breakdown of all the components of food—protein, fats, carbohydrates, nucleic acids.

The wall of the small intestine possesses a number of digestive glands in crypts or depressions around the villi. Their secretion called succus entericus contains many types of enzymes that complete the process of digestion.

Intestinal lipase and intestinal amylase act on intact lipids and carbohydrates to completely break the same. As a result, the food contained in the small intestine becomes changed into a liquid emulsion.

Besides the digestion of food, the small intestine is also the nite of absorption of digested food, For lids il has a large number of vascularized villi, and Fat is absorbed by the lacteals of villi. Other digested food materials are taken up by blood capillaries. The latter forms a hepatic portal vein. It lakes the absorbed food to the liver for

1. Storage of extra nutrients.
2. Detoxification (dioxins and
3. Deamination of extra amino acids, From the liver, the blood lakes the food to all purls of the body for supply to all Individual cells, Extra fat is stored in adipose tissue.

Large Intestine. It is the hindermost part of the alimentary canal. The diameter is 4-6 cm (as compared to 3.5-4.5 cm in the small intestine) while the length is about 1.5 m. The large intestine has three parts – caecum, colon and rectum.

The caecum is a small pouch to which a small blind tube called a vermiform appendix is attached. Colon is the longest part. It is sacculated. There are three parts – ascending, transverse and descending. The slurry containing undigested matter enters it through the caecum. Water is absorbed and the undigested matter gets converted into semisolid faecal matter.

The rectum is the last part of the large intestine which is 12-15 cm in length. It opens to the outside through the anus. The feeling of defalcation occurs as faecal matter reaches the rectum. The exit is regulated by an anal sphincter.

Living beings are self-regulated and self-organized cell-based entities that show the various characteristics of life. The major and most apparent of these characteristics are movements. Movements are of two types—visible and invisible.

Visible Movements are changes in the position of organisms or their parts—a running dog, a yelling class fellow, a flying bird. Even in sleep, one can observe breathing movements. However, plants do not show such apparent movements except in a few cases like Mimosa pudica (Sensitive Plant). Most plants show very slow movements of growth, bending, etc.

Invisible Movements occur at the level of molecules. Every cell receives nutrients and passes out wastes. It obtains energy by breaking down nutrient molecules. The energy is then used in repairing and maintaining the cellular structures.

Viruses are called semi-living because they are lifeless outside the host cell. Inside the host cell, they show movements of their molecules.

Class 10 Biology Notes For What Are Life Processes Life Process

What Is Essential For The Maintenance And Survival Of Organisms?

Life processes are those activities and functions of living beings that are essential for their maintenance and survival. They are the basic functions that are similar in all organisms.

1. Energy. Maintenance processes prevent damage and breakdown of protoplasmic structures. For this, they require energy which comes from food.
2. Nutrition. It is procuring food for obtaining energy, bodybuilding, and repair materials. Food for body building as well as the release of energy is a carbon-based oxidation-reduction process. Plants prepare their own food.
   • Animals obtain food from outside. In the body of an animal, the ingested food is first broken into simpler forms for absorption by cells. The cells elaborate the simple nutrient molecules into cellular components as well as energy-yielding components.
3. Respiration. It is the energy-yielding process of the living body. Energy is released when a carbon-based energy-storing complex (for example, glycogen, starch, glucose) is broken down in the presence of oxygen (aerobic respiration). It can also occur in some cells and organisms in the absence of oxygen (anaerobic respiration).
4. Exchange Of Materials. There is a regular exchange of materials between the organisms and their environment. Most organisms obtain water, oxygen and nutrients from their environment. In return, they give out carbon dioxide, waste products and undigested matter.
   • Single-celled and other simple organisms are in direct contact with the environment. Therefore, they directly obtain food and exchange materials with the same. Generally, it is through diffusion.
   • In complex multicellular organisms, very little exchange occurs through the general surface. They have developed special organs for respiration (exchange of gases), ingestion, digestion and egestion.
5. Transportation. Multicellular organisms require a transportation system as cell-to-cell diffusion is a very slow process with billions of cells forming the bulk of the body. The transport system can take the required material in a short span of time to all parts of the body. In animals, blood and lymph form a transport system. In plants, vascular strands (xylem and phloem) do the same job.
6. Excretion. It is the expulsion of waste materials from the body. Waste materials are the by-products of metabolism which are often toxic if they accumulate in the body, for example, urea, and uric acid. They are collected from all parts of the body by the circulatory or transportation system and brought to the organs where they are separated for elimination.
   • In plants, an excretory system is absent. They convert their waste products into harmless forms and store the same in the dead tissues and senescent leaves.
7. Movements. Molecular movements (invisible movements) are essential for the working of the body cells. Visible movements are required to support life.
8. Sensitivity. Every living organism, small or large, is sensitive to changes in the environment.

life processes of plants

Life Processes Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1. Why is diffusion insufficient to meet the oxygen requirement of multicellular organisms like humans?
Answer:

Diffusion is a successful process of obtaining oxygen by unicellular organisms like Amoeba. However, it cannot meet the requirement of multicellular organisms because in them every cell is not exposed to oxygen oxygen-containing environment.

life process mind map class 10

Oxygen is available from the lungs. In order to pass from there to other parts of the body by diffusion it has to pass through billions of cells. It is estimated that it will take three years for oxygen to reach the toes through diffusion. Multicellular organisms have a transport system that takes oxygen to the surroundings of individual cells within a span of some minutes.

Question 2. What criteria do we use to decide whether something is alive?
Answer:

1. Movements. They are of two types, visible and invisible. The invisible movements are at the molecular level (and are not felt externally). The visible movements are either of locomotion (running, walking) or of parts (for example, chewing cud, breathing movements).
2. Sensitivity. It responds to changes in the external environment.
3. Gases. The living being picks up oxygen from the outside and releases carbon dioxide.

“basic principles of life “

Question 3. What are outside raw materials used for by an organism?
Answer:

1. Food, water, and oxygen by heterotrophic organisms.
2. Carbon dioxide, water, minerals, and sunshine by photosynthetic organisms. When not photosynthesizing, they also require oxygen from the outside.

biological processes

Question 4. What processes would you consider essential for maintaining life?
Answer:

1. Obtaining or manufacturing carbon-containing food materials.
2. Breakdown of carbon compounds to obtain energy (respiration).
3. Assimilation of carbon compounds to build up protoplasmic constituents.
4. Exchange of materials.
5. Transportation.
6. Excretion.
7. Movements.
8. Sensitivity.

life processes notes

Question 5. What Is oxygen required by living organisms? What is the product of its action?
Answer:

Oxygen is required by living organisms for breakdown of food sources. The reaction yields energy for various body activities. The byproduct of this activity is carbon dioxide.

Question 6. Name three life processes that are essential for maintaining life.
Answer: Nutrition, exchange of materials, irritability.

NEET Chemistry For Amines Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. Which of the following reactions will not give primary amine as the product?

Answer: 1

Question 2. Which of the following reactions is appropriate for converting acetamide to methanamine?

1. Hoffmann hypobromamide reaction
2. Stephens reaction
3. Gabriel phthalimide synthesis
4. Carbylamine reaction

Answer: 1. Hoffmann hypobromite reaction

Question 3. The method by which aniline cannot be prepared is

1. Degradation of benzamide with bromine in alkaline solution
2. Reduction of nitrobenzene with H₂/Pd in ethanol
3. Potassium salt of phthalimide treated with chlorobenzene followed by hydrolysis with aqueous NaOH solution
4. Hydrolysis of phenyhsocyamde with acidic solution

Answer: 3. Potassium salt of phthalimide treated with chlorobenzene followed by hydrolysis with aqueous NaOH solution

Aniline cannot be prepared by this method because aryl halides do not undergo nucleophilic substitution reaction with potassium phthalimide under mild conditions.

Question 4. The electrolytic reduction of nitrobenzene in a strongly acidic medium produces

1. Azobenzene
2. Aniline
3. P-aminophenol
4. Azoxybenzene.

Answer: 3. P-aminophenol

NEET Chemistry MCQs 

Question 5. In a set of reactions m-bromobenzoic acid gave a product D. Identify the product D.

Answer: 3

Question 6. Acetamide is treated with the following reagents separately. Which one of these would yield methyl amine?

1. NaOH-Br₂
2. Sodalime
3. Hot conc.H₂SO₄
4. PCl₅

Answer: 1. NaOH-Br₂

⇒ \(\mathrm{CH}_3 \mathrm{CONH}_2+4 \mathrm{NaOH}+\mathrm{Br}_2 \rightarrow \mathrm{CH}_3 \mathrm{NH}_2+2 \mathrm{NaBr}+\mathrm{Na}_2 \mathrm{CO}_3+2 \mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{O}\)

This reaction is called the Hoffmann Bromamide degradation reaction.

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Question 7. Which one of the following on reduction with lithium aluminium hydride yields a secondary amine?

1. Methyl isocyanide
2. Acetamide
3. Methyl cyanide
4. Nitroethane

Answer: 1. Methyl isocyanide

Alkyl isocyanide on reduction with lithium aluminium hydride forms a secondary amine-containing methyl as one of the acyl groups.

Question 8. In a set of reactions propionic acid yielded a compound D. \(\mathrm{CH}_3 \mathrm{CH}_2 \mathrm{COOH}\) \(\underrightarrow{\mathrm{SOCl}_2}\) B \(\underrightarrow{\mathrm{NH}_3}\) C  KOH/Br₂ D. The structure of D would be

1. \(\mathrm{CH}_3 \mathrm{CH}_2 \mathrm{NH}_2\)
2. \(\mathrm{CH}_3 \mathrm{CH}_2 \mathrm{CH}_2 \mathrm{NH}_2\)
3. \(\mathrm{CH}_3 \mathrm{CH}_2 \mathrm{CONH}_2\)
4. \(\mathrm{CH}_3 \mathrm{CH}_2 \mathrm{NHCH}_3\)

Answer: 1. \(\mathrm{CH}_3 \mathrm{CH}_2 \mathrm{NH}_2\)

In a set of reactions propionic acid yielded a compound D. \(\mathrm{CH}_3 \mathrm{CH}_2 \mathrm{COOH}\) \(\underrightarrow{\mathrm{SOCl}_2}\) B \(\underrightarrow{\mathrm{NH}_3}\) C  KOH/Br₂ D.

Question 9. Electrolytic reduction of nitrobenzene in a weakly acidic medium gives

1. N-phenylhydroxylamine
2. Nitrosobenzene
3. Aniline
4. p-hydroxyproline

Answer: 3. Aniline

Electrolytic reduction of nitrobenzene in a weakly acidic medium gives aniline but in the strongly acidic medium, it gives aminophenol through the acid-catalysed rearrangement of the initially formed phenylhydroxylamine.

NEET chemistry MCQs 

Question 10. Intermediates formed during the reaction of RCONH with Br₂ and KOH are

1. RCONHBr and RNCO
2. RNHCOBr and RNCO
3. RNH – Br and RCONHBr
4. RCONBr₂

Answer: 1. RCONHBr and RNCO

The reaction, RCONH₂ + Br₂ + KOH→ RNH₂ is known as Hoffmann bromamide degradation reaction. The mechanism of the reaction is

This reaction is used to descend the series, i.e., for preparing a lower homologue from a higher one.

Question 11. Amides may be converted into amines by a reaction named after

1. Hoffmann
2. Claisen
3. Perkin
4. Kekule.

Answer: 1. Hoffmann

This reaction is called the Hoffmannbromamide degradation reaction.

Question 12. Indicate which nitrogen compound amongst the following would undergo Hoffmann reaction (i.e. reaction with Br₂ and strong KOH) to furnish the primary amine (R-NH₂).

1. \(\mathrm{RCONHCH}_3\)
2. \(\mathrm{RCOONH}_4\)
3. \(\mathrm{RCONH}_2\)
4. \(R-\mathrm{CO}-\mathrm{NHOH}\)

Answer: 3. \(\mathrm{RCONH}_2\)

The amide (-CONH₂) group is converted into a primary amino group (-NH₂) by the Hoffman bromamide degradation reaction.

⇒ \(R \mathrm{CONH}_2+\mathrm{Br}_2+4 \mathrm{KOH}\) \(\underrightarrow{^{\Delta}}\) \(\underset{1^{\circ} \text { amine }}{R-\mathrm{NH}_2} +2 \mathrm{KBr}\) + \(\mathrm{K}_2 \mathrm{CO}_3+2 \mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{O}\)

NEET chemistry MCQs 

Question 13. Given below are two statements:

• Statement-1: Primary aliphatic amines react with HNO₂ to give unstable diazonium salts.
• Statement-2: Primary aromatic amines react with HNO₂ to form diazonium salts which are stable even above 300 K.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

1. Both statement-1 and statement-2 are correct.
2. Both statement-1 and statement-2 are incorrect.
3. Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect.
4. Statement 1 is incorrect but statement 2 is correct.

Answer: 3. Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect.

Primary aliphatic amines react with nitrous to form aliphatic diazonium salts which are unstable while aromatic amines react with nitrous acid at low temperatures (273-275 K) to form diazonium salts, a very important class of compounds used for the synthesis of a variety of aromatic compounds.

Question 14. Identify the compound that will react with Hinsberg’s reagent to give a solid which dissolves in alkali.

Answer: 4

Benzene sulphonyl chloride (C₆H₅SO₂Cl)₂ which is also known as Hinsberg’s reagent, reacts with primary amines to form sulphonamides. The hydrogen attached to nitrogen in sulphonamide is strongly acidic due to the presence of a strong electron-withdrawing sulphonyl group. Hence, it is soluble in alkali.

Amines NEET MCQs

Question 15. Which of the following amines will give the carbylamine test?

Answer: 1

Aliphatic and aromatic primary amines give an arylamine test. Secondary and tertiary amines do not show this reaction.

Question 16. The correct order of the basic strength of methyl-substituted amines in an aqueous solution is

1. \(\mathrm{CH}_3 \mathrm{NH}_2>\left(\mathrm{CH}_3\right)_2 \mathrm{NH}>\left(\mathrm{CH}_3\right)_3 \mathrm{~N}\)
2. \(\left(\mathrm{CH}_3\right)_2 \mathrm{NH}>\mathrm{CH}_3 \mathrm{NH}_2>\left(\mathrm{CH}_3\right)_3 \mathrm{~N}\)
3. \(\left(\mathrm{CH}_3\right)_3 \mathrm{~N}>\mathrm{CH}_3 \mathrm{NH}_2>\left(\mathrm{CH}_3\right)_2 \mathrm{NH}\)
4. \(\left(\mathrm{CH}_3\right)_3 \mathrm{~N}>\left(\mathrm{CH}_3\right)_2 \mathrm{NH}>\mathrm{CH}_3 \mathrm{NH}_2\)

Answer: 2. \(\left(\mathrm{CH}_3\right)_2 \mathrm{NH}>\mathrm{CH}_3 \mathrm{NH}_2>\left(\mathrm{CH}_3\right)_3 \mathrm{~N}\)

The basicity of amines in an aqueous solution depends on the stability of the ammonium cation or conjugate acid formed by accepting a proton from water which in turn depends on the + I-effect of alkyl group, the extent of hydrogen bonding and the steric factor. AII these factors are favourable for 2° amines. Therefore, 2° amines are the strongest bases.

If the alkyl group is small i.e., CH₃ then there is no steric hindrance to H-bonding. Thus, the stability due to hydrogen bonding predominates over the stability due to the +I-effect of the -CH₃, group and hence primary amine is a stronger base than 3°amine. Hence, the overall decreasing basic strength for methylamines in an aqueous solution is (CH₃)₂NH > CH₃NH₂ > (CH₃)₃N

Quetsion 17. The amine that reacts with Hinsberg’s reagent to give an alkali-insoluble product is

Answer: 1

Secondary amines on reaction with Hinsberg’s reagent give N, N-divinylbenzene sulphonamide which does not contain any hydrogen atom attached to the N atom, it is not acidic and hence, insoluble in alkali. Tertiar,v amines do not react with Hinsberg’s reagent. Primary antine gives products which are soluble in alkali.

Question 18. Nitration of aniline in a strongly acidic medium also gives m-nitroaniline because

1. In spite of substituents nitro group always goes to only the m-position
2. In electrophilic substitution reactions amino group is meta-directive
3. In the absence of substituents nitro group always goes to the m-position
4. In an acidic (strong) medium aniline is present as an anilinium ion.

Answer: 4. In an acidic (strong) medium aniline is present as an anilinium ion.

The reason for the formation of an unexpected amount of m-nitroaniline is that under strongly acidic conditions of nitration, most of the aniline is converted into anilinium ion and since, -NH₃ is a m-directing group, therefore, a large amount of m-nitroaniline is also obtained.

Amines NEET MCQs

Question 19. The correct increasing order of basic strength for the following compounds is

1. 3<1<2
2. 3<2<1
3. 2<1<3
4. 2<3<1

Answer: 3. 2<1<3

+I effect of the substituted group increases the basic strength while -I effect of the substituent decreases the basic strength of aniline.

Question 20. The correct statement regarding the basicity of arylamines is

1. Arylamines are generally more basic than alkylamines because of the aryl group
2. Arylamines are generally more basic than alkylamines because the nitrogen atom in arylamines is sp-hybridised
3. Arylamines are generally less basic than alkylamines because the nitrogen lone-pair electrons are delocalised by interaction with the aromatic ring π electron system
4. Arylamines are generally more basic than alkylamines because the nitrogen lone-pair electrons are not delocalised by interaction with the aromatic ring π-electron system.

Answer: 3. Arylamines are generally less basic than alkylamines because the nitrogen lone-pair electrons are delocalised by interaction with the aromatic ring π-electron system

In arytrarnines, one pair of electrons on a nitrogen atom is delocalised over the benzene ring and, thus, not available for donation. So, arylamines are less basic than alkylamines

Question 21. On hydrolysis of a “compound”, two compounds are obtained. One of which on treatment with sodium nitrite and hydrochloric acid gives a product which does not respond to the iodoform test. The second one reduces Tollens’ reagent and Fehling’s solution. The “compound” is

1. \(\mathrm{CH}_3 \mathrm{CH}_2 \mathrm{CH}_2 \mathrm{NC}\)
2. \(\mathrm{CH}_3 \mathrm{CH}_2 \mathrm{CH}_2 \mathrm{CN}\)
3. \(\mathrm{CH}_3 \mathrm{CH}_2 \mathrm{CH}_2 \mathrm{ON}=\mathrm{O}\)
4. \(\mathrm{CH}_3 \mathrm{CH}_2 \mathrm{CH}_2 \mathrm{CON}\left(\mathrm{CH}_3\right)_2\)

Answer: 1

HCOOH reduces Tollens’reagent and Fehling’s solution.

NEET organic chemistry questions 

Question 22. Some reactions of amines are given. Which one is not correct?

Answer: 1

Aromatic tertiary amines undergo electrophilic substitution with nitrosonium ion at the p-position of the phenyl ring to form green-coloured nitrosamines.

Quesion 23. An organic compound (C₃H₉N) (A), when treated with nitrous acid, gave an alcohol and N₂ gas was evolved. (A) on warming with CHCl₃ and caustic potash gave (C) which on reduction gave isopropylmethylamine. Predict the structure of (A).

Answer: 1

As A gives alcohol on treatment with nitrous acid thus, it should be primary amine. C₃H₉N has two possible structures with -NH₂ group.

As it gives isopropylmethylamine thus, it should be isopropyl amine, not n-propyl amine.

NEET organic chemistry questions 

Question 24. Which of the following compounds is most basic?

Answer: 2

In benzylamine, the electron pair present on the nitrogen is not delocalised with the benzene ring.

Question 25. Which of the following statements about primary amines is false?

1. Alkyl amines are stronger bases than aryl amines.
2. Alkyl amines react with nitrous acid to produce alcohols.
3. Aryl amines react with nitrous acid to produce phenols.
4. Alkyl amines are stronger bases than ammonia.

Answer: 3. Aryl amines react with nitrous acid to produce phenols.

Aryl amines react with nitrous acid to produce diazonium salts.

Question 26. Match the compounds given in List 1 with their characteristic reactions given in List 2. Select the correct option.

1. 1-B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-C
2. 1-C, 2-B, 3-A, 4-D
3. 1-B, 2-C, 3-A, 4-D
4. 1-D, 2-C, 3-A, 4-D

Answer: 3. 1-B, 2-C, 3-A, 4-D

NEET organic chemistry questions 

Question 27. Predict the product.

Answer: 4

2° aliphatic and aromatic amines react with nitrous acid to form N-nitrosamine.

Question 28. Which of the following is more basic than aniline?

1. Benzylamine
2. Diphenylamine
3. Triphenylamine
4. p-Nitroaniline

Answer: 1. Benzylamine

Any group which when present on a benzene ring has electron-withdrawing nature (-NO₂,-CN,-SO₃H, -COOH, -CI, -C₆H₅ etc) decreases the basicity of aniline example, aniline is more basic than nitroaniline, Lone pair of electrons are more delocalised in diphenylamine and triphenylamine, thus these are less basic than aniline.

In benzylamine the electron pair present on nitrogen is not delocalised with the benzene ring hence, it is more basic than aniline.

Question 29. The final product C, obtained in this reaction, would be

Answer: 3

Question 30.

NEET organic chemistry questions 

Answer: 2

‘C’ must be an isocyanide and it is obtained from a 1° amine by arylamine reaction (CHCI₃ + KOH). Further 1o amine can be obtained by the reduction of nitro compound so ‘A’ is nitrobenzene.

Question 31. Phenyl isocyanides are prepared by which of the following reaction?

1. Reimer-Tiemann reaction
2. Carbylamine reaction
3. Rosenmunds reaction
4. Wurtz reaction

Answer: 2. Carbylamine reaction

⇒ \(\mathrm{C}_6 \mathrm{H}_5-\mathrm{NH}_2+\mathrm{CHCl}_3+3 \mathrm{KOH} \rightarrow \mathrm{C}_6 \mathrm{H}_5-\mathrm{NC}+3 \mathrm{KCl}+3 \mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{O}\)

The above reaction is called the arylamine reaction, which is a specific reaction of 1-amine.

NEET chemistry practice questions 

Question 32. The compound obtained by heating a mixture of ethylamine and chloroform with ethanolic potassium hydroxide (KOH) is

1. An amide
2. An amide and nitro compound
3. An ethyl isocyanide
4. An alkyl halide.

Answer: 3. An ethyl isocyanide

Question 33. An aniline on nitration gives

Answer: 4

As NO⁺₂ electrophile can attack both ortho and para positions, therefore both (1) and (3) products will be obtained

NEET chemistry practice questions 

Question 34. The action of nitrous acid on an aliphatic primary amine gives

1. Secondary amine
2. Nitro alkane
3. Alcohol
4. Alkyl nitrite.

Answer: 3. Alcohol

R-NH₂ + HNO₂ → ROH + N₂ + H₂O

Question 35. Which one of the following orders is wrong, with respect to the property indicated?

1. Benzoic acid > phenol > cyclohexanol (add strength)
2. Aniline > cyclohexylamine > benzamide (basic strength)
3. Formic acid > acetic acid > propanoic acid (acid strength)
4. Fluoroacetic acid > chloroacetic acid > bromoacetic acid (acid strength)

Answer: 2. Aniline > cyclohexylamine > benzamide (basic strength)

Basic strength decreases as, cyclohexylamine > aniline > benzamide.

Lesser basicity in aniline and benzamide is due to the participation of a lone pair of electrons of -NH₂ group in resonance.

