NEET Physics Class 12 Chapter 6 Solids And Semiconductors Devices Multiple Choice Questions

Chapter 6 Solids And Semiconductors Devices Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. Symbolic representation of photodiode is-

NEET Physics Class 12 Chapter 6 Solids And Semiconductors Devices MCQs Symbolic representation

Answer: 1.

Question 2. Symbol of Zener diode-

NEET Physics Class 12 Chapter 6 Solids And Semiconductors Devices MCQs Symbolic representation

Answer: 1.

Question 3. The diffusion current in a p-n junction is greater than the drift current in magnitude

  1. If The Junction is forward-biased
  2. If The Junction is reverse-biased
  3. If The Junction is unbiased
  4. In No Case

Answer: 1. If The Junction is forward-biased

Question 4. In a p-n junction,

  1. New Holes And Conduction Electrons Are Produced Continuously Throughout The Material
  2. New Holes And Conduction Electrons Are Produced Continuously Throughout The Material Except In The Depletion Region
  3. Holes And Conduction Electrons Recombine Continuously Throughout The Material.
  4. Holes And Conduction Electrons Recombine Continuously Throughout The Material Except In The Depletion Region.

Answer: 1. New Holes And Conduction Electrons Are Produced Continuously Throughout The Material

Question 5. A hole diffuses from the p-side to the n-side in a p-n junction. This means that

  1. A Bond Is Broken On The N-Side And The Electron Freed From The Bond Jumps To The Conduction Band
  2. A Conduction Electron On The P-Side Jumps To A Broken Bond To Complete It
  3. A Bond Is Broken On The N-Side And The Electron Freed From The Bond Jumps To A Broken Bond On The P-Side To Complete It
  4. A Bond Is Broken On The P-Side And The Electron Freed From The Bond Jumps To A Broken Bond On The N-Side To Complete It.

Answer: 3. A Bond Is Broken On The N-Side And The Electron Freed From The Bond Jumps To A Broken Bond On The P-Side To Complete It

Question 6. The depletion region of a P-N diode, under open circuit conditions, contains-

  1. Electrons
  2. Holes
  3. Unmasked immobile impurity ions
  4. Impurity atoms

Answer: 3. Unmasked immobile impurity ions

Question 7. A semiconducting device is connected in a series circuit with a battery and a resistance. A current is found to pass through the circuit. If the polarity of the battery is reversed, the current drops to almost zero. The device may be

  1. An Intrinsic Semiconductor
  2. A P-Type Semiconductor
  3. An N-Type Semiconductor
  4. A P-N Junction

Answer: 4. A P-N Junction

Question 8. Which is the wrong statement in the following sentence? A device in which P and N-type semiconductors are used is more useful than a vacuum tube because-

  1. Power Is Not necessary to Heat The Filament
  2. It Is More Stable
  3. Very little heat Is Produced In It
  4. Its Efficiency Is High Due To A High Voltage Drop Across The Junction

Answer: 4. Its Efficiency Is High Due To A High Voltage Drop Across The Junction

Question 9. When the value of current increases in P-N junction, then the value of contact potential-

  1. Decrease
  2. Increase
  3. Remain Unchanged
  4. Depends On Temperature

Answer: 1. Decrease

Question 10. The contact potential at the junction site in a P-N junction is-

  1. Positive On the P Side And Negative On the N Side
  2. Negative On the P Side And Positive On the N Side
  3. Zero
  4. Infinite

Answer: 2. Negative On the P Side And Positive On the N Side

Question 11. If V A and VB denote the potentials of A and B, then the equivalent resistance between A and B in the adjoint electric circuit is

NEET Physics Class 12 Chapter 6 Solids And Semiconductors Devices MCQs the potentials of A and B

  1. 10 ohm if VA > VB
  2. 5 ohm if VA < VB
  3. 5 ohm if VA > VB
  4. 20 ohm if VA > VB

Answer: 3. 5 ohm if VA > VB

Question 12. In which case is the juction diode is not reverse bias-

NEET Physics Class 12 Chapter 6 Solids And Semiconductors Devices MCQs In which case is the juction diode is not reverse bias-

Answer: 2.

Question 13. The depletion layer in the P-N junction is caused by

  1. Drift holes
  2. Diffusion of free carriers
  3. Migration of impurity ions
  4. Drift of electrons

Answer: 2. Diffusion of free carriers

Question 14. What accounts for the flow of charge carriers in forward and reverse biasing of silicon P-N diode-

  1. Drift in both reverse and forward bias
  2. Drift in forward bias and diffusion in reverse bias
  3. Drift in reverse bias and diffusion in forward bias
  4. Diffusion in both forward and reverse bias

Answer: 3. Drift in reverse bias and diffusion in forward bias

Question 15. The current flowing through the zener diode in fig. is-

NEET Physics Class 12 Chapter 6 Solids And Semiconductors Devices MCQs The current flowing through the zener diode

  1. 20 MA
  2. 25mA
  3. 15mA
  4. 5mA

Answer: 4. 5mA

Question 16. The resistance of a reverse baised P-N junction diode is about-

  1. 1 ohm
  2. 102 ohm
  3. 103 ohm
  4. 106 ohm

Answer: 4. 106 ohm

Question 17. Current I in the circuit shown will be

NEET Physics Class 12 Chapter 6 Solids And Semiconductors Devices MCQs Current in the circuit

  1. \(\frac{5}{40}\)
  2. \(\frac{5}{50}\)
  3. \(\frac{5}{10}\)
  4. \(\frac{5}{20}\)

Answer: 2. \(\frac{5}{50}\)

Question 18. The value of barrier potential of P-N junction or N-P junction in Ge is-

  1. 0.03 volt in the direction of the forward current
  2. 0.3 volt in the direction opposite of the forward current
  3. 25 volts in the direction opposite to the forward current
  4. 25 volts in the direction of the forward current

Answer: 2. 0.3 volt in the direction opposite of the forward current

Question 19. The diffusion current in a P-N junction is greater than the drift current in magnitude-

  1. If The Junction is forward-biased
  2. If The Junction is reverse-biased
  3. If The Junction is unbiased
  4. In No Case

Answer: 1. If The Junction is forward-biased

Question 20. The barrier potential in a P-N junction is maximum in

  1. The Reverse Bias Condition
  2. The Forward Bias Condition
  3. The Condition When The Junction Diode Is Used As Rectifier
  4. Zero Bias Condition

Answer: 1. The Reverse Bias Condition

Question 21. The diffusion current in a P-N junction is-

  1. From The N-Side To The P-Side
  2. From The P-Side To The N-Side
  3. From The N-Side To The P-Side If The Junction Is Forward-Biased And In The Opposite Direction If It Is Reverse Baised
  4. From The P-Side To The N-Side If The Junction Is Forward-Biased And In The Opposite Direction If It Is Reverse Biased

Answer: 2. From The P-Side To The N-Side

Question 22. When a P-N diode is reversed biased, then the current through the junction is mainly due to

  1. Diffusion Of Charge
  2. Nature Of The Material
  3. Drift Of The Charges
  4. Both Drift And Diffusion Of The Charges

Answer: 3. Drift Of The Charges

Question 23. The drift current in a P-N junction is-

  1. From The N-Side To The P-Side
  2. From The P-Side To The N-Side
  3. From The N-Side To The P-Side If The Junction Is Forward-Biased And In The Opposite Direction If It Is reverse-biased.
  4. From The P-Side To The N-Side If The Junction Is Forward-Baised And In The Opposite Direction If It Is Reverse Baised.

Answer: 1. From The N-Side To The P-Side

Question 24. For a reverse bias P-N junction-

  1. P region is positive and current is due to electrons
  2. P region is positive and the current is due to holes
  3. P region is negative and the current is due to electrons
  4. P region is negative and current is due to both electrons and holes

Answer: 4. P region is negative and current is due to both electrons and holes

Question 25. In the P-N junction when do electron and holes stops moving from P to N and N to P-

  1. Increase in +ve and –ve ions at junction
  2. Increase in electron at junction
  3. Increase in holes at the junction
  4. Increase in holes and electrons at the junction

Answer: 1. Increase in +ve and –ve ions at junction

Question 26. The depletion layer in the silicon diode is 1m wide and the knee potential is 0.6 V, then the electric field in the depletion layer will be

  1. Zero
  2. 0.6 Vm–1
  3. 6 × 104 V/m
  4. 6 × 105 V/m

Answer: 4. 6 × 105 V/m

Question 27. The current through an ideal PN-junction shown in the following circuit diagram will be

NEET Physics Class 12 Chapter 6 Solids And Semiconductors Devices MCQs The current through an ideal PN-junction

  1. Zero
  2. 1MA
  3. 10mA
  4. 30mA

Answer: 1. Zero

Question 28. In the circuit given below, the value of the current is

NEET Physics Class 12 Chapter 6 Solids And Semiconductors Devices MCQs the value of the current is

  1. 0amp
  2. 10-2 amp
  3. 1 amp
  4. 0.10 amp

Answer: 2. 10-2 amp

Question 29. The maximum efficiency of a full wave rectifier is

  1. 100 %
  2. 25.20 %
  3. 40.2 %
  4. 81.2 %

Answer: 4. 81.2 %

Question 30. The circuit shown in the figure contains two diodes each with a forward resistance of 50 ohm and infinite reverse resistance. If the battery voltage is 6V, find the current through the 100 ohm resistance.

