Sainavle

Environmental Issues Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. Euro-2 (April 2000) is the emission norm for reducing

1. O3 and CO
2. NO2 and N2O
3. Sulfur and aromatic hydrocarbons
4. CO4 and particulate matter

Answer. 3. Sulfur and aromatic hydrocarbons

Question 2. Corrosion of Taj Mahal is due to the conversion of CaCO3 into

1. CaSO4 and CaNO3
2. Ca(OH)2
3. CaO
4. All of these

Answer. 1. CaSO4 and CaNO3

Question 3. ____________ is highly hazardous to animal health but on plants, this gas does not seem to show adverse effect.

1. CO
2. CO2
3. SO2
4. NO2

Answer. 1. CO

Question 4. The most effective greenhouse gas is

1. CFC
2. CO2
3. Methane
4. O2

Answer. 1. CFC

Question 5. Acid rain is due to

1. 03, PAN
2. Oxides of nitrogen and sulfur
3. Greenhouse effect
4. All of these

Answer. 2. Oxides of nitrogen and sulfur

Question 6. Pollutant responsible for causing phaeophytization is

1. SO2
2. NOX
3. CO2
4. Aeroallergens

Answer. 1. SO2

Question 7. Greenhouse gases are

1. Absorbers of long-wave radiations from the earth
2. Transparent to both solar radiations and long-wave radiations from the earth
3. Absorbers of solar radiations for warming the atmosphere
4. Transparent to emissions from the earth for passage into outer space

Answer. 1. Absorbers of long-wave radiations from the earth

Question 8. Ultraviolet radiations produce the photo oxidant

1. SO2
2. Flouride
3. CO
4. 03

Answer. 4. 03

Question 9. Major air pollutant is

1. CO2
2. N2
3. CO
4. S

Answer. 3. CO

Question 10. The products resulting from the atmospheric rea tions of hydrocarbons and nitrogen oxides in the presence of sunlight are called

1. Primary pollutants
2. Secondary pollutants
3. Tertiary pollutants
4. Non-pollutants

Answer. 2. Secondary pollutants

Question 11. Which of the following is a reddish-brown pollutant gas?

1. NO
2. N2O
3. NO2
4. NH3

Answer. 3. NO2

Question 12. Acid rain

(a) Causes necrosis

(b) Convert chlorophyll-a into pheophytin

(c) Responsible for the formation of PAN

1. Only (a) and (b) are correct
2. Only (b) and (c) are correct
3. Only (a) is correct
4. Only (c) is correct

Answer. 1. Only (a) and (b) are correct

Question 13. Which is not an effect of global warming?

1. More extreme weather condition.
2. Poleward shifting of organism.
3. Rise of sea level.
4. Good fungal growth in soil.

Answer. 4. Good fungal growth in soil.

Question 14. Which of the following conference obtained commitments from different countries for reducing overall greenhouse gas emission at a level 5% below 1990 level by 2008-2012?

1. Kyoto Protocol, 1997
2. Earth Summit, Rio-de-Janeiro, 1992
3. Montreal Protocol, 1987
4. Helsinki Declaration, 1989

Answer. 1. Kyoto Protocol, 1997

Question 15. Which plant has the maximum power of absorbing CO2 and oxides of nitrogen in a polluted area?

1. Eucalyptus
2. Coleus indica
3. Robinia pseudoacacia
4. Daucus carota

Answer. 3. Robinia pseudoacacia

Question 16. Arrange CFC, CH4, N2O, and CO2 in decreasing order according to their contribution in greenhouse effect:

1. CO2 > N2O > CFC > CH4
2. CFC > CO2 > CH4> N2O
3. CH,>CFC>N,O>CO,
4. CO, >CH_>CFC>N,O

Answer. 4. CO, >CH_>CFC>N,O

Question 17. Which is not a natural source of CH, in the environment?

1. Biomass burning
2. Termites
3. Gut of ruminants
4. Rice fields

Answer. 1. Biomass burning

Question 18. The controlled aerobic combustion of wastes inside chambers at temperature of 900-1300°C is known as

1. Incineration
2. Recycling
3. Pyrolysis
4. Sanitary dumping

Answer. 1. Incineration

Question 19. Aerosol is a suspension of

1. Liquid or solid particles of more than 1 mm
2. Liquid drops in air
3. Liquid or solid particles of less than 1 mm
4. Solid particles in air

Answer. 3. Liquid or solid particles of less than 1 mm

Question 20. Ozone hole was first discovered by

1. Robert Augus
2. Molina
3. Farman
4. Rowland

Answer. 3. Farman

Question 21. Which is not an effect of acidic rain in a pond?

1. Increased fungal growth.
2. Decreased insect population.
3. Increased growth of green algae.
4. NO, and SO, saturation.

Answer. 3. Increased growth of green algae.

Question 22. The smog which is formed at high temperature is

1. London smog
2. Classical smog
3. Los Angeles smog
4. Sulfurous smog

Answer. 3. Los Angeles smog

Question 23. Brown air and gray air is due to the oxides of

1. Sulfur
2. Nitrogen
3. Carbon
4. Phosphorus

Answer. 2. Nitrogen

Question 24. Third pollution is

1. Pollution caused by the addition of an undesirable substance in air, water, soil, or land
2. Deterioration in the quality of air, water, soil, etc., due to removal or reduction in the quality of an important or vital ingredient
3. Ground water pollution due to seepage of minerals, toxic chemicals, and sewage
4. Landscape pollution caused by throwing of rubbish, wastes, and garbage over land

Answer. 4. Landscape pollution caused by throwing of rubbish, wastes, and garbage over land

Question 25. Which is not a control measure to reduce particulate matter in environment?

1. Cyclonic separators
2. Scrubbers
3. Effluent treatment
4. Electrostatic precipitator

Answer. 3. Effluent treatment

Question 26. A chemical weed in troposphere and protectant in stratosphere is

1. CH4
2. 0
3. CFC
4. NO2

Answer. 3. CFC

Question 27. Ganga Action Plan for controlling pollution in Ganges started in

1. 1985
2. 1981
3. 1987
4. 1989

Answer. 1. 1985

Question 28. The presence of 20 or more genera of algae in a water body is an indication of high organic pollution. It is

1. Water index
2. Algal diversity index
3. Pollution index
4. Algal genus index

Answer. 4. Algal genus index

Question 29. The presence of E. coli in water indicates

1. Water is clear
2. Water is fully polluted
3. Inorganic pollution
4. Fecal pollution

Answer. 4. Fecal pollution

Question 30. Blue-baby syndrome is due to

1. Air pollution
2. Soil pollution
3. Thermal pollution
4. Radioactive pollution

Answer. 2. Soil pollution

Question 31. The release of phosphates and nitrates in water bodies (i.e., in rivers and lakes) leads to

1. Nutrient enrichment (eutrophication)
2. Reduced algal growth
3. Increased algal growth
4. Increased growth of decomposers

Answer. 3. Increased algal growth

Question 32. Soil fertility is depleted due to

1. Pan breaking
2. Terracing
3. Intensive agricultur
4. Contour bunding

Answer. 3. Intensive agriculture

Question 33. Spraying of pesticide is an example of

1. Point source water pollution
2. Diffuse water pollution
3. Both (1) and (2)
4. Pyrolysis

Answer. 2. Diffuse water pollution

Question 34. Ecological backlash (or ecological boomerang) is

1. Heat emission due to bomb explosion
2. Production of useful ecological effect by a previously useful chemical
3. Formation of secondary pollutant from the reaction of primary pollutants
4. Production of adverse ecological effect by a previously useful chemical

Answer. 4. Production of adverse ecological effect by a previously useful chemical

Question 35. Minamata disease is due to

1. Oil spill in water
2. Arsenic in the atmosphere
3. Industrial waste having mercury in water
4. Organic waste in drinking water

Answer. 3. Industrial waste having mercury in water

Question 36. Oil slick causes mass-scale death of fishes due to

1. Clogging of gills
2. Disruption of food chain
3. Non-availability of food
4. All of these

Answer. 1. Clogging of gills

Question 37. Wastes may be sealed in concretefilled drums and discharged to a depth of about 500 m. This specific statement is true for

1. Radiation pollutants
2. UV radiation pollutants
3. Particle pollutants
4. All radioactive pollutants

Answer. 4. All radioactive pollutants

Question 38. Bone cancer is caused by

1. Iodine 127
2. Strontium 90
3. Cesium 137
4. None of these

Answer. 2. Strontium 90

Question 39. As a general rule, ionizing radiation is most damaging to

1. Mature, stable cells
2. Actively dividing cells
3. Highly specialized cells
4. Cells in which food is stored

Answer. 2. Actively dividing cells

Question 40. Volcanic eruptions let out large quantities of

1. Harmful dust and sulfurous gases
2. Harmful dust and nitrous gases
3. Harmful dust and carbonous gases
4. Harmful dust and phosphorous gases

Answer. 3. Harmful dust and carbonous gases

Question 41. Painful skeletal deformity called itai-itai is caused due to

1. Cd
2. Hg
3. CO
4. NO2

Answer. 1. Cd

Question 42. Acoustic zoning is related with

1. Soil pollution
2. Noise pollution
3. Water pollution
4. Air pollution

Answer. 2. Noise pollution

Question 43. Montreal Protocol was aimed to

1. Reduce greenhouse gases
2. Limit the production and use of ODS
3. Mitigate climatic change
4. Implement Agenda 21

Answer. 2. Limit the production and use of ODS

Question 44. The Government of India has introduced a concept to work closely with local communities for protection and management of forests called

1. Jhum cultivation
2. Chipko Movement
3. Appiko Movement
4. Joint Forest Management

Answer. 4. Joint Forest Management

Question 45. The National Forest Policy of India has recommended percent forest cover for hilly areas.

1. 67
2. 33
3. 19.4
4. 30

Answer. 1. 67

Question 46. To spread information and help on the practice of integrated organic farming is started by a group of farmers in

1. Haryana
2. Bangalore
3. Delhi
4. Jodhpur

Answer. 1. Haryana

Question 47. Find the odd one out with respect to e-waste:

1. India
2. Pakistan
3. China
4. America

Answer. 4. America

Question 48. Minerals, metals, and fossil fuels are which type of resources of energy?

1. Renewable
2. Non-renewable
3. Biodegradable
4. Degradable

Answer. 2. Non-renewable

Question 49. Thermal pollution is caused by

1. Power plants
2. Industries
3. Automobiles
4. All of the above

Answer. 4. All of the above

Question 50. The addition of any substance to water which leads to change in its physical and chemical characteristics is defined as water pollution. It results in

1. Decreased turbidity
2. Increased oxygenation
3. Increased photosynthesis
4. Increased turbidity and deoxygenation

Answer. 4. Increased turbidity and deoxygenation

Question 51. Which of the following is not a greenhouse gas?