NEET chemistry practice questions 

Question 36. For the arylamine reaction, we need hot alcoholic KOH and

1. Any primary amine and chloroform
2. Chloroform and silver powder
3. A primary amine and an alkyl halide
4. A monoalkylamine and trichloromethane.

Answer: 1. Any primary amine and chloroform

In arylamine reaction, primary amines on heating with chloroform in the presence of alcoholic KOH form isocyanides (or carbylamines). It is used to distinguish 1° amines from 2° and 3° amines.

⇒ \(R-\mathrm{NH}_2+\mathrm{CHCl}_3+3 \mathrm{KOH} \rightarrow R \mathrm{NC}+3 \mathrm{KCl}+3 \mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{O}\)

Question 37. Which of the following will be the most stable diazonium salt RN⁺₂+X^–?

1. \(\mathrm{CH}_3 \mathrm{~N}_2^{+} \mathrm{X}^{-}\)
2. \(\mathrm{C}_6 \mathrm{H}_5 \mathrm{~N}_2^{+} X^{-}\)
3. \(\mathrm{CH}_3 \mathrm{CH}_2 \mathrm{~N}_2^{+} \mathrm{X}^{-}\)
4. \(\mathrm{C}_6 \mathrm{H}_5 \mathrm{CH}_2 \mathrm{~N}_2^{+} \mathrm{X}\)

Answer: 2. \(\mathrm{C}_6 \mathrm{H}_5 \mathrm{~N}_2^{+} X^{-}\)

Aromatic diazonium salts are more stable due to the dispersal of the positive charge in the benzene ring

Question 38. Identify the product in the following reaction

NEET chemistry chapter-wise questions 

Answer: 4

Question 39. The product formed from the following reaction sequence is

Answer: 4

NEET chemistry chapter-wise questions 

Question 40. The reagent in ‘R’ in the given sequence of a chemical reaction is

1. CuCN/KCN
2. H₂O
3. CH₃CH₂OH
4. HI

Answer: 3. CH₃CH₂OH

Question 41. A given nitrogen-containing aromatic compound ‘A’ reacts with Sn/HCl, followed by HNO₂ to give an unstable compound ‘If. ‘If, on treatment with phenol, forms a beautiful coloured compound ‘C with the molecular formula C₁₂H₁₀N₂O. The structure of compound ‘A’ is

Answer: 2

A given nitrogen-containing aromatic compound ‘A’ reacts with Sn/HCl, followed by HNO₂ to give an unstable compound ‘If. ‘If, on treatment with phenol, forms a beautiful coloured compound ‘C with the molecular formula C₁₂H₁₀N₂O.

Question 42. In the following reaction, the product (A) is

Amines objective questions NEET 

Answer: 4

Question 43. In the reaction A is

1. \(\mathrm{H}_3 \mathrm{PO}_2\) and \(\mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{O}\)
2. \(\mathrm{H}^{+} \mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{O}\)
3. \(\mathrm{HgSO}_4 \mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{SO}_4\)
4. \(\mathrm{Cu}_2 \mathrm{Cl}_2\)

Answer: 1. \(\mathrm{H}_3 \mathrm{PO}_2\) and \(\mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{O}\)

⇒ \(\mathrm{H}_3 \mathrm{PO}_2 \text { and } \mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{O} \text { reduces the }-\stackrel{+}{\mathrm{N}} 2 \mathrm{Cl}^{-} \text {to }-\mathrm{H} \text {. }\)

Question 44. Anline in a set of the following reactions yielded a coloured product Y.

Amines objective questions NEET 

Answer: 1

Quetsion 45. Aniline in a set of the following reactions yielded a coloured product D.

The structure of the product D would be

1. \(\mathrm{C}_6 \mathrm{H}_5 \mathrm{NHOH}\)
2. \(\mathrm{C}_6 \mathrm{H}_5 \mathrm{NHCH}_2 \mathrm{CH}_3\)
3. \(\mathrm{C}_6 \mathrm{H}_5 \mathrm{CH}_2 \mathrm{NH}_2\)
4. \(\mathrm{C}_6 \mathrm{H}_5 \mathrm{CH}_2 \mathrm{OH}\)

Answer: 4. \(\mathrm{C}_6 \mathrm{H}_5 \mathrm{CH}_2 \mathrm{OH}\)

Question 46. Aniline is reacted with bromine water and the resulting product is treated with an aqueous solution of sodium nitrite in the presence of dilute hydrochloric acid. The compound so formed is converted into a tetrafluoroborate which is subsequently heated to dry. The final product is

1. p-bromoaniline
2. p-bromofluorobenzene
3. 1, 3, 5-tribromobenzene
4. 2, 4, 6-tribromofluorobenzene

Answer: 4. 2, 4, 6-tribromofluorobenzene

Amines objective questions NEET 

Aniline reacts with bromine water and the resulting product is treated with an aqueous solution of sodium nitrite in dilute hydrochloric acid. The compound so formed is converted into a tetrafluoroborate which is subsequently heated to dry.

Question 47. Which one of the following nitro compounds do not react with nitrous acid?

Answer: 3

Tertiary nitroalkanes do not react with nitrous acid as they do not contain cr-hydrogen atoms.

Amines objective questions NEET 

Question 48. Nitrobenzene on reaction with cone. HNO₃/H₂SO₄ at 80-100°C forms which one of the following products?

1. 1,4-Dinitrobenzene
2. 1,2,4-Trinitrobenzene
3. 1, 2-Dinitrobenzene
4. 1, 3-Dinitrobenzene

Answer: 4. 1, 3-Dinitrobenzene

Question 49. What is the product obtained in the following reaction?

Answer: 1

Amines practice questions NEET 

Question 50. Product ‘P in the above reaction is

Answer: 2

Amines practice questions NEET 

Question 51. Which product is formed, when acetonitrile is hydrolyzed partially with cold concentrated HCl?

1. Methyl cyanide
2. Acetic anhydride
3. Acetic acid
4. Acetamide

Answer: 4. Acetamide

NEET Chemistry For Biomolecules Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. Sucrose on hydrolysis gives

1. β-D-glucose + α-D-fructose
2. α-D-glucose + β-D-glucose
3. α-D-glucose + β-D-fructose
4. α-D-fructose + β-D-fructose.

Answer: 3. α-D-glucose + β-D-fructose

In sucrose, two monosaccharides are held together by a glycosidic linkage between C-1 of α-D-glucose and C-2 of β-D-fructose.

Sucrose \(\underrightarrow{\text { Hydrolysis }}\) \(\alpha \text { – } D \text {-glucose }+\beta \text { – } D \text {-fructose }\)

Question 2. The difference between amylose and amylopectin is

1. Amylopectin have 1 → 4 α-linkage and 1 → 6 α-linkage
2. Amylose has 1 → 4 α-linkage and 1 → 6 β-linkage
3. Amylopectin have 1 →4 α-linkage and 1 → 6 β-linkage
4. Amylose is made up of glucose and galactose.

Answer: 1. Amylopectin have 1 → 4 α-linkage and 1 → 6 α-linkage

Amylose is a linear polymer of α-D-glucose held by C₁-C₄ glycosidic linkage whereas amylopectin is a branched chain polymer of α-D-glucose units in which the chain is held by C₁-C₄ glycosidic linkage while branching occurs by C₁-C₆ glycosidic linkage.

Question 3. The correct corresponding order of names of four aldoses with the configuration given below respectively, is

1. L-erythrose, L-threose, L-erythrose, D-threose
2. D-threose, D-erythrose, L-threose, L-erythrose
3. L-erythrose, L-threose, D-erythrose, D-threose
4. D-erythrose, D-threose, L-erythrose, L-threose.

Answer: 4. D-erythrose, D-threose, L-erythrose, L-threose.

Question 4. Which one given below is a non-reducing sugar?

1. Glucose
2. Sucrose
3. Maltose
4. Lactose

Answer: 2. Sucrose

All monosaccharides whether aldoses or ketoses are reducing sugars. Disaccharides such as sucrose, in which the two monosaccharide units are linked through their reducing centres, such as Le., aldehydic, or ketonic groups, are non-reducing.

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Question 5. D(+)-glucose reacts with hydroxyl amine and yields an oxime. The structure of the oxime would be

Answer: 4

Question 6. Which one of the following sets of monosaccharides forms sucrose?

1. α-D-galactopyranose and α-D-glucopyranose
2. α-D-glucopyranose and β-D-fructofuranose
3. β-D-glucopyranose and α-D-fructofuranose
4. α-D-glucopyranose and β-D- fructopyranose

Answer: 2. α-D-glucopyranose and β-D fructofuranose

Sucrose is formed by the condensation of α-D- glucopyranose and β-D-fructofuranose.

NEET biology MCQs

Question 7. Which one of the following statements is not true regarding (+)-lactose?

1. On hydrolysis (+)-lactose gives equal amounts of D(+)-glucose and D(+)-galactose.
2. (+)-Lactose is a β-glucoside formed by the union of a molecule of D(+)-glucose and a molecule of D(+)-galactose.
3. (+)-Lactose is a reducing sugar and does not exhibit mutarotation.
4. (+)-Lactose, C₁₂H₂₂O₁₁ contains 8 -OH groups

Answer: 3. (+)-Lactose is a reducing sugar and does not exhibit mutarotation.

(+)-Lactose is a reducing sugar and all reducing sugars show mutarotation.

Question 8. Which one of the following does not exhibit the phenomenon of mutarotation?

1. (+)-Sucrose
2. (+)-Lactose
3. (+)-Maltose
4. (-)-Fructose

Answer: 1. (+)-Sucrose

Sucrose does not show mutarotation.

Mutarotation is the phenomenon of change in optical rotation shown by freshly prepared solutions of sugars. However, this property is not exhibited by all sugars.

Only those sugars which have a free aldehyde (-CHO) or ketone (C=O) group aldehyde are capable of ketone of the group showing and is therefore, incapable of showing mutarotation.

Question 9. Fructose reduces Tollens reagent due to

1. Asymmetric carbons
2. Primary alcoholic group
3. Secondary alcoholic group
4. Embolisation of fructose followed by conversion to aldehyde by base.

Answer: 4. Enolisation of fructose followed by conversion to aldehyde by base.

Under alkaline conditions of the reagent, fructose gets converted into a mixture of glucose and mannose (Lobry de Bruyn van Ekenstein rearrangement) both of which contain the -CHO group and hence, reduce Tollens’reagent to give silver mirror test

Question 10. The number of chiral carbons in β-D-(+) glucose is

1. Five
2. Six
3. Three
4. Four.

Answer: 4. Four.

This structure of β-D-glucose has four asymmetric carbon atoms.

NEET biology practice questions 

Question 11. Glycolysis is

1. Oxidation of glucose to glutamate
2. Conversion of pyruvate to citrate
3. Oxidation of glucose to pyruvate
4. Conversion of glucose to haem

Answer: 3. Oxidation of glucose to pyruvate

Glycolysis is the first stage in the oxidation of glucose. It is an anaerobic process and involves the degradation of glucose into two molecules of pyruvate with the generation of two molecules of ATP.

Question 12. Cellulose is a polymer of

1. Glucose
2. Fructose
3. Ribose
4. Sucrose.

Answer: 1. Glucose

Cellulose is a straight-chain polysaccharide composed of β-D-glucose units joined by β-glycosidic linkage between C₁ of one glucose unit and C₄ of the next glucose unit.

Question 13. Which of the following gives a positive Fehling solution test?

1. Sucrose
2. Glucose
3. Fats
4. Protein

Answer: 2. Glucose

Glucose reduces Fehling solution because glucose has a free -CHO group which is readily oxidised.

Question 14. α-D-glucose and β-D-glucose are

1. Epimers
2. Anomers
3. Enantiomers
4. Diastereomers.

Answer: 2. Anomers

Glucose forms a stable hemiacetal between the -CHO group and the -OH group on the 5th carbon. In this process, the 1st ‘C’ atom becomes asymmetric giving two isomers which differ in the configuration of the asymmetric carbon. These two isomers are called anomers.

NEET biology practice questions 

Question 15. Which of the following is the sweetest sugar?

1. Fructose
2. Glucose
3. Sucrose
4. Maltose

Answer: 1. Fructose

Fructose is the sweetest among all the sugars and is highly soluble in water.

Question 16. Glucose molecule reacts with X number of molecules of phenylhydrazine to yield osazone. The value of X is (8)

1. Two
2. Three
3. Four
4. Five

Answer: 4. Five

Glucose first reacts with phenyl hydrazine giving phenylhydrazine. Then the adjacent -CHOH group is oxidized by a 2d phenyl hydrazine molecule and itself is reduced to aniline. The resulting carbonyl group reacts with 3’d phenyl hydrazine molecule giving osazone.

NEET biology practice questions 

Question 17. The oxidation of glucose is one of the most important reactions in a living cell. What is the number of ATP molecules generated in cells from one molecule of glucose?

1. 28
2. 38
3. 12
4. 18

Answer: 2. 38

The oxidation of glucose is one of the most important reactions in a living cell.

⇒ \(\mathrm{C}_6 \mathrm{H}_{12} \mathrm{O}_6+6 \mathrm{O}_2 \rightarrow 6 \mathrm{CO}_2+6 \mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{O}+38 \mathrm{ATP}\)

Question 18. The α-D-glucose and β-D-glucose differ from each other due to differences in carbon atoms with respect to its

1. Number of OH groups
2. Size of hemiacetal ring
3. Conformation
4. Configuration.

Answer: 4. Configuration.

These isomers differ only in the orientation (or configuration) of the Cl atom.

Question 19. Chemically considering digestion is basically

1. Anabolism
2. Hydrogenation
3. Hydrolysis
4. Dehydrogenation.

Answer: 3. Hydrolysis

NEET biology chapter-wise questions

Question 20. On hydrolysis of starch, we finally get

1. Glucose
2. Fructose
3. Both (1) and (2)
4. Sucrose.

Answer: 1. Glucose

Glucose is produced commercially by the hydrolysis of starch by boiling it with dil. H₂SO₄ at 393 K under pressure of 2-3 bar.

Question 21. Which of the following is a basic amino acid?

1. Serine
2. Alanine
3. Tyrosine
4. Lysine

Answer: 4. Lysine

Lysine is a basic amino acid

Question 22. The non-essential amino acids among the following is

1. Lysine
2. Valine
3. Leucine
4. Alanine.

Answer: 4. Alanine

NEET Biology chapter-wise questions

Question 23. Which structure(s) of proteins remains (s) intact during the denaturation process?

1. Both secondary and tertiary structures
2. Primary structure only
3. Secondary structure only
4. Tertiary structure only

Answer: 2. Primary structure only

During the denaturation of Proteins, 2° and 3° structures are destroyed but 1o structure remains intact.

Question 24. Which of the following compounds can form a zwitter ion?

1. Aniline
2. Acetanilide
3. Benzoic acid
4. Glycine

Answer: 4. Glycine

⇒ \(\mathrm{HOOC}-\underset{\text { Glycine }}{\mathrm{CH}_2-} \mathrm{NH}_2 \rightleftharpoons-\mathrm{OOC} \underset{\text { Zwitter ion }}{\mathrm{CH}_2}-\stackrel{+}{\mathrm{N}} \mathrm{H}_3\)

NEET Biology chapter-wise questions

Question 25. In a protein molecule, various amino acids are linked together by

1. Peptide bond
2. Dative bond
3. α-glycosidic bond
4. β-Glycosidic bond.

Answer: 1. Peptide bond

Question 26. Which of the statements about “Denaturation” given below are correct?

1. Denaturation of proteins causes loss of secondary and tertiary structures of the protein.
2. Denaturation leads to the conversion of a double strand of DNA into a single strand.
3. Denaturation affects the primary structure which gets distorted.

1. (2) and (3)
2. (1) and (3)
3. (1) and (2)
4. (1), (2) and (3)

Anbswer: 3. (1) and (2)

Denaturation does not change the primary structure of the protein.

Question 27. Which functional group participates in disulphide bond formation in proteins?

1. Thioester
2. Thioether
3. Thiol
4. Thiolactone

Answer: 3. Thiol

Disulphide bond may be reduced to thiol by means of reagents i.e., NaBH₄, which shows the presence of thiol group in disulphide bond formation.

NEET biology chapter-wise questions

Question 28. Which of the following structures represents the peptide chain?

Answer: 3

In peptide linkage i.e., – CONH – group, the carboxyl group of one amino acid molecule forms an amide by combination with the amino group of the next amino acid molecule with the liberation of a water molecule.

Question 29. The correct statement in respect to protein haemoglobin is that it

1. Functions as a catalyst for biological reactions
2. Maintains blood sugar level
3. Acts as an oxygen carrier in the blood
4. Forms antibodies and offers resistance to diseases.

Answer: 3. Acts as an oxygen carrier in the blood

Four Fe²⁺ ions of each haemoglobin can bind with four molecules of O₂ and it is carried as oxyhaemoglobin.

biomolecules objective questions NEET 

Question 30. The helical structure of protein is stabilised by

1. Dipeptide Bonds
2. Hydrogen Bonds
3. Ether Bonds
4. Peptide Bonds.

Answer: 2. Hydrogen Bonds

α-Hellt structure is formed when the chain of α-amino acids coil as a right-handed screw because of the formation of hydrogen bonds between amide groups of the same peptide chain, i.e., NH group in one unit is linked to carbonyl oxygen of the fourth unit by hydrogen bonding. This H-trending is responsible for holding the helix in a stable position.

Question 31. Which is not a true statement?

1. α-Carbon of α-amino acid is asymmetric.
2. All proteins are found in the L-form.
3. The human body can synthesise all the proteins it needs.
4. At pH = 7, both ammo and carboxylic small groups exist in ionised form.

Answer: 2. All proteins are found in L-form

Some proteins are also found in the D-form.

Quetsion 32. (peptide bond)

biomolecules objective questions NEET 

Which statement is incorrect about peptide bonds?

1. The C – N bond length in proteins is longer than the usual bond length of the N – C bond.
2. Spectroscopic analysis shows the planar structure of the   group.
3. The C – N bond length in proteins is smaller than the usual bond length of the C – N bond.
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. The C – N bond length in proteins is longer than the usual bond length of the N – C bond.

A Peptide bond is formed by the reaction of the -COOH group of one amino acid with the -NH₃ group of another amino acid and is represented as

As some double bond character is found between C-N bonds, the bond length of C-N in protein should be smaller than the usual C-N bond.

Question 33. Which is the correct statement?

1. Starch is a polymer of α-glucose.
2. Amylose is a component of cellulose.
3. Proteins are composed of only one type of amino acid.
4. In the cyclic structure of fructose, there are four carbons and one oxygen atom.

Answer: 1. Starch is a polymer of α-glucose.

Starch is also known as amylum which occurs in all green plants. A molecule of starch (C₆H₁₀O₅)_n is built of a large number of α-glucose rings joined through oxygen atoms.

biomolecules objective questions NEET 

Question 34. Haemoglobin is

1. A Vitamin
2. A Carbohydrate
3. An Enzyme
4. A Globular Protein.

Answer: 4. A Globular Protein.

Haemoglobin is a globular protein of four subunits, each subunit having a heme moiety and a polypeptide chain (Two α and two β chains).

Question 35. The secondary structure of a protein refers to

1. Regular folding patterns of continuous portions of the polypeptide chain
2. Three-dimensional structure, especially the bond between amino acid residues that are distant from each other in the polypeptide chain
3. Mainly denatured proteins and structures of prosthetic groups
4. Linear sequence of amino acid residues in the polypeptide chain.

Answer: 1. Regular folding patterns of continuous portions of the polypeptide chain

Question 36. During the process of digestion, the proteins present in food materials are hydrolysed to amino acids. The two enzymes involved in the process proteins \(\underrightarrow{\text { enzyme }(A)}\) polypeptides \(underrightarrow{\text { enzyme }(B)}\) amino acids, are respectively.

1. Invertase and zymase
2. Amylase and maltase
3. Diastase and lipase
4. Pepsin and trypsin

Answer: 4. Pepsin and trypsin

Question 37. Enzymes are made up of

1. Edible proteins
2. Proteins with specific structure
3. Nitrogen-containing carbohydrates
4. Carbohydrates.

Answer: 2. Proteins with specific structure

Biomolecules MCQs with answers NEET 

Question 38. Which of the following is correct?

1. Cycloheptane is an aromatic compound.
2. Diastase is an enzyme.
3. Acetophenone is an ether.
4. All of these.

Answer: 2. Diastase is an enzyme.

Diastase is an enzyme that hydrolyses starch into maltose

Question 39. The function of enzymes in the living system is to

1. Catalyse biochemical reactions
2. Provide energy
3. Transport oxygen
4. Provide immunity.

Answer: 1. Catalyse biochemical reactions

Question 40. Which of the following statements about enzymes is true?

1. Enzymes catalyse chemical reactions by increasing the activation energy.
2. Enzymes are highly specific both in binding chiral substrates and in catalysing their reactions.
3. Enzymes lack in nucleophilic groups.
4. Pepsin is a proteolytic enzyme.

Answer: 4. Pepsin is a proteolytic enzyme.

Biomolecules MCQs with answers NEET 

Question 41. Enzymes take part in a reaction and

1. Decrease the rate of a chemical reaction
2. Increase the rate of a chemical reaction
3. Both (1) and (2)
4. None of these.

Answer; 2. Increase the rate of a chemical reaction

Enzyrnes being a biocatalyst increases the rate of a chemical reaction by providing alternative lower activation energy pathways.

Question 42. RBC deficiency is a deficiency disease of

1. Vitamin B₂
2. Vitamin B₁₂
3. Vitamin B₆
4. Vitamin B₁

Answer: 2. Vitamin B₁₂

Anaemia is a disease in which the body does not have enough red blood cells (RBC) due to a lack of vitamin B-12. This vitamin is needed to make red blood cells.

Question 43. A deficiency of vitamin B₁ causes the disease

1. Convulsions
2. Beriberi
3. Cheilosis
4. Sterility.

Answer: 2. Beri-beri

Question 44. Which of the following is not a fat-soluble vitamin?

1. Vitamin B complex
2. Vitamin D
3. Vitamin E
4. Vitamin A

Answer: 1. Vitamin B complex

Vitamin B complex is not a fat-soluble vitamin. It is a water-soluble vitamin.

NEET biomolecules practice questions

Question 45. Which of the following vitamins is water soluble?

1. Vitamin E
2. Vitamin K
3. Vitamin A
4. Vitamin B

Answer: 4. Vitamin B

Vitamins B and C are water soluble whereas vitamins A, D, E and K are fat soluble

Question 46. The human body does not produce

1. Enzymes
2. DNA
3. Vitamins
4. Hormones.

Answer: 3. Vitamins

Certain organic substances required for regulating some of the body processes and preventing certain diseases are called vitamins, which cannot be synthesised by the human body.

Question 47. Vitamin B₁₂ contains

1. Fe (2)
2. Co (3)
3. Zn (2)
4. Ca (2)

Answer: 2. Co (3)

Vitamin B₁₂ is chemically named a cyanocobalamin having molecular formula C₆₃H₈₈O₁₄N₁₄PCo.

NEET biomolecules practice questions

Question 48. Given below are two statements.

• Statement 1: A unit formed by the attachment of a base to 1′-position of sugar is known as a nucleoside.
• Statement 2: When nucleoside is linked to phosphorous acid at the 5′-position of the sugar moiety, we get nucleotide.

In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

1. Statement 1 is true but Statement 2 is false.
2. Statement 1 is false but Statement 2 is true.
3. Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are true.
4. Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are false.