NEET Physics Class 12 Chapter 6 Solids And Semiconductors Devices MCQs contains Two diodes

  1. 0.01 Al
  2. 0.05A
  3. 0.2A
  4. 0.3A

Answer: 3. 0.2A

Question 31. Four equal resistors, each of resistance 10 ohm are connected as shown in the adjoining circuit diagram. Then the equivalent resistance between points A and B is

NEET Physics Class 12 Chapter 6 Solids And Semiconductors Devices MCQs Four equal resistors,

  1. 40 OHM
  2. 20ohm
  3. 10ohm
  4. 5 ohm

Answer: 3. 5 ohm

Question 32. In the arrangement shown in fig., the current through the diode is

NEET Physics Class 12 Chapter 6 Solids And Semiconductors Devices MCQs The current through diode is

  1. 10mA
  2. 1mA
  3. 20mA
  4. Zero

Answer: 4. Zero

Question 33. If the forward voltage in a semiconductor diode is changed from 0.5V to 2V, then the forward current changes by 1.5 mA. The forward resistance of the diode will be

  1. 1KΩ
  2. 2KΩ
  3. 4KΩ
  4. 8KΩ

Answer: 1. 1KΩ

Question 34. When the reverse potential in a semiconductor diode is 10V and 20V, the corresponding reverse currents are 25µA and 50µA respectively. The reverse resistance of the junction diode will be

  1. 40
  2. 4×105
  3. 40k
  4. 4×10-5

Answer: 2. 4×105

Question 35. A piece of copper and another of germanium are cooled from room temperature to 77 K, the resistance of:

  1. Each Of Them Increases
  2. Each Of Them Decreases
  3. Copper Decreases And Germanium Increases
  4. Copper Increases And Germanium Decreases

Answer: 3. Copper Decreases And Germanium Increases

Question 36. The electrical conductivity of a semiconductor increases when electromagnetic radiation of a wavelength shorter than 2480 nm, is incident on it. The band gap in (eV) for the semiconductor is :

  1. 1.1 eV
  2. 2.5 eV
  3. 0.5 eV
  4. 0.7 eV

Answer: 3. 0.5 eV

Question 37. If the ratio of the concentration of electrons to that of holes in a semiconductor is 5 and the ratio of 7 currents is 4, then what is the ratio of their drift velocities?

  1. 5/8
  2. 4/5
  3. 5/4
  4. 4/7

Answer: 3. 5/4

Question 38. If the lattice constant of this semiconductor is decreased, then which of the following is correct?

NEET Physics Class 12 Chapter 6 Solids And Semiconductors Devices MCQs If the lattice constant of this semiconductor

  1. All EC, Eg, Ev increase
  2. EC and EV increase, but EG decreases
  3. Ec and Ev decrease, but Eg increases
  4. All EC, Eg, Ev decrease

Answer: 3. Ec and Ev decrease, but Eg increases

Question 39. Carbon, silicon, and germanium have four valence electrons each. At room temperature which one of the following statements is most appropriate?

  1. The Number Of Free Conduction Electrons Is Significant In C But Small In Si And Ge
  2. The Number Of Free Conduction Electrons Is Negligibly Small In All The Three.
  3. The Number Of Free Electrons For Conduction Is Significant In All The Three.
  4. The number of free electrons for conduction is significant only in Si and Ge but is small in C.

Answer: 4. The Number Of Free Electrons For Conduction Is Significant Only In Si And Ge But Small In C.

Question 40. In A Crystal, The Atoms Are Located At The Position Of :

  1. Maximum Potential Energy
  2. Minimum Potential Energy
  3. Zero Potential Energy
  4. Infinite Potential Energy

Answer: 2. Minimum Potential Energy

Question 41. The Laptop Pc’s Modern Electronic Watches And Calculators Use The Following For Display:

  1. Single Crystal
  2. Poly Crystal
  3. Liquid Crystal
  4. Semiconductors

Answer: 3. Liquid Crystal

Question 42. A P-Type Semiconductor Is

  1. Positively Charged
  2. Negatively Charged
  3. Uncharged
  4. Uncharged At 0 K But Charged At Higher Temperatures.

Answer: 3. Uncharged

Question 43. In good conductors of electricity, the type of bonding that exists is :

  1. Ionic
  2. Vander Waals
  3. Covalent
  4. Metallic

Answer: 4. Metallic

Question 44. Bonding is a germanium crystal (semi-conductor) is:

  1. Metallic
  2. Ionic
  3. Vander Waal’s type
  4. Covalen

Answer: 4. Covalen

UP Board Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 7 Redox Reactions Multiple Choice Questions

UP Board Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 7 Redox Reactions Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. Which of die following substances undergo disproportionation reactions in the basic medium

  1. F2
  2. P4
  3. S2
  4. Br2

Answer: 2,3,4

Question 2. In which of the following compounds, the oxidation number of oxygen is fractional

  1. B4O10
  2. B2H6
  3. CSO2
  4. KO3

Answer: 1,3,4

Question 3. Wlien Cl2 is passed through NaOH in the cold, the oxidation number of changes from

  1. 0 to -1
  2. 0 to +2
  3. 0 to -2
  4. 0 to -1

Answer: 1,2

Question 4. In which of the following cases equivalent mass of a reductant is equal to its molecular mass

1. \(\mathrm{Cr}_2 \mathrm{O}_7^{2-}+6 \mathrm{I}^{-}+14 \mathrm{H}^{+} \rightarrow 2 \mathrm{Cr}^{3+}+3 \mathrm{I}_2+7 \mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{O}\)

2. \(\mathrm{MnO}_4^{-}+5 \mathrm{Fe}^{2+}+8 \mathrm{H}^{+} \rightarrow 5 \mathrm{Fe}^{3+}+\mathrm{Mn}^{2+}+4 \mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{O}\)

3. \(2 \mathrm{Na}_2 \mathrm{~S}_2 \mathrm{O}_3+\mathrm{I}_2 \rightarrow \mathrm{Na}_2 \mathrm{~S}_4 \mathrm{O}_6+2 \mathrm{NaI}\)

4. \(\mathrm{MnO}_4^{-}+5 \mathrm{C}_2 \mathrm{O}_4^{2-}+16 \mathrm{H}^{+} \rightarrow \mathrm{Mn}^{2+}+10 \mathrm{CO}_2+8 \mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{O}\)

Answer: 2,3

Question 5. Identify the redox reactions

  1. 2CuSO4 + 4KI→2CuI + I2 + 2K2SO4
  2. BaCl2 + Na2SO4→BaSO4 + 2NaGl
  3. 3I2 + 6NaOH→NaIO3 + 5Nal + 3H2O
  4. CuSO4 + 4NH3→[Cu(NH3)4]SO4

Answer: 1,3

Question 6. When ammonium nitrate is heated, the oxidation numbers of the N-atoms present it change from

  1. -3 to +1
  2. -3 to 0
  3. -2 to +4
  4. +5 to 0

Answer: 2,4

Question 7. For the reaction, \(2 \mathrm{~S}_2 \mathrm{O}_3^{2-}+\mathrm{I}_2 \rightarrow \mathrm{S}_4 \mathrm{O}_6^{2-}+2 \mathrm{I}^{-}-\)

1. \(\mathrm{S}_2 \mathrm{O}_3^{2-} \text { gets oxidised to } \mathrm{S}_4 \mathrm{O}_6^{2-}\)

2. \(\mathrm{S}_2 \mathrm{O}_3^{2-} \text { gets reduced to } \mathrm{S}_4 \mathrm{O}_6^{2-}\)

3. I2 gets oxidized to I¯

4. I2 gets reduced to I¯

Answer: 1,4

Question 8. Which of the following statements about the following reaction is wrong

2Cu2O + Cu2s→6cu + SO2

  1. Both Cu2O and cu2s are reduced
  2. Only Cu2s are reduced
  3. Cu2s is the oxidation
  4. Only cu2O is reduced

Answer: 2,3,4

Question 9. Which of the following orders represents the correct descending order of oxidation numbers

  1. HNO2 > NO > NH4Cl > N2
  2. HNO3 > NO > N2 > NH2Cl
  3. H2S2O7 > Na2S2O3 > Na2S4O6 > S8
  4. H2SO5 > H2SO3 > SCl2 > H2S

Answer: 2,4

Question 10. Which ofthe following reactions are not reactions

1. SO2(g) +H2O(f) H2SO3(aq)

2. Ca(s) + H2(g) → CaH2(s)

3. 2H2S(aq) + SO2(g)→2H20(l) + 3S(s)

4. \(\begin{aligned}
2 \mathrm{PCl}_5(g)+ & \mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{SO}_4(a q) \longrightarrow \\
& 2 \mathrm{POCl}_3(a q)+2 \mathrm{HCl}(a q)+\mathrm{SO}_2 \mathrm{Cl}_2(g)
\end{aligned}\)

Answer: 1,4

Question 11. In which compounds do Cr exist +6 oxidation state

  1. CrO2Cl2
  2. Na2[Cr(CN)6]
  3. CrO5
  4. K2Cr2O7

Answer: 1,3,4

Question 12. When ammonium nitrite (NH2NO2) is heated

  1. Oxidation of nitrogen takes place
  2. Reduction of nitrogen takes place
  3. The overall reaction is a disproportionation reaction
  4. The overall reaction is a double decomposition reaction

Answer: 1,2,3

Question 13. In which compounds does an atom exist in two different oxidation states

  1. H2SO5
  2. NH4NO3
  3. Fe2O3
  4. H2O2

Answer: 1,2

Question 14. In the balanced equation for the reaction—

⇒ \(\mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{SO}_4+x \mathrm{HI} \rightarrow \mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{~S}+y \mathrm{I}_2+z \mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{O}\)

  1. x=y-z
  2. y=z
  3. x=2y
  4. z=2x

Answer: 2,3

Question 15. In the reaction,

⇒ \(\mathrm{KMnO}_4+\mathrm{Na}_2 \mathrm{~S}_2 \mathrm{O}_3+\mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{O} \rightarrow \mathrm{MnO}_2+\mathrm{SO}_4^{2-}+\mathrm{OH}^{-}\)

(Assume formula masses of KMnO2 and Na2S2O3 M1 and M2 respectively)—

  1. The equivalent mass of KMnO2 = M1/3
  2. The equivalent mass of Na2S2O3 = M2
  3. The equivalent mass of KMnO4 = M1/5
  4. The equivalent mass of Na2S2O2 = M2/8

Answer: 1,4

Question 16. In the balanced equation for the reaction,

⇒ \(\mathrm{UO}^{2+}+\mathrm{Cr}_2 \mathrm{O}_7^{2-}+\mathrm{H}^{+} \rightarrow \mathrm{UO}_2^{2+}+\mathrm{Cr}^{3+}+\mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{O}\) the coefficient of-

  1. UO2+
  2. \(\mathrm{UO}_2^{2+} \text { is } 3\)
  3. \(\mathrm{Cr}_2 \mathrm{O}_7^{2-} \text { is } 1\)
  4. H2O is 7

Answer: 2,3,4

Question 17. The disproportionation of 1 mol of \(\mathrm{MnO}_4^{2-}\) ions in a neutral aqueous solution results in

  1. 1/3 mol of MnO¯4
  2. 2/3 mol of MnO2
  3. 2/3 mol of MnO4
  4. 1/3 mol of MnO2

Answer: 3,4

Question 18. In the reaction the oxidation number of marked with (*)-

  1. Increases by 2 units
  2. Increases by 1 unit
  3. Decreases by 2 units
  4. Decreases by 3 units

Answer: 1,3

Question 19. For the reaction: SO2 + 2H2S→3S + 2H2

  1. The equivalent mass of the oxidant is 64
  2. Equivalent mass ofoxidantis 16
  3. The number of electrons accepted oxidant is 4
  4. The number of electrons lost by reductant is 6

Answer: 2,3

Question 20. The species that cannot be reducing agents are

  1. SO3
  2. \(\mathrm{SO}_3^{2-}\)
  3. H2SO4
  4. S2-

Answer: 1,3

Question 21. Which are conserved all redox reactions

  1. Charge
  2. Mass
  3. Either charger or Mass
  4. Neither charge nor mass

Answer: 1,2

Question 22. The equivalent weight of K2Cr2O7 in an acidic medium is expressed in terms of its molecular weight (M) as

  1. \(\frac{M}{3}\)
  2. \(\frac{M}{4}\)
  3. \(\frac{M}{6}\)
  4. \(\frac{M}{7}\)

Answer: 3. \(\frac{M}{6}\)

In an acidic medium, K2Cr2O7 undergoes reduction, forming a Cr3+ ion.