1. CH4
2. N2O
3. H2O
4. CO2

Answer. 3. H2O

Question 52. High BOD indicates

1. Highly polluted water
2. Less pollution in H2O
3. Less sewage
4. Less microorganism

Answer. 1. Highly polluted water

Question 53. Increasing the concentration along food chain is of accumulated pollutant

1. Biomagnification
2. Bioaccumulation
3. Eutrophication
4. Biodiversity

Answer. 1. Biomagnification

Question 54. Which one of the following is a renewable source of energy?

1. Petroleum
2. Coal
3. Nuclear fuel
4. Trees

Answer. 4. Trees

Question 55. Spraying of DDT produces pollution of

1. Air only
2. Air and soil only
3. Air, soil, and water
4. Air and water only

Answer. 3. Air, soil, and water

Question 56. Sewage water is purified for recycling by the action of

1. Light
2. Microorganisms
3. Aquatic plants
4. Fishes

Answer. 2. Microorganisms

Question 57. Which one is not dangerous?

1. Biopollutants
2. Ozone layer
3. Nuclear blast
4. Deforestation

Answer. 2. Ozone layer

Question 58. Which of the following a set is greenhouse gases?

1. CFC, CH4, CO2, N20
2. CO2, CH4, N2, O2
3. CO2, CH4, N2O3
4. CO2, CFC, N2, O2

Answer. 1. CFC, CH4, CO2, N20

Question 59. Acid rain is due to pollution by

1. CO2
2. SO2 and NO2
3. Dust particles
4. Automobiles

Answer. 2. SO2 and NO2

Question 60. Which of the following is a biodegradable pollutant?

1. Sewage
2. Plastic
3. Polythene
4. DDT

Answer. 1. Sewage

Question 61. The most hazardous metal pollutant of automobile exhaust is

1. Cadmium
2. Lead
3. Mercury
4. Copper

Answer. 2. Lead

Question 62. Air quality indicator is

1. Lichen
2. Moss
3. Algae
4. None of these

Answer. 1. Lichen

Question 63. Blood hemoglobin has high affinity for

1. CO2
2. CO
3. O2
4. H2

Answer. 2. CO

Question 64. Minamata disease caused due to water pollution is due to

1. Lead poisoning
2. Arsenic chloride poisoning
3. Mercury poisoning
4. Ammonia pollution

Answer. 3. Mercury poisoning

Question 65. Effect of pollution is first marked on

1. Microorganisms
2. Green vegetation of an area
3. Food crop
4. None of these

Answer. 2. Green vegetation of an area

Question 66. Pollution is not caused by

1. Thermal power plant
2. Automobile
3. Radioactive power plant
4. Hydroelectric power plant

Answer. 4. Hydroelectric power plant

Question 67. Taj Mahal marble is affected by

1. SO2
2. O2
3. O3
4. NO2

Answer. 1. CO2

Question 68. Minamata disease first occurred in

1. Japan
2. China
3. Korea
4. Russia

Answer. 1. Japan

Question 69. Increase in the BOD of water reservoir is due to

1. Algae
2. Soil
3. Moss
4. Waste product

Answer. 4. Waste product

Question 70. Number of wildlife is continuously decreasing. What is the main reason behind this?

1. Predation
2. Cutting down of forest
3. Destruction of habitat
4. Hunting

Answer. 3. Destruction of habitat

Question 71. One of the following is associated with the conservation of forests. Find the one.

1. Kaziranga
2. Ghana
3. Silent valley
4. Gir

Answer. 3. Silent valley

Question 72. Which one of the following is a pair of endangered species?

1. Garden lizard and Mexican poppy
2. Rhesus monkey and sal tree
3. Indian peacock and carrot grass
4. Hornbill and Indian aconite

Answer. 4. Hornbill and Indian aconite

Question 73. If the Bengal Tiger becomes extinct,

1. Hyenas and wolves will become scare
2. The wild areas will be safe for man and domestic animals
3. Its gene pool will be lost forever
4. The populations of beautiful animals such as deers will get stabilized

Answer. 3. Its gene pool will be lost forever

Question 74. If high-altitude birds become rare or extinct, the plants which may disappear along with them are

1. Pine
2. Oak
3. Orchids
4. Rhododrons

Answer. 4. Rhododrons

Question 75. Which one of the following pairs of geographical areas shows maximum biodiversity in our country?

1. Sunderbans and Rann of Kutch
2. Eastern Ghats and West Bengal
3. Eastern Himalaya and Western Ghats
4. Kerala and Punjab

Answer. 3. Eastern Himalaya and Western Ghats

Question 76. One of the ex situ conservation methods for endangered species is

1. Wildlife sanctuaries
2. Biosphere reserves
3. Cryopreservation
4. National parks

Answer. 3. Cryopreservation

Question 77. Reason for the elimination of wildlife is

1. Deforestation
2. Forest fire
3. Floods
4. Less rainfall

Answer. 1. Deforestation

Question 78. The main reason of disturbance of biological diversity is

1. Greenhouse effect
2. Hunting
3. Soil erosion
4. Destruction of natural habitats

Answer. 4. Destruction of natural habitats

Question 79. The best method to preserve the wild relatives of plants is

1. By growing them in natural habitats
2. Gene library
3. By storing seeds
4. Cryopreservation

Answer. 1. By growing them in natural habitats

Question 80. Species diversity is the maximum in

1. Tropical rain forest
2. Temperate forest
3. Deserts
4. Hill slopes

Answer. 1. Tropical rain forest

Question 81. According to the Forestry Commission report 1997, the total forest cover of India was

1. 11%
2. 19.5%
3. 17%
4. 18.7%

Answer. 2. 19.5%

Question 82. What shall be the effect of destruction of wildlife?

1. Wild gene of disease resistance will not be obtained
2. Soil erosion
3. Floods
4. Greenhouse effect

Answer. 1. Wild gene of disease resistance will not be obtained

Question 83. The reason behind the occurrence of endemic species in South America and Australia is

1. The species has been extinct from other regions
2. Continental separation
3. There is no terrestrial route to these places
4. Retrogressive evolution

Answer. 2. Continental separation

Question 84. In your opinion, which is the most effective way to conserve the plant diversity of an area?

1. By creating biosphere reserve
2. By creating botanical garden
3. By developing seed bank
4. By tissue culture method

Answer. 1. By creating biosphere reserve

Question 85. The Biodiversity Act of India was passed by the Parliament in the year

1. 2002
2. 1992
3. 1996
4. 2000

Answer. 1. 2002

Question 86. According to the IUCN Red List, what is the status of red panda (Ailurus fulgens)?

1. Critically species
2. Vulnerable species
3. Extinct species
4. Endangered species

Answer. 4. Endangered species

Question 87. One of the most important functions of botanical gardens is that

1. They provide a beautiful area for recreation
2. One can observe tropical plants there
3. They allow ex situ conservation of germplasm
4. They provide the natural habitat for wildlife

Answer. 3. They allow ex situ conservation of germplasm

Question 88. Which of the following pairs of animal and plant represents endangered organisms in India?

1. Cinchona and leopard
2. Banyan and black buck
3. Bentinckia nicobarica and red panda
4. Tamarind and rhesus monkey

Answer. 3. Bentinckia nicobarica and red panda

Question 89. Which one of the following is not included under in situ conservation?

1. Biosphere reserve
2. National park
3. Sanctuary
4. Botanical garden

Answer. 4. Botanical garden

Question 90. Which one of the following is the correctly matched pair of endangered animal and national park?

1. Wild ass-Dudhwa National Park
2. Great Indian-Keoladeo National Park Bustard
3. Lion-Corbett National Park
4. Rhinoceros-Kaziranga National Park

Answer. 4. Rhinoceros-Kaziranga National Park

Question 91. Which of the following is considered a hot-spot of biodiversity in India?

1. Eastern Ghats
2. Aravalli Hills
3. Western Ghats
4. Indo-Gangetic Plain

Answer. 3. Western Ghats

Question 92. Identify the odd combination of the habitat and the particular animal concerned:

1. Rann of Kutch-Wild ass
2. Dachigam National Park-Snow leopard
3. Sunderbans-Bengal tiger
4. Periyar-Elephant

Answer. 2. Dachigam National Park-Snow leopard

Question 93. Which one of the following pairs of organisms are exotic species introduced in India?

1. Nile perch, Ficus religiosa
2. Ficus religiosa, Lantana camara
3. Lantana camara, Water hyacinth
4. Water hyacinth, Prosopis cinereia

Answer. 3. Lantana camara, Water hyacinth

Question 94. Which one of the following is not observed in biodiversity hotspots?

1. Lesser inter-specific competition
2. Species richness
3. Endemism
4. Accelerated species loss

Answer. 1. Lesser inter-specific competition

Question 95. Tiger is not a resident in which one of the following national parks?

1. Jim Corbett
2. Ranthambhor
3. Sunderbans
4. Gir

Answer. 4. Gir

Question 96. Which one of the following is an example of ex situ conservation?

1. Wildlife sanctuary
2. Seed bank
3. Sacred groves
4. National park

Answer. 2. Seed bank

Question 97. The Indian Rhinoceros are a natural inhabitant of which Indian state?

1. Uttar Pradesh
2. Himachal Pradesh
3. Assam
4. Uttarakhand

Answer. 3. Assam

Question 98. Which of the following is the non-conventional source of energy?

1. Coal
2. Petroleum
3. Electricity from nuclear power plants
4. Solar radiations

Answer. 4. Solar radiations

Question 99. Petroleum resource is

1. Renewable
2. Non-renewable
3. Synthetic and biodegradable
4. Infinite and unconventional,

Answer. 2. Non-renewable

Question 100. Biological oxygen demand (BOD) is a measure of

1. Industrial wastes poured into water bodies
2. Extent to which water is polluted with organic compounds
3. Amount of carbon monoxide inseparably combined with hemoglobin
4. Amount of oxygen needed by green plants during night

Answer. 2. Extent to which water is polluted with organic compounds

Question 101. In almost all Indian metropolitan cities such as Delhi, the major atmospheric pollutant/s is/are

1. Suspended particulate matter (SPM)
2. Oxides of sulfur
3. Carbon dioxide and carbon monoxide
4. Oxides of nitrogen

Answer. 1. Suspended particulate matter (SPM)

Question 102. Nitrogen oxides produced from the emission of automobiles and power plants are the source of fine air borne particles which lead to

1. Photochemical smog
2. Dry acid deposition
3. Industrial smog
4. Wet acid deposition

Answer. 2. Dry acid deposition

Question 103. A lake with an inflow of domestic sewage rich in organic waste may result in

1. Drying of the lake very soon due to algal bloom
2. An increased production of fish due to lots of nutrients
3. Death of fish due to lack of oxygen
4. Increased population of aquatic food web organisms

Answer. 3. Death of fish due to lack of oxygen

Question 104. Minamata disease was caused due to the consumption of

1. Sea food containing a lot of cadmium
2. Fish contaminated with mercury
3. Oysters with a lot of pesticide
4. Sea food contaminated with selenium

Answer. 2. Fish contaminated with mercury

Question 105. Which one of the following statements pertaining to pollutants is correct?