Answer: 1. Statement 1 is true but Statement 2 is false.

When nucleoside is linked to phosphoric acid (not phosphorous acid) at the 5′-position of the sugar moiety, we get nucleotide.

Question 49. The central dogma of molecular genetics states that genetic information flows from

1. Amino acids → Proteins → DNA
2. DNA → Carbohydrates → Proteins
3. DNA → RNA → Proteins
4. DNA → RNA → Carbohydrates

Answer: 3. DNA → RNA → Proteins

Genetic information flows from

DNA \(\underrightarrow{\text { Transcription }}\) RNA \(\underrightarrow{\text { Translation }}\) Proteins

NEET biomolecules practice questions

Quetsion 50. The correct statement regarding RNA and DNA, respectively is

1. The sugar component in RNA is arabinose and the sugar component in DNA is ribose
2. The sugar component in RNA is 2′-deoxyribose and the sugar component in DNA is arabinose
3. The sugar component in RNA is arabinose and the sugar component in DNA is 2′-deoxyribose
4. The sugar component in RNA is ribose and the sugar component in DNA is 2′-deoxyribose.

Answer: 4. The sugar component in RNA is ribose and the sugar component in DNA is 2′-deoxyribose.

Question 51. In DNA, the linkages between different nitrogenous bases are

1. Phosphate linkage
2. H-bonding
3. Glycosidic linkage
4. Peptide linkage.

Answer: 2. H-bonding

Nitrogenous bases are linked together by hydrogen bonds.

Question 52. The segment of DNA which acts as the instrumental manual for the synthesis of the protein is

1. Ribose
2. Gene
3. Nucleoside
4. Nucleotide.

Answer: 2. Gene

Genes are responsible for protein synthesis.

Question 53. In DNA, the complementary bases are

1. Adenine and guanine; thymine and cytosine
2. Uracil and adenine; cytosine and guanine
3. Adenine and thymine; guanine and cytosine
4. Adenine and thymine; guanine and uracil

Answer: 3. Adenine and thymine; guanine and cytosine

DNA contains two types of nitrogenous bases

Purine → Adenine (A) and guanine (G)

Pyrimidine → Cytosine (C) and thymine (T)

The purine and pyrimidine bases pair only in certain combinations. Adenine pairs with thymine (A:T) by two hydrogen bonds and guanine with cytosine (G: C) by three hydrogen bonds.

Biomolecules multiple choice questions 

Question 54. RNA and DNA are chiral molecules, their chirality is due to

1. Chiral bases
2. Chiral phosphate ester units
3. D-sugar component
4. L-sugar component.

Answer: 3. D-sugar component

The constituents of nucleic acids are nitrogenous bases, sugar and phosphoric acid. The sugar present in DNA is D(-)-2-deoxyribose and the sugar present in RNA is D(-)- ribose. Due to these D(-)-sugar components, DNA and RNA molecules are chiral molecules.

Question 55. A sequence of how many nucleotides in messenger RNA makes a codon for an amino acid?

1. Three
2. Four
3. One
4. Two

Answer: 1. Three

The four bases in mRNA: adenine, cytosine, guanine and uracil have been shown to act in the form of triplets; each triplet behaving as a code for the synthesis of a particular amino acid

Question 56. Chargaff’s rule states that in an organism

1. The amount of adenine (A) is equal to that of thymine (T) and the amount of guanine (G) is equal to that of cytosine (C)
2. The amount of adenine (A) is equal to that of guanine (G) and the amount of thymine (T) is equal to that of cytosine (C)
3. The amount of adenine (A) is equal to that of cytosine (C) and the amount of thymine(T) is equal to that of guanine (G)
4. Amounts of all bases are equal.

Answer: 1. Amount of adenine (A) is equal to that of thymine (T) and the amount of guanine (G) is equal to that of cytosine (C)

Amount of A = T and that of G = C

Question 57. Which of the following is correct about H-bonding in nucleotide?

1. A – T, G – C
2. A – G, T – C
3. G – T, A – C
4. A – A, T – T

Answer: 1. A – T, G – C

Biomolecules multiple choice questions 

Question 58. An example of a biopolymer is

1. Teflon
2. Neoprene
3. Nylon-6,6
4. DNA.

Answer: 4. DNA.

DNA is an example of a biopolymer

Question 59. The couplings between base units of DNA is through 

1. Hydrogen bonding
2. Electrostatic bonding
3. Covalent bonding
4. Van der Waal’s forces

Answer: 1. Hydrogen bonding

Question 60. Which of the following statements is not correct?

1. Ovalbumin is a simple food reserve in egg whites.
2. Blood proteins thrombin and fibrinogen are involved in blood clotting.
3. Denaturation makes the proteins more active.
4. Insulin maintains sugar levels in the blood of the human body.

Answer: 3. Denaturation makes the proteins more active.

Question 61. Which of the following hormones is produced under the conditions of stress which stimulate glycogenolysis in the liver of human beings?

1. Thyroxin
2. Insulin
3. Adrenaline
4. Estradiol

Answer: 3. Adrenaline

Adrenaline hormone helps to release fatty acids from fat and glucose from liver glycogen under the condition of stress. Hence, it is also called flight or fight hormone.

Question 62. Which of the following hormones contains iodine?

1. Testosterone
2. Adrenaline
3. Thyroxine
4. Insulin

Answer: 3. Thyroxine

Biomolecules multiple choice questions 

Question 63. Which of the following is an amine hormone?

1. Insulin
2. Progesterone
3. Thyroxine
4. Oxypurin

Answer: 3. Thyroxine

Thyroxine is an amine hormone and water-soluble hormone containing an amino group.

Question 64. Which one of the following is a peptide hormone?

1. Adrenaline
2. Glucagon
3. Testosterone
4. Thyroxine

Answer: 2. Glucagon

Glucagon is a peptide hormone, synthesised by the a-cells of the pancreas.

Question 65. The hormone that helps in the conversion of glucose to glycogen is

1. Cortisone
2. Bile acids
3. Adrenaline
4. Insulin.

Answer: 4. Insulin

Insulin is a hormone secreted by the pancreas that lowers blood glucose levels by promoting the uptake of glucose by cells and the conversion of glucose to glycogen by the liver and skeletal muscle

Biomolecules multiple choice questions 

Question 66. Which one is responsible for the production of energy in biochemical reactions?

1. Thyroxine
2. Adrenaline
3. Oestrogen
4. Progesterone

Answer: 1. Thyroxine

It is a hormone secreted from the thyroid gland. It controls various biochemical reactions involving the burning of proteins, carbohydrates, and fats to release energy.

Question 67. The cell membranes are mainly composed of

1. Fats
2. Proteins
3. Phospholipids
4. Carbohydrates.

Answer: 3. Phospholipids

Cell membranes are mainly composed of phospholipids.

Question 68. Phospholipids are esters of glycerol with

1. Three carboxylic acid residues
2. Two carboxylic acid residues and one phosphate group
3. One carboxylic acid residue and two phosphate groups
4. Three phosphate groups

Answer: 2. Two carboxylic acid residues and one phosphate group

Phospholipids may be regarded as derivatives of glycerol in which two of the hydroxy groups are esterified with fatty acids while the third is esterified with some derivatives of phosphoric acid.

Biomolecules MCQs with answers NEET 

Question 69. The number of molecules of ATP produced in the lipid metabolism of a molecule of palmitic acid is

1. 56
2. 36
3. 130
4. 86

Answer: 3. 130

In lipid metabolism, a molecule of palmitic acid (C₁₅H₃₁ – COOH) produces 130 adenosine triphosphate molecules (ATP).

NEET Chemistry For Polymers Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. Which statement regarding polymers is not correct?

1. Elastomers have polymer chains held together by weak intermolecular forces.
2. Fibres possess high tensile strength.
3. Thermoplastic polymers are capable of repeatedly softening and hardening m on heating and cooling respectively.
4. Thermosetting polymers are reusable.

Answer: 4. Thermosetting polymers are reusable.

Thermosetting polymers on heating undergo extensive cross-linking and become infusible. Hence, these cannot be reused.

Question 2. Which of the following molecules on polymerization produces neoprene?

Answer: 4

Neoprene or polychloroprene is formed by the free radical polymerisation of chloroprene.

Question 3. Which of the following polymers is prepared by addition polymerisation?

1. Dacron
2. Teflon
3. Nylon-6,6
4. Novolac

Answer: 2. Nylon-6,6

Among the given polymers tellon polymer is prepared by addition polymerisation.

Question 4. Which of the following is a natural polymer?

1. cis-1, 4-polyisoprene
2. poly (Butadiene-styrene)
3. polybutadiene
4. poly (Butadiene-acrylonitrile)

Answer: 1. cis-1, 4-polyisoprene

Read and Learn More NEET MCQs with Answers

Classification of Elements NEET MCQs 

Question 5. The polymer that is used as a substitute for wool in making commercial fibres is

1. Melamine
2. Nylon-6, 6
3. Polyacrylonitrile
4. Buna-N.

Answer: 3. Polyacrylonitrile

Question 6. Regarding cross-linked or network polymers, which of the following statements is incorrect?

1. They contain covalent bonds between various linear polymer chains.
2. They are formed from bi- and tri-functional monomers.
3. Examples are bakelite and melamine.
4. They contain strong covalent bonds in their polymer chains.

Answer: 4. They contain strong covalent bonds in their polymer chains.

Question 7. Which one of the following structures represents nylon 6, 6 polymers?

Answer: 4

Nylon-6,6 is obtained by condensing adipic acid (HOOC(CH₂)₄COOH) with hexamethylenediamine (H₂N(CH₂)₆NH₃).

Quetsion 8. Natural rubber has

1. Alternate cis- and trans-configuration
2. Random cis- and fraus-configuration
3. All cis-configuration
4. All fraus-configuration.

Answer: 3. All cis-configuration

Natural rubber is cls-polylsoprene.

Periodicity in Properties NEET questions 

Question 9. Caprolactam is used for the manufacture of

1. Teflon
2. Terylene
3. Nylon 6, 6
4. Nylon 6.

Answer: 4. Nylon 6.

Question 10. Which one of the following is an example of a thermosetting polymer?

Answer: 4

1. Neoprene rubber (elastomer)
2. PVC (thermoplastic polymer)
3. Nylon-6,6 (fibre)
4. Novolac which further undergoes cross-linking to produce bakelite (thermosetting polymer)

NEET MCQs on Classification and Periodicity 

Question 11. Which of the following organic compounds polymerizes to form the polyester dacron?

1. Propylene and para HO—(C₆H₄)—OH
2. Benzoic acid and ethanol
3. Terephthalic acid and ethylene glycol
4. Benzoic acid and para HO—(C₆H₄)—OH

Answer: 3. Terephthalic acid and ethylene glycol

Question 12. Nylon is an example of

1. Polyamide
2. Polythene
3. Polyester
4. Polysaccharide.

Answer: 1. Polyamide

Question 13. Which is the monomer of neoprene in the following?

Answer: 1

NEET MCQs on Classification and Periodicity 

Question 14. Which one of the following is not a condensation polymer?

1. Melamine
2. Glyptal
3. Dacron
4. Neoprene

Answer: 4. Neoprene

Neoprene is an additional polymer.

Question 15. Which of the following statements is false?

1. Artificial silk is derived from cellulose.
2. Nylon-6,6 is an example of an elastomer.
3. The repeat unit in natural rubber is isoprene.
4. Both starch and cellulose are polymers of glucose.

Answer: 2. Nylon-6,6 is an example of an elastomer.

Nylon-6,6 is an example of fibre.

Question 16. Of the following which one is classified as polyester polymer?

1. Terylene
2. Bakelite
3. Melamine
4. Nylon-6,6

Answer: 1. Terylene

Terylene (Dacron) is a polyester polymer because it is made by monomer units of ethylene glycol and terephthalic acid.

NEET practice questions on Periodic Table 

Question 17. Which of the following structures represents neoprene polymer?

Answer: 1

It is a polymer of chloroprene.

Question 18. Structures of some common polymers are given. Which one is not correctly presented

Answer: 1

Neoprene is a polymer of chloroprene.

The rest of the polymers are correctly represented.

Question 19. Which one of the following statements is not true?

1. Buna-S is a copolymer of butadiene and styrene.
2. Natural rubber is a 1,4-polymer of isoprene.
3. In vulcanization, the formation of sulphur bridges between different chains makes rubber harder and stronger.
4. Natural rubber has the trans-configuration at every double bond.

Answer: 4. Natural rubber has the trans-configuration at every double bond.

Natural rubber is cis-1,4-polyisoprene and has only cis-configuration about the double bond as shown below

whereas in Gutta-percha, only trans configuration exists about the double bond.

Chemistry MCQs on Periodic Classification for NEET 

Question 20. Which one of the following polymers is prepared by condensation polymerisation?

1. Teflon
2. Natural rubber
3. Styrene
4. Nylon-6,6

Answer: 4. Nylon-6,6

Nylon-6,6 is a condensation polymer of adipic acid and hexamethylenediamine.

n HOOC-(CH₂)₄-COOH + n H₂N – (CN₂)₆ – NH₂

Periodic Table quiz for NEET 

Question 21.

1. Homopolymer
2. Copolymer
3. Addition polymer
4. Thermosetting polymer.

Answer: 2. Copolymer

Formed by the condensation of adipic acid and hexamethylenediamine. It is a copolymer (a polymer made from more than one type of monomer molecule is referred to as a copolymer).

Question 22. The monomer of the polymer

Answer: 1

Question 23. Which one of the following is a chain-growth polymer?

1. Starch
2. Nucleic acid
3. Polystyrene
4. Protein

Answer: 3. Polystyrene

Chain-growth polymers involve a series of reactions each of which consumes a reactive particle and produces another similar one. The reactive particles may be free radicals or ions (cation or anion) to which monomers get added by a chain reaction. It is an important reaction of alkenes and conjugated dienes or indeed of all kinds of compounds that contain C – C double bonds.

NEET question bank on Element Classification 

Question 24. Acrilan is a hard, horny and a high melting material. Which one of the following represents its structure?

Answer: 1

Acrilan is an additional polymer of acrylonitrile.

Question 25. Monomer of

1. 2-Methylpropene
2. Styrene
3. Propylene
4. Ethene.

Answer: 1. 2-Methylpropene

Quetsion 26. Which of the following is not correctly matched?

Answer: 3

Terylene is an example of condensation po1ymer and the condensation of terephthalic and ethylene glycol.

NEET question bank on Element Classification 

Quetsion 27. CF₂ = CF₂ is the monomer of

1. Teflon
2. Orlon
3. Polythene
4. Nylon-6.

Answer: 1. Teflon

CF₂ = CF₂ is the monomer of Teflon

1. Teflon

Question 28. Which compound forms linear polymer due to H-bond?

1. H₂O
2. NH₃
3. HF
4. HCl

Answer: 3. HF

H-F—H-F—H-F—H-F

Dotted lines represent hydrogen bonds between HF molecules and hence, it is a linear polymer. Due to the high electronegativity value of ‘F’ atom, it forms effective hydrogen bonding.

NEET question bank on Element Classification 

Question 29. Natural rubber is a polymer of

1. Styrene
2. Ethyne
3. Butadiene
4. Isoprene.

Answer: 4. Isoprene.

Polyisoprene is the natural rubber, which is the polymer of isoprene.

Question 30. Terylene is a condensation polymer of ethylene glycol and

1. Salicylic acid
2. Phthalic acid
3. Benzoic acid
4. Terephthalic acid

Answer: 4. Terephthalic acid

Terylene is the condensation polymer of ethylene glycol and terephthalic acid

Question 31. Which one of the following is used to make ‘non¬stick’ cookware?

1. Polyethylene terephthalate
2. Polytetrafluoroethylene
3. PVC
4. Polystyrene

Answer: 2. Polytetrafluoroethylene

Polytetrafluoroethylene or Teflon is a tough material, resistant to heat and a bad conductor of electricity. It is used for coating the cookware to make them non-sticky

Multiple choice questions on Periodicity in Properties for NEET 

Question 32. The bakelite is prepared by the reaction between

1. Phenol and formaldehyde
2. Tetramethylene glycol
3. Urea and formaldehyde
4. Ethylene glycol.

Answer: 1. Phenol and formaldehyde

Phenol and formaldehyde undergo condensation polymerisation under two different conditions to give a cross-linked polymer called bakelite

Question 33. The biodegradable polymer is

1. Buna-5
2. Nylon-6,6
3. Nylon-2-nylon 6
4. Nylon-6.

Answer: 3. Nylon-2-nylon 6

Nylon-2-nylon-6 is a biodegradable polymer.

Multiple choice questions on Periodicity in Properties for NEET 

Question 34. Which one of the following sets forms the biodegradable polymer?

Answer: 2

Nylon-2-nylon-6 is an alternating polyamide copolymer of glycine (H₂NCH₂COOH) and aminocaproic acid (H₂N(CH₂)₂COOH) and is biodegradable

NEET Chemistry For Everyday Life Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. Some tranquilizers are listed below. Which one of the following belongs to barbiturates?

1. Valium
2. Veronal
3. Chlordiazepoxide
4. Meprobamate

Answer: 2. Veronal

Veronal tranquilizer belongs to barbiturates

Question 2. Match List-1 with List-2

correct answer from the options given below:

1. 1-C, 2-B, 3-D, 4-A
2. 1-C, 2-D, 3-B, 4-A
3. 1-A, 2-D, 3-B, 4-C
4. 1-D, 2-C, 3-A, 4-B

Answer: 2. 1-C, 2-D, 3-B, 4-A

Question 3. Given below are two statements:

Statement 1: Aspirin and Paracetamol belong to the class of narcotic analgesics.

Statement 2: Morphine and Heroin are non-narcotic analgesics.

In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

1. Statement 1 is incorrect but statement 2 is true.
2. Both statement 1 and statement 2 are true.
3. Both statement 1 and statement 2 are false.
4. Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is false.

Answer: 3. Both statement 1 and statement 2 are false.

Read and Learn More NEET MCQs with Answers

Aspirin and paracetamol belong to the class of non-narcotic analgesics, while morphine and many of its homologs like heroin belong to the class of narcotic analgesics.

NEET questions on Chemistry in Everyday Life 

Question 4. Among the following, the narrow-spectrum antibiotic is

1. Chloramphenicol
2. Penicillin G
3. Ampicillin
4. Amoxycillin.

Answer: 2. Penicillin G

Penicillin G has a narrow spectrum. Chloramphenicol is a broad-spectrum antibiotic. Ampicillin and amoxicillin are synthetic modifications of penicillins. These have a broad spectrum.

Question 5. A mixture of chloroxylenol and terpineol acts as

1. Antiseptic
2. Antipyretic
3. Antibiotic
4. Analgesic.

Answer: 1. Antiseptic

Dettol which is a well-known antiseptic is a mixture of chloroxylenol and α-terpineol in a suitable solvent

Question 6. Which of the following is an analgesic?

1. Streptomycin
2. Chloromycetin
3. Novalgin
4. Penicillin

Answer: 3. Novalgin

Streptomycin, chloromycetin, and penicillin are antibiotics while novalgin is an analgesic.

Question 7. Bithional is generally added to the soaps as an additive to function as an

1. Buffering agent
2. Antiseptic
3. Softener
4. Dryer.

Answer: 2. Antiseptic

Chemistry in Everyday Life multiple choice NEET 

Question 8. Antiseptics and disinfectants either kill or prevent the growth of microorganisms. Identify which of the following statements is not true.

1. Dilute solutions of boric acid and hydrogen peroxide are strong antiseptics.
2. Disinfectants harm the living tissues.
3. A 0.2% solution of phenol is an antiseptic while 1% solution acts as a disinfectant.
4. Chlorine and iodine are used as strong disinfectants.

Answer: 1. Dilute solutions of boric acid and hydrogen peroxide are strong antiseptics.

Antiseptics and disinfectants either kill or prevent the growth of microorganisms.

Dilute solutions of boric acid and hydrogen peroxide are weak antiseptics.

Question 9. Dettol is a mixture of

1. Chloroxylenol and bithionol
2. Chloroxylenol and terpineol
3. Phenol and iodine
4. Terpineol and bithionol.

Answer: 2. Chloroxylenol and terpineol

Dettol is a mixture of chloroxylenol and α-terpineol.

Question 10. Chloramphenicol is an

1. Antifertility drug
2. Antihistamine
3. Antiseptic and disinfectant
4. Antibiotic-broad spectrum.

Answer: 4. Antibiotic-broad spectrum.

Question 11. Which one of the following is employed as Antihistamine?

1. Chloramphenicol
2. Diphenhydramine
3. Norethindrone
4. Omeprazole

Answer: 2. Diphenhydramine

Diphenylhydramine is employed as an antihistamine drug.

NEET practice questions Chemistry in Everyday Life 

Question 12. Which one of the following is employed as a tranquilizer drug?

1. Promethazine
2. Valium
3. Naproxen
4. Mifepristone

Answer: 2. Valium

Vaiium is a tranquilizer.

Question 13. Which one of the following is employed as a tranquilizer?

1. Naproxen
2. Tetracycline
3. Chlorpheniramine
4. Equanil

Answer: 4. Equanil

Equanil is used for the treatment of stress, and mild and severe mental diseases i.e., as a tranquilizer.

Question 14. Chloropicrin is obtained by the reaction of

1. Steam on carbon tetrachloride
2. Nitric acid on chlorobenzene
3. Chlorine on picric acid
4. Nitric acid on chloroform.

Asnwer: 4. Nitric acid on chloroform.

When chloroform is treated with concentrated nitric acid, its hydrogen is replaced by nitro group.

⇒ \(\mathrm{CHCl}_3+\mathrm{HONO}_2 \rightarrow \underset{\text { Chloropicrin }}{\mathrm{CNO}_2 \mathrm{Cl}_3}+\mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{O}\)

Question 15. Aspirin is an acetylation product of

1. m-hyd hydroxybenzoic acid
2. o-dihydroxybenzene
3. o-hydroxybenzoic acid
4. p-dihydroxybenzene.

Answer: 3. o-hydroxybenzoic acid

Aspirin is acetylsalicylic acid, which is formed by the acetylation of o-hydroxybenzoic acid.

Chemistry MCQs Chemistry in Everyday Life NEET 

Question 16. Which of the following can possibly be used as an analgesic without causing addiction and mood modification?

1. Diazepam
2. Tetrahydrocatinol
3. Morphine
4. N-Acetyl-para-aminophenol.

Answer: 4. N-Acetyl-para-aminophenol.

N-acetyl-para-aminophenol (or paracetamol) is an antipyretic that can also be used as an analgesic to relieve pain without addiction and mood modification.

Question 17. Which one of the following statements is not true?

1. Ampicillin is a natural antibiotic.
2. Aspirin is both analgesic and antipyretic.
3. Sulphadiazine is a synthetic antibacterial drug.
4. Some disinfectants can be used as antiseptics.

Answer: 1. Ampicillin is a natural antibiotic.

Ampicillin is a modification of penicillin and thus is a synthetic antibiotic.

Question 18. Diazo coupling is useful for preparing some

1. Pesticides
2. Dyes
3. Proteins
4. Vitamins.

Answer: 2. Dyes

Azo dyes are derived by coupling of a phenol adsorbed on the surface of a fabric with a diazonium salt. Dyes can be prepared by diazo coupling. For example,

Question 19. The artificial sweetener is stable at cooking temperature and does not provide calories is

1. Saccharin
2. Aspartame
3. Sucralose
4. Alitame.

Answer: 3. Sucralose

Sucralose is a trichloro derivative of sucrose. Its appearance and taste is like sugar. It is stable at cooking temperature and it does not provide calories.