⇒ \(\mathrm{Cr}_2 \mathrm{O}_7^{2-}+14 \mathrm{H}^{+}+6 e \rightarrow 2 \mathrm{Cr}^{3+}+7 \mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{O}\)

In this reaction, the equivalent weight of K2Cr2O7

⇒ \(=\frac{\text { Molecular weight of } \mathrm{K}_2 \mathrm{Cr}_2 \mathrm{O}_7}{\begin{array}{c}
\text { No of electrons gained by a molecule of } \mathrm{K}_2 \mathrm{Cr}_2 \mathrm{O}_7 \\
\text { in its reduction }
\end{array}}=\frac{M}{6}\)

Question 23. If Cl2 is passed through hot aqueous NaOH, the products formed have Cl in different oxidation states. These are indicated as

  1. -1 and +1
  2. -1 and +5
  3. -1 and +5
  4. -1 and +3

Answer: 2. -1 and +5

Reaction: Cl2 + 6NaOH→NaCl + 5NaC1O3 + 3H2O The oxidation number of Cl in NaCl is -1 and that in NaCIO3 is +5.

Question 24. In an aqueous alkaline solution, two-electron reductions of HO‾2 give—

  1. HO‾
  2. H2O
  3. O2
  4. O‾2

Answer: 1. HO‾

Question 25. Consider the following reactions

⇒ \(x \mathrm{MnO}_4^{-}+y \mathrm{C}_2 \mathrm{O}_4^{2-}+z \mathrm{H}^{+} \rightarrow x \mathrm{Mn}^{2+}+2 y \mathrm{CO}_2+\frac{z}{2} \mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{O}\)

The values of x, y, and z in the reaction are respectively

  1. 5,2 And 8
  2. 5,2 and 16
  3. 2,5 and 8
  4. 2,5 and 16

Answer: 4. 2,5 and 16

⇒ \({\left[\mathrm{MnO}_4^{-}+8 \mathrm{H}^{+}+5 e \rightarrow \mathrm{Mn}^{2+}+4 \mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{O}\right] \times 2}\)

⇒ \(\frac{\left[\mathrm{C}_2 \mathrm{O}_4^{2-} \rightarrow 2 \mathrm{CO}_2+2 e\right] \times 5}{2 \mathrm{MnO}_4^{-}+5 \mathrm{C}_2 \mathrm{O}_4^{2-}+16 \mathrm{H}^{+} \rightarrow 2 \mathrm{Mn}^{2+}+10 \mathrm{CO}_2+8 \mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{O}}\)

‍∴ x=2, y=5 and z=16

Question 26. In which of the following reactions, H2O2 acts as a reducing agent-

  1. H2O2 + 2H+ + 2e→2H2O
  2. H2O2-2e→ O2 + 2H+
  3. H2O2 + 2e→2OH¯
  4. H2O2 + 2OH¯-2e→O2 + 2H2O

Choose the correct option 

  1. 2,4
  2. 1,2
  3. 3,4
  4. 1,3

Answer: 1. 2,4

In the reaction, H2O2 → O2 + 2H+ + 2e, electrons are lost by H2O2 and hence H2O2 acts as a reductant. In the reaction, H2O2+2OH¯→ O2 + 2H2O + 2e, electrons are lost by H2O2 and hence H2O2 acts as a reductant.

Question 27. The Pair in which phosphorus atoms have a formal oxidation state of +3 is-

  1. Orthophosphoric and Pyrophosphoric acid
  2. Pyrophosphorus and Hypophosphoric acid
  3. Orthophosphoric and Hypophosphoric acid
  4. Pyrophosphorus and Pyrophosphoric acid

Answer: 1. Orthophosphorus and pyrophosphoric acid

Orthophosphoric acid: \(\begin{aligned}
& +1+3-2 \\
& \mathrm{H}_3 \mathrm{PO}_3
\end{aligned}\)

Pyrophosphorus acid:

Let the oxidation number of P in pyrophosphoric acid be x.

So, 4(+1) + 2x + 5(-2) = 0

or, 2x = 6 or, x = +3

Question 28. Which of the following reactions is an example of a redox creation:

  1. XeFG + H2O→XeOF4 + 2HF
  2. XeF6 + 2H2O→XeO2F2 + 4HF
  3. XeF4 +O2F4→XeF6 + O2
  4. XeF2 + PF5→[XeF]+[PF6]-

Answer: 3. XeF4 + O2F4→XeF6 + O2

⇒ \(\stackrel{+6-1}{\mathrm{XeF}_6}+\mathrm{H}_2 \stackrel{-2}{\mathrm{O}} \rightarrow \mathrm{XeOF}_4^{-2-1}+2 \mathrm{HF}\)

⇒ \(\stackrel{+6}{\mathrm{XeF}_6-1}+2 \mathrm{H}_2 \stackrel{-2}{\mathrm{O}} \xrightarrow[\rightarrow]{+6} \mathrm{XeO}_2^{-2-1} \mathrm{~F}_2+4 \mathrm{HF}\)

⇒ \(\stackrel{+2}{\mathrm{XeF}_2^{-1}}+\stackrel{+5-1}{\mathrm{PF}_2^{-1}} \rightarrow\left[\stackrel{+2}{\mathrm{XeF}} \mathrm{F}^{-1}\right]\left[\mathrm{PF}_6^{-1}\right]\)

For these reactions, there is no change in the oxidation number of the respective elements. So these reactions are not redox reactions.

⇒ \(\stackrel{+4}{\mathrm{XeF}_4}+\stackrel{+4}{\mathrm{O}_2} \mathrm{~F}_4^{-1} \rightarrow \stackrel{+6}{\mathrm{X}} \mathrm{XeF}_6-\stackrel{0}{\mathrm{O}}_2\)

Question 29. The oxidation states of Cr in [Cr(H2O) ]Cl3 [Cr(C6HG)2] and K2[Cr(CN2)(0)2(O2)(NH3)] respectively are

  1. +3,+4 and +6
  2. +3,+2 and +4
  3. +3,0 and +6
  4. +3,0 and +4

Answer: 3. +3,0 and +6

⇒ \(\left[\stackrel{+3}{\mathrm{Cr}}\left(\mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{O}\right)_6\right] \mathrm{Cl}_3,\left[\stackrel{0}{\mathrm{Cr}}\left(\mathrm{C}_6 \mathrm{H}_6\right)_2\right]\)

In K2[Cr(CN)2(O2)(0)2(NH3)] compound, let, the oxidation number of Cr be x.

Redox Reactions The oxdiation number of Cr Be x

or, 2 + X-2-4-2 + 0

or, x = +6

Question 30. A mixture of potassium, Oxalic acid, and sulphuric acid is heated. During the reaction which element undergoes maximum change in the oxidation number-

  1. S
  2. H
  3. Cl
  4. C

Answer: 3. Cl

Question 31. In which of the following compounds, nitrogen exhibits the highest oxidation state—

  1. N2H4
  2. NH3
  3. N3H
  4. NH2OH

Answer: 3. N3H

⇒ \(\stackrel{-2}{\mathrm{~N}_2} \mathrm{H}_4, \stackrel{-3}{\mathrm{~N}} \mathrm{H}_3, \stackrel{-1 / 3}{\mathrm{~N}} \mathrm{H}_3 \mathrm{H}, \stackrel{-1}{\mathrm{~N}} \mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{OH}\)

Question 32. In acidic medium, H2O2 changes \(\mathrm{Cr}_2 \mathrm{O}_7^{2-}\) to CrO5 which has two (—0—0— ) bonds. The oxidation state of Cr in CrO5 is-

  1. +5
  2. +3
  3. +6
  4. -10

Answer: 3. +6 let the oxidation number of Cr in CrO5 be x

Question 33.

  1. H2O2 + O3 →H2O + 2O2
  2. H2O2 + Ag2O→ 2Ag + H2O + O2

The role of hydrogen peroxide in the above reactions is respectively—

  1. Oxidisingin (1) and reducing (2)
  2. Reducing (1) and oxidising (2)
  3. Reducing (1) and (12)
  4. Oxidisingin (1) and (2)

Answer: 3. Reducing (1) and (12)

⇒ \(\mathrm{H}_2 \stackrel{-1}{\mathrm{O}}_2+\stackrel{0}{\mathrm{O}}_3 \rightarrow \mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{O}+2 \stackrel{0}{\mathrm{O}}_2\)

In this reaction, H2O2 undergoes oxidation and forms O2. Hence, it acts as a reductant

Question 34. Assuming complete ionization, the same moles of which of the following compounds will require the least amount of acidified KMnO4 for complete oxidation—

  1. FeSO4
  2. FeSO3
  3. FeC2O4
  4. Fe(NO2)2

Answer: 1. FeSO4 will require the least amount of acidified KMnO4 for complete oxidation.