1. DDT is a non-biodegradable pollutant.
2. Excess fluoride in drinking water causes osteoporosis.
3. Excess cadmium in drinking water causes black foot disease.
4. Methyl mercury in water may cause “itai itai” disease.

Answer. 1. DDT is a non-biodegradable pollutant.

Question 106. If CO2 is absent in the atmosphere of earth, then

1. Temperature will decrease
2. Temperature will increase.
3. Plants will flourish well
4. No effect

Answer. 1. Temperature will decrease

Question 107. CO is harmful because

1. It forms stable compound with hemoglobin
2. It blocks mitosis
3. It is mutagenic
4. It causes defloation

Answer. 1. It forms stable compound with hemoglobin

Question 108. Besides CH, and CO2, other greenhouse gas from agriculture area is

1. SO2
2. NH3
3. NO2
4. CFC

Answer. 3. NO2

Question 109. Temperature variation in Pacific Ocean in present time is called

1. Cyclone effect
2. El Niño effect
3. Greenhouse effect
4. Gaudikov’s effect

Answer. 2. El Niño effect

Question 110. Sewage purification is performed by

1. Microbes
2. Fertilizers
3. Antibiotics
4. Antiseptics

Answer. 1. Microbes

Question 111. The best economic method to harvest the solar energy is

1. Solar cell
2. Energy plantation
3. Cultivation of sugarcane; then energy obtained by burning it
4. Solar cooker

Answer. 2. Energy plantation

Question 112. The Bhopal Gas Tragedy is related with

1. Methane
2. Carbon monoxide
3. Methyl isocyanate (MIC)
4. SO2

Answer. 3. Methyl isocyanate (MIC)

Question 113. The concentration of DDT is the highest in

1. Primary consumer
2. Producers
3. Top consumer
4. Decomposers

Answer. 3. Top consumer

Question 114. Lichens can be used

1. Bioindicator for water and air pollution
2. Initial vegetation for waste lands
3. Source of wood
4. To check air pollution

Answer. 1. Bioindicator for water and air pollution

Question 115. What is phytotron?

1. A device to grow plants in controlled environment.
2. Growing plants in greenhouse.
3. Radiation chamber to induce mutations.
4. Apparatus to study the effect of light on plants.

Answer. 1. A device to grow plants in controlled environment.

Question 116. Which of the following is a secondary pollutant?

1. PAN
2. CO
3. NO2
4. SO2

Answer. 1. PAN

Question 117. Maximum DDT is present in birds feeding on

1. Fishes
2. Meat
3. Insects
4. Seeds

Answer. 1. Fishes

Question 118. Which one is associated with occupational hazard?

1. Fluorosis
2. Pneumoconiosis
3. Silicosis
4. Asthama

Answer. 2. Pneumoconiosis

Question 119. Greenhouse effect is

1. Gardening outside the house
2. Global cooling
3. Global warming
4. Green color house

Answer. 3. Global warming

Question 120. What is BOD?

1. The amount of O2 utilized by organisms in water.
2. The amount of O2 utilized by microorganisms for decomposition.
3. The total amount of O2 present in water.
4. All of the above.

Answer. 2. The amount of O2 utilized by microorganisms for decomposition.

Question 121. What is the intensity of sound in normal conversation?

1. 10-20 db
2. 30-60 db
3. 70-90 db
4. 120-150 db

Answer. 2. 30-60 db

Question 122. Which of the following is absent in polluted water?

1. Hydrilla
2. Water hyacinth
3. Larva of stone fly
4. Blue green algae

Answer. 3. Larva of stone fly

Question 123. The maximum greenhouse gas is released by which country?

1. India
2. France
3. USA
4. Britain

Answer. 3. USA

Question 124. Lead concentration in blood is considered alarming if it is

1. 30 mg/100 ml
2. 4-6 mg/100 ml
3. 10 mg/100 ml
4. 20 mg/100ml

Answer. 3. 10 mg/100 ml

Question 125. In 1984, the Bhopal Gas Tragedy took place because methyl isocyanate

1. Reacted with ammonia.
2. Reacted with CO2
3. Reacted with water
4. Reacted with DDT

Answer. 3. Reacted with water

Question 126. Blood analysis of a patient reveals an unusually high quantity of carboxyhemoglobin content. Which of the following conclusion is the most likely to be correct? The patient has been inhaling polluted air containing unusually high content of

1. Carbon monoxide
2. Carbon disulfide
3. Chloroform
4. Carbon dioxide

Answer. 1. Carbon monoxide

Question 127. The common indicator organism of water pollution is

1. Entamoeba histolytica
2. Lemna paucicostata
3. Eichhornia crassipes
4. Escherichia coli

Answer. 4. Escherichia coli

Question 128. Which one of the following pairs in mismatched?

1. Nuclear power – Radioactive wastes
2. Solar energy – Greenhouse effect
3. Fossil fuel burning – Release of CO2
4. Biomass burning-Release of CO2

Answer. 2. Solar energy – Greenhouse effect

Question 129. Identify the correctly matched pair?

1. Kyoto Protocol-Climatic change
2. Montreal Protocol – Global warming
3. Basal convention Biodiversity conservation
4. Ramsar convention-Ground water pollution

Answer. 1. Kyoto Protocol-Climatic change

Question 130. Prolonged liberal irrigation of agricultural fields is likely to create the problem of

1. Acidity
2. Aridity
3. Salinity
4. Metal toxicity

Answer. 3. Salinity

Question 131. Which of the following is not used for the disinfection of drinking water?

1. Chlorine
2. Ozone
3. Chloramine
4. Phenyl

Answer. 4. Phenyl

Question 132. The limit of BOD prescribed by the Central Pollution Control Board for the discharge of industrial and municipal waste waters into natural surface waters is 

1. < 100 ppm
2. <30 ppm
3. <3 ppm
4. < 10 ppm

Answer. 2. <30 ppm

Question 133. The “blue baby” syndrome results from

1. Excess of dissolved oxygen
2. Excess of TDS (total dissolved solids)
3. Excess of chloride
4. Methaemoglobinaemia

Answer. 4. Methaemoglobinaemia

Question 134. Montreal Protocol, which calls for appropriate action to protect the ozone layer from human activities, was passed in the year

1. 1988
2. 1985
3. 1986
4. 1987

Answer. 4. 1987

Question 135. Photochemical smog pollution does not contain

1. Carbon dioxide
2. PAN (peroxy acyl nitrate)
3. Ozone
4. Nitrogen dioxide

Answer. 1. Carbon dioxide

Question 136. In a coal-fired power plant, electrostatic precipitators are installed to control the emission of pollution?

1. CO
2. SO2
3. NO
4. SPM

Answer. 4. SPM

Question 137. Which one of the following is not a bioindicator of water

1. Sewage fungus
2. Sludge worms
3. Blood-worms
4. Stone flies

Answer. 4. Stone flies

Question 138. Which one of the following is the correct percentage of the two (out of the total of four) greenhouse gases that contribute to the total global warming?

1. N,O 6%, CO, 86%
2. Methane 20%, N2O 18%
3. CFCs 14%, methane 20%
4. CO2 40%, CFCs 30%

Answer. 3. CFCs 14%, methane 20%

Question 139. The World Summit on Sustainable Development (2002) was held in

1. Argentina
2. South Africa
3. Brazil
4. Sweden

Answer. 2. South Africa

Question 140. About 70% of total global carbon is found in

1. Ocean
2. Forests
3. Desert
4. Rain forest

Answer. 1. Ocean

Question 141. A lake near a village suffered heavy mortality of fishes within a few days. Consider the following reasons for this?

a. Lots of urea and phosphate fertilizers were used in the crops in the vicinity.

b. The area was sprayed with DDT by an aircraft.

c. The lake water turned green and stinky.

d. Phytoplankton population in the lake declined initially thereby greatly reducing photosynthesis.

Which two of the above were the main causes of fish mortality in the lake?

1. (a), (c)
2. (a), (b)
3. (b), (c)
4. (c), (d)

Answer. 1. (a), (c)

Question 142. According to the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB), which particulate size in diameter (in micrometers) of the air pollutants is responsible for the greatest harm to human health?

1. 1.0 or less
2. 5.2-2.5
3. 2.5 or less
4. 1.5 or less

Answer. 3. 2.5 or less

Question 143. The Montreal Protocol aims at

1. Control of CO2 emission
2. Reduction of ozone depleting substances
3. Biodiversity conservation
4. Control of water pollution

Answer. 2. Reduction of ozone depleting substances

Question 144. The Chipko Movement was launched for the protection of

1. Wet lands
2. Grasslands
3. Forests
4. Livestock

Answer. 3. Forests

Question 145. Steps taken by the Government of India to control air pollution include

1. Use of non-polluting compressed natural gas (CNG) only as fuel by all buses and trucks
2. Compulsory mixing of 20% ethyl alcohol with petrol and 20% biodiesel with diesel
3. Compulsory PUC (pollution under control) certification of petrol driven vehicles which tests for carbon monoxide and hydrocarbons
4. Permission to use only pure diesel with a maximum of 500 ppm sulfur as fuel for vehicles

Answer. 1. Use of non-polluting compressed natural gas (CNG) only as fuel by all buses and trucks

Question 146. Biochemical oxygen demand (BOD) in river water

1. Increases when sewage gets mixed with river water
2. Remains unchanged when algal bloom occurs
3. Has no relationship with the concentration of oxygen in water
4. Gives a measure of Salmonella in water

Answer. 1. Increases when sewage gets mixed with river water

Question 147. DDT residues are rapidly passed through food chain causing biomagnification because DDT is

1. Water soluble
2. Fat soluble
3. Moderately toxic

Non-toxic to aquatic animals

Answer. 2. Fat soluble

Question 148. Global agreement in specific control strategies to reduce the release of ozone depleting substances was adopted by 

1. The Vienna Convention
2. Rio de Janeiro Conference
3. The Montreal Protocol
4. The Koyoto Protocol

Answer. 3. The Montreal Protocol

Question 149. Breeding of crops with high levels of minerals, vitamins, and proteins is called

1. Somatic hybridization
2. Biofortification
3. Biomagnification
4. Micropropagation

Answer. 2. Biofortification

Question 150. The two gases making the highest relative contribution to the greenhouse gases are

1. CO2 and CH4
2. CH, and N2O
3. CFCs and N2O
4. CO2 and N2O

Answer. 1. CO2 and CH4

Question 151. A renewable exhaustible natural resource is

1. Coal
2. Petroleum
3. Minerals
4. Forest.

Answer. 4. Forest.