Chemistry in Everyday Life quiz for NEET 

Question 20. Artificial sweeteners which are stable under cold conditions only is

1. Saccharine
2. Sucralose
3. Aspartame
4. Alitame.

Answer: 3. Aspartame

Aspartame is stable under cold conditions and unstable at cooking temperatures.

Question 21. Which of the following is a cationic detergent?

1. Sodium lauryl sulphate
2. Sodium stearate
3. Cetyl trimethyl ammonium bromide
4. Sodium dodecylbenzene sulphonate

Asnwer: 3. Cetyltrimethyl ammonium bromide

Cetyltrimethyl ammonium bromide is a. cationic detergent.

NEET MCQs on Chemistry in Everyday Life 

Question 22. Which of the following forms cationic micelles above a certain concentration?

1. Sodium dodecyl sulphate
2. Sodium acetate
3. Urea
4. Cetyltrimethylammonium bromide

Answer: 4. Cetyltrimethylammonium bromide

Cefyltrimethylammonium bromide is a popular cationic detergent.

NEET Chemistry For Aldehydes Ketones And Carboxylic Acids Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. The intermediate compound X in the following chemical reaction is

Answer: 2

Question 2. Identify compound X in the following sequence of reactions:

Answer: 3

NEET chemistry MCQs

Question 3. Reaction by which benzaldehyde cannot be prepared

Answer: 2

Clemmensen reduction in the presence of Zn-Hg and con. HCl reduces aldehydes and ketones to -CH₂ group but the carboxylic acid group remains unaffected.

Question 4. Consider the following reaction.

The product A is

Answer: 1

It is Rosenmund’s reduction.

Question 5. Which one of the following can be oxidised to the corresponding carbonyl compound?

1. 2-Hydroxypropane
2. Ortho-Nitrophenol
3. Phenol
4. 2-Methyl-2-hydroxy-propane

Answer: 1. 2-Hydroxypropane

Read and Learn More NEET MCQs with Answers

Question 6. In the following reaction, product P is

1. RCH₂OH
2. RCOOH
3. RCHO
4. RCH₃

Answer: 3. RCHO

This is Rosenmund reduction

Question 7. Which alkene on ozonolysis gives CH₃CH₂CHO and CH₃COCH₃?

Answer: 1

Question 8.

1. Acetaldehyde
2. Ethanolamine
3. Acetone
4. Dimethylamine.

Answer: 1. Acetaldehyde

Question 9. Ketones [RCOR₁] where R = R₁ = alkyl group. It can be obtained in one step by

1. Oxidation of tertiary alcohol
2. Reaction of acid halide with alcohols
3. Hydrolysis of esters
4. Oxidation of primary alcohol.

Answer: 1. Oxidation of tertiary alcohol

A tertiary alcohol is difficult to oxidise. But when it is treated with an acidic oxidising agent under some conditions, it is oxidised to ketone and then to acids. Both the ketone and acid contain a lesser number of carbon atoms than the starting alcohol.

Question 10. The oxidation of toluene to benzaldehyde by chromyl chloride is called

1. Etard reaction
2. Riemer-Tiemann reaction
3. Wurtz reaction
4. Cannizzaro’s reaction.

Answer: 1. Etard reaction

The oxidation of toluene (C₆H₅CH₃) with chromyl chloride (CrO₂Cl₂) in CCl₄ or CS₂ to give benzaldehyde is called the Etard reaction. In this reaction, the chromyl chortle first forms a brown complex, which is separated and then decomposed with H₂O to give benzaldehyde (C₆H₅CHO).

Question 11. Given below are two statements:

• Statement-1: The boiling points of aldehydes and ketones are higher than hydrocarbons of comparable molecular masses because of weak molecular association in aldehydes and ketones due to dipole-dipole interactions.
• Statement 2: The boiling points of aldehydes and ketones are lower than the alcohols of similar molecular masses due to the absence of H-bonding. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

1. Both statement-1 and statement-2 are correct.
2. Both statement-1 and statement-2 are incorrect.
3. Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect.
4. Statement 1 is incorrect but statement 2 is correct.

Answer: 1. Both statement 1 and statement 2 are correct.

Both the given statements are correct.

Question 12. Identify the product (A) in the following reaction

Answer: 3

This is the Ciemmensen reduction reaction.

Question 13. Identify the product [D] obtained in the following sequence of reactions.

Answer: 3

NEET organic chemistry questions 

Question 14. Identify the major product obtained in the following reaction.

Answer: 1

Question 15. Match the List 1 with List 2.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. 1-C, 2-D, 3-B, 4-A
2. 1-B, 2-C, 3-D, 4-A
3. 1-A, 2-C, 3-B, 4-D
4. 1-D, 2-C, 3-B, 4-A

Answer: 4. 1-C, 2-D, 3-B, 4-A

• Aldehydes react with HCN to give cyanohydrin.
• Aldehydes react with alcohol to form acetal.
• Aldehydes react with amine to give Schifft base.
• Aldehydes react with NH₂OH to give oxime.

Question 16. Which one of the following is not formed when acetone reacts with 2-pentanone in the presence of dilute NaOH followed by heating?

Answer: 2

When acetone reacts with 2-pentanone in the presence of dii. NaOH, the following products are formed

NEET organic chemistry questions 

Question 17. What is the IUPAC name of the organic compound formed in the following chemical reaction?

1. 2-Methylbutan-2-ol
2. 2-Methylpropan-2-ol
3. Pentan-2-ol
4. Pentan-3-ol

Answer: 1. 2-Methylbutan-2-ol

Question 18. The reaction between benzaldehyde and acetophenone in the presence of dilute NaOH is known as

1. Aldol condensation
2. Cannizzaros reaction
3. Cross Cannizzaros reaction
4. Cross Aldol condensation.

Answer: 4. Cross Aldol condensation.

Cross aldol condensation

Question 19. Consider the reactions,

Identify A, X, Y and Z.

1. A-Methoxymethane, X-Ethanol, Y-Ethanoic acid, Z-Semicarbazide.
2. A-Ethanal, X-Ethanol, Y-But-2-enal, Z-Semicarbazone.
3. A-Ethanol, X-Acetaldehyde, Y-Butanone, Z- Hydrazone.
4. A-Methoxymethane, X-Ethanoic acid, Y-Acetate ion, Z-Hydrazine.

Answer: 2. A-Ethanal, X-Ethanol, Y-But-2-enal, Z-Semicarbazone.

Since A gives a silver mirror test, it must be an aldehyde and aldehydes are formed by oxidation of 1° alcohols’ Thus, ‘X’ is a 1° alcohol, i.e., CH₃CH₂OH.

Question 20. Of the following, which is the product formed when cyclohexanone undergoes aldol condensation followed by heating?

Answer: 1

Question 21. The correct structure of the product ‘A’ formed in the reaction

Answer: 2

C = C bond is reduced faster than C = O bond with H₂(Pd-C).

Question 22. Which of the following reagents would distinguish ds-cyclopenta-1,2-diol from the trans-isomer?

1. MnO₂
2. Aluminium isopropoxide
3. Acetone
4. Ozone

Answer: 3. Acetone

Trans-isomer does not react with acetone

Question 23. The correct statement regarding a carbonyl compound with a hydrogen atom on its alpha-carbon is

1. A carbonyl compound with a hydrogen atom on its alpha-carbon rapidly equilibrates with its corresponding enol and this process is known as carbonylation
2. A carbonyl compound with a hydrogen atom on its alpha-carbon rapidly equilibrates with its corresponding enol and this process is known as keto-enol tautomerism
3. A carbonyl compound with a hydrogen atom on its alpha-carbon never equilibrates with its corresponding enol
4. A carbonyl compound with a hydrogen atom on its alpha-carbon rapidly equilibrates with its corresponding enol and this process is known as aldehyde-ketone equilibration.

Answer: 2. A carbonyl compound with a hydrogen atom on its alpha-carbon rapidly equilibrates with its corresponding enol and this process is known as keto-enol tautomerism

Keto-enol tautomerism

Question 24. The product formed by the reaction of an aldehyde with a primary amine is

1. Carboxylic acid
2. Aromatic acid
3. Schiff’sbase
4. Ketone.

Answer: 3. Schiff’sbase

Question 25. Reaction of a carbonyl compound with one of the following reagents involves nucleophilic addition followed by elimination of water. The reagent is

1. Hydrazine in the presence of a feebly acidic solution
2. Hydrocyanic acid
3. Sodium hydrogen sulphite
4. A Grignard reagent.

Answer: 1. Hydrazine in the presence of a feebly acidic solution

Carbonyl compounds react with ammonia derivatives in the weakly acidic medium as follows

Question 26. Which one is most reactive towards nucleophilic addition reaction?

Answer: 4

Aromatic aldehydes are more reactive than alkyl aryl ketones. The electron withdrawing group (-NO₂) increases the reactivity towards nucleophilic addition reactions whereas the electron donating group (-CH₃) decreases the reactivity towards nucleophilic addition reactions.

Therefore, the order is

NEET organic chemistry questions 

Question 27. The order of stability of the following tautomeric compounds is

1. 2>1>3
2. 2>3>1
3. 1>2>3
4. 3>2>1

Answer: 4. 3>2>1

Question 28. Predict the products in the given reaction.

Answer: 3

Aldehyde having no α,-hydrogen atoms on heating with concentrated alkali solution (50%) undergoes Cannizzaro’s reaction.

Question 29. Acetone is treated with excess ethanol in the presence of hydrochloric acid. Hie product obtained is

Answer: 4

Question 30. CH₃CHO and C₆H₅CH₂CHO can be distinguished chemically by

1. Benedict’s test
2. Iodoform test
3. Tollens’ reagent test
4. Fehling’s solution test.

Answer: 2. Iodoform test

Acetaldehyde acetone and methyl ketones having CH₃CO- group undergo a haloform reaction. Thus CH₃CHO will give a yellow precipitate with I₂ and NaOH but C₆H₅CH₂CHO will not.

NEET organic chemistry questions 

Question 31. Consider the reaction  RCHO + NH₂NH₂ → RCH=N — NH₂ What sort of reaction is it?

1. Electrophilic addition-elimination reaction
2. Free radical addition-elimination reaction
3. Electrophilic substitution-elimination reaction
4. Nucleophilic addition-elimination reaction

Answer: 4. Nucleophilic addition-elimination reaction

Question 32. Which of the following compounds will give a yellow precipitate with iodine and alkali?

1. Acetophenone
2. Methyl acetate
3. Acetamide
4. 2-Hydroxypropane

Answer: 1. Acetophenone and 4. 2-Hydroxypropane

This example shows the iodoform reaction.

The compound with the group will give a yellow precipitate of iodoform (CH₃) when reacting with iodine and alkali.

Question 33. Clemmensen reduction of a ketone is carried out in the presence of which of the following?

1. Glycol with KOH
2. Zn-Hg with HCl
3. LiAIH₄
4. H₂ and Pt as catalyst

Answer: 2. Zn-Hg with HCl

The Carbonyl group is reduced to -CH₂ group when treated with amalgamated zinc and conc. HCI. This process is called Clemmensent reduction.

Question 34. The order of reactivity of phenyl magnesium bromide (PhMgBr) with the following compounds :

1. 3>2>1
2. 2>1>3
3. 1>3>2
4. 1>2>3

Answer: 4. 1>2>3

The greater the number of alkyl/phenyl groups attached to the carbonyl groups lower its reactivity 1 > 2 > 3. +R-effect is stronger than +I-effect

Question 35. Which of the following reactions will not result in the formation of carbon-carbon bonds?

1. Reimer-Tiemann reaction
2. Cannizzaro reaction
3. Wurtz reaction
4. Friedel-Crafts acylation

Answer: 2. Cannizzaro reaction

From the above examples, it is evident that C-C bond formation does not take place in the Cannizzaro reaction.

NEET chemistry practice questions 

Question 36. Which one of the following compounds will be most readily dehydrated?

Answer: 3

The ease of dehydration of the given compounds can be explained on the basis of the stability of the carbocation formed. In the case of options (1), (2) and (4), a secondary carbocation is formed but the presence of an electron-withdrawing group adjacent to the positively charged carbon, intensifies the charge and hence, destabilises the species.

However, in the case of option (3), a secondary carbocation is formed, but the electron-withdrawing group is present farther away, as a result, the effect of this group is diminished and hence, the carbocation is relatively more stable

Question 37. The following compounds are given,

Which of the above compound(s), on being warmed with iodine solution and NaOH, will give iodoform?

1. 1, 3 and 4
2. Only 2
3. 1, 2 and 3
4. 1 and 2

Answer: 3. 1, 2 and 3

Compounds with  give positive iodoform hence, (1), (2) and (3) will give positive iodoform not (4).

Question 38. Acetophenone when reacted with a base, C₂H₅ONa, yields a stable compound which has the structure

Answer: 3

The first step is a simple condensation reaction. The last step is an example of the E1cB mechanism and the leaving group is hydroxide, which is unusual. Still, this step manages to take place owing to the stability incorporated therein the product, which is a conjugated carbonyl compound.

Question 39. A strong base can abstract an α-hydrogen from

1. Ketone
2. Alkane
3. Alkene
4. Amine.

Answer: 1. Ketone

The base (OH^–) ion removes one of the α-hydrogen atoms (which is somewhat acidic) from aldehydes and ketones to form a carbanion or the enolate ion. The acidity of a-hydrogen is due to resonance stabilization of enolate anion.

NEET chemistry practice questions 

Question 40. Reduction of aldehydes and ketones into hydrocarbons using zinc amalgam and cone. HCl is called

1. Cope reduction
2. Dow reduction
3. Wolff-Kishner reduction
4. Clemmensen reduction.

Answer: 4. Clemmensen reduction.

Aldehydes and ketones are converted to alkanes when treated with zinc amalgam and conc. HCl. This is known as Clemmensen reduction. Here group is reduced to the group.

Question 41. Which one of the following on treatment with 50% aqueous sodium hydroxide yields the corresponding alcohol and acid?

Answer: 1

Aldehydes which do not have α-H atoms, in the presence of 50% NaOH or 50% KOH undergo a disproportionation reaction to produce alcohol and sodium salt of the acid. This reaction is known as Cantizzaro reaction. C₆H₅CHO containing no α-H atom undergoes the Canrtizzaro reaction to produce benzyl alcohol and sodium benzoate.

⇒ \(\mathrm{C}_6 \mathrm{H}_5 \mathrm{CHO}\) \(\underrightarrow{50 \% \mathrm{NaOH}}\) \(\mathrm{C}_6 \mathrm{H}_5 \mathrm{CH}_2 \mathrm{OH}+\mathrm{C}_6 \mathrm{H}_5 \mathrm{COONa}\)

Question 42. The product formed in aldol condensation is

1. A beta-hydroxy aldehyde or a beta-hydroxy ketone
2. An alpha-hydroxy aldehyde or ketone
3. An alpha, beta-unsaturated ester
4. A beta-hydroxy acid.

Answer: 1. A beta-hydroxy aldehyde or a beta-hydroxy ketone

The aldehydes or ketones containing α-H atom in the presence of dilute alkali undergo a self-condensation reaction to form β-hydroxyaldehyde or β-hydroxyketone. This reaction is known as aldol condensation.

Question 43. Nucleophilic addition reaction will be most favoured in

Answer: 1

NEET chemistry practice questions 

Question 44. A carbonyl compound reacts with hydrogen cyanide to form cyanohydrin which on hydrolysis forms a racemic mixture of a-hydroxy acid. The carbonyl compound is

1. Formaldehyde
2. Acetaldehyde
3. Acetone
4. Diethyl ketone.

Answer: 2

Given

A carbonyl compound reacts with hydrogen cyanide to form cyanohydrin which on hydrolysis forms a racemic mixture of a-hydroxy acid.

Question 45. The major organic product formed from the following reaction:

Answer: 2

Question 46. In this reaction, an asymmetric centre is generated. The acid obtained would be

⇒ \(\mathrm{CH}_3 \mathrm{CHO}+\mathrm{HCN}\rightarrow \mathrm{CH}_3 \mathrm{CH}(\mathrm{OH}) \mathrm{CN}\) \(\underrightarrow{\mathrm{HOH}}\) \(\mathrm{CH}_3 \mathrm{CH}(\mathrm{OH}) \mathrm{COOH}\)

An asymmetric centre is generated. The acid obtained would be

1. D-isomer
2. L-isomer
3. 50% D + 50% L-isomer
4. 20% D + 80% L-isomer.

Answer: 3. 50% D + 50% L-isomer

Lactic acid (CH₃CH(OH)COOH) is an optically active compound due to the presence of an asymmetric carbon atom. It exists, in D- and L-form, the ratio of which is found to be (1: 1), i.e., a racemic mixture is obtained.

NEET chemistry chapter-wise questions 

Question 47. When m-chlorobenzaldehyde is treated with 50% KOH solution, the product(s) obtained is (are)

Answer: 2

The above reaction is known as Cannizzaro’s reaction.

Question 48. A and B in the following reactions are 

Answer: 4

Aldehydes ketones carboxylic acids NEET MCQs 

Question 49. are

1. Resonating structures
2. Tautomers
3. Geometrical isomers
4. Optical isomers.

Answer: 1. Resonating structures

They are resonating forms because the position of the atomic nuclei remains the same and only electron redistribution has occurred.

Question 50. Which of the following is incorrect?

1. FeCl₃ is used in the detection of phenol.
2. Fehling solution is used in the detection of glucose.
3. Tollens reagent is used in the detection of unsaturation.
4. NaHSO₃ is used in the detection of carbonyl compounds.

Answer: 3. Tollens reagent is used in the detection of unsaturation.

Tollens reagent is a solution of ammoniacal silver nitrate and is used for the detection of -CHO group. Aldehydes reduce Tollens reagent and get oxidised to convert Ag⁺ ions to Ag powder which forms the silver-coloured mirror in the test tube. So, this test is also known as the silver mirror test.

⇒ \(R-\mathrm{CHO}+\left[\mathrm{Ag}\left(\mathrm{NH}_3\right)_2\right]^{+} \rightarrow R-\mathrm{COO}^{-}+\mathrm{Ag}\)

Question 51. Polarisation in acrolein can be described as

Answer: 4

O-atom is more electronegative than C-atom, therefore O-atom bears a partial -ve charge and C-atom to which it is attached bears a partial +ve charge.

Question 52. The first product of the reaction between PCHO and NH₂NH₂ is

1. \(\mathrm{RCH}=\mathrm{NNH}_2\)
2. \(\mathrm{RCH}=\mathrm{NH}\)
3. \(\mathrm{RCH}_2 \mathrm{NH}_2\)
4. \(\mathrm{RCON}_3\)

Answer: 1. \(\mathrm{RCH}=\mathrm{NNH}_2\)

It is a simple condensation reaction which proceeds with the elimination of water.

Aldehydes ketones carboxylic acids NEET MCQs 

Quetsion 53. An ester (A) with the molecular formula, C₉H₁₀O₂ was treated with an excess of CH₃MgBr and the complex so formed, was treated with H₂SO₄ to give an olefin(B). Ozonolysis of (B) gave a ketone with molecular formula C₈H₈O which shows +ve iodoform test. The structure of (A) is

1. \(\mathrm{H}_3 \mathrm{CCH}_2 \mathrm{COC}_6 \mathrm{H}_5\)
2. \(\mathrm{C}_2 \mathrm{H}_5 \mathrm{COOC}_6 \mathrm{H}_5\)
3. \(\mathrm{C}_6 \mathrm{H}_5 \mathrm{COOC}_2 \mathrm{H}_5\)
4. \(p-\mathrm{H}_3 \mathrm{CO}-\mathrm{C}_6 \mathrm{H}_4-\mathrm{COCH}_3\)

Answer: 3. \(\mathrm{C}_6 \mathrm{H}_5 \mathrm{COOC}_2 \mathrm{H}_5\)

An ester (A) with the molecular formula, C₉H₁₀O₂ was treated with an excess of CH₃MgBr and the complex so formed, was treated with H₂SO₄ to give an olefin(B). Ozonolysis of (B) gave a ketone with molecular formula C₈H₈O which shows +ve iodoform test.

Question 54. The iodoform test is not given by

1. Ethanal
2. Ethanol
3. 2-Pentanone
4. 3-Pentanone.

Answer: 4. 3-Pentanone.

Compounds containing  group show iodoform test.

So iodoform test is not given by 3-pentanone.

Question 55. Phenylmethanol can be prepared by reducing the benzaldehyde with

1. CH₃Br and Na
2. CH₃I and Mg
3. CH₃Br
4. Zn and HCl

Answer: 4. Zn and HCl

Aldehydes ketones carboxylic acids NEET MCQs 

Question 56. The oxidation of toluene with CrO₃ in the presence of (CH₃CO)₂O gives a product A, which on treatment with aqueous NaOH produces

1. \(\mathrm{C}_6 \mathrm{H}_5 \mathrm{COONa}\)
2. 2,4-diacetyl toluene
3. \(\mathrm{C}_6 \mathrm{H}_5 \mathrm{CHO}\)
4. \(\left(\mathrm{C}_6 \mathrm{H}_5 \mathrm{CO}\right)_2 \mathrm{O}\)

Answer: 1. \(\mathrm{C}_6 \mathrm{H}_5 \mathrm{COONa}\)

Question 57. When aniline reacts with the oil of bitter almonds (C₆H₅CHO) condensation takes place and a benzal derivative is formed. This is known as

1. Schiffs base
2. Benedicts reagent
3. Millon’sbase
4. Schiff’s reagent

Answer: 1. Schiff base

Benzaldehyde reacts with primary aromatic amines to form Schiff’s base (Benzylidene aniline)

Question 58. Compound A has a molecular formula C₂Cl₃OH. It reduces Fehling’s solution and on oxidation, it gives a monocarboxylic acid B. If A is obtained by the action of chlorine on ethyl alcohol, then compound A is

1. Methyl chloride
2. Monochloroacetic acid
3. Chloral
4. Chloroform

Answer: 3. Chloral

Compound A has a molecular formula C₂Cl₃OH. It reduces Fehling’s solution and on oxidation, it gives a monocarboxylic acid B. If A is obtained by the action of chlorine on ethyl alcohol,

The compound ‘A’ reduces Fehling’s solution thus, it must have a free -CHO group.

Thus, the compound A is chloral.

Aldehydes ketones carboxylic acids MCQs 

Question 59. Which of the following compounds will undergo self-aldol condensation in the presence of cold dilute alkali?

1. \(\mathrm{CH} \equiv \mathrm{C}-\mathrm{CHO}\)
2. \(\mathrm{CH}_2=\mathrm{CHCHO}\)
3. \(\mathrm{C}_6 \mathrm{H}_5 \mathrm{CHO}\)
4. \(\mathrm{CH}_3 \mathrm{CH}_2 \mathrm{CHO}\)

Answer: 4. \(\mathrm{CH}_3 \mathrm{CH}_2 \mathrm{CHO}\)

Since CH₃CH₂CHO has an α-hydrogen atom, therefore it will undergo aldol condensation in the presence of cold dilute alkali.

Question 60. Which of the following compounds will give a positive test with Tollens reagent?

1. Acetic acid
2. Acetone
3. Acetamide
4. Acetaldehyde

Answer: 4. Acetaldehyde

Acetaldehyde reduces Toiiens’ reagent to the silver mirror.