Question 35. Hot concentrated sulphuric acid is a moderately strong oxidizing agent. Which of the following reactions does not show oxidizing behavior-

  1. Cu + 2H2SO4→CuSO4 + SO2 + 2H2O
  2. S + 2H2SO4→3SO2 + 2H2O
  3. C + 2H2SO4→CO2 + 2SO2 + 2H2O
  4. CaF2 + H2SO4→CaSO4 + 2HF

Answer: 4. CaF2 + H2SO4→CaSO4 + 2HF

In this reaction, there is no change in the oxidation number of any elements, present. Thus, it is not a redox reaction.

Question 76. For the redox reaction

⇒ \(\mathrm{MnO}_4^{-}+\mathrm{C}_2 \mathrm{O}_4^{2-}+\mathrm{H}^{+} \rightarrow \mathrm{Mn}^{2+}+\mathrm{CO}_2+\mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{O}\)

The correct coefficients of the reactants for the balanced equation are:

  1. 16,5,2
  2. 2,5,16
  3. 2,16,5
  4. 5,16,2

Answer: 2. 2,5,16

⇒ \({\left[\mathrm{MnO}_4^{-}+8 \mathrm{H}^{+}+5 e \rightarrow \mathrm{Mn}^{2+}+4 \mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{O}\right] \times 2}\)

⇒ \({\left[\mathrm{C}_2 \mathrm{O}_4^{2-} \rightarrow 2 \mathrm{CO}_2+2 e\right] \times 5}\)

⇒ \(2 \mathrm{MnO}_4^{-}+5 \mathrm{C}_2 \mathrm{O}_4^{2-}+16 \mathrm{H}^{+} \rightarrow \mathrm{Mn}^{2+}+10 \mathrm{CO}_2+8 \mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{O}\)

Question 77. When KMnO4 reacts with KBr in an alkaline medium and gives a bromate ion, the oxidation state of Mn changes from +7 to

  1. +6
  2. +4
  3. +3
  4. +2

Answer: 2. +4

⇒ \(2 \mathrm{MnO}_4^{-}+\mathrm{Br}^{-}+\mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{O} \rightarrow 2 \stackrel{+4}{2} \mathrm{MnO}_2+\mathrm{BrO}_3^{-}+2 \mathrm{OH}^{-}\)

Question 38. K2Cr2O7 in an acidic medium converts into

  1. Cr2+
  2. Cr2+
  3. Cr4+
  4. Cr5+

Answer: 2. Cr2+

Question 39. The oxidation state of iron in hemoglobin is

  1. 0
  2. +2
  3. -2
  4. +3

Answer: 2. +2

Question 40. What is the oxidation number of Br in KBrO2

  1. +6
  2. +7
  3. +5
  4. +8

Answer: 2. +7

Question 41. Substances that are oxidized and reduced in the following reaction are respectively—

⇒ \(\mathrm{N}_2 \mathrm{H}_4(l)+2 \mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{O}_2(l) \rightarrow \mathrm{N}_2(g)+4 \mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{O}(l)\)

  1. N2H4H2O
  2. N2H4H2O2
  3. N2H2O2
  4. H2O2N2

Answer: 2. N2H4H2O2

UP Board Class 11 Chemistry Solutions For Chemical Thermodynamics

UP Board Class 11 Chemistry Solutions For Chemical Thermodynamics Question And Answers

Question 1. For a process at a particular temperature and pressure G = ΔH- TΔS. It can be written as: – What does the quantity within the bracket indicate?
Answer:

For a process at a particular temperature and pressure G = ΔH- TΔS.

In a process at a given pressure and a temperature of T K, the change in Gibbs free energy (AG) and the change in entropy ofthe universe is expressed by the relation

⇒ \(\begin{aligned}
& \Delta G=-T \Delta S_{\text {univ }} \text { or, }-\Delta G=T \Delta S_{\text {univ }} \\
& \text { Given equation: }-\Delta G=T\left[-\frac{\Delta H}{T}+\Delta S\right]
\end{aligned}\)

Comparing equations [1] and [2] we get that the quantity within the bracket in equation [2] is ΔSuniv.

Question 2. At a particular temperature and pressure, when will the changes in the entropy of the system (ΔSsys) and the surroundings soundings (ΔSsurr) be equal but the opposite in sign in a chemical reaction? In this condition, what will the value of AG be? Will the reaction be spontaneous in this condition?
Answer:

At a particular temperature and pressure, a reaction will be at equilibrium in the reaction ASuniv = 0. Now, ΔSuniv = ΔSsys + ΔSsurr or, ΔSsys + ΔSsurr = 0 or, ΔSsurr =

So, at equilibrium ΔSsys  = -ΔSsurr

We know, ΔG = -TΔSuniv

At equilibrium, ΔSuniv = 0, So, ΔG = 0.

Since the reaction is at equilibrium, neither the forward process nor the reverse process is spontaneous.

Question 3. At a given temperature and pressure, for a chemical reaction AH < 0 & AS <0. Is the spontaneity of this reaction dependent upon temperature? If it depends and if the reaction reaches equilibrium at a temperature of Tg, then will the reaction be spontaneous below or above Te?
Answer:

At a given temperature and pressure, a process will be spontaneous in this process ΔG < 0. Again, ΔG = ΔH- TΔS. So, at a given temperature and pressure, ΔH -TΔS < 0 for a spontaneous process. For the given physical change, ΔH < 0 and ΔS < 0. Therefore, for this process. ΔH- TΔS will be less than zero only when |ΔH| is greater than |7ΔS|. Now the value of |TΔS| depends on temperature.

Therefore, the spontaneity of this process will depend on temperature. Ifthe equilibrium temperature ofthe process is Tg, then at equilibrium ΔG = 0 = ΔH- TgΔS or, ΔH = Tg x AS A process occurs spontaneously ΔG < 0 . or, ΔH- TΔS < 0 [ v ΔG = ΔH- TΔS ] Therefore, ΔH- TΔS < 0 or, TgΔS- TΔS <0 or, (Te- T)ΔS < 0 For the given process, AS < 0. So, Tg-T> 0 or, Tg> T Therefore, the given process will be spontaneous at a temperature below the equilibrium temperature.

Question 4. A physical change at a fixed pressure attains equilibrium at 353 K. In this process, ΔH > 0 and AS > 0. What will be the direction (from left to right or right to left) of this process at 350 K and 355 K?
Answer:

For a spontaneous process at constant temperature and pressure, AG = AH- TAS and AG < 0. At equilibrium, ΔG = 0 or, ΔH- TΔS = 0 or, ΔH = TΔS [T’ = equilibrium temperature = 353 K]

ΔH = 353 x ΔS and ΔG = ΔH- TΔS = (353- DΔS For this physical change, ΔS > 0. Hence, AG will be negative if 353- T < 0 or, T > 353K. This indicates that the process will be spontaneous above 353K and it will be non-spontaneous when T < 353K (as at this condition ΔG > 0 ). Therefore, at 355K the direction ofthe process will be left to right and at 350 K the direction ofthe process will be from right to left.

Question 5. At a given temperature and pressure, for a chemical reaction AH > 0 and AS < 0. The reaction is non-spontaneous at all temperatures. But the reverse reaction is spontaneous at all temperatures—Give reason.
Answer:

At constant temperature and pressure, a process will be spontaneous if ΔG < 0 for the process Again, ΔG = ΔH- TΔS

For the given reaction, ΔH > 0 and ΔS < 0.

Hence, from equation [1] we get, AG is positive for this process. So it is non-spontaneous. But for the same temperature and pressure, the AG value of the reverse reaction must be negative. Therefore, the reverse reaction is spontaneous.

Question 6. The results obtained by applying the mathematical form of the first law of thermodynamics for different processes are given below. Identify the processes (m = P-V work only):ΔU = 0, q + w = 0, q = 0, ΔU < 0. w < 0 q= O,ΔV>O , ΔU =w=0
Answer:

Given

The results obtained by applying the mathematical form of the first law of thermodynamics for different processes are given below.

According to the first law of thermodynamics, ΔU=q +w…..[1]

In the process, ΔU = 0. U is a state function. So, in a cyclic process, Its change is zero. So, from equation (1], q + w = 0. Thus, the given conditions indicate a cyclic process.

Again in the isothermal process, the change in internal energy for an ideal gas is zero. Thus according to equation [1], for isothermal change of an ideal gas, q + w = 0. Thus, the given conditions indicate an isothermal change.

In the process, q = 0. So, Δ = w or -ΔU = -w (from equation [1]).

As q = 0 , the process is adiabatic. In such a process, the work done by the system (Δv < 0) is equal to a decrease in internal energy (Δt< 0). So, the given conditions indicate that the process is adiabatic and work is done by the system.

As q = 0 and if (P-V work) = 0, from equation [1], At)1 also becomes zero, q = 0 indicates that the process is adiabatic. Since w =’ 0 and ΔV> 0, the volume of the system increases in process but no work is done by the system. This happens in case of an expansion against zero pressure. Thus, the given conditions indicate the adiabatic expansion against zero pressure

Question 7. The entropy of the system decreases on condensation of a vapour though it occurs spontaneously. Explain.
Answer:

The entropy of the system decreases on condensation of a vapour though it occurs spontaneously.

On condensation of vapour, the entropy change of the system is, ΔS = Sliquid-Svapour. ΔS= Sliquid– Svapour, the entropy of the system decreases in the process. Condensation of a vapor is an exothermic process. Hence, the entropy of the surroundings increases. However, the increase in entropy of the surroundings is greater than the decrease in entropy of the system. So, Δ Stoatal is always positive in this process.

ΔStotal = ΔSsytem +ΔSsurroundings

So, condensation of a vapor is a spontaneous process.

Question 8. The formation of ice from water is exothermic, but water does not convert into ice spontaneously at ordinary temperature and pressure. Why?
Answer:

The formation of ice from water is exothermic, but water does not convert into ice spontaneously at ordinary temperature and pressure.

At a given temperature and pressure, a process will be spontaneous if it occurs with a decrease in free energy.

Again, at a fixed temperature and pressure, the free energy change of a system in a process is, ΔG = ΔH- TΔS; where ΔH and ΔS are enthalpy and entropy change of the system respectively.