Question 152. When domestic sewage mixes with river water,

1. The increased microbial activity releases micronutrients such as iron
2. The increased microbial activity uses up dissolved oxygen
3. The river water is still suitable for drinking as impurities are only about 0.1%
4. Small animals such as rats will die after drinking river water

Answer. 2. The increased microbial activity uses up dissolved oxygen

Question 153. Measuring BOD is a method used for

1. Working out the efficiency of oil driven automobile engines.
2. Measuring the activity of Saccharomyces cerevisiae in producing curd on a commercial scale
3. Working out the efficiency of RBCs about their capacity to carry oxygen
4. Estimating the amount of organic matter in sewage water

Answer. 4. Estimating the amount of organic matter in sewage water

Question 154. Which one of the following is a wrong statement?

1. Ozone in the upper part of atmosphere is harmful to animals.
2. Greenhouse effect is a natural phenomenon.
3. Eutrophication is a natural phenomenon in fresh water bodies.
4. Most of the forests have been lost in tropical areas.

Answer. 1. Ozone in the upper part of atmosphere is harmful to animals.

Question 155. Which one of the following areas in India is a hotspot of biodiversity?

1. Gangetic Plain
2. Sunderbans
3. Western Ghats
4. Eastern Ghats

Answer. 3. Western Ghats

Question 156. Select the correct statement about biodiversity:

1. The desert areas of Rajasthan and Gujarat have a very high level of desert animal species as well as numerous rare animals.
2. Large scale planting of Bt cotton has no adverse effect on biodiversity.
3. Western Ghats have a very high degree of species richness and endemism.
4. Conservation of biodiversity is just a fad pursued by the developed countries.

Answer. 3. Western Ghats have a very high degree of species richness and endemism.

Biodiversity And Conservation Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. Out of more than 1.5 million known species, insects are of the total animals.

1. 70%
2. 25%
3. 50%
4. 75%

Answer. 1. 70%

Question 2. Which is not true regarding genetic diversity?

1. It enables a population to adapt to its environment.
2. It is also the basis of speciation.
3. Ecotype formation depends upon it.
4. Higher diversity increases uniformity.

Answer. 4. Higher diversity increases uniformity.

Question 3. Regional diversity is also called

1. Alpha diversity
2. Beta diversity
3. Gamma diversity
4. Ecosystem diversity

Answer. 3. Gamma diversity

Question 4. Which of the following biogeographical regions in India has the highest coverage?

1. Deccan Peninsula
2. NE Himalayas
3. Western Ghats
4. Gangetic Plain

Answer. 1. Deccan Peninsula

Question 5. Which is not a reason of maximum diversity in tropics?

1. Higher pest pressure
2. Evolutionary older zone
3. High rate of out-crossing
4. Greater environmental variations

Answer. 4. Greater environmental variations

Question 6. Threats to biodiversity come from

1. Habitat loss
2. Over exploitation
3. Intensive agriculture
4. All of the above

Answer. 4. All of the above

Question 7. The disappearance of cheetah from India and its existence in other part of the world is an example of

1. Extinction
2. Extirpation
3. Background extinction
4. Anthropogenic extinction

Answer. 2. Extirpation

Question 8. Silent Valley of Kerala is being preserved because it has

1. Rare plants and animals
2. Only natural forest of India
3. Costly timber plants
4. Recreational value

Answer. 1. Rare plants and animals

Question 9. Anti-forest conservation is

1. Selective felling
2. Control of forest fire
3. Large-scale clearing
4. Ban on hunting

Answer. 1. Selective felling

Question 10. The species which are likely to be in the danger of extinction in the near future if the factors threatening their extinction continue are known as

1. Threatened species
2. Rare species
3. Vulnerable species
4. Endangered species

Answer. 3. Vulnerable species

Question 11. In India, forests constitute about

1. 19.4% of the land area
2. 33.7% of the land area
3. 33% of the land area
4. 67% of the land area

Answer. 1. 19.4% of the land area

Question 12. Bamboos are abundant in

1. Dry moist deciduous tropical forests
2. Coniferous forests
3. Alpine forests
4. Rain forests

Answer. 1. Dry moist deciduous tropical forests

Question 13. 85% of world’s food comes from

1. < 20 plant species
2. < 50 plant species
3. < 5 plant species
4. < 100 plant species

Answer. 1. < 20 plant species

Question 14. A population characteristic of a species susceptible to extinction is

1. Low trophic level in food chain
2. Inability to switch over to alternate food source
3. Wide range of distribution
4. High biotic potential

Answer. 2. Inability to switch over to alternate food source

Question 15. The number of red list categories prepared by WCU (IUCN) is

1. 6
2. 7
3. 8
4. 9

Answer. 3. 8

Question 16. According to IUCN, when a taxon is facing an extremely high risk of extinction in the immediate future, it is

1. Extinct in the wild
2. Endangered
3. Critically endangered
4. Vulnerable

Answer. 3. Critically endangered

Question 17. Projected areas are examples of

1. In situ conservation
2. Ex situ conservation
3. Cryopreservation
4. Green houses

Answer. 1. In situ conservation

Question 18. The zone of biosphere reserve where no human activity is permitted is known as

1. Buffer zone
2. Core zone
3. Manipulation zone
4. None of these

Answer. 2. Core zone

Question 19. Floods can be prevented by

1. Making the soil less sloppy
2. Removing forests
3. Removing soil cover
4. Planting trees on slopes and building dams

Answer. 4. Planting trees on slopes and building dams

Question 20. Indian rhinoceros is the most important protected species in

1. Gir National Park
2. Bandipur National Park
3. Corbett National Park
4. Kaziranga National Park

Answer. 4. Kaziranga National Park

Question 21. The Government of India has provided private ownership rights in

1. A national park
2. A sanctuary
3. A biosphere reserve
4. Zoo

Answer. 2. A sanctuary

Question 22. Wild populations of plants and animals and traditional life styles of tribals are protected in

1. Biosphere reserve
2. Sanctuary
3. National park
4. None of these

Answer. 1. Biosphere reserve

Question 23. Man-made mass extinction of species represents a severe depletion of biodiversity called

1. Mass extinction
2. Natural extinction
3. Anthropogenic extinction
4. Human extinction

Answer. 3. Anthropogenic extinction

Question 24. Which of the following exotic species has become menace to many water bodies in India?

1. Lantana camara
2. Eichhomia crassipes
3. Parthenium hysterophorus
4. Eupatorium odoratum

Answer. 2. Eichhomia crassipes

Question 25. Which is not a criterion used for determining hot spots?

1. Number of endemic species
2. Degree of habitat destruction
3. Haying traditional strategy for protection of biodiversity
4. Degree of exploitation

Answer. 3. Haying traditional strategy for protection of biodiversity

Question 26. Which anticancerous botano-chemical is obtained from a gymnosperm?

1. Ephedrine
2. Strychnine
3. Taxol
4. Reserpine

Answer. 3. Taxol

Question 27. Which potato species is nematode resistant?

1. Solanum spegazzini
2. S. demissum
3. S. acaule
4. S. stoloniferum

Answer. 1. Solanum spegazzini

Question 28. A few years ago, the brown plant hopper (Nilaparvata lunges) threatened the cultivation of

1. Wheat
2. Rice
3. Maize
4. Millets

Answer. 2. Rice

Question 29. An important international effort or convention for biodiversity conservation is

1. UNESCO
2. WWF
3. IBWL
4. NBPGR

Answer. 2. WWF

Question 30. Find the odd one out (with respect to weed):

1. Lantana camara
2. Eicchornia
3. Parthenium argentatum
4. Parthenium hysterophorus

Answer. 3. Parthenium argentatum

Question 31. How many species became extinct in the last 500 years?

1. 338
2. 359
3. 784
4. 2000

Answer. 3. 784

Question 32. How many hot spots cover India’s high biodiversity regions?

1. 25
2. 3
3. 34
4. 2

Answer. 2. 3

Question 33. Overexploitation has resulted in the extinction of

1. Steller’s cow
2. Lantana
3. Passenger pigeon
4. Both (1) and (3)

Answer. 4. Both (1) and (3)

Question 34. Wildlife (protection) Act 1972 includes which of the following objectives?

1. Setting up and managing sanctuaries and national parks
2. Restriction and prohibition on hunting animals
3. Protection of specified plants
4. All of the above

Answer. 4. All of the above

Question 35. Best way to preserve the wildlife is

1. To kill the predators
2. Vaccinize the animals
3. Optimize the breeding habit
4. To preserve their natural habitat

Answer. 4. To preserve their natural habitat

Question 36. Wildlife conservation aims at

1. Maintaining the ecological process
2. Enriching the wildlife diversity with exotic species
3. Preventing migration of species
4. Maintaining the diversity of life

The correct statements are:

1. (1), (4)
2. (3), (4)
3. (1), (2)
4. (2), (3)

Answer. 1. (1), (4)

Question 37. All forms of life should be conserved because

1. They will be otherwise lost
2. They have economic values
3. They maintain diverse genetic resources
4. They are important for maintaining balance of nature

Answer. 3. They maintain diverse genetic resources

Question 38. Which of the following types of animals does man chiefly protect?

1. Week animals
2. Harmless animals
3. Those likely to perish
4. Economically useful animals

Answer. 3. Those likely to perish

Question 39. The national bird of India is

1. Peacock
2. The hornbill
3. Black swan
4. House sparrow

Answer. 1. Peacock

Question 40. Scientific name of our national bird is

1. Gallus gallus
2. Columba livia
3. Pava cristatus
4. Corvus splendens

Answer. 3. Pava cristatus

Question 41. The biological name of the domestic cat is

1. Felis leo
2. Panthera indica
3. Panthera domestica
4. Felis domestica

Answer. 4. Felis domestica

Question 42. The “Sangai” of Manipur is a

1. Great pied hornbill
2. Black-necked crane
3. Brow antlered deer
4. Retienlated python

Answer. 3. Brow antlered deer

Question 43. Sarus is also known as

1. Crane
2. Spotbill
3. Plovers
4. Flamingoes

Answer. 1. Crane

Question 44. Black buck is

1. Cervulus muntiac
2. Antilope cervicapra
3. Moschus moschiferus
4. Boselaphus trogocamelus

Answer. 2. Antilope cervicapra

Question 45. Which among the following is an Indian monkey?