Question 61. (CH₃)₂C = CHCOCH₃ can be oxidised to (CH₃)₂C = CHCOOH by

1. Chromic acid
2. NaOI
3. Cu at 300°C
4. KMnO₄

Answer: 2. NaOI

⇒ \(\left(\mathrm{CH}_3\right)_2 \mathrm{C}=\mathrm{CHCOCH}_3\) \(\underrightarrow{\mathrm{NaOI}}\) \(\left(\mathrm{CH}_3\right)_2 \mathrm{C}=\mathrm{CHCOOH}+\mathrm{CHI}_3\)

(NaOH + I₂)/NaOI is the most suitable reagent for the given reaction.

Question 62. In which of the following, the number of carbon atoms does not remain the same when carboxylic acid is obtained by oxidation?

1. \(\mathrm{CH}_3 \mathrm{COCH}_3\)
2. \(\mathrm{CCl}_3 \mathrm{CH}_2 \mathrm{CHO}\)
3. \(\mathrm{CH}_3 \mathrm{CH}_2 \mathrm{CH}_2 \mathrm{OH}\)
4. \(\mathrm{CH}_3 \mathrm{CH}_2 \mathrm{CHO}\)

Answer: 1. \(\mathrm{CH}_3 \mathrm{COCH}_3\)

Ketones on oxidation give carboxylic acids with lesser number of carbon atoms i.e \(\mathrm{CH}_3 \mathrm{COCH}_3\) \(\underrightarrow{[\mathrm{O}]}\) \(\mathrm{CH}_3 \mathrm{COOH}+\mathrm{CO}_2+\mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{O}\)

Aldehydes ketones carboxylic acids MCQs 

Question 63. Acetaldehyde reacts with

1. Electrophiles only
2. Nucleophiles only
3. Free radicals only
4. Both electrophiles and nucleophiles.

Answer: 2. Nucleophiles only

Question 64. The reagent which can be used to distinguish acetophenone from benzophenone is

1. 2,4-dinitrophenylhydrazine
2. Aqueous solution of NaHSO₃
3. Benedict reagent
4. I₂ and NaoH

Answer: 4. I₂ and NaoH

Acetophenone reacts with NaOH and I₂ to give yellow ppt. of CHI₃ but benzophenone (C₆H₅COC₆H₅) does not. Hence, it can be used to distinguish between them.

Question 65. The above-shown polymer is obtained when a carbonyl compound is allowed to stand. It is a white solid. The polymer is

1. Trioxane
2. Formose
3. Paraformaldehyde
4. Metaldehyde.

Answer: 1. Trioxane

Question 66. The given compound describes a condensation polymer which can be obtained in two ways: either by treating 3 molecules of acetone (CH₃COCH₃) with cone. H₂SO₄ or passing propyne (CH₃C ≡ CH) through a red hot tube. The polymer is

1. Phorone
2. Mesityl oxide
3. Deacetonyl alcohol
4. Mesitylene.

Answer: 4. Mesitylene.

The given compound describes a condensation polymer which can be obtained in two ways: either by treating 3 molecules of acetone (CH₃COCH₃) with cone. H₂SO₄ or passing propyne (CH₃C ≡ CH) through a red hot tube.

Acetone forms mesitylene ( 1, 3, 5- trimethylbenzene) on distillation with conc. H₂SO₄.

Aldehydes ketones carboxylic acids MCQs 

Question 67. This polymer (B) is obtained when acetone is saturated with hydrogen chloride gas, B can be

1. Phorone
2. Formose
3. Diacetone alcohol
4. Mesityl oxide.

Answer: 1. Phorone

Question 68. If formaldehyde and KOH are heated, then we get

1. Methane
2. Methyl alcohol
3. Ethyl formate
4. Acetylene.

Answer: 2. Methyl alcohol

⇒ \(\mathrm{HCHO}+\mathrm{KOH}\) \(\underrightarrow{50 \% \mathrm{KOH}}\) \(\mathrm{HCOOK}+\mathrm{CH}_3 \mathrm{OH}\)

The above reaction is called as Canrizzards reaction.

Question 69. Formalin is an aqueous solution of

1. Fluorescein
2. Formic acid
3. Formaldehyde
4. Furfuraldehyde.

Answer: 3. Formaldehyde

The formula is an aqueous solution of 40% HCHO.

Question 70. Complete the following reaction:

Answer: 2

Question 71. What is Y in the above reaction?

1. \(\mathrm{RCOO}^{-} \mathrm{Mg}^{+} \mathrm{X}\)
2. \(R_3 \mathrm{CO}^{-} \mathrm{Mg}^{+} X\)
3. \(\mathrm{RCOO}^{-} \mathrm{X}^{+}\)
4. \((\mathrm{RCOO})_2 \mathrm{Mg}\)

Answer: 1. \(\mathrm{RCOO}^{-} \mathrm{Mg}^{+} \mathrm{X}\)

Question 72. The reaction that does not give benzoic acid as the major product is

Answer: 3

PCC (Pyridium chlorochromate) stops oxidation at the aldehyde stage, thereby preventing the further oxidation of aldehydes to carboxylic acids.

Aldehydes ketones carboxylic acids questions 

Question 73. Which one of the following esters gets hydrolysed most easily under alkaline conditions?

Answer: 4

Electron-withdrawing groups increase the reactivity towards nucleophilic substitution reaction and -NO₂ is a strong electron-withdrawing group.

Question 74. Consider the following compounds

The correct decreasing order of their reactivity towards hydrolysis is

1. 1>2>3>4
2. 4>2>1>3
3. 2>4<>1>3
4. 2>4>3>1

Answer: 3. 2>4<>1>3

Question 75.

In the above reaction product P is

Answer: 2

The product (P) is benzoic acid.

Aldehydes ketones carboxylic acids questions 

Question 76. Which of the following compounds gives benzoic acid on hydrolysis?

1. Chlorobenzene
2. Benzoyl chloride
3. Chlorophenol
4. Chlorotoluene

Answer: 2. Benzoyl chloride

⇒ \(\begin{aligned}
\mathrm{C}_6 \mathrm{H}_5 \mathrm{COCl}+\mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{O} \rightarrow \mathrm{C}_6 \mathrm{H}_5 \mathrm{COOH}+\mathrm{HCl} \\
\text { Benzoyl chloride } \quad \text { Benzoic acid }
\end{aligned}\)

Question 77. Carboxylic acids have higher boiling points than aldehydes, ketones and even alcohols of comparable molecular mass. It is due to their

1. Formation of intramolecular H-bonding
2. Formation of carboxylate ion
3. More extensive association of carboxylic acid via van der Waals’ forces of attraction
4. Formation of intermolecular H-bonding.

Answer: 4. Formation of intermolecular H-bonding.

Question 78. The weight (g) of two moles of the organic compound, which is obtained by heating sodium ethanoate with sodium hydroxide in the presence of calcium oxide is

1. 30
2. 18
3. 16
4. 32

Answer: 4. 32

This is the Kolbe electrolysis reaction. The weight of two moles of methane is 32 g

Question 79. Match List 1 with List 2

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

1. 1-B, 2-C, 3-C, 4-A
2. 1-D, 2-A, 3-B, 4-C
3. 1-C, 2-B, 3-A, 4-D
4. 1-A, 2-D, 3-C, 4-B

Answer: 1. 1-B, 2-C, 3-C, 4-A

Question 80. The major product of the following reaction is

Answer: 3

Aldehydes ketones carboxylic acids questions 

Question 81. The correct order of strengths of the carboxylic acids

Answer: 2

Acidic strength ∝ – I effect

As oxygen is more electron withdrawing (2) and (3) show greater – I effect than (1). Thus, (1) is the least acidic. Out of (2) and (3), (2) is more acid than (3) as the distance of O increases from the -COOH group and acidic strength decreases

Quetsion 82. The correct order of decreasing acid strength of trichloroacetic acid (A), trifluoroacetic acid (B), acetic acid (C) and formic acid (D) is

1. B>A>D>C
2. B>D>C>A
3. A> B>C>D
4. A> C>B>D

Answer: 1. B>A>D>C

As the -I effect increases, the -COOH group becomes more electron deficient and the tendency to lose H⁺ ions increases ie., acid strength increases. As the +I effect increases acid strength decreases.

Thus, the correct order of acid strength is

Question 83. Which one of the following is most reactive towards electrophilic reagents?

Answer: 4

Question 84. An organic compound A on treatment with NH₃ gives B, which on heating gives C. C when treated with Br₂ in the presence of KOH produces ethyl amine. Compound A is

Answer: 4

The compound will be CH₃CH₂COOH

Aldehydes ketones carboxylic acids questions 

Question 85. Propionic acid with Br₂/P yields a dibromo product. Its structure would be

Answer: 3

This is Hell-Volhard-Zelinksy reavtion. In this reaction, acids containing α-H react with X₂/red P giving a product in which the hydrogens are substituted by X.

Carboxylic acids NEET questions 

Question 86. Which of the following represents the correct order of the acidity in the given compounds?

1. \(\mathrm{FCH}_2 \mathrm{COOH}>\mathrm{CH}_3 \mathrm{COOH}\)> \(\mathrm{BrCH}_2 \mathrm{COOH}>\mathrm{ClCH}_2 \mathrm{COOH}\)
2. \(\mathrm{BrCH}_2 \mathrm{COOH}>\mathrm{ClCH}_2 \mathrm{COOH}\) > \(\mathrm{FCH}_2 \mathrm{COOH}>\mathrm{CH}_3 \mathrm{COOH}\)
3. \(\mathrm{FCH}_2 \mathrm{COOH}>\mathrm{ClCH}_2 \mathrm{COOH}\) > \(\mathrm{BrCH}_2 \mathrm{COOH}>\mathrm{CH}_3 \mathrm{COOH}\)
4. \(\mathrm{CH}_3 \mathrm{COOH}>\mathrm{BrCH}_2 \mathrm{COOH}\)>\(\mathrm{ClCH}_2 \mathrm{COOH}>\mathrm{FCH}_2 \mathrm{COOH}\)

Answer: 3. \(\mathrm{FCH}_2 \mathrm{COOH}>\mathrm{ClCH}_2 \mathrm{COOH}\) > \(\mathrm{BrCH}_2 \mathrm{COOH}>\mathrm{CH}_3 \mathrm{COOH}\)

Question 87. In a set of reactions acetic add yielded a product D.

The structure of D would be COOH

Answer: 4

Quetsion 88. The – OH group of an alcohol or the – COOH group of a carboxylic acid can be replaced by – Cl using

1. Phosphorus pentachloride
2. Hypochlorous acid
3. Chlorine
4. Hydrochloric acid.

Answer: 1. Phosphorus pentachloride

⇒ \(\mathrm{ROH}+\mathrm{PCl}_5 \rightarrow \mathrm{RCl}+\mathrm{POCl}_3+\mathrm{HCl}\)

RCOOH+\(\mathrm{PCl}_5 \rightarrow R \mathrm{ROCl}+\mathrm{POCl}_3+\mathrm{HCl}\)

Question 89. Which one of the following orders of acid strength is correct?

1. RCOOH > ROH > HOH > HC ≡ CH
2. RCOOH > HOH > ROH > HC ≡ CH
3. RCOOH > HOH > HC ≡ CH > ROH
4. RCOOH > HC ≡ CH > HOH > ROH

Answer: 2. RCOOH > HOH > ROH > HC ≡ CH

Carboxylic acid is much stronger than water and alcohol. Since the carboxylate ion after the removal of the proton is stabilised by resonating structures. The -OH in alcohols is almost neutral. Acetylene is also the weakest acid among the given examples.

Carboxylic acids NEET questions 

Question 90. In a set of the given reactions, acetic acid yielded a product C.

Answer: 4

Question 91. Ethyl benzoate can be prepared from benzoic acid by using

1. Ethyl alcohol
2. Ethyl alcohol and dry HCl
3. Ethyl chloride
4. Sodium ethoxide.

Answer: 2. Ethyl alcohol and dry HCl

Ethyl benzoate can be prepared by heating benzoic acid with alcohol in the presence of dry HCI or conc H₂SO₄. The reaction is called as esterification reaction.

Question 92. Reduction by LiAlH₄ of the hydrolyzed product of an ester gives

1. Two alcohols
2. Two aldehydes
3. One acid and one alcohol
4. Two acids.

Answer: 1. Two alcohols

The reduction of the hydrolyzed product of ester by LiAlH₄ produces two alcohols.

Question 93. Which one of the following compounds will react with the NaHCO₃ solution to give sodium salt and carbon dioxide?

1. Acetic acid
2. n-Hexanol
3. Phenol
4. Both (2) and (3)

Answer: 1. Acetic acid

NaHCO₃ is weakly basic so it can the acid CH₃COOH. While phenol is weakly acidic and r-hexanol is neutral, they do not react with NaHCO₃.

⇒ \(\mathrm{CH}_2 \mathrm{COOH}+\mathrm{NaHCO}_3 \rightarrow \mathrm{CH}_3 \mathrm{COONa}+\mathrm{CO}_2+\mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{O}\)

Aldehydes and ketones MCQs 

Question 94. Which one of the following products is formed when adipic acid is heated?

Answer: 1

Question 95. An acyl halide is formed when PCl₅ reacts with an

1. Amide
2. Ester
3. Acid
4. Alcohol.

Answer: 3. Acid

⇒\(\mathrm{CH}_3 \mathrm{COOH}+\mathrm{PCl}_5 \rightarrow \mathrm{CH}_3 \mathrm{COCl}+\mathrm{POCl}_3+\mathrm{HCl}\)

Question 96. Benzoic acid gives benzene on being heated with X and phenol gives benzene on being heated with Y. Therefore, X and Y are respectively

1. Soda-lime and copper
2. Zn dust and NaOH
3. Zn dust and soda-lime
4. Soda-lime and zinc dust.

Answer: 4. Soda-lime and zinc dust.

⇒ \(\mathrm{C}_6 \mathrm{H}_5 \mathrm{COOH}\) \(\underrightarrow{\text { Soda-lime }(X)}\) \(\mathrm{C}_6 \mathrm{H}_6+\mathrm{Na}_2 \mathrm{CO}_3\)

⇒ \(\mathrm{C}_6 \mathrm{H}_5 \mathrm{OH}\) \(\underrightarrow{\mathrm{Zn} \text { dust }(Y)}\) \(\mathrm{C}_6 \mathrm{H}_6+\mathrm{ZnO}\).

Aldehydes and ketones MCQs 

Question 97. A is a lighter phenol and B is an aromatic carboxylic acid. Separation of a mixture of A and B can be carried out easily by using a solution of

1. Sodium hydroxide
2. Sodium sulphate
3. Calcium chloride
4. Sodium bicarbonate.

Answer: 4. Sodium bicarbonate.

Carboxylic acids dissolve in NaHCO₃ but phenols do not.

Question 98. The compound formed when malonic acid is heated with urea is

1. Cinnamic acid
2. Butyric acid
3. Barbituric acid
4. Crotonic acid.

Answer: 3. Barbituric acid

Question 99. Among the following the strongest acid is

1. \(\mathrm{CH}_3 \mathrm{COOH}\)
2. \(\mathrm{CH}_2 \mathrm{ClCH}_2 \mathrm{COOH}\)
3. \(\mathrm{CH}_2 \mathrm{ClCOOH}\)
4. \(\mathrm{CH}_3 \mathrm{CH}_2 \mathrm{COOH}\)

Answer: 3. \(\mathrm{CH}_2 \mathrm{ClCOOH}\)

The strongest acid is CH₂ClCOOH as -I effect of CI atom decreases with the increase in distance.

Question 100. Which of the following is the correct decreasing order of acidic strength of

1. Methanoic acid
2. Ethanoic acid
3. Propanoic acid
4. Butanoic acid

1. 1>2>3>4
2. 2>3>4>1
3. 1>4>3>2
4. 4>1>3>2

Answer: 1. 1>2>3>4

+I effect of the alkyl group increases from CH₃ to CH₃CH₂ to CH₃CH₂CH₂ to CH₃CH₂CH₂CH₂ resulting in a decrease of acid character. Therefore, the order is (1) > (2) > (3) > (4).

Question 101. The product formed in the following chemical reaction is

Answer: 1

NaBH₄ is a less powerful reducing agent than LiAlH₄. It is only powerful enough to reduce aldehydes, ketones and acid chlorides to alcohols. Ester amides acids and nitrites are not reduced.

Aldehydes and ketones MCQs 

Question 102. Match the compounds given in List 1 with List 2 and select the suitable option using the codes given below.

1. 1-D, 2-A, 3-C, 4-B
2. 1-D, 2-B, 3-B, 4-A
3. 1-B, 2-C, 3-D, 4-A
4. 1-B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-C

Answer: 4. 1-B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-C

Question 103. Among the given compounds, the most susceptible to nucleophilic attack at the carbonyl group is

1. \(\mathrm{CH}_3 \mathrm{COOCH}_3\)
2. \(\mathrm{CH}_3 \mathrm{CONH}_2\)
3. \(\mathrm{CH}_3 \mathrm{COOCOCH}_3\)
4. \(\mathrm{CH}_3 \mathrm{COCl}\)

Answer: 4. \(\mathrm{CH}_3 \mathrm{COCl}\)

NEET chemistry chapter-wise questions

CH₃COCI is most susceptible to nucleophilic attack. The susceptibility of a substrate towards nucleophilic attack depends on how well a leaving group is attached to it. Cl^– is a weak base and therefore, a good leaving group

Question 104. The relative reactivities of acyl compounds towards nucleophilic substitution are in the order of

1. Acid anhydride > amide > ester > acyl chloride
2. Acyl chloride > ester > acid anhydride > amide
3. Acyl chloride > acid anhydride > ester > amide
4. Ester > acyl chloride > amide > acid anhydride.

Answer: 3. Acyl chloride > acid anhydride > ester > amide

Question 105. Self-condensation of two moles of ethyl acetate in the presence of sodium ethoxide yields

1. Ethyl propionate
2. Ethyl butyrate
3. Acetoacetic ester
4. Methyl acetoacetate.

Answer: 3. Acetoacetic ester

Ethyl acetate undergoes Claisen condensation in the presence of sodium ethoxide involving an α-hydrogen atom in which two molecules of ethyl acetate combine together to form an acetoacetic ester.

Question 106. Which one of the following esters cannot undergo Claisen self-condensation?

1. \(\mathrm{C}_6 \mathrm{H}_5 \mathrm{CH}_2 \mathrm{COOC}_2 \mathrm{H}_5\)
2. \(\mathrm{C}_6 \mathrm{H}_5 \mathrm{COOC}_2 \mathrm{H}_5\)
3. \(\mathrm{CH}_3 \mathrm{CH}_2 \mathrm{CH}_2 \mathrm{CH}_2 \mathrm{COOC}_2 \mathrm{H}_5\)
4. \(\mathrm{C}_6 \mathrm{H}_{11} \mathrm{CH}_2 \mathrm{COOC}_2 \mathrm{H}_5\)

Answer: 2. \(\mathrm{C}_6 \mathrm{H}_5 \mathrm{COOC}_2 \mathrm{H}_5\)

The esters having active methylene group (-CH₂-), show Claisen condensation reaction. As C₆H₅ – COOC₂H₅ has no α-hydrogen atom or active methylene group, it cannot undergo Claisen condensation reaction.

NEET chemistry chapter-wise questions

Question 107. Sodium formate on heating yields

1. Oxalic acid and H₂
2. Sodium oxalate and H₂
3. CO₂ and NaOH
4. Sodium oxalate

Answer: 2. Sodium oxalate and H₂

NEET Chemistry For Some Basic Concepts Of Chemistry Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. The dimensions of pressure are the same as that of

1. Force per unit volume
2. Energy per unit volume
3. Force
4. Energy

Answer: 2. Energy per unit volume

Pressure = \(\frac{\text { Force }}{\text { Area }}\)

Therefore, dimensions of pressure = \(\frac{\mathrm{MLT}^{-2}}{\mathrm{~L}^2}=\mathrm{ML}^{-1} \mathrm{~T}^{-2}\)

and dimensions of energy per unit volume = \(\frac{\text { Energy }}{\text { Volume }}=\frac{\mathrm{ML}^2 \mathrm{~T}^{-2}}{\mathrm{~L}^3}=\mathrm{ML}^{-1} \mathrm{~T}^{-2}\)

Question 2. Given the numbers: 161 cm, 0.161 cm, 0.0161 cm. The number of significant figures for the three numbers is

1. 3, 3, and 4 respectively
2. 3, 4 and 4 respectively
3. 3,4 and 5 respectively
4. 3, 3, and 3 respectively.

Answer: 4. 3, 3, and 3 respectively.

Given the numbers: 161 cm, 0.161 cm, 0.0161 cm.

Zeros placed left to the number are never significant, therefore the no. of significant figures for the numbers 161 cm, 0.161 cm, and 0.0161 cm are the same, i.e., 3.

Question 3. Equal masses of H₂, O₂, and methane have been taken in a container of volume V at a temperature of 27 °C in identical conditions. The ratio of the volumes of gases H₂, O₂ methane would be

1. 8:16:1
2. 16:8:1
3. 16:1:2
4. 8:1:2

Answer: 3. 16:1:2

Equal masses of H₂, O₂, and methane have been taken in a container of volume V at a temperature of 27 °C in identical conditions.

According to Avogadrot’s hypothesis, the ratio of the volumes of gases will be equal to the ratio of their no. of moles.

So, number og molecules = \(\frac{\text{Mass}}{\text{Molecule mass}}\)

∴ \(n_{\mathrm{H}_2}=\frac{w}{2} ; n_{\mathrm{O}_2}=\frac{w}{32} ; n_{\mathrm{CH}_4}=\frac{w}{16}\)

So, the ratio is \(\frac{w}{2}: \frac{w}{32}: \frac{w}{16}\) or 16: 1: 2.

Read and Learn More NEET MCQs with Answers

Basic Concepts of Chemistry NEET MCQs 

Question 4. What volume of oxygen gas (O₂) measured at 0°C and 1 atm, is needed to burn completely 1 L of propane gas (C₃H₈) measured under the same conditions?

1. 5 L
2. 10 L
3. 7 L
4. 6 L

Answer: 1. 5 L

∴ \(\mathrm{C}_3\mathrm{H}_8+\underset{5\mathrm{vol}} 5\mathrm{O}_2 \rightarrow \underset{3\mathrm{vol}} 3\mathrm{CO}_2+\underset{4\mathrm{vol}} 4 \mathrm{H}_2\mathrm{O}\)

According to the above equation, 1 volume or 1 liter of propane requires 5 volume or 5 liters of O₂ to burn completely.

Question 5. 0. 24 g of a volatile gas, upon vaporization, gives 45 mL vapor at NTP. What will be the vapor density of the substance? (Density of H₂ = 0.089 g/L)

1. 95.93
2. 59.93
3. 95.39
4. 5.993

Answer: 2. 59.93

Weight of gas = 0.24 g,

Volume of gas = 45 mL = 0.045 litre and density of H₂ = 0.089 8/L

Weight of 45 mL of H₂ = density x volume = 0.089 x 0.045 = 4.005 x 10^-3 g

Therefore, Yapour density

= \(\frac{\text { Weight of certain volume of substance }}{\text { Weight of same volume of hydrogen }}=\frac{0.24}{4.005 \times 10^{-3}}=59.93\)

NEET questions on Basic Concepts of Chemistry 

Question 6. The molecular weights of O₂ and SO₂ are 32 and 64 respectively. At 15°C and 150 mmHg pressure, one liter of O₂ contains ‘N’ molecules. The number of molecules in two liters of SO₂ under the same conditions of temperature and pressure will be

1. N/2
2. N
3. 2 N
4. 4 N

Answer: 3. 2 N

The molecular weights of O₂ and SO₂ are 32 and 64 respectively. At 15°C and 150 mmHg pressure, one liter of O₂ contains ‘N’ molecules.