During the conversion of water Into Ice, the entropy of the system decreases because the entropy of a liquid Is greater than that of a solid. So, for the conversion of water Into Ice, AS Is -ve.

Again, All Is also- ve as It Is an exothermic process. Thus, both ΔH and TΔS are -ve. But at ordinary temperature and pressure, |TΔS| Is greater than|TΔS]. Hence, the value of ΔG becomes |ΔH|. So, the conversion of water Into Ice at ordinary temperature and pressure Is not spontaneous.

Question 9. For the reaction \(\mathrm{CH}_4(\mathrm{~g})+\frac{1}{2} \mathrm{O}_2(\mathrm{~g}) \rightarrow \mathrm{CH}_3 \mathrm{OH}(\mathrm{g}) ;\) AH0 = negative at 25°C. If the standard enthalpies of combustion of CH4(g) and CH3OH(g) at 25°C are -x kj mol-1 & -y kl.mol-1 respectively, then will the value of x be less than, greater than, or equal to the value of y?
Answer:

Given

For the reaction \(\mathrm{CH}_4(\mathrm{~g})+\frac{1}{2} \mathrm{O}_2(\mathrm{~g}) \rightarrow \mathrm{CH}_3 \mathrm{OH}(\mathrm{g}) ;\) AH0 = negative at 25°C. If the standard enthalpies of combustion of CH4(g) and CH3OH(g) at 25°C are -x kj mol-1 & -y kl.mol-1 respectively,

⇒  \(\begin{array}{r}
\mathrm{CH}_4(\mathrm{~g})+2 \mathrm{O}_2(\mathrm{~g}) \rightarrow \mathrm{CO}_2(\mathrm{~g})+2 \mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{O}(l) ; \Delta H^0=-x \mathrm{~kJ} \\
\mathrm{CH}_3 \mathrm{OH}(\mathrm{g})+\frac{3}{2} \mathrm{O}_2(\mathrm{~g}) \rightarrow \mathrm{CO}_2(\mathrm{~g})+2 \mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{O}(l) ; \\
\Delta H^0=-y \mathrm{~kJ}
\end{array}\)

Subtracting equation [2] from equation [l], we obtain

\(\mathrm{CH}_4(g)+\frac{1}{2} \mathrm{O}_2(g) \rightarrow \mathrm{CH}_3 \mathrm{OH}(g) ; \Delta H^0=(y-x) \mathrm{kJ}\)

According to the question, (y-x) = negative. Thus, x > y.

Question 10. At a certain temperature and pressure, ΔH = 0 for the reaction: X + X = X2. Show that the reaction is non-spontaneous at this temperature and pressure.
Answer:

At a certain temperature and pressure, for a chemical reaction, ΔG = AH- TAS.

Now, AH = 0 for given the reaction. So, AG = -TAS In the given reaction, X is produced from two atoms of X. So, the entropy of the system decreases. So, AS < 0.

AG =-T x (negative quantity) = positive quantity The positive value of AG indicates that the reaction is non-spontaneous.

Question 11. The magnitude of work done by a gas in a reversible expansion is greater than that in an irreversible expansion provided the initial and final states are identical in both processes —explain
Answer:

The magnitude of work done by a gas in a reversible expansion is greater than that in an irreversible expansion provided the initial and final states are identical in both processes

Suppose, an ideal gas expands isothermally from its initial state P1 V1 to its final state P2 V2.

Chemical Thermodynamic Isothermally

A reversible process consists of an infinite number of small steps, and at each step, the driving force, is infinitesimally greater than die opposing force. Suppose, in a reversible expansion of an ideal gas, die external pressure of the gas at a step of the process is decreased by a very small amount of dP, causing the increase in volume of the gas by dV. The work done by the gas will be, dw = ~{Pex~dP)dV = -PdV [v Pv- dP = P (pressure of the gas) and dP x dV is very small as in the P-V diagram the points, m, and n are very close and pressure in these two points are not much different]. In the above diagram, PdV is given by the area of the strip, mnqp. The total work done in the reversible process will be equal to the sum of the die areas of all such strips. Thus, in such a process, work is done.

Absolute value of work done,|w| = area ABNM Now, in isothermal irreversible expansion, suppose, the gas is expanded from volume to V2 against an external pressure which is equal to the final pressure of the gas. In this process work done,

⇒ \(w=\int_{V_1}^{V_2} P_2 d V=-P_2 \int_{V_1}^{V_2} d V\left[P_2=\text { constant during expansion }\right]\)

The absolute value of work done,|w|=P2(V2– V1) =area ABM:

From the graphs, it is clear that work done in reversible isothermal expansion is greater than that in irreversible isothermal expansion since the area of ABNM is greater than that of ABNE. This also indicates that the work involved in a process depends upon the path (or nature) of the process.

Question 12. A gas cools down during adiabatic expansion and it becomes hot during adiabatic compression —explain
Answer:

A gas cools down during adiabatic expansion and it becomes hot during adiabatic compression

In an adiabatic process, heat is not exchanged between the system and its surroundings. In this process, if the gas is expanded, then the gas does work at the expense of its internal energy. As a result, the internal energy as well as the temperature of the gas decreases due to the adiabatic expansion of an ideal gas.

As no heat is exchanged between the system and its surroundings in an adiabatic process, any work done on the gas during adiabatic compression increases the internal energy of the gas. As a result, the temperature of the gas increases.

Question 13. Given: A(s) + B2(g)→AB2(g);ΔHº = -x kJ \(\mathrm{A}(\mathrm{s})+\frac{3}{2} \mathrm{~B}_2(\mathrm{~g}) \rightarrow \mathrm{AB}_3(\mathrm{~g}) ; \Delta H^0=-y \mathrm{~kJ}\)
Answer: Multiplying the equation by 2, we get,

2A(s) + 2B2(g) 2AB2(g); ΔH0 = -2xkJ………[3]

Writing the equation in a reverse manner and multiplying both sides by 2, we get,2AB3(g) 2A(s) + 3B2(g); AH0 = +2y kJ Adding equations [3] and [4], we get,

A(5) + 2B2(g) + 2AB3(g-2A(s) + 2AB2(g) + 3B2(g); AH0 = (2y-2jc)kJ

2AB3(g)→2AB2(g) + B2(g); AH0 = +2ykJ

Therefore, the standard reaction enthalpy for the given reaction = 2(y- x) kJ.

Question 14. At 25°C the standard enthalpy of formation of freon gas (CHC1F2) is -480.0 kj.mol-1. Write down the thermochemical equation representing the formation reaction of the compound.
Answer:

Given

At 25°C the standard enthalpy of formation of freon gas (CHC1F2) is -480.0 kj.mol-1.

The constituent elements of the compound, are CHC1F2 carbon, hydrogen, chlorine, and fluorine. The standard states of these elements are C(graphites), H2(g), Cl2(g), and F2(g). Thus, the thermochemical equation for the formation reaction-

⇒ \(\mathrm{C}(\text { graphite, } s)+\frac{1}{2} \mathrm{H}_2(g)+\frac{1}{2} \mathrm{Cl}_2(g)+\mathrm{F}_2(g) \rightarrow \mathrm{CHClF}_2(g) ;\)

⇒ \(\Delta H_f^0\left[\mathrm{CHClF}_2(g)\right]=-480.0 \mathrm{~kJ} \cdot \mathrm{mol}^{-1}\)

Question 15. For each of the given changes, state whether the final enthalpy Is greater or less than the initial enthalpy: H2Q(r)→ H2O(l), H2O(g) H2O(l)
Answer:

Change is a melting process. So, it is an endothermic process. Hence, in this process, ΔH = +ve.

ΔH=H[H20(l)]- H[H20(s)]. As ΔH > 0, H[H2O(l)] > H[H2O(S)], indicating greater enthalpy for the final state than the initial state.

Change is a condensation process and so, it is an exothermic process. Hence in this process AH = -ve. AH = H[H20(/)]-H[H20(g)] Since AH < 0, H[H20(/)] < H[H20(g)]. Thus enthalpy of the final state is less than that of the initial state.

Question 16. There occurs no exchange of heat between a system and its surroundings in an adiabatic process. So, the change in entropy of the system is zero in this process. Justify the statement.
Answer:

There occurs no exchange of heat between a system and its surroundings in an adiabatic process. So, the change in entropy of the system is zero in this process.

The statement is incorrect. It is applicable only for a reversible adiabatic change.

We know, the change in entropy of a system in a reversible process \(d S=\frac{\delta q_{r e V}}{T}\) (where 6qrev is heat lost or gained by the system in the process at 7’K). Now, for the reversible adiabatic process, our = 0.

Therefore, dS – 0. So, the entropy change Is zero in a reversible adiabatic process. In the case of an irreversible process, there is no relation between the entropy change and the heat lost or gained by the system in the process.

However, it can be shown that the entropy change in an irreversible process is \(d S>\frac{\delta q_{l r}}{T}\) (where oq[rr is the heat lost or gained by the system in the process at T K). Now, in an irreversible adiabatic process 6q(rr = 0. So, dS (or AS) > 0. Tilus the entropy of the system increases in an irreversible adiabatic process.

Question 17. Mg) + A(g)→A2(g); these types of reactions are generally exothermic. Explain.
Answer:

Mg) + A(g)→A2(g); these types of reactions are generally exothermic.

In the reaction, one molecule A2(g) is formed from two atoms of A(g). Thus, the entropy of the system decreases. For any chemical reaction at fixed temperature and pressure, ΔG =ΔH- TΔS. For the given reaction, ΔS<0. The reaction will be spontaneous if ΔG < 0.

So, negative quantity = ΔH- (T X negative quantity) = ΔH + positive quantity

∴ ΔH = (-ve) quantity- (+ye) quantity ; So, ΔH < 0

∴ The given reaction is exothermic.

Question 18. At ordinary temperature and pressure, solid NH4C1 dissolves in water to form NH4(aq) and Cl(aq) ions. The process is endothermic. Indicate the signs (+ or-) of ΔSsys, ΔSsurr, ΔH And ΔG
Answer:

As the process is endothermic, AH > 0.

At ordinary temperature and pressure, the dissolution of solid NH4C1 occurs spontaneously, so AG < 0.