1. Simia
2. Gorilla
3. Macaca
4. Pongidae
5. Ramapithecus

Answer. 3. Macaca

Question 46. Number of wildlife is continuously decreasing. What is the main reason for this?

1. Hunting
2. Predation
3. Cutting down forest
4. Destruction of habitat

Answer. 4. Destruction of habitat

Question 47. Most of the endangered species are victims of

1. Acid rain
2. Over-hunting
3. Habitat destruction
4. Competition with introduced species

Answer. 3. Habitat destruction

Question 48. The main reason for extinction of species is

1. Hunting
2. Destruction of habitat
3. Pollution
4. None of these

Answer. 2. Destruction of habitat

Question 49. Wildlife is destroyed most when

1. Mass scale hunting for foreigan trade
2. Natural habitat is destroyed
3. There is lack of proper care
4. There is natural calamity

Answer. 2. Natural habitat is destroyed

Question 50. Wildlife is conserved in

1. In situ
2. Ex situ
3. Both (1) and (2)
4. None of these

Answer. 3. Both (1) and (2)

Question 51. Establishment of national parks and sanctuaries is a strategy for

1. Conservation of wildlife
2. Studying wildlife biology
3. Creating awareness about wildlife
4. Preventing wild animals entering villages

Answer. 1. Conservation of wildlife

Question 52. India now has

1. 10 biosphere reserves, 50 national parks, and 400 wildlife sanctuaries
2. 14 biosphere reserves, 50 national parks, and 400 wildlife sanctuaries
3. 10 biosphere reserves, 90 national parks, and 448 wildlife sanctuaries
4. 10 biosphere reserves, 96 national parks, and 441 wildlife sanctuaries

Answer. 4. 10 biosphere reserves, 96 national parks, and 441 wildlife sanctuaries

Question 53. An example for in situ biological conservation method is to establish

1. Zoos
2. Seed banks
3. Botanical gardens
4. Biosphere reserves

Answer. 4. Biosphere reserves

Question 54. Dachigam National Park in Srinagar is associated with the animal

1. Hangul
2. Rhino
3. Musk deer
4. Nilgiri tahr

Answer. 1. Hangul

Question 55. Dachigam sanctuary is located in

1. WB
2. MP
3. J&K
4. Rajasthan

Answer. 3. J&K

Question 56. Identify the odd combination of the habitat and the particular animal concerned:

1. Periyar – Elephant
2. Rann of Kutch – Wild ass
3. Sunderbans – Bengal tiger
4. Dachigam National Park – Snow leopard

Answer. 4. Dachigam National Park – Snow leopard

Question 57. National animal of India is

1. Lion
2. Tiger
3. Antelope
4. Elephant

Answer. 2. Tiger

Question 58. “Project Tiger” in India was launched in the year

1. 1973
2. 1981
3. 1985
4. 1988

Answer. 1. 1973

Question 59. “Project Tiger” in India was launched following the recommendation of

1. IBWL
2. BNHS
3. CITES
4. NWAP

Answer. 1. IBWL

Question 60. Identify the correct match between tiger reserve and its state?

1. Palamu – Odisha
2. Manas – Assam
3. Bandipur – Tamil Nadu
4. Corbett – Madhya Pradesh

Answer. 2. Manas – Assam

Question 61. Bandipur National Park is associated with

1. Tiger
2. Deer
3. Elephant
4. Rhinoceros

Answer. 1. Tiger

Question 62. Bandipur in Karnataka is the site of

1. Project Tiger
2. Project Hangul
3. Project Peacock
4. Project Elephant

Answer. 1. Project Tiger

Question 63. Which of the following is the smallest tiger reserve?

1. Simlipal
2. Palamau
3. Namdapha
4. Ranthambore

Answer. 4. Ranthambore

Question 64. The Ranthambore National Park is located in

1. Gujarat
2. Rajasthan
3. Uttar Pradesh
4. Maharashtra

Answer. 2. Rajasthan

Question 65. Kanha National Park is famous for

1. Birds
2. Tigers
3. Crocodiles
4. Rhinoceros

Answer. 2. Tigers

Question 66. Recently attempts are being made to reintroduce tigers in this famous National Park:

1. Sarika
2. Kanha
3. Corbett
4. Bandavgarh

Answer. 1. Sarika

Question 67. Sarika Tiger Reserve is located in

1. Odisha
2. Assam
3. Rajasthan
4. West Bengal

Answer. 3. Rajasthan

Question 68. Royal Bengal Tiger is conserved in

1. Gir forest
2. Sunderbans
3. Kanha National Park
4. Jim Corbett National Park

Answer. 2. Sunderbans

Question 69. The largest number of tigers is reported from

1. Manas
2. kanha
3. Simlipal
4. Sunderbans

Answer. 4. Sunderbans

Question 70. All Sunderban tigers are

1. Man-eaters
2. Good swimmers
3. Eaters of fish and crabs
4. All of the above

Answer. 4. All of the above

Question 71. The first white tiger in the world was found in

1. Gir in Saurashtra
2. Sunderbans in Bengal
3. Rewa in Madhya Pradesh
4. Jim Corbett National Park in Uttarakhand

Answer. 2. Sunderbans in Bengal

Question 72. Which is correct about white tiger?

1. It is a type of albino.
2. It is a recessive mutant.
3. It is a transgenic animal.
4. It is a part of subspecies of Indian tiger.

Answer. 2. It is a recessive mutant.

Question 73. If the Bengal Tiger becomes extinct,

1. Its gene pool will be lost for ever
2. Hyenas and wolves will become scarce
3. The wild areas will be safe for man and domestic animals
4. The populations of beautiful animals like deers will get stabilized

Answer. 1. Its gene pool will be lost for ever

Question 74. Sacred groves are found in

1. Bihar
2. Punjab
3. Meghalaya
4. Jammu and Kashmir

Answer. 3. Meghalaya

Question 75. Conservation of organism in natural habitat is called

1. Ex situ conservation
2. In situ conservation
3. Both (1) and (2)
4. None of the above

Answer. 2. In situ conservation

Question 76. In situ conservation of natural genetic resources can be achieved by establishing

1. National Parks
2. Wildlife sanctuaries
3. Biosphere reserves
4. All of these

Answer. 4. All of these

Question 77. What is common to the techniques (1) in vitro fertilization, (2) cryopreservation, and (3) tissue culture?

1. All are in situ conservation methods.
2. All are ex situ conservation methods.
3. All require ultra modern equipment and large space.
4. All are methods of conservation of extinct organisms.Answer. 2. All are ex situ conservation methods.

Question 78. BNHS is the abbreviated form for

1. Border Natural History Society
2. Bombay National History Society
3. Border National History Services
4. Bombay Natural History Societes

Answer. 4. Bombay Natural History Societes

Question 79. The emblem of Bombay Natural History Society (BNHS) is given. Identify the bird.

1. Eagle
2. Erget
3. Kingfisher
4. Hornbill

Answer. 4. Hornbill

Question 80. Which one of the following bird is endangered?

1. Kite
2. Parrot
3. Hornbill
4. Pigeon

Answer. 3. Hornbill

Question 81. The World Animal Welfare Day is celebrated on

1. March 21
2. June 5
3. October 3
4. October 4

Answer. 4. October 4

Question 82. 21st March is

1. World Forest Day
2. World Animal Day
3. World Environment Day
4. World Habitat Day

Answer. 1. World Forest Day

Question 83. The world biodiversity day is celebrated annually on

1. 5th June
2. 22nd April
3. 29th December
4. 16th September

Answer. 3. 29th December

Question 84. World Wildlife Week is celebrated on

1. June 15-22
2. March 1-7
3. October 1-7
4. June 1-7

Answer. 3. October 1-7

Question 85. Who have recently tried to put price tags on nature’s life support services?

1. Nile Perch and his colleagues
2. Herbert Boyer and his colleagues
3. Ramdeo Misra and his colleagues
4. Robert Costanza and his colleagues

Answer. 4. Robert Costanza and his colleagues

Question 86. Match Column 1 with Column 2 and select the correct answer using the codes given.

Column 1                                   Column 2

A. World Habitat Day              1. December 3

B. World Environment Day     2. October 3

C. World Conservation Day    3. March 21

D. World Forestry Day            4. June 5

1. A = 4, B = 1, C = 3, D = 2
2. A = 2, B = 4, C = 1, D = 3
3. A = 2, B = 1, C=4, D=3
4. A = 3, B = 4, C=2, D=1

Answer. 2. A = 2, B = 4, C = 1, D = 3

Question 87. Choose the wrongly matched pair:

1. Carrot grass – Lantana
2. Wildlife safari parks – Ex situ conservation
3. Amazon rain forest – Lungs of the planet
4. Khasi and Jaintia Hills – Meghalaya
5. World Summit on Sustainable – Johannesburg Development, 2002

Answer. 1. Carrot grass – Lantana

Question 88. The relation between species richness and area is described on a logarithmic scale by the equation [where S is species richness, A is area, Z is the slope of the line (regression coefficient), C is the Y-intercept].

1. log S = log C
2. log S = Z log A
3. log S = log C-Z log A
4. log S = log C+ Z log A
5. log C = log S+ Z log A

Answer. 4. log S = log C+ Z log A

Question 89. Sacred groves are specially useful in

1. Preventing soil erosion
2. Year round flow of water in river
3. Generating environment awareness
4. Conserving rare and threatened species

Answer. 4. Conserving rare and threatened species

Question 90. Select the correct statement about biodiversity:

1. The desert areas of Rajasthan and Gujarat have a very high level of desert animal species as well as numerous rare animals.
2. Large scale planting of Bt-cotton has no adverse effect on biodiversity.
3. Western Ghats have a very high degree of species richness and endemism.
4. Conservation of biodiversity is just a fad pursued by the developed countries.

Answer. 3. Western Ghats have a very high degree of species richness and endemism.

Question 91. Which of the following plants are commonly found in Sunderban Biosphere Reserve?

1. Cactus
2. Conifers
3. Juniperus
4. Mangroves

Answer. 4. Mangroves

Question 92. All the following are included under in situ conservation except

1. National park
2. Sanctuary
3. Botanical garden
4. Biosphere reserve

Answer. 3. Botanical garden

Question 93. Slash and burn agriculture is the other name of

1. Step farming
2. Crop rotation
3. Organic garden
4. Jhum cultivation

Answer. 4. Jhum cultivation

Question 94. Which one of the following is not a wildlife conservation project?

1. Project Dodo
2. Project Tiger
3. Project Hangul
4. Project Indian Bustard

Answer. 1. Project Dodo

Ecosystem Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. Which is not true regarding ecosystem?

1. Self-sufficient unit.
2. Cyclic exchange of materials between living beings and environment.
3. Only requirement is input of energy.
4. Characterized by a major vegetation type.