If 1L of one gas contains N molecules, 2L of any gas under the same conditions will contain 2N molecules.

Question 7. What is the weight of oxygen required for the complete combustion of 2.8 kg of ethylene?

1. 2.8 kg
2. 6.4 kg
3. 9.6 kg
4. 96 kg

Answer: 3. 9.6 kg

∴ \({\mathrm{C}_2 \mathrm{H}_4}+3 \mathrm{O}_2 \rightarrow 2 \mathrm{CO}_2+2 \mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{O}\)

For complete combustion, \(2.8 \mathrm{~kg} \text { of } \mathrm{C}_2 \mathrm{H}_4\) requires = \(\frac{96}{28} \times 2.8 \times 10^3 \mathrm{~g}\)

= \(9.6 \times 10^3 \mathrm{~g}=9.6 \mathrm{~kg}\) of \(\mathrm{O}_2\)

Question 8. An element, X has the following isotopic composition:

1. ²⁰⁰X: 90%
2. ¹⁹⁹X: 8.0%
3. ²⁰²X: 2.0%

The weighted average atomic mass of the naturally occurring element X is closest to

1. 201 amu
2. 202 amu
3. 199 amu
4. 200amu

Answer: 4. 200amu

Average isotopic mass of X = \(\frac{200 \times 90+199 \times 8+202 \times 2}{90+8+2}\)

= \(\frac{18000+1592+404}{100}=199.96 \mathrm{amu}=200 \mathrm{amu}\)

Question 9. Boron has two stable isotopes, ¹⁰B(19%) and ¹¹B(81%). Calculate the average weight of boron in the periodic table.

1. 10.8
2. 10.2
3. 11.2
4. 10.0

Answer: 1. 10.8

Average atomic mass = \(\frac{19 \times 10+81 \times 11}{100}=10.81\)

NEET questions on Basic Concepts of Chemistry 

Question 10. Which one of the following has a maximum number of atoms?

1. 1 g of Ag_(s) [Atomic mass of Ag = 108]
2. 1 g of Mg_(s) [Atomic mass of Mg = 24]
3. 1 g of O_(2)(g) [Atomic mass of O = 16]
4. 1 g of Li_(s) [Atomic mass of Li = 7]

Answer: 4. 1 g of Li_(s) [Atomic mass of Li = 7]

1 mole of substance = \(N_A\) atoms

108 g of \(\mathrm{Ag}=N_A\) atoms \(\Rightarrow 1 \mathrm{~g}\) of \(\mathrm{Ag}=\frac{N_A}{108}\) atoms

24 g of \(\mathrm{Mg}=N_A\) atoms \(\Rightarrow 1 \mathrm{~g}\) of \(\mathrm{Mg}=\frac{N_A}{24}\) atoms

32 g of \(\mathrm{O}_2=N_A\) molecules \(=2 N_A\) atoms

⇒ \(1 \mathrm{~g}\) of \(\mathrm{O}_2=\frac{N_A}{16}\) atoms

7 g of \(\mathrm{Li}=N_A\) atoms \(\Rightarrow 1 \mathrm{~g}\) of \(\mathrm{Li}=\frac{N_A}{7}\) atoms

Therefore, 1 g of Li_(s) has a maximum number of atoms.

Question 11. In which case is a number of molecules of water maximum?

1. 18 mL of water
2. 0.18 g of water
3. 0.00224 L of water vapors at 1 atm and 273 K
4. 1^-3 mol of water

Answer: 1. 18 mL of water

1. Mass of water= V x d = 18 x 1 = 18g

Molecules of water = mole x \(N_A\) = \(\frac{18}{18} N_A=N_A\)

2. Molecules of water = mole x \(\mathrm{N}_{\mathrm{A}}=\frac{0.18}{18} \mathrm{~N}_{\mathrm{A}}\)

3. Moles of water = \(\frac{0.00224}{22.4}=10^{-4}\)

Molecules of water = mole x N_A = 10^-4 N_A

4. Molecules of water = mole x N_A = 10^-3 N_A

Basic Chemistry multiple choice NEET 

Question 12. Suppose the elements X and Y combine to form two compounds XY₂ and X₃Y₂– When 0.1 mole of XY₂ weighs 10 g and 0.05 mole of X₃Y₂ weighs 9 g, the atomic weights of X and Y are

1. 40,30
2. 60,40
3. 20, 30
4. 30, 20

Answer: 1. 40,30

Suppose the elements X and Y combine to form two compounds XY₂ and X₃Y₂– When 0.1 mole of XY₂ weighs 10 g and 0.05 mole of X₃Y₂ weighs 9 g,

Let the atomic weight of element X is x and that of element Y is y.

For \(X Y_2, n=\frac{w}{\text { Molecule weight}}\)

0.1 = \(\frac{10}{x+2 y} \Rightarrow x+2 y=\frac{10}{0.1}\) =100……(1)

For \(X_3 Y_2\), n= \(\frac{w}{\text { Molecule weight}}\)

0.05 = \(\frac{9}{3 x+2 y} \Rightarrow 3 x+2 y=\frac{9}{0.05}=180\)….(2)

On solving equations (1) and (2), we get x = 40

40 + 2y = 100

⇒ = 2y = 60

∴ y = 30

Question 13. If Avogadro number N_A, is changed from 6.022 x 10²³ mol^-1 to 6.022 x 10²⁰ mol^-1, this would change

1. The mass of one mole of carbon
2. The ratio of chemical species to each other in a balanced equation
3. The ratio of elements to each other in a compound
4. The definition of mass in units of grams.

Answer: 1. The mass of one mole of carbon

Mass of 1 mo1 (6.022x 10²³ atoms)of carbon =12g

If Avogadro number is changed to 6.022 x 10²⁰ atoms then the mass of 1 mol of carbon

= \(\frac{12 \times 6.022 \times 10^{20}}{6.022 \times 10^{23}}=12 \times 10^{-3} \mathrm{~g}\)

Basic Chemistry multiple choice NEET 

Question 14. The number of water molecules is maximum in

1. 1.8 grams of water
2. 18 grams of water
3. 18 moles of water
4. 18 molecules of water.

Answer: 3. 18 molecules of water.

1.8 gram of water = \(\frac{6.023 \times 10^{23}}{18} \times 1.8\)

= \(6.023 \times 10^{27}\) molecules

= 6.023 x 10²² molecules

18 gram of water = 6.023 x 10²³ molecules

18 moles of water = 18 x 6.023 x 10²³ molecules

Question 15. A mixture of gases contains H₂ and O₂ gases in the ratio of 1: 4 (w/w). What is the molar ratio of the two gases in the mixture?

1. 16:1
2. 2: 1
3. 1: 4
4. 4: 1

Answer: 4. 4: 1

Number of moles of \(\mathrm{H}_2=1 / 2\)

Number of moles of \(\mathrm{O}_2=\frac{4}{32}\)

Hence, molar ratio = \(\frac{1}{2}: \frac{4}{32}=4: 1\)

Question 16. Which has the maximum number of molecules among the following?

1. 44 g CO₂
2. 48 g O₃
3. 8 g H₂
4. 64 g SO₂

Answer: 3. 64 g SO₂

8 g H₂ has 4 moles while the others have 1 mole each

NEET practice questions Basic Concepts of Chemistry 

Question 17. The number of atoms in 0.1 mol of a triatomic gas is (N_A = 6.02 x 10²³ mol^-1)

1. 6.026 x 10²²
2. 1.806 x 10²³
3. 3.600 x 10²³
4. 1.800 x10²²

Answer: 2. 1.806 x 10²³

No. of atoms = N_A x No. of moles x 3 = 6.023 x 10²³ x 0.1 x 3 = 1.806 x 10²³

Question 18. The maximum number of molecules is present in

1. 15 L of H₂ gas at STP
2. 5 L of N₂ gas at STP
3. 0.5g of H₂ gas
4. 10g of O₂ gas.

Answer: 1. 15 L of H₂ gas at STP

AT STP, 22.4L=6.023x 10²³ molecules

15 L \(\mathrm{H}_2=\frac{6.023 \times 10^{23} \times 15}{22.4}=4.033 \times 10^{23}\) molecules

5 L \(\mathrm{~N}_2=\frac{6.023 \times 10^{23} \times 5}{22.4}=1.344 \times 10^{23}\) molecules

2 g \(\mathrm{H}_2=6.023 \times 10^{23}\) molecules

0.5 g \(\mathrm{H}_2=\frac{6.023 \times 10^{23} \times 0.5}{2}=1.505 \times 10^{23}\) molecules

32 g \(\mathrm{O}_2=6.023 \times 10^{23}\)

10 g of \(\mathrm{O}_2=\frac{6.023 \times 10^{23} \times 10}{32}=1.882 \times 10^{23}\) molecules

Question 19. Which has the maximum molecules?

1. 7g N₂
2. 2g H₂
3. 16g NO₂
4. 16g O₂

Answer: 2. 2g H₂

number of molecules = moles \(\times N_A\)

Molecules of \(\mathrm{N}_2=\frac{7}{14} N_A=0.5 N_A\), Molecules of \(\mathrm{H}_2=N_A\)

Molecules of \(\mathrm{NO}_2=\frac{16}{46} N_A=0.35 N_A\)

Molecules of \(\mathrm{O}_2=\frac{16}{32} N_A=0.5 N_A\)

∴ \(2 \mathrm{~g} \mathrm{H}_2\left(1\right. mole \left.\mathrm{H}_2\right)\) contains maximum molecules.

Question 20. The specific volume of cylindrical virus particle is 6.2 x 10^-2 cc/g whose radius and length are 7 A and 10 A respectively. If N_A = 6.02 x 10²², find the molecular weight of the virus.

1. 15.4 kg/mol
2. 1.54 x 10⁴ kg/mol
3. 3.08 x 10⁴ kg/mol
4. 3.08 x 10³ kg/mol

Answer: 1. 15.4 kg/mol

The specific volume of cylindrical virus particle is 6.2 x 10^-2 cc/g whose radius and length are 7 A and 10 A respectively. If N_A = 6.02 x 10²²,

Specific volume (volume of 1 g) of cylindrical virus

particle = 6.02 x 10^-2 cc/g

Radius of virus, r = 7Å = 7x 10^-8 cm

Volume of virus = πr²l

= \(\frac{22}{7} \times\left(7 \times 10^{-8}\right)^2 \times 10 \times 10^{-8}=154 \times 10^{-23} c c\)

weight of one virus particle = \(\frac{\text { Volume }(\mathrm{cc})}{\text { Specific volume }(\mathrm{cc} / \mathrm{g})}\)

= \(\frac{154 \times 10^{-23}}{6.02 \times 10^{-2}} \mathrm{~g}\)

∴ Molecular weight of virus = weight of  \(N_A\) particles

= \(\frac{154 \times 10^{-23}}{6.02 \times 10^{-2}} \times 6.02 \times 10^{23} \mathrm{~g} / \mathrm{mol}\)

= \(15400 \mathrm{~g} / \mathrm{mol}=15.4 \mathrm{~kg} / \mathrm{mol}\)

NEET practice questions Basic Concepts of Chemistry 

Question 21. The number of atoms in 4.25 g of NH₃ is approximately

1. 4 x 10²³
2. 2 x 10²³
3. 1 x 10²³
4. 6 x 10²³

Answer: 4. 6 x 10²³

17 g of \(\mathrm{NH}_3=4 N_A\) atoms

4.25 g of \(\mathrm{NH}_3=\frac{4 N_A}{17} \times 4.25\) atoms \(=N_A\) atoms \(=6 \times 10^{23}\) atoms

Question 22. Haemoglobin contains 0.334% of iron by weight. The molecular weight of hemoglobin is approximately 67200. The number of iron atoms (Atomic weight of Fe is 56) present in one molecule of hemoglobin is

1. 4
2. 6
3. 3
4. 2

Answer: 1. 4

Haemoglobin contains 0.334% of iron by weight. The molecular weight of hemoglobin is approximately 67200.

Quantity of iron in one molecule = \(\frac{67200}{100} \times 0.334=224.45 \mathrm{amu}\)

No. of iron atoms in one molecule of haemoglobin = \(\frac{224.45}{56}\) = 1

Question 23. The number of moles of oxygen in one liter of air containing 21% oxygen by volume, under standard conditions, is

1. 0.0093 mol
2. 2.10 mol
3. 0.186 mol
4. 0.21 mol

Answer: 1. 0.0093 mol

Volume of oxygen in one litre of air = \(\frac{21}{100}\) x 1000 = 210 mL.

Therefore, no. of moles = \(\frac{210}{224000}\) = 0.0093 mol

Question 24. The total number of valence electrons in 4.2 g of N₃^– ion is (NA is the Avogadro’s number)

1. 2.1 N_A
2. 4.2 N_A
3. 1.6 N_A
4. 3.2 N_A

Answer: 3. 1.6 N_A

Each nitrogen atom has 5 valence electrons, therefore the total number of valence electrons in N₃^– ion is 16.

Since the molecular mass of N₃^– is 42, therefore the total number of valence electrons in 4.2 g of \(\mathrm{N}_3^{-} \text {ion }=\frac{4.2}{42} \times 16 \times N_A=1.6 N_A\)

Chemistry MCQs Basic Concepts NEET 

Question 25. The number of gram molecules of oxygen in 6.2 x 10²⁴ CO molecules is

1. 10 g molecules
2. 5 g molecules
3. lg molecule
4. 0.5 g molecules.

Answer: 2. 5 g molecules

Avogadro’s number, N_A = 6.02 x 10²³ molecules = 1 mole

∴ 6.02 x 10²⁴ CO molecules = 10 moles CO

= 10 g atoms of O = 5 g molecules of O₂

Question 26. The ratio of C_p and C_v of a gas ‘X’ is 1.4. The number of atoms of the gas ‘X’ present in 11.2 liters of it at NTP will be

1. 6.02 x 10²³
2. 1.2 x 10²³
3. 3.01 x 10²³
4. 2.01 x 10²³

Answer: 1. 6.02 x 10²³

Here, C_p/C_v = 1.4, which shows that the gas is diatomic.

22.4L at NTP = 6.02 x 10²³ molecules

∴ 11.2 L at NTP = 3.01 x 10²³ molecules

Since gas is diatomic

∴ 11.2 L at NTP = 2 x 3.01 x 10²³ atoms =6.02 x 10²³ atoms

Question 27. The number of oxygen atoms in 4.4 g of CO₂ is

1. 1.2 x 10²³
2. 6 x 10²²
3. 6 x 10²³
4. 12 x 10²³

Answer: 1. 1.2 x 10²³

1 mol of CO₂ = 44gof CO₂

∴ 4.4 g CO₂ = 0.1 mol CO₂= 6 x 10²² molecules

[Since, 1 mole CO₂ = 6 x 10²³ molecules]

=2 x 6 x 10²² atoms of O₂ = 1.2 x 10²³ atoms of O

Chemistry MCQs Basic Concepts NEET 

Question 28. 1 cc N₂O at NTP contains

1. \(\frac{1.8}{224} \times 10^{22}\) atoms
2. \(\frac{6.02}{22400} \times 10^{23}\) molecules
3. \(\frac{1.32}{224} \times 10^{23}\) electrons
4. All of the above.

Answer: 4. All of the above.

22400 cc of \(\mathrm{N}_2{O}\) contain \(6.02 \times 10^{23}\) molecules

∴ 1 cc of \(\mathrm{N}_2 \mathrm{O}\) contain \(\frac{6.02 \times 10^{23}}{22400}\) molecules

Since in \(\mathrm{N}_2 \mathrm{O}\) molecule there are 3 atoms.

∴ \(1 \mathrm{cc} \mathrm{N}_2 \mathrm{O}=\frac{3 \times 6.02 \times 10^{23}}{22400}\) atoms \(=\frac{1.8 \times 10^{22}}{224}\) atoms

No. of electrons in a molecule of \(\mathrm{N}_2 \mathrm{O}=7+7+8=22\)

Hence, no. of electrons in \(1 \mathrm{cc}\) of \(\mathrm{N}_2 \mathrm{O}\)

= \(\frac{6.02 \times 10^{23}}{22400} \times 22\) electrons \(=\frac{1.32}{224} \times 10^{23}\) electrons

Question 29. An organic compound contains 78% (by wt) carbon and the remaining percentage of hydrogen. The right option for the empirical formula of this compound is [Atomic weight of C is 12, H is 1]

1. CH₄
2. CH
3. CH₂
4. CH₃

Answer: 4. CH₃

Given the percentage of carbon – 78% and hence the percentage of hydrogen – 22%

∴ Empirical formula = CH₃

Basic Chemistry quiz for NEET 

Question 30. An organic compound contains carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen. Its elemental analysis gave C, 38.71%, and H, 9.67%. The empirical formula of the compound would be

1. CHO
2. CH₄O
3. CH₃O
4. CH₂O

Answer: 3. CH₃O

Hence, the empirical formula of the compound would be CH₃O

Question 31. The percentage of Se in peroxidase anhydrous enzyme is 0.5% by weight (atomic weight = 78.4) then the minimum molecular weight of peroxidase anhydrous enzyme is

1. 1.568 x 10⁴
2. 1.568 x 10³
3. 15.68
4. 2.136 x 10⁴

Answer: 1. 1.568 x 10⁴

In peroxidase anhydrous enzyme, 0.5% Se is present means, 0.5 g Se is present in 100 g of the enzyme.

In a molecule of enzyme one Se atom must be present.

Hence, 78.4 g Se will be present in \(\frac{100}{0.5}\) x 78.4 =1.568 x 10⁴

∴ The minimum molecular weight of the enzyme is 1.568 x 10⁴

Question 32. Which of the following fertilizers has the highest nitrogen percentage?

1. Ammonium sulphate
2. Calcium cyanamide
3. Urea
4. Ammonium nitrate

Answer: 3. Urea

Urea(NH₂CONH₂), %of N = \(\frac{28}{60}\) x 100= 46.66%

Similarly, % of N in other compounds are:

(NH₄)₂SO₄ = 21.2%; CaCN₂ = 35.0% and NH₄NO₃ = 35.0%

Basic Chemistry quiz for NEET 

Question 33. The right option for the mass of CO₂ produced by heating 20 g of 20% pure limestone is (Atomic mass of Ca = 40) \(\mathrm{CaCO}_3\) \(\underrightarrow{1200 \mathrm{~K}}\) CaO + CO₂

1. 2.64 g
2. 1.32 g
3. 1.12 g
4. 1.76 g

Answer: 4. 1.76 g

∴ \(\underset{40+12+16×3=100 \mathrm{~g}}{\mathrm{CaCO_3}}\) \(\underrightarrow{1200 K}\) \(\underset{40+16=56 \mathrm{~g}}{\mathrm{CaO}}+\underset{44 \mathrm{~g}}{\mathrm{CO}_2}\)

100 g CaCO₂ produced CO₂ gas = 44 g

20 gCaCO₃ will produce CO₂ gas = \(\frac{44}{100}\) = 8.8 g

If sample is 100% pure, CO₂ produced = 8.8 g

If sample is 20% pure, CO₂ produced = \(\frac{8.8}{100}\) x 20 = 17.6 g

Question 34. What mass of 95% pure CaCO₃ will be required to neutralize 50 mL of 0.5 M HCl solution according to the following reaction \(\mathrm{CaCO}_{3(s)}+2 \mathrm{HCl}_{(a q)} \rightarrow \mathrm{CaCl}_{2(a q)}+\mathrm{CO}_{2(g)}+2 \mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{O}_{(l)}\)

1. 1.25 g
2. 1.32 g
3. 3.65 g
4. 9.50 g

Answer: 2. 1.32 g

Volume of HCl = \(50 \mathrm{~mL}=0.05 \mathrm{~L}\)

Molarity of HCl= 0.5M

∴ Moles of HCl = \(0.05 \times 0.5=0.025\) moles

∴ \(\mathrm{CaCO}_3+2 \mathrm{HCl} \longrightarrow \mathrm{CaCl}_2+\mathrm{CO}_2+\mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{O}\)

∴ For 2 moles of \(\mathrm{HCl}, \mathrm{CaCO}_3\) required =1 mole

For 0.025 moles of \(\mathrm{HCl}, \mathrm{CaCO}_3\) required = \(\frac{0.025}{2}\) moles

Mass of \(\mathrm{CaCO}_3\) required = \(100 \times \frac{0.025}{2}=1.25 \mathrm{~g}\)

For 95% pure \(\mathrm{CaCO}_3\), mass of \(\mathrm{CaCO}_3\) required \(=\frac{1.25}{95} \times 100 \mathrm{~g}\)

= \(1.315 \mathrm{~g} \approx 1.32 \mathrm{~g}\)

NEET MCQs on Basic Chemistry Concepts 

Question 35. The number of moles of hydrogen molecules required to produce 20 moles of ammonia through the Habers process is

1. 40
2. 10
3. 20
4. 30

Answer: 4. 30

Habert process, N₂ + 3H₂ → 2NH₃

2 moles of NH₃ are formed by 3 moles of H₂

∴ 20 moles of NH₃ will be formed by 30 moles of H₂

Question 36. The density of 2 M aqueous solution of NaOH is 1. 28 g/cm³. The molality of the solution is [Given that molecular mass of NaOH = 40 g mol^-1]

1. 1.20 m
2. 1.56 m
3. 1.67 m
4. 1.32 m

Answer: 3. 1.67 m

Density = 1.28 g/cc Concentration of solution = 2 M

Molar mass of NaOH = 40 g mol^-1

Volume of solution = 1 L = 1000 mL

Massof solution=d x V=1.28 x 1000= 1280g

Mass of solute = n x Molar mass = 2 x 40 = 80 g

Mass of solvenl = (1280 – 80) C = 1200 g

Number of moles of solute = \(\frac{80}{40}\) = 2

∴ Molarity = \(\frac{2 \times 1000}{1200}\) = 1.67 m

Question 37. A mixture of 2.3 g formic acid and 4.5 g oxalic acid is treated with a cone. H₂SO₄. The evolved gaseous mixture is passed through KOH pellets. The weight (in g) of the remaining product at STP will be

1. 1.4
2. 3.0
3. 2.8
4. 4.4

Answer: 3. 2.8

A mixture of 2.3 g formic acid and 4.5 g oxalic acid is treated with a cone. H₂SO₄. The evolved gaseous mixture is passed through KOH pellets.

H₂O gets absorbed by conc. H₂SO₄ Gaseous mixture (containing CO and CO₂) when passed through KOH pellets, CO₂ gets absorbed.

Moles of CO left (unabsorbed)= \(\frac{1}{20}\) + \(\frac{1}{20}\) = \(\frac{1}{10}\)

Mass of CO = moles x molar mass = \(\frac{1}{10}\) x 28 = 2.8 g

NEET MCQs on Basic Chemistry Concepts 

Question 38. What is the mass of the precipitate formed when 50 mL of 16.9% solution of AgNO₃ is mixed with 50 mL of 5.8% NaCl solution? (Ag = 107.8, N = 14,0 = 16, Na = 23, Cl = 35.5)

1. 3.5 g
2. 7 g
3. 14 g
4. 28 g

Answer: 2. 7 g

16.9% solution of AgNO₃ means 16.9 g of AgNO₃ in 100 mL of solution.

= 8.45 g of AgNO₃ in 50 mL solution.