NH+4 and Cl- ions in the crystal lattice of NH4C1 are held at fixed positions and consequently, they are not able to move. But in an aqueous solution of NH4C1, NH, and Cl- ions are distributed throughout the solution. Naturally, the randomness of the ions in aqueous solution of NH4C1 is greater than that in solid NH4C1. Hence, in the dissolution process of NH4CI, ΔSsys > 0.

As the process is endothermic, the system absorbs heat from the surroundings. Consequently, the surroundings lose heat. As a result, the entropy of the surroundings decreases (ASsurr < 0).

However, the increase in the entropy system is greater than the decrease in the entropy of the surroundings. So, the net entropy change of the system and its surroundings is always positive, and the process occurs spontaneously.

Question 19. Classify as an open, closed, or isolated system:

  1. A cup of coffee placed on a table
  2. Water in a beaker is boiled by heating
  3. Lead nitrate is heated in a test tube
  4. Solid NH4Cl is heated in a closed vessel
  5. Substances present in a soda-water bottle
  6. Mercury enclosed in the thermometer

Answer:

  1. Open system
  2. Open system
  3. Open system
  4. Closed system
  5. Closed system
  6. Closed system

Question 20. Assuming experimental conditions are the same, compare (ΔH-ΔU) values for the given reactions

  1. \(\mathrm{H}_2(g)+\frac{1}{2} \mathrm{O}_2(g) \rightarrow \mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{O}(l)\)
  2. \(\mathrm{H}_2(\mathrm{~g})+\frac{1}{2} \mathrm{O}_2(\mathrm{~g}) \rightarrow \mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{O}(\mathrm{g})\)

Answer: In case of reaction (1) \(\mathrm{H}_2(\mathrm{~g})+\frac{1}{2} \mathrm{O}_2(\mathrm{~g}) \rightarrow \mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{O}(\mathrm{g})\)

Therefore , \(\Delta H-\Delta U=\Delta n R T=-\frac{3}{2} R T\)

In case of reaction \(\Delta n=1-\left(1+\frac{1}{2}\right)=-\frac{1}{2}\)

Therefore, \(\Delta H-\Delta U=\Delta n R T=-\frac{1}{2} R T\)

Hence, the magnitude of H-U is greater in the case of 2

In case of reaction \(\Delta n=1-\left(1+\frac{1}{2}\right)=-\frac{1}{2}\)

Hence, the magnitude of (AH- AU) is greater in the case of 2

 

UP Board Class 9 Science Question and Answers

UP Board Class 9 Science Multiple Choice Questions

UP Board Class 9 Science Notes

Important Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter Wise Pdf Download | Biology Class 12 Important Questions

Important Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 2 – Human Reproduction

Important Questions For Class 12 Biology Chapter 2 – Human Reproduction Very Short Question And Answers

Question 1. Breastfeeding the baby acts as a natural contraceptive for the mother because it prevents;

  1. Ovulation
  2. Menstruation
  3. insemination
  4. Fertilisation
    1. (2) and (4)
    2. (1) and (3)
    3. (1) and (4)
    4. (1) and (2)

Answer: 2. (1) and (2)

Question 2. The given figure shows the different stages of the human embryo

Human Reproduction Stages Of Human Embryo

Identify the correct labeling for W, X, and Z, and choose the correct option from the table below.

Human Reproduction Stages Of Human Embryo.

” human reproduction class 12″

Question 3. During human embryonic development, the external genital organs are well-developed in the fetus by the end of

  1. 6 weeks of pregnancy
  2. 12 weeks of pregnancy
  3. 18 weeks of pregnancy
  4. 24 weeks of pregnancy

Answer: 3. 12 weeks of pregnancy

Read and Learn More Important Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter Wise

Question 4. The accessory ducts in the human mate reproduct4e system consist of –

  1. Epididymis, Prostrate. Retetestis
  2. Rete testis. Vas efferentia. Seminal vesicles
  3. Vas efferentia. Bulbourethral, epididymis
  4. Rete testis, epididymis, Vas deferens

Answer: 4. Rete testis, epididymis, Vas deferens

Question 5.Assertion (A): The inner cell mass of the blastocyst gets attached to the endometrium during embryonic development in humans.

Reason (R): The blastomeres in the blastocyst get arranged into trophoblast and inner cell mass.

  1. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
  2. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A),
  3. Assertion ( A) is true, but Reason (R) is false (A) Assertion
  4. (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.

Answer: 4. Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.

Question 6. Select the correct option for Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (HCG) released during embryonic development in humans.

  1. Helps in the maintenance of pregnancy.
  2. leads to rupture of the Graafian follicle.
  3. Cause strong uterine contraction during childbirth.
  4. Brings metabolic changes in the mother.
    1. (1) and (2)
    2. (1) and (4)
    3. (2) and (3)
    4. (2) and (4)

Answer: 2. (1) and (4)

“reproduction chapter class 12 “

Question 7. The source of gonadotropin L.H and its corresponding function is;

  1. Anterior pituitary, ovulation
  2. Anterior pituitary Graafian follicle formation
  3. Hypothaiamus, Ovulation
  4. Hypothalamus, Graafian follicle formation

Answer: 1. Anterior pituitary, ovulation

Case: A woman of 35 years ago with a married life of eight years and having normal reproductive cycles visits a doctor along with her husband for consultation for infertility. They were not using any contraceptive methods. They have no child. The doctor advises them after a detailed physical examination of both of them to undergo the following investigations

  • Seminal analysis of the husband
  • Follicular study of the wife.
  • Blood test for follicle Stimulating I hormone (FS2) estimation for both
  • With your basic knowledge of human embryology and the case g4en above, answer the following questions (8-13) :

Question 8. A seminal analysis of the husband was done to determine

  1. Sperm morphology
  2. Quantity and pH of semen
  3. Rate of sperm release into the Vagina
    1. (1) only(2)
    2. (1)and (2)
    3. (2) and (3)
    4. (2) only

Answer: 2. (1) and (2)

Question 9. An ultrasound-guided follicular study was done for the wife to determine the size and physical appearance of the

  1. Ovary
  2. Oogonia
  3. Antral follicles
  4. Corpus Luteum

Answer: 1. Ovary

Question 10. The blood test report of the wife showed a low FSH value, which is indicative of

  1. low rate of formation of ovarian follicles
  2. high rate of formation of ovarian follicles
  3. low rate maturation of ovarian follicles
  4. high rate of maturation of ovarian follicles

Answer: 1. low rate of formation of ovarian follicles

human reproduction class 12 textbook

Question 11. In the above case if the husband is found to have a sperm count of less than 20 million or mL and the wife is diagnosed with blockage in the oviduct, the couple would be advised to:

  1. ZlFT
  2. Al
  3. IVF
  4. 1CSI
    1. (1) and (3)
    2. (2) and (3)
    3. (3) and (4)
    4. (1) and (4)

Answer: 1. (1) and (3)

Question 12. The high level of gonadotropin or ovarian hormone in the blood sample of the wife taken on day 20 of her reproductive (menstrual) cycle would indicate the actual phase of the ovarian cycle

  1. FSH
  2. LH
  3. Estrogens
  4. Progesterone

Answer: 4. Progesterone

Question 13.  In which phase of the menstrual cycle is the blood sample of women taken if, on analysis, it shows high levels of 1 I I and estrogen?

  1. Ovulatory phase
  2. Menstrual phase
  3. Secretory phase
  4. Follicular phase

Answer: 1. Ovulatory phase

Question 14.

1. The specific site for fertilization in human females is 

  1. Infundibulum
  2. Uterus
  3. Ampulla
  4. Ampullary isthmic junction

Answer: 3. Ampulla

2. The hormone that regulates the synthesis and secretion of androgens in human males is

  1. GH
  2. FSH
  3. LH
  4. Prolactin

Answer: 3. LH

Important Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 2 – Human Reproduction Short Answer Questions

Question 1. Name and state the function of interstitial cells present in the human testes.
Answer:

Interstitial cells or Ley dig cells Leydtg cells synthesize and secrete testicular hormones called androgens.

Question 2. List the three hormones produced in women only during pregnancy. What happens to the levels of estrogen and progesterone during pregnancy?
Answer:

  • Human chorionic gonadotropin or hCG.
  • Human placental lactogen or HPI
  • Relaxin, (The level of progesterone And estrogen) increases

Question 3. Explain the uterine changes during the menstrual cycle’s follicular phase in a human female. Name and explain the role of hormones that bring about these changes.
Answer:

The menstrual phase is followed by the follicular phase During this phase, the primary follicles in the ovary grow to become a fully mature Graafian follicle and simultaneously the endometrium of the uterus regenerates through proliferation These changes in the ovary and the uterus are induced by changes in the levels of pituitary and ovarian hormones. The secretion of gonadotropins (111 and FSH) increases gradually during the follicular phase and stimulates follicular development and secretion of estrogens by the growing follicles.

human reproduction project pdf class 12

Question 4. Name the three different parts of human sperm and write their involvement in the process of fertilization.
Answer:

  1. Aerosome – filled with an enzyme that helps the sperm to enter into the ovum through zona pellucida
  2. Nucleus – containing chromosomal material or genetic material
  3. Mitochondria Or Middle piece – energy source for swimming
  4. Tail – it helps in movement or motility

Question 5. Construct a flow chart exhibiting sequential events of oogenesis. 
Answer:

Human Reproduction Process Of Oogenesis

Question 6. Draw a diagrammatic sectional view of a seminiferous tubule (enlarged) in humans and label its parts.
Answer:

Human Reproduction Structure Of Human body

biology chapter 3

Question 7. Draw a diagram of a mature human sperm, label any three parts, and write their functions.
Answer:

Human Reproduction Structure Of Mature Human Sperm

  1. Plasma membrane – Envelope of the sperm
  2. Acrosome – Filled with an enzyme that helps fertilization of the ovum
  3. Mitochondria – Energy source for swimming
  4. Middle Piece – Possess mitochondria which is the energy
  5. Tail – For movement of sperm
  6. Nucleus – Containing chromosomal material

Question 8. Medically it is advised to all young mothers that breastfeeding is the best for their newborn babies. Do you agree? Give reasons in support of your answer.
Answer:

Yes. it provides nutrition like calcium. fats, lactose, or provides passive immunity or antibodies like IgA

Question 9:

1. Draw a diagram of a sectional view of the human ovary and label

  1. Primary follicle
  2. Tertiary follicle
  3. Graafian follicle and
  4. Corpus luteum.

Answer: 1. Primary follicle

Human Reproduction Diagrammatic Section View Of Of Ovary

2. Write the function of the corpus luteum.
Answer:

  • The corpus luteum secretes large amounts of progesterone which is essential for maintenance of the endometrium.
  • Such an endometrium is necessary for the implantation of the fertilized ovum and other events of pregnancy.
  • During pregnancy, all events of the menstrual cycle stop and there is no menstruation, in the absence of fertilization, the corpus luteum degenerates.
  • This causes disintegration of the endometrium leading to menstruation, marking a new cycle.