Answer. 4. Characterized by a major vegetation type.

Question 2. Which is not a structural aspect of ecosystem?

1. Productivity
2. Species composition
3. Diversity
4. Life cycle

Answer. 1. Productivity

Question 3. The amount of living material and nutrients present in different trophic levels and soils at any given time are called, respectively,

1. Standing state and standing crop
2. Standing crop and standing state
3. Standing state and standing quality
4. Biomass and standing crop

Answer. 2. Standing crop and standing state

Question 4. An ecosystem contains

1. Green plants and animals
2. Green plants and decomposers
3. Green plants, animals, decomposers, and abiotic environment
4. Producers and consumers

Answer. 3. Green plants, animals, decomposers, and abiotic environment

Question 5. When a habitat is subdivided into parts which show distinct properties, it is called

1. Mini-habitat
2. Micro-habitat
3. Mega-habitat
4. Macro-habitat

Answer. 2. Micro-habitat

Question 6. Which of the following are artificial aquatic ecosystems?

1. Large dams and reservoirs
2. Lakes and canals
3. Aquarium and pond
4. All of these

Answer. 4. All of these

Question 7. The amount of biogenetic nutrients present in the abiotic environment per unit area at any time is called

1. Standing state
2. Standing crop
3. NPP
4. Nutrients immobilization

Answer. 1. Standing state

Question 8. Which of the following is a functional aspect of an ecosystem?

1. Species composition
2. Inorganic nutrients
3. Homeostasis
4. Topography

Answer. 3. Homeostasis

Question 9. Which of the following are called key industry animals?

1. Autotrophs
2. Decomposers
3. Herbivores
4. Top carnivores

Answer. 3. Herbivores

Question 10. NPP is given by the formula

1. NPP GPP × 100
2. NPP = GDP – Secondary productivity
3. NPP = GPP- Respiration rate
4. NPP = GPP/100

Answer. 3. NPP = GPP- Respiration rate

Question 11. Which of the following ecosystems has the highest productivity?

1. Tropical deciduous forest
2. Temperate coniferous forest
3. Tropical rain forest.
4. Desert shrub

Answer. 3. Tropical rain forest.

Question 12. For NPP, energy captured is

1. 1-5% of incident radiation
2. 2-5% of PAR
3. 0.8-4% of incident radiation
4. 2-10% of PAR

Answer. 3. 0.8-4% of incident radiation

Question 13. Plant life is restricted in sea to

1. Photic zone or euphotic zone
2. Aphotic zone
3. Abyssal area
4. Continental shelf

Answer. 1. Photic zone or euphotic zone

Question 14. Gross primary productivity is

1. Rate at which organic molecules are formed in an autotroph
2. Rate at which organic molecules are used up by autotroph
3. Storage of organic molecules in the body of an autotroph
4. Rate at which organic molecules are transferred to the next higher trophic level

Answer. 1. Rate at which organic molecules are formed in an autotroph

Question 15. In tropical rain forest, most of the energy in ecosystem flows through

1. Grazing food chain
2. Detritus food chain
3. Parasitic food chain
4. Both (1) and (3)

Answer. 2. Detritus food chain

Question 16. The respiratory losses of producers, herbivores, and carnivores are, respectively,

1. 10%, 20%, 30%
2. 20%, 30%, 60%
3. 20%, 40%, 80%
4. Always 10%

Answer. 2. 20%, 30%, 60%

Question 17. Which of the following ecological pyramids can be both upright and inverted?

1. Pyramid of number
2. Pyramid of biomass
3. Pyramid of energy
4. Both (1) and (2)

Answer. 4. Both (1) and (2)

Question 18. Which of the following ecological pyramids is the most representative of the functional characteristics of an eco-system?

1. Pyramid of number
2. Pyramid of biomass
3. Pyramid of energy
4. All are equally representative

Answer. 3. Pyramid of energy

Question 19. (NPP/GPP) × 100 is

1. Assimilation efficiency
2. Net production efficiency
3. Ecological efficiency
4. Photosynthetic efficiency

Answer. 2. Net production efficiency

Question 20. Which is not true for humus?

1. Dark colored amorphous substance
2. Highly resistant to microbial action
3. Acts as reservoir of nutrients and increases water holding capacity of soil
4. Degradation product of proteins and fats and produced by the process of mineralization

Answer. 4. Degradation product of proteins and fats and produced by the process of mineralization

Question 21. Nutrient immobilization

1. Prevents leaching of nutrients
2. Is incorporation of nutrients in microbes.
3. Is covalent linking of nutrients with one another
4. More than one option is correct

Answer. 4. More than one option is correct

Question 22. If producer is a large tree that supports a number of herbivorous animals which are further attacked by ectoparasites, the pyramid of number shall be

1. Inverted
2. Upright
3. Irregular
4. Spindle shaped

Answer. 1. Inverted

Question 23. Ecological pyramids are also called

1. Pyramids of number
2. Eltonian pyramids
3. Pyramids of energy
4. Pyramids of biomass

Answer. 2. Eltonian pyramids

Question 24. A food web

1. Increases the variety of food at each trophic level
2. Delicately balances the inter-relations amongst organisms
3. Decreases the variety of food but increases the quantity of food at each trophic level
4. Increases the variety as well as the quantity of food at each trophic level

Answer. 4. Increases the variety as well as the quantity of food at each trophic level

Question 25. Ten percent law of energy transfer in a food chain was enunciated by

1. Elton
2. Lindeman
3. Haeckel
4. SchimperAnswer. 2. Lindeman

Question 26. The importance of ecosystem lies in

1. Flow of energy
2. Cycling of materials
3. Both (1) and (2)
4. Consumers

Answer. 3. Both (1) and (2)

Question 27. Earth is an

1. Open system
2. Closed system
3. Both (1) and (2)
4. None of these

Answer. 3. Both (1) and (2)

Question 28. Biogeochemical cycle having a small gaseous component is found in

1. Phosphorus
2. Nitrogen
3. Carbon
4. Sulfur

Answer. 4. Sulfur

Question 29. Annually, 1 ha of a healthy forest will

1. Produce 10 ton of O2 and absorb 10 ton of CO2
2. Produce 20 ton of O, and absorb 20 ton of CO2
3. Produce 10 ton of O, and absorb 30 ton of CO2
4. Produce 30 ton of O, and absorb 30 ton of CO2

Answer. 3. Produce 10 ton of O, and absorb 30 ton of CO2

Question 30. How many overlapping water cycles are found in nature?

1. Two
2. Three
3. One
4. There is no overlapping cycle

Answer. 1. Two

Question 31. Phosphates remain outside the natural cycle for a long time

1. When they form compounds with metals
2. When they are incorporated in bones and teeth
3. When the bodies of the organisms excrete and decompose
4. Both (1) and (2)

Answer. 4. Both (1) and (2)

Question 32. Human dominated environment is called

1. Biosphere
2. Noosphere
3. Socio-cultural environment
4. None of these

Answer. 2. Noosphere

Question 33. Energy requirement for the maintenance of body with successively higher trophic level

1. Decreases
2. Increases
3. Remains same
4. Is always 10%

Answer. 2. Increases

Question 34. In which of the following biogeochemical cycles is atmospheric phase absent/negligible?

1. Nitrogen
2. Sulfur
3. Phosphorus
4. Water

Answer. 3. Phosphorus

Question 35. Stratification is well developed in

1. Tropical rain forests
2. Grasslands
3. Alpine vegetations
4. Temperate forests

Answer. 1. Tropical rain forests

Question 36. An orderly sequence of community development on an area is called

1. Succession
2. Cover
3. Establishment
4. Diversity

Answer. 1. Succession

Question 37. The terminal stage of a successional process is called

1. Final stage
2. Climax stage
3. Seral stage
4. Pioneer stage

Answer. 2. Climax stage

Question 38. If the pioneer stage is dominated by autotrophs, then the succession is called

1. Allogenic
2. Autogenic
3. Autotrophic
4. Heterotrophic

Answer. 3. Autotrophic

Question 39. Which is not a characteristic of sera stages?

1. Simplified food chain
2. Few and generalized niches
3. Low NPP
4. Low energy use efficiency

Answer. 3. Low NPP

Question 40. Succession stage that occurs on a bare rock is called

1. Psammosere
2. Xerosere
3. Lithosere
4. Haloscre

Answer. 3. Lithosere

Question 41. Serial changes in the previously sterile or total barren area are called

1. Climatic climax
2. Secondary succession
3. Primary succession
4. Sere

Answer. 3. Primary succession

Question 42. Pond is an example of ecosystem.

1. Artificial
2. Natural
3. Forest
4. Grassland

Answer. 2. Natural

Question 43. Which of the following is the most productive ecosystem?

1. Estuary
2. Open sea
3. Desert
4. MountainAnswer. 1. Estuary

Question 44. The pyramid of energy in a forest ecosystem is

1. Always upright
2. Always inverted
3. Both upright and inverted
4. None of the above

Answer. 1. Always upright

Question 45. The importance of ecosystem is

1. Flow of energy
2. Cycling of materials
3. Both (1) and (2)
4. None of the above

Answer. 3. Both (1) and (2)

Question 46. Which is the correct path of energy flow in an ecosystem?

1. Producers → Carnivores Herbivores → Decomposers
2. Producers → Herbivores → Carnivores → Decomposers
3. Herbivores → Carnivores → Producers → Decomposers
4. Herbivores → Producers → Carnivores → Decomposers

Answer. 2. Producers → Herbivores → Carnivores → Decomposers

Question 47. The number of primary producers within a specified area would be maximum in

1. Grassland ecosystem
2. Forest ecosystem
3. Pond ecosystem
4. Deserts

Answer. 3. Pond ecosystem

Question 48. A food chain starts with

1. Nitrogen fixation organisms
2. Photosynthesizing organisms
3. Respiration
4. Decomposers

Answer. 2. Photosynthesizing organisms

Question 49. Nepenthes is a

1. Primary producer
2. Consumer
3. Both primary producer and consumer
4. None of the above

Answer. 3. Both primary producer and consumer

Question 50. Biological equilibrium is found among

1. Producers and consumers
2. Producers and decomposers
3. Producers, consumers, and decomposers
4. Producers and light

Answer. 1. Producers and consumers

Question 51. The number of individuals of a species in a particular ecosystem at a given time remains constant due to

1. Man
2. Parasites
3. Predators
4. Available food

Answer. 4. Available food

Question 52. The two components of an ecosystem are

1. Biotic and abiotic
2. Plants and animals
3. Weeds and microorganisms
4. Plants and light

Answer. 1. Biotic and abiotic

Question 53. The pyramid of number in a grassland ecosystem is

1. Linear
2. Upright
3. Irregular
4. Inverted

Answer. 2. Upright

Question 54. The cycling of elements in an ecosystem is called.