Similarly, 5.8 g of NaCI in 100 mL solution

= 2.9 g of NaCl in 50 mL solution.

The reaction can be represented as

∴ Mass of AgCl precipitated = 0.049 x 143.3 = 7.02 ≈7 g

Question 39. 20.0 g of a magnesium carbonate sample decomposes on heating to give carbon dioxide and 8.0 g of magnesium oxide. What will be the percentage purity of magnesium carbonate in the sample? (Atomic weight of Mg = 24)

1. 96
2. 60
3. 84
4. 75

Answer: 3. 84

20.0 g of a magnesium carbonate sample decomposes on heating to give carbon dioxide and 8.0 g of magnesium oxide.

∴ \(\underset{84 \mathrm{~g}}{\mathrm{MgCO}_{3(s)}}\) \(\underrightarrow{\Delta}\) \(\underset{\mathrm{40 g}}{\mathrm{MgO}}{(s)}+\mathrm{CO}_{2(g)}\)

84 g of \(\mathrm{MgCO}_3 \equiv 40 \mathrm{~g}\) of \(\mathrm{MgO}\)

∴ 20 g of \(\mathrm{MgCO}_3 \equiv \frac{40}{84} \times 20=9.52 \mathrm{~g}\) of MgO

Actual yield =8 g of MgO

∴ % purity = \(\frac{8}{9.52} \times 100=84 \%\)

Question 40. When 22.4 litres of H_2(g) is mixed with 11.2 litres of Cl_2(g), each at STP, the moles of HCl_(g) formed is equal to

1. l mol of HCl_(g)
2. 2 mol of HCl_(g)
3. 0.5 mol of HCl_(g)
4. 1.5 mol of HCl_(g)

Answer: 1. l mol of HCl_(g)

∴ \(n_{\mathrm{H}_2}=\frac{22.4}{22.4}=1 \mathrm{~mol} ; n_{\mathrm{Cl}_2}=\frac{11.2}{22.4}=0.5 \mathrm{~mol}\)

The reaction is as,

Here, Cl₂ is the limiting reagent. So, 1 mole of HCl_(g) is formed

NEET MCQs on Basic Chemistry Concepts 

Question 41. 1.0 g of magnesium is burnt with 0.56 g O₂ in a closed vessel. Which reactant is left in excess and how much? (Atomic weight Mg = 24, O = 16)

1. Mg, 0.16 g
2. 02, 0.16 g
3. Mg, 0.44 g
4. 02, 0.28 g

Answer: 1. Mg, 0.16 g

∴ \(n_{\mathrm{Mg}}=\frac{1}{24}=0.0416\) moles

∴ \(n_{\mathrm{O}_2}=\frac{0.56}{32}=0.0175\) mole

The balanced equation is

⇔ \(\begin{array}{lccc}
& 2 \mathrm{Mg}+ & \mathrm{O}_2 \longrightarrow & 2 \mathrm{MgO} \\
\text { Initial } & 0.0416 \text { mole } & 0.0175 \text { mole } & 0 \\
\text { Final } & (0.0416-2 \times 0.0175) & 0 & 2 \times 0.0175 \\
& =0.0066 \text { mole } & &
\end{array}\)

Here, O₂ is limiting the reagent

∴ Mass of Mg left in excess = 0.0066 x 24 = 0.16 g

Question 42. 6.02 x 10²⁰ molecules of urea are present in 100 mL of its solution. The concentration of the solution is

1. 0.001 M
2. 0.1 M
3. 0.02 M
4. 0.01 M

Answer: 4. 0.01 M

Moles of urea = \(\frac{6.02 \times 10^{20}}{6.02 \times 10^{23}}=0.001\)

Concentration of solution = \(\frac{0.001}{100} \times 1000=0.01 \mathrm{M}\)

Question 43. An experiment, it showed that 10 mL of 0.05 M solution of chloride required 10 mL of 0.1 M solution of AgNO₃, which of the following will be the formula of the chloride (X stands for the symbol of the element other than chlorine)?

1. X₂Cl₂
2. XCl₂
3. XCl₄
4. X₂Cl

Answer: 2. XCl₂

Miltimoles of solution of chloride = 0’05 x 10 = 0.5

Millimoles of AgNO₃ solution = 10 x 0.1 = 1

So, the millimoles of AgNO₃ are double that of the chloride solution

∴ XCl₂ + 2AgNO₃ →  2AgCl + X(NO₃)₂

Question 44. 25.3 g of sodium carbonate, Na₂CO₃ is dissolved in enough water to make 250 mL of solution. If sodium carbonate dissociates completely, the molar concentration of sodium ion, Na⁺ and carbonate ions, CO^–₂ are respectively (Molar mass of Na₂CO₃ = 106 g mo^-1)

1. 0.955 M and 1.910 M
2. 1.910 M and 0.955 M
3. 1.90 M and 1.910 M
4. 0.477 M and 0.477 M

Answer: 2. 1.910 M and 0.955 M

Given that the molar mass of Na₂CO₃= 106 g

Molarity of solution = \(\frac{25.3 \times 1000}{106 \times 250}=0.955 \mathrm{M}\)

⇒ \(\mathrm{Na}_2 \mathrm{CO}_3 \rightarrow 2 \mathrm{Na}^{+}+\mathrm{CO}_3^{2-}\)

∴ \({\left[\mathrm{Na}^{+}\right]=2\left[\mathrm{Na}_2 \mathrm{CO}_3\right]=2 \times 0.955=1.910 \mathrm{M}}\)

∴ \({\left[\mathrm{CO}_3^{2-}\right]=\left[\mathrm{Na}_2 \mathrm{CO}_3\right]=0.955 \mathrm{M}}\)

NEET MCQs on Basic Chemistry Concepts 

Question 45. 10 g of hydrogen and 64 g of oxygen were filled in a steel vessel and exploded. The amount of water produced in this reaction will be

1. 3 mol
2. 4 mol
3. 1 mol
4. 2 mol

Answer: 2. 4 mol

10 g of H₂ = 5 mol and 64 g of O₂= 2 mol

∴ In this reaction, oxygen is the limiting reagent so the amount of H₂O produced depends on the amount of O₂.

Since 0.5 mol of O₂ gives I mol of H₂O

∴ 2 mol of O₂ will give 4 mol of H₂O

Question 46. How many moles of lead(2) chloride will be formed from a reaction between 6.5 g of PbO and 3.2 g HCl?

1. 0.011
2. 0.029
3. 0.044
4. 0.333

Answer: 2. 0.029

The formation of moles of lead(2) chloride depends upon the no. of moles of PbO which acts as a limiting reagent here. So, a number of moles of PbCl₂ formed will be equal to the no. of moles of PbO i.e.,0.029.

Question 47. The mass of carbon anode consumed (giving only carbon dioxide) in the production of 270 kg of aluminum metal from bauxite by the Hall process is

1. 270 kg
2. 540 kg
3. 90 kg
4. 180 kg

(Atomic mass: AI = 27)

Answer: 3. 90 kg

∴ \(\underset{\text { (From bauxite) }}{3 \mathrm{C}+2 \mathrm{Al}_2 \mathrm{O}_3 \longrightarrow 4 \mathrm{Al}+3 \mathrm{CO}_2}\)

4 moles of AI is produced by 3 moles of C.

1 mole of Al is produced by \(\frac{3}{4}\) mole of C

∴ \(\frac{270 \times 1000}{27}=10^4\) moles of Al is produced by \(\frac{3}{4} \times 10^4\) moles of C

Amount of carbon used = \(\frac{3}{4} \times 10^4 \times 12 \mathrm{~g}\)

= \(\frac{3}{4} \times 10 \times 12 \mathrm{~kg}=90 \mathrm{~kg}\)

Basic Chemistry NEET question bank 

Question 48. The molarity of liquid HCl, if the density of the solution is 1.17 g/cc is

1. 36.5
2. 18.25
3. 32.05
4. 42.10

Answer: 3. 32.05

Density= 1.17 g/cc.

⇒ 1 cc. the solution contains 1.17 g of HCl

∴ Molarity = \(\frac{1.17 \times 1000}{36.5 \times 1}=32.05\)

Question 49. The volume of CO₂ obtained by the complete decomposition of 9.85 g of BaCO₃ is

1. 2.24 L
2. 1.12 L
3. 0.84 L
4. 0.56 L

Answer: 2. 1.12 L

9.85 g of BaCO₃ will produce 1.118 L of CO₂ at N.T.p, on the complete decomposition.

Question 50. In the reaction  \(4 \mathrm{NH}_{3(g)}+5 \mathrm{O}_{2(g)} \rightarrow 4 \mathrm{NO}_{(g)}+6 \mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{O}_{(l)}\), when 1 mole of ammonia and 1 mole of O₂ are made to react to completion

1. All the oxygen will be consumed
2. 1.0 mole of NO will be produced
3. 1.0 mole of H₂O is produced
4. All the ammonia will be consumed.

Answer: 1. All the oxygen will be consumed

In the reaction  \(4 \mathrm{NH}_{3(g)}+5 \mathrm{O}_{2(g)} \rightarrow 4 \mathrm{NO}_{(g)}+6 \mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{O}_{(l)}\)

∴ \(\underset{4 moles}4 \mathrm{NH}_{3(g)}+\underset{5 moles}5 \mathrm{O}_{2(g)} \rightarrow \underset{4 moles}4 \mathrm{NO}_{(g)} + \underset{6 moles} 6 \mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{O}_{(l)}\)

⇒ 1 mole of NH₃ requires = 514 = 1.25 mole of oxygen while

I mole of O₂ requires =4/5 = 0.8 mole of NH₃

Therefore, all oxygen will be consumed.

Basic Chemistry NEET question bank 

Question 51. The amount of zinc required to produce 224 mL of H₂ at STP on treatment with dilute H₂SO₄ will be

1. 65 g
2. 0.065 g
3. 0.65 g
4. 6.5 g

Answer: 3. 0.65 g

Since 65 g of zinc reacts to liberate 22400 mL of H₂ at STP, therefore the amount of zinc needed to produce 224 mL of H, at STP = \(\frac{65}{224000}\) x 224 = 0.65 g

Question 52. At STP the density of CCl₄ vapor in g/L will be nearest to

1. 6.87
2. 3.42
3. 10.26
4. 4.57

Answer: 1. 6.87

Weight of 1 mol of CCl₄ vapour = 12 + 4 x 35.5 = 154 g

∴ Density of CCl₄ vapour = \(\frac{154}{22.4}\) gL^-1 = 6.875 g L^-1

NEET Chemistry For Organic Chemistry Some Basic Principles And Techniques Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. The number of sigma (σ) and pi (π) bonds in pent-2-en-4-yne is

1. 13 σ bonds and no π bond
2. 10 σ bonds and 3π bonds
3. 8 σ bonds and 5π bonds
4. 11 σ bonds and 2π bonds.

Answer: 2. 10 σ bonds and 3π bonds

Question 2. Which of the following molecules represents the order of hybridisation sp², sp², sp, sp from left to right atoms?

1. HC ≡ C — C ≡ CH
2. CH₂ = CH — C ≡ CH
3. CH₂ = CH — CH = CH₂
4. CH₃ — CH = CH — CH₃

Answer: 2. CH₂ = CH — C = CH

⇒ \(\stackrel{s p^2}{\mathrm{CH}_2}=\stackrel{s p^2}{\mathrm{C}} \mathrm{H}-\stackrel{s p}{\mathrm{C}} \equiv \stackrel{s p}{\mathrm{C}} \mathrm{H}\)

Question 3. The total number of π-bond electrons in the following structure is

1. 12
2. 16
3. 4
4. 8

Answer: 4. 8

There are four double bonds. Hence, no. of E-electrons =2×4=8.

Organic Chemistry NEET MCQs 

Question 4. The state of hybridisation of C₂, C₃, C₅ and C₆ of the hydrocarbon,

is in the following sequence

1. sp³, sp², sp² and sp
2. sp, sp², sp² and sp³
3. sp, sp², sp³ and sp²
4. sp, sp³, sp² and sp³

Answer: 4. sp, sp³, sp² and sp³

∴ \(\mathrm{C}_2-s p, \mathrm{C}_3-s p^3, \mathrm{C}_5-s p^2 \text { and } \mathrm{C}_6-s p^3\)

Question 5. In the hydrocarbon, \(\underset{6}{\mathrm{CH}_3}-\underset{5}{\mathrm{CH}}=\underset{4}{\mathrm{CH}}-\underset{3}{\mathrm{CH}_2}-\underset{2}{\mathrm{C}} \equiv \underset{1}{\mathrm{C}} \mathrm{H}\) the state of hybridisation of carbons 1, 3 and 5 are in the following sequence

1. sp, sp², sp³
2. sp³, sp², sp
3. sp², sp, sp³
4. sp, sp³, sp²

Answer: 4. sp, sp³, sp²

The state of hybridisation of carbon in the 1,3 and 5 positions are sp, sp³ and sp².

Question 6. In which of the following compounds there is more than one kind of hybridisation (sp, sp², sp³) for carbon?

1. CH₂ = CH-CH = CH₂
2. H – C ≡ C – H
3. CH₃CH₂CH₂CH₃
4. CH₃-CH = CH-CH₃

Answer: 4. CH₃-CH = CH-CH₃

Question 7. A straight-chain hydrocarbon has the molecular formula C₈H₁₀. The hybridisation of the carbon atoms from one end of the chain to the other is respectively sp³, sp², sp², sp³, sp², sp², sp and sp. The structural formula of the hydrocarbon would be

1. CH₃C ≡ CCH₂-CH = CHCH = CH₂
2. CH₃CH2 – CH = CHCH CHC ≡ CH
3. CH₃CH = CHCH₂-C ≡ CCH = CH₂
4. CH₃CH = CHCH₂ – CH = CHC ≡ CH

Answer: 4. CH₃CH = CHCH₂ – CH = CHC ≡ CH

A straight-chain hydrocarbon has the molecular formula C₈H₁₀. The hybridisation of the carbon atoms from one end of the chain to the other is respectively sp³, sp², sp², sp³, sp², sp², sp and sp.

⇒ \(\stackrel{s p^3}{\mathrm{CH}_3} \stackrel{s p^2}{\mathrm{C H}}=\stackrel{s p^2}{\mathrm{C H}}-\stackrel{s p^3}{\mathrm{C H}}_2-\stackrel{s p^2}{\mathrm{C H}}=\stackrel{s p^2}{\mathrm{C H}} -\stackrel{s p}{\mathrm{C}} \equiv \stackrel{s p}{\mathrm{C H}}\)

NEET questions on Organic Chemistry 

Question 8. Which of the following possesses a sp-carbon in its structure?

1. CH₂=CCl-CH = CH₂
2. CCl₂ = CCl₂
3. CH₂ = C= CH₂
4. CH₂ = CH-CH=CH₂

Answer: 3. CH₂ = C= CH₂

⇒ \(\stackrel{s p^2}{\mathrm{C H}}_2=\stackrel{s p}{\mathrm{C}}=\stackrel{s p^2}{\mathrm{C H}_2}\)

Question 9. The Cl-C-Cl angle in 1, 1, 2, 2-tetrachloro-ethene and tetrachloromethane respectively will be about

1. 120° and 109.5°
2. 90° and 109.5°
3. 109.5° and 90°
4. 109.5° and 120°

Answer: 1. 120° and 109.5°

Tetrachloroethene being an alkene has sp²-hybridised C-atoms and hence the angle CI-C-CI is 120° while in tetrachioromethane is, carbon is sp³ hybridised, therefore the angle Cl-C-Cl is109°28′.

Question 10. The number of σ bonds, π bonds and lone pair of electrons in pyridine, respectively are

1. 11,3, 1
2. 12,2,1
3. 11,2,0
4. 12,3,0

Answer: 1. 11,3, 1

σ bonds:11

π bonds : 3

Lone pair: 1

Question 11. An organic compound X(molecular formula C₆H₇O₂N) has six carbon atoms in a ring system, two double bonds and a nitro group as a substituent, X is

1. Homocyclic but not aromatic
2. Aromatic but not homocyclic
3. Homocyclic and aromatic
4. Heterocyclic and aromatic.

Answer: 1. Homocyclic but not aromatic

Hence, it is homocyclic (as the ring system is made of one thee of atoms, i.e., carbon) but not aromatic.

NEET questions on Organic Chemistry 

Question 12. The correct IUPAC name of the following compound is

1. 1-bromo-5-chloro-4-methylhexan-3-ol
2. 6-bromo-2-chloro-4-methylhexan-4-ol
3. 1-bromo-4-methyl-5-chlorotoxin-3-ol
4. 6-bromo-4-methyl-2-chlorohexan-4-ol.

Answer: 1. 1-bromo-5-chloro-4-methylhexan-3-ol

Question 13. The correct Structure of 2, 6-dimethyl-dec-4-ene is

Answer: 2

Question 14. The IUPAC name of the compound

1. 5-formylhex-2-en-3-one
2. 5-methyl-4-oxohex-2-en-5-al
3. 3-keto-2-methylhex-5-enal
4. 3-keto-2-methylhex-4-enal

Answer: 4. 3-keto-2-methylhex-4-enal

Organic Chemistry multiple choice questions NEET 

Question 15. The structure of the isobutyl group in an organic compound is

Answer: 3

Question 16. The structure of the compound whose IUPAC name is 3-ethyl-2-hydroxy-4-methylhex-3-en-5-yonic acid is

Answer: 4

IUPAC name of the compound is 3 -ethyl-2-hydroxy-4-methylhex-3-en-5-ynoic acid.

Question 17. Which nomenclature is not according to the IUPAC system?

Answer: 1

Organic Chemistry multiple choice questions NEET 

Question 18. The correct IUPAC name for the compound

1. 4-ethyl-3-propylhex-1-ene
2. 3-ethyl-4-ethenyl heptane
3. 3-ethyl-4-propylhex-5-ene
4. 3-(1-ethylpropyl)hex-1-ene.

Answer: 1. 4-ethyl-3-propyl hex-1-ene

Question 19. The IUPAC name of the following compound is

1. Trans-2-chloro-3-iodo-2-pentene
2. cis-3-iodo-4-chloro-3-pentane
3. Trans-3-iodo-4-chloro-3-pentene
4. cis-2-chloro-3-iodo-2-pentene.

Answer: 1. Trans-2-chloro-3-iodo-2-pentene

Question 20. The IUPAC name of the compound CH₃CH=CHC≡CH is

1. Pent-4-yn-2-ene
2. Pent-3-en-1-yne
3. Pent-2-en-4-yne
4. Pent-1-yn-3-ene.

Answer: 2. Pent-3-en-1-yne

If a molecule contains both carbon-carbon double or triple bonds, the two are treated as seeking the lowest number combination. However, if the sum of numbers turns out to be the same starting from either of the carbon chains, then the lowest number is given to the C=C double bond.

NEET practice questions Organic Chemistry 

Question 21. The IUPAC name of the compound having the formula CH≡C—CH=CH₂ is

1. 1-butyne-3-ene
2. but-1-yne-3-ene
3. 1-butene-3-yne
4. 3-butene-1-yne.

Answer: 3. 1-butene-3-yne

Since the sum of numbers starting from either side of the carbon chain turns out to be the same, so lowest number is given to the C=C end.

Question 22. The IUPAC name is

1. 1-chloro-1-oxo-2,3-dimethyl pentane
2. 2-ethyl-3-methyl butanol chloride
3. 2,3-dimethyl pentanol chloride
4. 3,4-dimethylpentanoyl chloride.

Answer: 3. 2,3-dimethyl pentanol chloride

It is 2,3-dimethylpentanoyl chloride.

Question 23. Names of some compounds are given. Which one is not in the IUPAC system?

Answer: 1

Question 24. The name of the compound given below is

1. 4-ethyl-3-methyl octane
2. 3-methyl-4-ethylacetate
3. 2,3-diethyl heptane
4. 5-ethyl-6-methyloctane.

Answer: 1. 4-ethyl-3-methyl octane

NEET practice questions Organic Chemistry 

Question 25. IUPAC name of the following is CH₂ = CH – CH₂ – CH₂ – C ≡ CH

1. 1,5-hexene
2. 1-hexene-5-yne
3. 1-hexyne-5-ene
4. 1,5-hexynene.

Answer: 2. 1-hexene-5-yne

⇒ \(\stackrel{1}{\mathrm{C}} \mathrm{H}_2=\stackrel{2}{\mathrm{C}} \mathrm{H}-\stackrel{3}{\mathrm{C}} \mathrm{H}_2-\stackrel{4}{\mathrm{C}} \mathrm{H}_2-\stackrel{5}{\mathrm{C}} \equiv \stackrel{6}{\mathrm{C}} \mathrm{H}\)

The double bond gets priority over the triple bond. therefore, the correct IUPAC name is 1-hexene-5-yne.

Question 26. The incorrect IUPAC name is

Answer: 1

The    group should get priority over methyl group.;

Correct IUPAC name is

Question 27. The IUPAC name of (CH₃)₂CH – CH₂ – CH₂Br is

1. 1-bromo-3-methyl butane
2. 2-methyl-3-bromopropane
3. 1-bromopentane
4. 2-methyl-4-bromobutane.

Answer: 1. 1-bromo-3-methyl butane

Question 28. The IUPAC name is

1. 3-amino-5-heptenoic acid
2. β-amino-ε-heptenoic acid
3. 5-amino-2-heptenoic acid
4. 5-amino-hex-2-enecarboxylic acid.

Answer: 1. 3-amino-5-heptanoic acid

As -COOH group is the highest priority group, it is numbered one. So, the IUPAC name is 3-amino-5-heptenoic acid.

Question 29. 2-Methyl-2-butene will be represented as

Answer: 2

Chemistry MCQs Organic Chemistry NEET 

Question 30. The IUPAC name is

1. 4-hydroxy-1-methylpentanal
2. 4-hydroxy-2-methyl pent-2-en-1-al
3. 2-hydroxy-4-methyl pent-3-en-5-al
4. 2-hydroxy-3-methylpent-2-en-5-al.

Answer: 2. 4-hydroxy-2-methyl pent-2-en-1-al

Question 31. The compound which shows metamerism is

1. C₄H₁₀O
2. C₅H₁₂
3. C₃H₈O
4. C₃H₆O

Answer: 1. C₄H₁₀O

Metamerism occurs when the compound has a different number of carbon atoms on either side of the functional group.

Question 32. Which among the given molecules can exhibit tautomerism?

1. 3 only
2. Both 1 and 2
3. Both 1 and 3
4. Both 2 and 3

Which of the given compounds can exhibit tautomerism?

1. 2 and 3
2. 1, 2 and 3
3. 1 and 2
4. 1 and 3

Answer: 1. 3 only

α-Hydrogen at bridge carbon never participates in tautomerism. Thus, only (3) exhibit tautomerism.

Question 33. Given:

Which of the given compounds can exhibit tautomerism?

1. 2 and 3
2. 1, 2 and 3
3. 1 and 2
4. 1 and 3

Answer: 2. 1, 2 and 3

In keto-enol tautomerism,

Chemistry MCQs Organic Chemistry NEET 

Question 34. The enolic form of ethyl acetoacetate as shown below has

1. 9 sigma bonds and 2 pi-bonds
2. 9 sigma bonds and 1 pi-bond
3. 18 sigma bonds and 2 pi-bonds
4. 16 sigma bonds and 1 pi-bond.

Answer: 3. 18 sigma bonds and 2 pi-bonds

The enolic form of ethyl acetoacetate has 18 σ-bonds and 2π-bonds.

Question 35. Which one of the following pairs represents stereoisomerism?