Important Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 2 – Human Reproduction Long Question And Answers

Question 1. Study the figure given below of a human female reproductive tract showing the transport of the ovum, its fertilization, and the growing embryo moving through the fallopian tube and answer the questions that follow :

Human Reproduction Transport Of Ovum

1. Identify the embryonic stages ‘e’ and ‘g’ and differentiate between them.
Answer:

e – Morula – The embryo with 8 to 16 blastomeres is called a morula.

g = Blastocyst – The morula continues to divide and transforms into blastocyst it has 32 cells.

2. Describe the process of implantation as shown in Figure H’

H- Implantation – The trophoblast layer then gets attached to the endometrium and the inner cell mass gets differentiated as the embryo. After attachment, the uterine cells divide rapidly and cover the blastocyst. As a result, the blastocyst becomes embedded in the endometrium of the uterus. This is called implantation and it leads to pregnancy.

Question 2:

1. Draw a sectional view of a human ovary and label the primary follicle, tertiary follicle, Graafian follicle, and corpus luteum in it.
Answer:

Human Reproduction Diagrammatic Section View Of Of Ovary

2. Name the gonadotropins and explain their role in oogenesis and the release of ova.

LH, FSH

Both Lit and F8H increase during the follicular phase and stimulate follicular development, as well as the secretion of estrogen by the growing follicles. LIT surge ( rapid secretion of LH) during mid-cycle or 14 days or induces rupture of Grafftan follicle and release of the ovary or secondary oocyte.

Question 3:

1. Describe the different stages of development a fertilized ovum in a human female undergoes up to the blastocyst stage.
Answer:

The zygote moves through the isthmus of the oviduct towards the uterus, and the mitotic division called cleavage begins, forming 2, 4, 8, and 16 daughter cells, called blastomeres, the embryo with 8 to 16 blastomeres is called a morula, the morula continues to divide and transforms into blastocyst.

2. Name the parts of a blastocyst and write the fate of these parts till the onset of pregnancy.
Answer:

  1. Trophoblast: Gets attached to the endometrium for implantation/helps in the formation of the placenta.
  2. Inner cell mass: The inner cell mass gets differentiated as the embryo.

Question 4.

1. Explain the events that occur in the uterus during the menstrual cycle in human females.
Answer:

  • Menstrual Phase, the the endometrial lining of the uterus and the blood vessels are, in the Proliferative phase endometrium regenerates due to proliferation (this phase is under the influence of estrogen).
  • The secretory phase is for the maintenance of the endometrium of the uterus to receive the embryo (this phase is under the influence of Progesterone).

2. What is parturition? Mention how it is induced.
Answer:

The process of delivery of the fetus (childbirth), is induced by a complex neuroendocrine mechanism.

Question 5.

1. Explain the menstrual cycle in human females.
Answer:

  1. Menstrual Phase – Menstrual flow occurs due to the breakdown of the endometrial lining of the uterus, when fertilization does not occur.
  2. Follicular Phase – Primary follicles grow into mature Graafian follicles and endometrium regenerates through proliferation, changes induced by pituitary and ovarian hormones.
  3. Ovulatory Phase – LH surge, induces rupture of Graafian follicle and release of secondary oocyte or ovum during the middle of the cycle (therefore 14th day).
  4. Luteal phase – Ruptured Graafian follicle transforms into corpus luteum which secrete a large amount of progesterone, essential for maintaining endometrium.

2. How can the scientific understanding of the menstrual cycle of human females help as a contraceptive measure?
Answer:

Because ovulation occurs during the mid-mid-cycle, chances of fertilization are very high so, couples should abstain from coitus between the 10th and 17th day.

Question 6.

1. Draw a diagram of the adult human female reproductive system and label the different :

  1. parts of the fallopian tube
  2. Layers of the uterus wall

Answer:

Human Reproduction fertilization Of An ovum In Humans

2. Explain the events during fertilization of an ovum in humans.

When a sperm comes in contact with Zona pellucida of the ovum this induces changes in the membrane that blocks entry of additional sperm. secretions of acrosome help sperm enter into the cytoplasm of the ovum through zona pellucida and plasma membrane, this I the completion of the meiotic division of secondary oocyte and formation of a haploid ootid/ovum (and a second polar body), haploid nucleus of ovum fuses with sperm nucleus to form a diploid zygote (fertilization occurs)

Question 7:

1. Explain the following phases in the menstrual cycle of a human female:

  1. Menstrual phase
  2. Follicular phase
  3. Luteal phase

Menstrual phase – First 3-5 days of the cycle where menstrual flow occurs due to the breakdown of the endometrial lining of the uterus, if the released ovum is not fertilized.

The follicular phase – From the 5th to the 14th day of the cycle where the primary follicles grow to become a fully mature Graafian follicle, and the endometrium of the uterus regenerates. Graafian follicle ruptures to release ova (ovulation on 14 th day)

Futeal Phase – During the 15thto 28th day remaining parts of the Graafian follicle transform into corpus luteum, and secretion of progesterone (essential for the maintenance of endometrium) All these phases are under the influence of varying concentrations of pituitary and ovarian hormone

2. A proper understanding of the menstrual cycle can help immensely in family planning. Do you agree with the statement? Provide reasons for your answer.
Answer:

Yes, can take appropriate precautions between the 10th and 7th day of t(a)  Menstrual phase – first 3-5 days of the cycle where menstrual flow occurs due to break down of the endometrial lining of the uterus if the released ovum is not fertilized.

Class 12 Biology Chapter 13 Important Questions Biodiversity and Conservation

Class 12 Biology Chapter 13 Important Questions Biodiversity And Conservation Short Question And Answer

Question 1. State ‘two’ observations made by German naturalist, Alexender von Humboldt during his extensive explorations in South American jungles.
Answer:

Within a region species richness increases with increasing explored area but only up to a limit, this relation for a wide variety of taxa turns out to be a rectangular hyperbola.

Question 2. Identify the areas labeled 1, 2, 3, and 4 in the pie chart given below representing the biodiversity of plants showing their proportionate number of species of major taxa.

Biodiversity And Conservation Specifies Of Major Taxa

Answer:

  1. Lichen
  2. Algae
  3. Fungi
  4. Mosses

Question 3. Suggest two practices giving one example of each, that help protect rare or threatened species.
Answer:

  • In situ conservation, biodiversity hotspots biosphere reserves, national parks or sanctuaries, or Ramsar sites or sacred groves.
  • Ex situ conservation. Zoological parks botanical gardens wildlife safari parks cryopreservation techniques Tissue culture seed bank or pollen banks.

Read and Learn More Important Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter Wise

Question 4.

1. Write the inference drawn by Alexander von Humboldt after his extensive exploration of the South American jungle.
Answer:

German naturalist and geographer Alexander von Humboldt observed that within a region species richness increased with increasing explored area, but only up to a limit.

2. Study the graph given below

Biodiversity And Conservation South American Jungle

As per Alexander von Humboldt, what do the symbols S, A, Z, and C in the graph stand for, concerning a species and area relationship?

On a logarithmic scale, the relationship is a straight line described by the equation log S = log C + Z log A

where

S = Species richness A = Area

Z = Slope of the line (regression coefficient)

C = Y-intercept

Question 5.

1. Explain the concept of co-extinction by taking two examples.
Answer:

When a species becomes extinct, the plant and animal species associated with it in an obligator) way also become extinct Example: When a host fish species becomes extinct, its unique assemblage of parasites also meets the same fate. Another example is the case of a coevolved plant-pollinator mutualism where the extinction of one invariably leads to the extinction of the other.

2.”Forests provide intangible benefits to as.” Explain by taking three different areas, how.
Answer:

  • Source of oxygen in the earth’s atmosphere,
  • Pollination is another service provided by forests through different pollinators.
  • Source of aesthetic pleasures (walking through thick woods or watching spring flowers in full bloom or waking up to Bulbul’s song in the morning),
  • Humans derive countless economic benefits from nature – food (cereals, pulses, fruits),
  • Source of firewood or fiber or construction material or industrial or industrial products (tannins or lubricants or dyes or resin perfumes).

Question 6. Study the pie chart given below, representing the global diversity: proportionate number of species of major taxa, and answer the following questions based on it.

Biodiversity And Conservation Global Diversity

  1. Identify ‘X’ and ‘Y’ in the given pie chart.
  2. Which one of the two, ‘X’ is the most species-rich taxonomic group, and by what percentage?

Answer:

X – Insects

Y – Molluscs

Among animals insects are the most species-rich taxonomic group, making up more than 70 percent of the total. That means, out of every 10 animals on this planet. 7 are insects.

Question 7. How have the following factors affected the biodiversity of an area? Explain.

  1. Habitat loss and fragmentation
  2. Over-exploitation

Answer:

  1. Habitat loss and fragmentation: This is the most important cause driving animals and plants to extinction. The most dramatic examples of habitat: loss come from tropical rainforests. The rainforests now cover no more than 6 percent. They are being destroyed fast and 1000 more hectares of rainforest would have been lost. The Amazon rain forest (‘lungs of the planet’) harboring probably millions of species is being cut and cleared for cultivating soya beans or for conversion to grasslands for raising beef cattle. Besides total loss, the degradation of many habitats by pollution also threatens the survival of many species, and certain animals with migratory habits are badly affected, leading’ population declines,
  2. Over-exploitation: Humans have always depended on nature for food and shelter, but when “need’ turns to ‘greed’, it leads to the over-exploitation of natural resources. Many species extinctions in the last 500 years (Steller’s sea cow, passenger pigeon) were due to overexploitation by humans. Presently many marine fish populations around the world are over-harvested, endangering the continued existence of some commercially important species.