1. Chemical cycle
2. Biogeochemical cycle
3. Geological cycle
4. Geochemical cycle

Answer. 2. Biogeochemical cycle

Question 55. Which of the following bacteria has potential for nitrogen fixation?

1. Nitrosomonas
2. Nitrobacter
3. Nitrosococcus
4. Rhizobium

Answer. 4. Rhizobium

Question 56. Ecosystem has

1. Plant and animal
2. Air and H2O
3. Soil and light
4. Biotic and abiotic components

Answer. 4. Biotic and abiotic components

Question 57. Sal and teak are found in

1. Tropical rain forest
2. Tropical deciduous forest
3. Temperature board leaf forest
4. Temperature needle leaf forest

Answer. 2. Tropical deciduous forest

Question 58. Decomposers are

1. Autotrophs
2. Heterotrophs
3. Organotrophs
4. Autoheterotrophs

Answer. 2. Heterotrophs

Question 59. During food chain, the maximum energy is stored in

1. Producers
2. Decomposers
3. Herbivores
4. Carnivores

Answer. 1. Producers

Question 60. In the phosphorus cycle, weathering makes phosphate available first to

1. Decomposers
2. Consumers
3. Producers
4. All the above

Answer. 3. Producers

Question 61. In a food chain, the total amount of living material is depicted by

1. Pyramid of biomass
2. Pyramid of energy
3. Pyramid of number
4. Trophic levels

Answer. 1. Pyramid of biomass

Question 62. Nitrates are converted to nitrogen by

1. Nitrogen fixing bacteria
2. Ammonification bacteria
3. Denitrifying bacteria
4. Nitrifying bacteria

Answer. 3. Denitrifying bacteria

Question 63. In pond ecosystem, diatoms represent

1. Producers
2. Primary consumers
3. Secondary consumers
4. Tertiary consumers

Answer. 1. Producers

Question 64. Pyramids of biomass in pond ecosystem are

1. Inverted
2. Upright
3. Linear
4. Irregular

Answer. 1. Inverted

Question 65. Lion is kept under in Eltonian pyramid as

1. Producer
2. Primary consumer
3. Secondary consumer
4. Tertiary consumer

Answer. 4. Tertiary consumer

Question 66. Bacteria and fungi developing on dead decaying organisms are

1. Parasites
2. Commensals
3. Saprophytes
4. Symbionts

Answer. 3. Saprophytes

Question 67. Phytoplanktons are important biotic components of

1. Grassland
2. Pond ecosystem
3. Forest ecosystem
4. None of these

Answer. 2. Pond ecosystem

Question 68. Which ecological pyramid can never occur in an inverted form?

1. Pyramid of number
2. Pyramid of biomass
3. Pyramid of energy
4. Pyramid of species richness

Answer. 4. Pyramid of species richness

Question 69. Peacock eats snake and snake eats insect while insect eats green plant. Then the position of peacock is

1. Primary producer
2. Secondary producer
3. Decomposer
4. Top at the apex of food pyramid

Answer. 1. Primary producer

Question 70. Source of energy in an ecosystem is

1. Sun
2. ATP
3. Sugar made by plant
4. Green plant

Answer. 3. Sugar made by plant

Question 71. Legume plants are important for atmosphere because they

1. Help in NO2 fixation
2. Do not help in NO2 fixation
3. Increase soil fertility
4. All of these

Answer. 4. All of these

Question 72. Tropical dense forests are due to

1. Low rainfall and low temperature
2. High rainfall and low temperature
3. Low rainfall and high temperature
4. High rainfall and high temperature

Answer. 1. Low rainfall and low temperature

Question 73. Energy enters in food chain by

1. Producer
2. Primary consumers
3. Secondary consumers
4. Tertiary consumers

Answer. 1. Producer

Question 74. In an ecosystem,

1. Primary producers are more than primary consumers
2. Primary consumers are larger than primary producers
3. Secondary consumers are larger than primary producers
4. Primary consumers least depend on primary producers

Answer. 1. Primary producers are more than primary consumers

Question 75. In which type of forest is humus formed by dry and dead leaves?

1. Coniferous forest
2. Deciduous forest
3. Tundra forest
4. Alpine

Answer. 2. Deciduous forest

Question 76. A pond is a

1. Biome
2. Natural ecosystem
3. Artificial ecosystem
4. Community of plants and animals

Answer. 2. Natural ecosystem

Question 77. The importance of ecosystem lies in

1. Energy flow
2. Cycling of materials
3. Both
4. None

Answer. 3. Both

Question 78. The concept of ecological pyramid was given by

1. Odum
2. Elton
3. Darwin
4. Reiter

Answer. 2. Elton

Question 79. Stratification is found in

1. Tundra
2. Tropical forest
3. Deciduous forest
4. Desert

Answer. 2. Tropical forest

Question 80. The driving force of ecosystem is

1. Producers
2. Plants with carbohydrates
3. Biomass
4. Solar energy

Answer. 4. Solar energy

Question 81. Ecosystem creates

1. Food chain
2. Food web
3. Any of the two
4. None

Answer. 3. Any of the two

Question 82. The term ecosystem was coined by

1. P. Maheshwari
2. Tansley
3. R. Mishra
4. P. Odum

Answer. 2. Tansley

Question 83. The importance of ecosystem lies in

1. Flow of energy
2. Cycling of materials
3. Both (1) and (2)
4. None of the above

Answer. 3. Both (1) and (2)

Question 84. A pond is a

1. Biome
2. Natural ecosystem
3. Artificial ecosystem
4. Community of plants and animals

Answer. 2. Natural ecosystem

Question 85. Which biotic components mainly help in the recycling of minerals?

1. Producers
2. Consumers
3. Decomposers
4. All the above

Answer. 3. Decomposers

Question 86. Path of energy flow in an ecosystem is

1. Herbivorous → Producer → Carnivorous → Decomposer
2. Herbivorous → Carnivorous → Producer → Decomposer
3. Producer → Carnivorous → Herbivorous → Decomposer
4. Producer → Herbivorous → Carnivorous → Decomposer

Answer. 4. Producer → Herbivorous → Carnivorous → Decomposer

Question 87. The number of primary producers in a specified area would be the maximum in

1. Pond ecosystem
2. Grassland ecosystem
3. Forest ecosystem
4. Desert ecosystem

Answer. 1. Pond ecosystem

Question 88. Carbon cycle includes (the following is a logical sequence)

1. Producer → Consumer → Decomposer
2. Decomposer → Consumer → Producer
3. Producer → Decomposer → Consumer
4. Consumer → Producer → Decomposer

Answer. 1. Producer → Consumer → Decomposer

Question 89. The bulk of nitrogen in nature is fixed by

1. Lightening
2. Chemical industries
3. Denitrifying bacteria
4. Symbiotic bacteria

Answer. 4. Symbiotic bacteria

Question 90. Hydrological cycle is controlled by

1. Grasslands
2. Forests
3. Planktons
4. Epiphytes

Answer. 2. Forests

Question 91. In India, the temperate, evergreen type of vegetation is found mostly in

1. Western Himalayas above 3500 m
2. Eastern and Western Himalayas less than 3500 m
3. Rajasthan and South Punjab
4. Western Ghats and Assam

Answer. 2. Eastern and Western Himalayas less than 3500 m

Question 92. Savannahs are

1. Tropical rain forest
2. Desert
3. Grassland with scattered trees
4. Dense forest with close canopy

Answer. 4. Dense forest with close canopy

Question 93. Biosphere refers to

1. Plants of the world
2. Special plants
3. Area occupied by living beings
4. Plants of a particular area

Answer. 3. Area occupied by living beings

Question 94. Acacia, Prosopis, and Caparis belong to

1. Deciduous forest
2. Tropical forest
3. Thorn forest
4. Evergreen forest

Answer. 3. Thorn forest

Question 95. The total amount of energy trapped by green plants in food is called

1. Gross primary production
2. Net primary production
3. Standing crop
4. Standing state

Answer. 1. Gross primary production

Question 96. In which biome may a new plant adapt soon?

1. Tropical rain forest
2. Desert
3. Mangrove
4. Sea island

Answer. 1. Tropical rain forest

Question 97. Percentage energy transferred to higher trophic level in food chain is

1. 1%
2. 10%
3. 90%
4. 100%

Answer. 2. 10%

Question 98. What is the reason for the highest biomass in aquatic ecosystem?

1. Nanoplankton, blue green algae, green algae
2. Sea grass and slime molds
3. Benthonic and brown algae
4. Diatoms

Answer. 3. Benthonic and brown algae

Question 99. Which of the following is a correct pair?

1. Cuscuta – Parasite
2. Dischidia – Insectivorous
3. Opuntia – Predator
4. Capsella – Hydrophyte

Answer. 1. Cuscuta – Parasite

Question 100. Bamboo plant is growing in a tropical rain forest. Then what will be its trophic level?

1. First trophic level (T1)
2. Second trophic level (T2)
3. Third trophic level (T3)
4. Fourth trophic level (T4)

Answer. 1. First trophic level (T1)

Question 101. Which of the following is expected to have the highest value (g/m2/yr) in a grassland ecosystem?

1. Tertiary production
2. Gross production (GP)
3. Net production (NP)
4. Secondary production

Answer. 2. Gross production (GP)

Question 102. An ecosystem which can be easily damaged but can re- cover after some time if the damaging effect stops will have

1. High stability and low resilience
2. Low stability and low resilience
3. High stability and high resilience
4. Low stability and high resilience

Answer. 4. Low stability and high resilience

Question 103. Which one of the following pairs is mismatched?

1. Savanna – Acacia trees
2. Coniferous forest – Evergreen trees
3. Tundra – Permafrost
4. Prairies – EpiphytesAnswer. 4. Prairies – Epiphytes

Question 104. Which one of the following is not used for the construction of ecological pyramids?

1. Rate of energy flow
2. Fresh weight
3. Dry weight
4. Number of individuals

Answer. 2. Fresh weight

Question 105. Which one of the following ecosystem types has the highest annual net primary productivity?

1. Temperate deciduous forest
2. Tropical rain forest
3. Tropical deciduous forest
4. Temperate evergreen forest

Answer. 2. Tropical rain forest

Question 106. Quercus species is the dominant component in

1. Scrub forests
2. Tropical rain forests
3. Temperate deciduous forests
4. Alpine forests

Answer. 3. Temperate deciduous forests

Question 107. Consider the following statements concerning food chain?

(a) Removal of 80% tigers from an area resulted in greatly increased growth of vegetation.

(b) Removal of most of the carnivores resulted in an increased population of deers.

(c) The length of food chains is generally limited to 3-4 trophic levels due to energy loss.