1. Structural isomerism and geometrical isomerism
2. Optical isomerism and geometrical isomerism
3. Chain isomerism and rotational isomerism
4. Linkage isomerism and geometrical isomerism

Answer: 2. Optical isomerism and geometrical isomerism

Question 36. The molecular formula of diphenylmethane,

How many structural isomers are possible when one of the hydrogen is replaced by a chlorine atom?

1. 6
2. 4
3. 8
4. 7

Answer: 2. 4

Only four structural isomers are possible for mono-chlorinated diphenylmethane.

Question 37. Tautomerism is exhibited by

1. R₃CNO₂
2. RCH₂NO₂
3. (CH₃)₃CNO
4. (CH₃)₂NH

Answer: 2. RCH₂NO₂

It is a special type of functional isomerism, in which both the isomers are represented by one and the same substance and are always present in equilibrium. It is exhibited by nitroalkane (RCH₂NO₂) and isonitroalkane.

Question 38. The number of isomers in C₄H₁₀O will be

1. 7
2. 8
3. 5
4. 6

Answer: 1. 7

There are 7 isomers in C₄H₁₀O. Out of these, 4 are alcohols and 3 are ethers.

Question 39. Isomers of a substance must have the same

1. Structural formula
2. Physical properties
3. Chemical properties
4. Molecular formula.

Answer: 4. Molecular formula.

Isomers must have the same molecular formula but a different structural formula.

Organic Chemistry quiz for NEET 

Question 40. How many chain isomers could be obtained from the alkane C₆H₁₄?

1. Four
2. Five
3. Six
4. Seven

Answer: 2. Five

5-chain isomers are obtained from alkane C₆H₁₄

Question 41. A tertiary butyl carbocation is more stable than a secondary butyl carbocation because of which of the following?

1. -I effect of – CH₃ groups
2. +R effect of – CH₃ groups
3. -R effect of – CH₃ groups
4. Hyperconjugation

Answer: 4. Hyperconjugation

tert-Bttylcarbocation, (CH₃)₂C⁺ is more stable than sec-butyl carbocation (CH₃)₂C⁺H due to hyperconjugation.

⇒ \(\left(\mathrm{CH}_3\right)_3 \stackrel{+}{\mathrm{C}}\) has nine C – H bonds while \(\left(\mathrm{CH}_3\right)_2 \stackrel{+}{\mathrm{C}}\) has six C – H bonds. Thus, there are more hyperconjugative structures in tert-butyl carbocation.

Question 42. The most stable carbocation, among the following, is

1. (CH₃)₃ C—CH—CH₃
2. CH₃—CH₂—CH—CH₂—CH₃
3. CH₃—CH—CH₂—CH₂—CH₃
4. CH₃—CH₂—CH₂

Answer: 3. CH₃—CH—CH₂—CH₂—CH₃

Among the given carbocations, \(\mathrm{CH}_3-\stackrel{+}{\mathrm{C}} \mathrm{H}-\mathrm{CH}_2-\mathrm{CH}_2-\mathrm{CH}_3\) is most stable carbocation.

As is consists of a maximum number of u-hydrogens and is stabilised by hyperconjugation.

Organic Chemistry quiz for NEET 

Question 43. Which of the following is correct with respect to- I effect of the substituents? (R = alkyl)

1. – NH₂ < – OR < – F
2. – NR₂ < – OR < – F
3. – NH₂ > – OR > – F
4. – NR₂ > – OR > – F

Answer: 1. – NH₂ < – OR < – F and 2. – NR₂ < – OR < – F

I-effect increases on increasing the electro negativity of the atom.

∴ -NH₂<-OR<-F (-I effect)

Also, – NR₂ < – OR < – F (-I effect)

Question 44. Which of the following carbocations is expected to be most stable?

Answer: 3

-NO₂ group is meta-directing, thus will stabilize an electrophile at m-position.

Question 45. The correct statement regarding electrophiles is

1. Electrophile is a negatively charged species and can form a bond by accepting a pair of electrons from another electrophile
2. Electrophiles are generally neutral species and can form a bond by accepting a pair of electrons from a nucleophile
3. Electrophiles can be either neutral or positively charged species and can form a bond by accepting a pair of electrons from a nucleophile
4. Electrophiles is a negatively charged species and can form a bond by accepting a pair of electrons from a nucleophile.

Answer: 3. Electrophiles can be either neutral or positively charged species and can form a bond by accepting a pair of electrons from a nucleophile

Question 46. Which of the following statements is not correct for a nucleophile?

1. Ammonia is a nucleophile.
2. Nucleophiles attack low-density sites.
3. Nucleophiles are not electron-seeking.
4. A nucleophile is a Lewis acid.

Answer: 4. Nucleophile is a Lewis acid.

Nucleophiles are electron-rich species hence, they are Lewis bases.

NEET MCQs on Organic Chemistry 

Question 47. Treatment of cyclopentanone with methyl lithium gives which of the following species?

1. Cyclopentanonyl radical
2. Cyclopentanonyl biradical
3. Cyclopentanonyl anion
4. Cyclopentanonyl cation

Answer: 3. Cyclopentanonyl anion

Question 48. Which of the following is the most correct electron displacement for a nucleophilic reaction to take place?

Answer: 1. Nucleophiles will attack a stable carbocation (S_N1 reaction).

Question 49. Consider the following compounds:

Hyperconjugation occurs in

1. 3 only
2. 1 and 3
3. 1 only
4. 2 only.

Answer: 1. 3 only

Hyperconjugation can occur only in compound 3 as it has an α-hydrogen atom.

NEET MCQs on Organic Chemistry 

Question 50. In which of the following compounds, does the C—Cl bond ionisation give the most stable carbonium ion?

Answer: 4

is most stable due to hyperconjugation.

Question 51. The radical is aromatic because it has

1. 7 p-orbitals and 7 unpaired electrons
2. 6 p-orbitals and 7 unpaired electrons
3. 6 p-orbitals and 6 unpaired electrons
4. 7 p-orbitals and 6 unpaired electrons.

Answer: 3. 6 p-orbitals and 6 unpaired electrons

Question 52. Arrange the following in increasing order of stability.

1. 5< 4<3<1<2
2. 4<5<3<1<2
3. 1<5<4<3<2
4. 5<4<3<2<1

Answer: 1. 4<3<1<2

The greater the number of electron-donating alkyl groups (+1 effect), the greater the stability of carbocations.

+I effect is in the order:

NEET MCQs on Organic Chemistry 

The more the number of hyperconjugation structures of carbocations, the more is the stability.

Hence, the order of stability of carbocations is 5<4<3<1<2.

Question 53. What is the hybridization state of benzyl carbonium ion

1. sp²
2. spd²
3. sp²d
4. sp³

Answer: 1. sp²

Question 54. Homolytic fission of the following alkanes forms free radicals CH₃ — CH₃, CH₃ — CH₂ — CH₃, (CH₃)₂ CH — CH₃, CH₃ — CH₂ — CH(CH₃)₂. Increasing the order of stability of the radicals is

1. \(\left(\mathrm{CH}_3\right)_2 \dot{\mathrm{C}}-\mathrm{CH}_2-\mathrm{CH}_3<\mathrm{CH}_3-\dot{\mathrm{C}} \mathrm{H}-\mathrm{CH}_3\)\(<\mathrm{CH}_3-\dot{\mathrm{C}} \mathrm{H}_2<\left(\mathrm{CH}_3\right)_3 \dot{\mathrm{C}}\)
2. \(\mathrm{CH}_3-\dot{\mathrm{C}} \mathrm{H}_2<\mathrm{CH}_3-\dot{\mathrm{C}} \mathrm{H}-\mathrm{CH}_3\)\(<\left(\mathrm{CH}_3\right)_2 \dot{\mathrm{C}}-\mathrm{CH}_2-\mathrm{CH}_3<\left(\mathrm{CH}_3\right)_3 \dot{\mathrm{C}}\)
3. \(\mathrm{CH}_3-\dot{\mathrm{C}} \mathrm{H}_2<\mathrm{CH}_3-\dot{\mathrm{C}} \mathrm{H}-\mathrm{CH}_3\)\(<\left(\mathrm{CH}_3\right)_3 \dot{\mathrm{C}}<\left(\mathrm{CH}_3\right)_2 \dot{\mathrm{C}}-\mathrm{CH}_2-\mathrm{CH}_3\)
4. \(\left(\mathrm{CH}_3\right)_3 \dot{\mathrm{C}}<\left(\mathrm{CH}_3\right)_2 \dot{\mathrm{C}}-\mathrm{CH}_2-\mathrm{CH}_3\)\(<\mathrm{CH}_3-\dot{\mathrm{C}} \mathrm{H}-\mathrm{CH}_3<\mathrm{CH}_3-\dot{\mathrm{C}} \mathrm{H}_2\)

Answer: 2. \(\mathrm{CH}_3-\dot{\mathrm{C}} \mathrm{H}_2<\mathrm{CH}_3-\dot{\mathrm{C}} \mathrm{H}-\mathrm{CH}_3\)\(<\left(\mathrm{CH}_3\right)_2 \dot{\mathrm{C}}-\mathrm{CH}_2-\mathrm{CH}_3<\left(\mathrm{CH}_3\right)_3 \dot{\mathrm{C}}\)

Homolytic fission of the following alkanes forms free radicals CH₃ — CH₃, CH₃ — CH₂ — CH₃, (CH₃)₂ CH — CH₃, CH₃ — CH₂ — CH(CH₃)₂.

The more the number of hyperconjugation structures, the greater is the stability.

Question 55. Which one is a nucleophilic substitution reaction among the following?

Answer: 3

A nucleophilic substitution reaction involves the displacement of a nucleophile by another.

Question 56. Which one of the following is most reactive towards electrophilic reagents?

Answer: 2

+R effect of the -OH group is greater than that of the -OCH₃ group.

Question 57. Which of the following species is not electrophilic in nature?

1. \(\stackrel{+}{\mathrm{Cl}}\)
2. BH₃
3. H₃O⁺

Answer: 3. H₃O⁺

Organic Chemistry NEET question bank 

Question 58. The stability of carbanions in the following:

is in the order of

1. (4) > (2) > (3) > (1)
2. (1) > (3) > (2) > (4)
3. (1) > (2) > (3) > (4)
4. (2) > (3) > (4) > (1)

Answer: 3. (1) > (2) > (3) > (4)

The higher the no. of electron-releasing groups lower be stability of carbanion, and vice-versa. So, the order of stability of carbanions is

Question 59. For (1) I^–, (2) Cl^–, and (3) Br^–, the increasing order of nucleophilicity would be

1. CI^– < Br^– < I^–
2. I^– < Cl^– < Br^–
3. Br^– < Cl^– < I^–
4. I^– < Br^– < Cl^–

Answer: 1. Cl^– < Br^– < I^–

In the case of different nucleophiles, but present in the same group in the periodic table, the larger is the atomic mass, the higher is the nucleophilicity. Hence, the increasing order of nucleophilicity of the halide ions is F^–<Cl^–<Br^–<I^–.

Question 60. Which amongst the following is the most stable carbocation?

Answer: 4

3° carbon is more stable due to the stabilization of the charge by three methyl groups (or +I effect). It can also be explained on the basis of hyperconjugation. The greater the number of hyper conjugative α-H atoms, the more the hyperconjugation structures and the more will be stability.

Question 61. Which of the following is the most stable carbocation (carbonium ion)?

1. \(\mathrm{CH}_3 \stackrel{+}{\mathrm{C}} \mathrm{H}_2\)
2. \(\left(\mathrm{CH}_3\right)_2 \stackrel{+}{\mathrm{CH}}\)
3. \(\left(\mathrm{CH}_3\right)_3 \mathrm{C}\)
4. \(\mathrm{C}_6 \mathrm{H}_5 \stackrel{+}{\mathrm{C}} \mathrm{H}_2\)

Answer: 3. \(\left(\mathrm{CH}_3\right)_3 \mathrm{C}\)

3° > 2° > 1° The more the delocalisation of the positive charge, the more is its stability.

Question 62. Cyclic hydrocarbon ‘A’ has all the carbon and hydrogen atoms in the plane. All the carbon-carbon bonds have the same length, less than 1.54 Å, but more than 1.34 Å. The bond angle will be

1. 109°28′
2. 100°
3. 180°
4. 120°

Answer: 4. 120°

Cyclic hydrocarbon ‘A’ has all the carbon and hydrogen atoms in the plane. All the carbon-carbon bonds have the same length, less than 1.54 Å,but more than 1.34 Å.

All the properties mentioned in the question suggest that it is a benzene molecule. Since in benzene, all carbons are sp²-hybridised, therefore, C – C – C angle is 120°

Organic Chemistry NEET question bank 

Question 63. Paper chromatography is an example of

1. Adsorption chromatography
2. Partition chromatography
3. Thin layer chromatography
4. Column chromatography.

Answer: 2.  Partition chromatography

Paper chromatography is a type of partition chromatography.

Question 64. The most suitable method of separation of 1:1 mixture of ortho and para-nitrophenols is

1. Chromatography
2. Crystallisation
3. Steam distillation
4. Sublimation.

Answer: 3. Steam distillation

The o- and p-nitrophenols are separated by steam distillation since the o-isomer is steam volatile due to intramolecular H-bonding while-isomer is not steam volatile due to the association of molecules by intermolecular H-bonding.

Question 65. The best method for the separation of naphthalene and benzoic acid from their mixture is

1. Distillation
2. Sublimation
3. Chromatography
4. Crystallisation.

Answer: 4. Crystallisation.

Both naphthalene and benzoic acid are sublimable. Hence they cannot be separated by sublimation method. They can be separated by crystallisation with hot water. Benzoic acid dissolves in hot water whereas naphthalene does not.

Question 66. In steam distillation of toluene, the pressure of toluene in vapour is

1. Equal to the pressure of a barometer
2. Less than the pressure of a barometer
3. Equal to vapour pressure of toluene in simple distillation
4. More than the vapour pressure of toluene in simple distillation.

Answer: 2. Less than the pressure of the barometer

In steam distillation of toluene, the pressure of toluene in the vapour is less than the pressure of a barometer, because it is carried out when a solid or liquid is insoluble in water and is volatile with steam but the impurities are non-volatile.

Question 67. Which of the following techniques is most suitable for the purification of cyclohexanone from a mixture containing benzoic acid, isoamyl alcohol, cyclohexane and cyclohexanone?

1. Sublimation
2. Evaporation
3. Crystallisation
4. IR spectroscopy

Answer: 4. IR spectroscopy

In IR spectroscopy, each functional group appears at a certain peak (in cm^-1). So, cyclohexanone can be identified by carbonyl peak.

Organic Chemistry NEET question bank 

Question 68. In Lassaignes extract of an organic compound, both nitrogen and sulphur are present, which gives blood red colour with Fe due to the formation of

1. \(\left[\mathrm{Fe}(\mathrm{CN})_5 \mathrm{NOS}\right]^{4-}\)
2. \([\mathrm{Fe}(\mathrm{SCN})]^{2+}\)
3. \(\mathrm{Fe}_4\left[\mathrm{Fe}(\mathrm{CN})_6\right]_3 \cdot \mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{O}\)
4. \(\mathrm{NaSCN}\)

Answer: 2. \([\mathrm{Fe}(\mathrm{SCN})]^{2+}\)

In case, nitrogen and sulphur both are present in an organic compound, sodium thiocyanate is formed. It gives a blood-red colour and no Prussian blue since there is no free cyanide.

⇒ \(\mathrm{Na}+\mathrm{C}+\mathrm{N}+\mathrm{S} \longrightarrow \mathrm{NaSCN}\)

⇒ \(\mathrm{Fe}^{3+}+\mathrm{SCN}^{-} \longrightarrow \underset{\text { Blood red }}{[\mathrm{Fe}(\mathrm{SCN})]^{2+}}\)

Question 69. Nitrogen detection in an organic compound is carried out by the Lassaignes test. The blue colour formed corresponds to which of the following formulae?

1. \(\mathrm{Fe}_3\left[\mathrm{Fe}(\mathrm{CN})_6\right]_2\)
2. \(\mathrm{Fe}_4\left[\mathrm{Fe}(\mathrm{CN})_6\right]_3\)
3. \(\mathrm{Fe}_4\left[\mathrm{Fe}(\mathrm{CN})_6\right]_2\)
4. \(\mathrm{Fe}_5\left[\mathrm{Fe}(\mathrm{CN})_6\right]_3\)

Answer: 2. \(\mathrm{Fe}_4\left[\mathrm{Fe}(\mathrm{CN})_6\right]_3\)

⇒ \(\underset{\text { Sodium ferrocyanide }}{3 \mathrm{Na}_4\left[\mathrm{Fe}(\mathrm{CN})_6\right]}+2 \mathrm{Fe}_2\left(\mathrm{SO}_4\right)_3 \rightarrow  \underset{ \text { Ferric ferrocyanide
(Prussian blue) }}{\mathrm{Fe}_4\left[\mathrm{Fe}(\mathrm{CN})_6\right]_3}+6 \mathrm{Na}_2 \mathrm{SO}_4\)

Question 70. The Lassaignes extract is boiled with a cone. HNO₃ while testing for halogens. By doing so it

1. Decomposes Na₂S and NaCN formed
2. Helps in the precipitation of AgCl
3. Increases the solubility product of AgCl
4. Increases the concentration of NO^–₃ ions.

Answer: 1. Decomposes Na₂S and NaCN, formed

In the case of Lassaigne’s test of halogens, it is necessary to remove sodium cyanide and sodium sulphide from the sodium extract if nitrogen and sulphur are present. This is done by boiling the sodium extract with conc. HNO₃.

⇒ \(\mathrm{NaCN}+\mathrm{HNO}_3 \rightarrow \mathrm{NaNO}_3+\mathrm{HCN} \uparrow \)

⇒ \(\mathrm{Na}_2 \mathrm{~S}+2 \mathrm{HNO}_3 \rightarrow 2 \mathrm{NaNO}_3+\mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{~S} \uparrow\)

Question 71. In the sodium fusion test of organic compounds, the nitrogen of the organic compound is converted into

1. Sodamide
2. Sodium cyanide
3. Sodium nitrite
4. Sodium nitrate.

Answer: 2. Sodium cyanide

Sodium cyanide (Na + C + N → NaCN)

Question 72. Lassaignes test is used in qualitative analysis to detect

1. Nitrogen
2. Sulphur
3. Chlorine
4. All of these.

Answer: 4. All of these.

Organic Chemistry NEET question bank 

Question 73. A blue colouration is not obtained when

1. Ammonium hydroxide dissolves in copper sulphate
2. Copper sulphate solution reacts with K₄[Fe(CN)₆]
3. Ferric chloride reacts with sod. ferrocyanide
4. Anhydrous CuSO₄ is dissolved in water.

Answer: 2. Copper sulphate solution reacts with K₄[Fe(CN)₆]

⇒ \(2 \mathrm{CuSO}_4+\mathrm{K}_4\left[\mathrm{Fe}(\mathrm{CN})_6\right] \rightarrow \underset{\text { chocolate ppt. }}{\mathrm{Cu}_2\left[\mathrm{Fe}(\mathrm{CN})_6\right]+2 \mathrm{~K}_2 \mathrm{SO}_4}\)

Question 74. Kjeldahl’s method for the estimation of nitrogen can be used to estimate the amount of nitrogen in which one of the following compounds?

Answer: 3

Kjeldahtr’s method is not applicable to compounds containing nitrogen in the nitro group, azo groups and nitrogen present in the ring (for example, pyridine).

Question 75. In Dumas’s method for estimation of nitrogen, 0.25 g of an organic compound gave 40 mL of nitrogen collected at 300 K temperature and 725 mm pressure. If the aqueous tension at 300 K is 25 mm, the percentage of nitrogen in the compound is

1. 16.76
2. 15.76
3. 17.36
4. 18.20

Answer: 1. 16.76

In Dumas’s method for estimation of nitrogen, 0.25 g of an organic compound gave 40 mL of nitrogen collected at 300 K temperature and 725 mm pressure. If the aqueous tension at 300 K is 25 mm,

Mass of organic compound = 0.25 g

Experimental values, At STP

⇒ \(V_1=40 \mathrm{~mL}, V_2=?, T_1=300 \mathrm{~K}, T_2=273 \mathrm{~K}\)

⇒ \(P_1=725-25=700 \mathrm{~mm}, P_2=760 \mathrm{~mm}\)

⇒  \(\frac{P_1 V_1}{T_1}=\frac{P_2 V_2}{T_2} \Rightarrow V_2=\frac{P_1 V_1 T_2}{T_1 P_2}=\frac{700 \times 40 \times 273}{300 \times 760}=33.52 \mathrm{~mL}\)

22400 mL of \(\mathrm{N}_2\) at STP weighs = 28 g

∴ 33.52 mL of \(\mathrm{N}_2\) at STP weighs = \(\frac{28 \times 33.52}{22400}=0.0419 \mathrm{~g}\)

% of \(\mathrm{N}=\frac{\text { Mass of nitrogen at STP }}{\text { Mass of organic compound taken }} \times 100\)

= \(\frac{0.0419}{0.25} \times 100=16.76 \%\)

Organic Chemistry NEET question bank 

Question 76. In Kjeldahl’s method for estimation of nitrogen present in a soil sample, ammonia evolved from 0.75 g of sample neutralized 10 mL of 1 M H₂SO₄. The percentage of nitrogen in the soil is

1. 37.33
2. 45.33
3. 35.33
4. 43.33

Answer: 1. 37.33

In Kjeldahl’s method for estimation of nitrogen present in a soil sample, ammonia evolved from 0.75 g of sample neutralized 10 mL of 1 M H₂SO₄.

⇒ \(\mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{SO}_4+2 \mathrm{NH}_3 \rightarrow\left(\mathrm{NH}_4\right)_2 \mathrm{SO}_4\)

10 mL of 1 M H₂SO₄ = 10 m mol

[M x V_(mL) = mmol]

The acid used for the absorption of ammonia = 10 mL of 2 N (or 1 M) H₂SO₄

% of N = \(\frac{1.4 \times N \times V}{W}=\frac{1.4 \times 2 \times 10}{0.75}=37.33 \%\)

Organic Chemistry NEET question bank 

Question 77. In Dumas’ method of estimation of nitrogen 0.35 g of an organic compound gave 55 mL of nitrogen collected at 300 K temperature and 715 mm pressure. The percentage composition of nitrogen in the compound would be (aqueous tension at 300 K = 15 mm)

1. 15.45
2. 16.45
3. 17.45
4. 14.45

Answer: 2. 16.45

In Dumas’ method of estimation of nitrogen 0.35 g of an organic compound gave 55 mL of nitrogen collected at 300 K temperature and 715 mm pressure.

Given: V₁ = 55mL, V₂ = ?

P₁ = 715 – 15 = 700 mm, P₂ = 760 mm

T₁ = 300K, T₂ = 273K

General sas equation, \(\frac{P_1 V_1}{T_1}=\frac{P_2 V_2}{T_2}\)

Volume of nitrogen at STP, \(V_2=\frac{P_1 V_1 T_2}{P_2 T_1}=\frac{700 \times 55 \times 273}{760 \times 300}=46.099 \mathrm{~mL}\)

% of nitrogen = Vz , where, W= the mass of organic compound.

% of N = \(=\frac{46.099}{8 \times 0.35}\) = 16.46

Question 78. Kjeldahl’s method is used in the estimation of

1. Nitrogen
2. Halogens
3. Sulphur
4. Oxygen.

Answer: 1. Nitrogen