Question 8. Study the graphical representation of Species richness – Area relationship is given below and answer the questions that follow :

Biodiversity And Conservation South American Jungle

1. What do S, C, Z, and A represent in the given graph?
Answer:

S = Species richness, A = Area,

Z = slope of the line (regression coefficient)

C = Y-intercept

2. What will be the range value of the ‘Z line’ if we analyze the species-area relationship among very large areas like the entire continent?

Z values in the range of 0.6 to 1.2

Question 9. Alien species invasion has been a threat to biodiversity. Justify with the help of a suitable example. List any other three causes responsible for such a loss.
Answer:

Example of Alien species invasion

  1. Nile Perch, introduced into Lake Victoria( in East Africa), led to the extinction of Cichlid fish (more than 200 species) in the lake
  2. Introduction of African catfish (Clarias gariepinus), for aquaculture, posing a threat to indigenous catfish
  3. Introduction of carrot grass (Parthcnium) Lantaua or Water hyacinth (lucrhornia), which are invasive weeds, that pose a threat to native species or any other appropriate example.

Causes of biodiversity loss

  1. Habitat loss and fragmentation
  2. Overexploitation
  3. Co-extinction

Question 10. Tigers inhabit forests. Over the past many decades, the tiger population has been on the decline in our country. A project ‘Save Tiger’ was launched in 1973 to conserve this precious species. It is heartening to see in the last couple of decades that there has been a gradual increase in the tiger population in our country.

Answer the questions :

1. Mention one major cause responsible for the decline in tiger population.
Answer:

Habitat loss and fragmentation or prey depletion.

2. Write one main effort of the biodiversity conservationists that must have helped in the increase in tiger population.
Answer:

Through in situ conservation like national parks or wildlife sanctuaries protect biodiversity hot spots or biosphere reserves or ex-situ conservation like zoological parks or zoos wildlife safari parks or cryopreservation,

3. State how it is possible to count the number of tigers in a forest area.
Answer:

Based on pug marks / faecal pellets/sites with scratches on trees chosen for installing camera/sinee each tiger has a very unique stripe pattern hence this is used to differentiate one tiger from the other.

Question 11. Analyze the effects of ‘Alien species invasion’ on the biodiversity of a given area. Provide two examples.
Answer:

  • Introduction of alien species causes the decline or extinction of indigenous species due to tough home-tuition for utilization of resources Examples:
  • The introduction of Nile perch in Lake Victoria led to the extinction of more than 200 species of Cichlid fish and the introduction of African catfish (Clarias) for aquaculture poses a threat to indigenous catfish.
  • The threat posed to native species by invasive exotic weeds like carrot grass (Parthcnium)lantana and water hyacinth (Eichhornia) or Extinction of Abingdon tortoise by the introduction of goat, (any two).

Question 12. Explain the ‘Ex-situ conservation’ of Biodiversity. How is the in-situ conservation different from it?
Answer:

  • Ex-site – Threatened animals and plants are taken out from their natural habitat and placed in special settings where they can be protected and given special care, by keeping the gametes of threatened species preserved in viable and fertile conditions for a long time.
  • Zoological parks botanical gardens wildlife safari parks cryopreservation or eggs can be fertilized in-vitro or tissue culture method/seed banks.
  • In-situ conservation, organisms are given protection in their natural habitat in which biodiversity is protected at all levels.

Class 12 Biology Chapter 13 Important Questions Biodiversity And Conservation Long Question And Answers

Question 1.

1. Identify the features of a stable biological community.
Answer:

  • A stable community should not show too much variation in productivity from year to year.
  • It must be either resistant or resilient to occasional disturbances (natural or man-made)
  • It must also be resistant to invasions by alien species.

2. How did David Tilman’s findings link the stability of a biological community to its species richness?
Answer:

Plots with more species showed less year-to-year variation in total biomass increased diversity contributed to higher productivity.

Question 2.

1.”India has greater ecosystem diversity than Norway.” Do you agree with the statement? Give reasons in support of your answer.
Answer:

Yes

Biodiversity And Conservation Biological Organisation

2. Write the difference between genetic biodiversity and species biodiversity that exists at all levels of biological organization.
Answer:

Genetic diversity – Diversity or variation within a species over its distributional range example, 1000 vanities of mango in India.

Species diversity – Diversity or variation at a species level example, Amphibian diversity in the western ghat.

Important Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 12 – Ecosystem

Important Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 12 – Ecosystem Very Short Question And Answers

Question 1. In the illustration given below of a simplified food web on an island, the arrows indicate the direction of energy How and the Roman numbers indicate species within the food web?

Ecosystem Food Web

ecosystems questions and answers

At which trophic level or levels does species VIII function?

  1. 2″d and 3″J consumer
  2. P consumer
  3. Producer
  4. 3, a and 4’1′ consumer

Answer: 3. Produce

Important Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 12 – Ecosystem Short Question And Answers

Question 1. Explain reasons why the pyramid of energy is always upright.
Answer:

  • The pyramid of energy is always upright because in an ecosystem the energy flow is always unidirectional, when energy flows from a trophic level to the next level, some energy is always lost to the atmosphere in the form of heat& never goes back to the sun
  • There is a gradual decrease in energy at successive trophic levels, this happens according to the 10% law of energy transfer, where only 10% of total energy is transferred from one to the next level, the energy is highest at the producer level and it gradually decreases on moving from producer to top carnivore.

“questions about ecosystem with answers “

Read and Learn More Important Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter Wise

Question 2. Describe the inter-relationship between productivity, gross primary productivity, and net productivity.
Answer:

  • Productivity is the rate of biomass production per unit area over some time.
  • Gross primary productivity is the rate of production of organic matter during photosynthesis in an ecosystem and Net productivity is the gross primary productivity minus respiration losses (R).

GPP – R = NPP

Important Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 12 – Ecosystem Long Question And Answers

Question 1.

1. Construct a pyramid of biomass of the grassland ecosystem. How is the pyramid of biomass in the sea different from it?
Answer: Pyramids of biomass in grassland ecosystem – upright, Pyramid of biomass in the sea – (generally)inverted.

Ecosystem Pyramid Of Biomass Shows A Sharp Decrease In Biomass At Higher Trophic Levels

“ecosystem question answer “

2. Name the primary producer and primary consumer in the sea.
Answer:

  • Primary producers – phytoplankton.
  • Primary consumers – fishes or zooplankton.

3. What is a standing crop?
Answer: Each trophic level has a certain mass of living material at a particular time called the standing crop.

Question 2.

1. What does an ecological pyramid represent? State any two limitations that these pyramids have.
Answer:

  1. Ecological pyramids represent the relationship between different trophic levels in terms of number, biomass, or energy Limitations of the pyramid:
  2. It does not take into account the same species belonging to two or more trophic levels. It assumes a single food chain which rarely exists in nature.
  3. It does not accommodate a food web or Saprophytes are not given any place even though they play a vital role in the ecosystem.

“ecosystem questions “

Question 2. Describe an inverted pyramid of biomass with the help of an example.
Answer: The pyramids of biomass in aquatic ecosystems or sea are generally inverted example biomass of fish is much more than the biomass of phytoplanktons.

Ecosystem Inverted Pyramid Of Biomass

Question 3.

1. What is a trophic level in an ecosystem? What is a ‘standing crop’ concerning it?
Answer:
The specific place of an organism in a food chain, the mass of living material (biomass) at each trophic level at a particular time.

2. Explain the role of the ‘first trophic level’ in an ecosystem.
Answer:
The first trophic level has producers or autotrophs. which traps solar energy to produce food (photosynthesis).

3. How is the detritus food chain connected with the grazing food chain in a natural ecosystem?
Answer:

Ecosystem Pyramid Of Biomass In Sea

“questions for ecology “

Ecosystem Pyramid Of Biomass In A Forest

Organisms of the Detritus food chain (DFC) are the prey to the Grazing food chain (GFC) organism, the dead remains of GFC are decomposed into simple inorganic materials which are absorbed by DFC organisms.

Question 4. Draw the pyramids of biomass in the sea and a forest. Explain giving reasons why are the two pyramids different.
Answer:

  1. Sea – Inverted. because the biomass of fish or other aquatic animals exceeds that of phytoplankton or a small standing crop of phytoplankton supports a large standing crop of zooplankton.
  2. Forest – Upright. because the biomass of producers exceeds that of herbivores or carnivores or allows a sharp decrease in biomass at higher trophic levels.

Question 5.

1. What is an ecological pyramid? Compare the pyramids of energy, biomass, and numbers.
Answer:

Graphical representation of the relationship among the organisms at different trophic levels

Ecosystem Limitation of Ecological Pyramids

“ecosystem bank of biology “

2. Write any two limitations of ecological pyramids.
Answer: It does not accommodate the food web and does not take into account the same species belonging to two or more tropic levels. Saprophytes are not given any place.

Question 6.

1. Comment on the pattern in which all communities undergo a change in composition and structure with changing environmental conditions.
Answer:

  • All communities are that their composition and structure constantly change in response to the changing environmental conditions.
  • This change is orderly and sequential, parallel with the changes in the physical environment.
  • These changes lead finally to a community that is in near equilibrium with the environmental aid that is called a climax community.
  • The gradual and fairly predictable change in the species composition of a given area is called ecological succession.
  • During succession, some species colonize an area and their population becomes more numerous whereas populations of other species decline and even disappear.

2. Explain ‘Climax community’ and ‘sere’.
Answer:

  • A community that is in near equilibrium with the environment is called a climax community.
  • The entire sequence of communities that successively change in a given area is called sere(s).

“class 12 bio ecosystem notes “

3. Differentiate between primary and secondary succession with examples.
Answer:

  • In primary succession in water, the pioneers are the small phytoplanktons, which are replaced with time by rooted-submerged plants, rooted-floating angiosperms followed by free-floating plants, then reed-swamp, marsh-meadow, scrub, and finally the trees.
  • The climax again would be a forest. With time the water body is converted into land.
  • In secondary succession the species that invade depend on the condition of the soil, availability of water, the environment as also the seeds or other propagates present.
  • Since soil is already there, the rate of succession is much faster, and hence, climax is also reached more quickly.