(d) The length of food chains may vary from 2 to 8 trophic levels.

Which of the above two statements are correct?

1. (a), (c)
2. (a), (b)
3. (b), (c)
4. (c), (d)

Answer. 3. (b), (c)

Question 108. The slow rate of decomposition of fallen logs in nature is due to their

1. Anaerobic environment around them
2. Low cellulose content
3. Low moisture content
4. Poor nitrogen content

Answer. 3. Low moisture content

Question 109. Which one of the following types of organisms occupies more than one trophic level in a pond ecosystem?

1. Frog
2. Phytoplankton
3. Fish
4. Zooplankton

Answer. 3. Fish

Question 110. Study the four statements, (A)-(D), given and select the two correct ones out of them:

(A) A lion eating a deer and a sparrow feeding on grain are ecologically similar in being consumers.

(B) Predator starfish helps in maintaining the species diversity of some invertebrates.

(C) Predators ultimately lead to the extinction of prey species.

(D) The productions of chemicals such as nicotine and strychnine by plants are metabolic disorders.

The two correct statements are

1. (A) and (D)
2. (A) and (B)
3. (B) and (C)
4. (C) and (D)

Answer. 2. (A) and (B)

Question 111. The biomass available for consumption by herbivores and decomposers is called

1. Net primary productivity
2. Secondary productivity
3. Standing crop
4. Gross primary productivity

Answer. 1. Net primary productivity

Question 112. Which of the following is one of the characteristics of a biological community?

1. Stratification
2. Natality
3. Mortality
4. Sex-ratio

Answer. 1. Stratification

Question 113. Identify the possible link “A” in the following food chain:

Plant → Insect → Frog → “A” → Eagle

1. Wolf
2. Cobra
3. Parrot
4. Rabbit

Answer. 2. Cobra

Quercus 114. In an area where DDT had been used extensively, the population of birds declined significantly because

1. Earthworms in the area got eradicated
2. Cobras were feeding exclusively on birds
3. Many eggs laid by birds did not hatch
4. Birds stopped laying eggs

Answer. 3. Many eggs laid by birds did not hatch

Question 115. The upright pyramid of numbers is absent in

1. Forest
2. Lake
3. Grassland
4. Pond

Answer. 1. Forest

Question 116. An imaginary pyramid of numbers is given. What can be one of the possibilities about certain organisms at some of the different levels?

1. Level PP is phytoplanktons in sea and top level TC is whale.
2. Level one PP is pipal trees and level SC is sheep
3. Level PC is rats and level SC is cats.
4. Level PC is insects and level SC is small insectivorous birds.

Answer. 4. Level PC is insects and level SC is small insectivorous birds.

Quercus 117. Which one of the following is not a functional unit of an ecosystem?

1. Decomposition
2. Productivity
3. Stratification
4. Energy flow

Answer. 3. Stratification

Question 118. Which one of the following is not a gaseous biogeochemical cycle in ecosystem?

1. Phosphorus cycle
2. Nitrogen cycle
3. Carbon cycle
4. Sulfur cycle

Answer. 1. Phosphorus cycle

Question 119. The rate of formation of new organic matter by rabbit in grassland is called

1. Net productivity
2. Secondary productivity
3. Net primary productivity
4. Gross primary productivity

Answer. 2. Secondary productivity

 Organisms And Populations Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. The term “ecology” was given by

1. Odum
2. Haeckel
3. Tansley
4. R. Misra

Answer. 2. Haeckel

Question 2. A large regional unit characterized by a specific flora and fauna is called

1. Biome
2. Biosphere
3. Ecosystem
4. Landscape

Answer. 1. Biome

Question 3. A group of individuals living in a particular geographical area at a particular time is called

1. Local population
2. Deme
3. Community
4. Both (1) and (2)

Answer. 4. Both (1) and (2)

Question 4. The functional role and status of a species in a community is called

1. Performance
2. Ecological niche.
3. Tolerance
4. Organization

Answer. 2. Ecological niche.

Question 5. Organisms living in arctic and antarctic climatic zones are called

1. Megatherms
2. Mesotherms
3. Microtherms
4. Hekistotherms

Answer. 4. Hekistotherms

Question 6. The two climatic factors which largely determine the vegetation and soil types are

1. Temperature and precipitation
2. Temperature and light
3. Light and precipitation
4. Light and weather

Answer. 1. Temperature and precipitation

Question 7. Chylorhizy is found in

1. Opuntia
2. Euphorbia
3. Asparagus
4. Aloe

Answer. 3. Asparagus

Question 8. The value of lapse rate is

1. 1.6°C per 100 m elevation
2. 6.5°C per 100 m elevation
3. 6.5°C per 1000 m elevation
4. 6.5°C per 10 m elevation

Answer. 3. 6.5°C per 1000 m elevation

Question 9. Solar constant is _____________ cal cm2/mm.

1. 2
2. 4
3. 6
4. 8

Answer. 1. 2

Question 10. The most harmful radiation is

1. UV-A
2. UV-B
3. UU-C
4. All are equally harmful

Answer. 2. UV-B

Question 11. The timing of seasonal activity of plants in relation to environmental conditions is called

1. Physiognomy
2. Phenology
3. Stratification
4. Agrostology

Answer. 2. Phenology

Question 12. The bottom zone in a lake is called

1. Limnetic
2. Profundal
3. Benthic
4. Littoral

Answer. 3. Benthic

Question 13. The number of temperature zones in a summer lake is

1. 2
2. 3
3. 4
4. 5

Answer. 2. 3

Question 14. In meromictic lakes, the number of turnovers of water per year is

1. 1
2. 2
3. Many
4. Zero

Answer. 4. Zero

Question 15. The turnover in a lake in spring and autumn results in

1. Free mixing of O, and nutrients
2. Algal bloom
3. Temperature inversion
4. Both (1) and (2)

Answer. 4. Both (1) and (2)

Question 16. Shorter body extremities in animals living in colder climate is explained by

1. Allen’s rule
2. Bergman’s rule
3. Gloger’s rule
4. Jordan’s rule

Answer. 1. Allen’s rule

Question 17. Permanent wilting percentage (PWP) is the highest in

1. Silt
2. Sandy soil
3. Loam
4. Clay soil

Answer. 2. Sandy soil

Question 18. In soil profile, the zone of eluviation is

1. O-zone
2. A-zone
3. B-zone
4. C-zone

Answer. 2. A-zone

Question 19. A good soil is that which

1. Allows little water to enter in it
2. Allows extra water to percolate slowly
3. Holds water entering it
4. Allows water to pass through it quickly

Answer. 2. Allows extra water to percolate slowly

Question 20. The size of clay particles is

1. Between 0.00002 and 0.02 mm
2. Less than 0.002 mm
3. 0.5-1.0 mm
4. 0.02-0.2 mm

Answer. 2. Less than 0.002 mm

Question 21. Alluvial soils are mostly found in

1. Northern India
2. Eastern India
3. Southern India
4. Ganges and Yamuna plains

Answer. 4. Ganges and Yamuna plains

Question 22. Which of the following soils shows cracks and shrinks most when it dries?

1. Porous soil
2. Clay soil
3. Loam soil
4. Sandy soil

Answer. 2. Clay soil

Question 23. Soil porosity is the maximum in

1. Sandy soil
2. Clay soil
3. Silt
4. Loan

Answer. 2. Clay soil

Question 24. Mull humus is characterized by

1. Nutrient deficiency
2. Layered composition
3. Ca+2 deficiency
4. Rich bacterial growth

Answer. 4. Rich bacterial growth

Question 25. What is the percentage of air in the soil?

1. 50
2. 10
3. 45
4. 25

Answer. 4. 25

Question 26. The law of tolerance was given by

1. Shelford
2. Haeckel
3. J. Grinnel
4. Gause

Answer. 1. Shelford

Question 27. The critical minimum and maximum value of an environmental factor is called

1. Limiting factor
2. Law of minimum
3. Limits of tolerance
4. Carrying capacity

Answer. 3. Limits of tolerance

Question 28. Weeds are usually

1. Eurytopic
2. Stenotopic
3. Amensal
4. Smoother crops

Answer. 1. Eurytopic

Question 29. A genotypically adapted local population is called

1. Ecad
2. Ecotype
3. Ecocline
4. Ecotone

Answer. 2. Ecotype

Question 30. Phreatophytes are/have

1. True xerophytes
2. Deep roots
3. Indicator plants
4. All of these

Answer. 4. All of these

Question 31. Chemicals which provide physiological adaptations to plants against high temperature and saline conditions are

1. Chaperonins
2. Proline, glycerol
3. Betaine, sorbital
4. All of these

Answer. 4. All of these

Question 32. Vivipary and prop roots are the characteristics of

1. Coastal plants
2. Hot desert plants
3. Mangrove plants
4. Cold desert plants

Answer. 3. Mangrove plants

Question 33. Which of the following characters does not characterize a hydrophyte?

1. Abundant air space and air chambers
2. Abundant xylem and sclerenchyma
3. Leaves having stomata only on upper side or none
4. Poor development of roots

Answer. 2. Abundant xylem and sclerenchyma

Question 34. Plants are killed in the winter by frost

1. Because of desiccation and mechanical damages to the tissues
2. Because no photosynthesis takes place at such low temperature
3. Because respiration ceases at such low temperature
4. Because there is no transpiration

Answer. 1. Because of desiccation and mechanical damages to the tissues

Question 35. Ephemerals are xeropytes that are

1. Drought enduring
2. Drought escaping
3. Drought resisting
4. None of these

Answer. 2. Drought escaping

Question 36. The factors which include the form, surface, and behavior of the earth with special reference to slopes, mountains, and valleys are called

1. Edaphic factors
2. Biotic factors
3. Climatic factors
4. Topographic factors

Answer. 4. Topographic factors

Question 37. The capacity to blend with surroundings is called

1. Hibernation
2. Mimicry
3. Camouflage
4. Aestivation

Answer. 3. Camouflage

Question 38. A behavioral strategy of adaptation called echolocation is found in

1. Bats
2. Monarch butterfly
3. Praying mantis
4. Arctic tern

Answer. 1. Bats

Question 39. Natality under actual conditions is called

1. Biotic potential
2. Maximum natality
3. Ecological natality
4. Reproductive potential

Answer. 3. Ecological natality

Question 40. Vital index of a population is

1. (B/D) × 100
2. B-D
3. (D/B) × 100
4. B+D

Answer. 1. (B/D) × 100

Question 41. An urn-shaped population-age pyramid represents

1. Growing population
2. Static population
3. Declining population
4. Threatened population

Answer. 3. Declining population

Question 42. The ability of an environment to support a population is called its

1. Biotic potential
2. Purifying capacity
3. Carrying capacity
4. Environmental resistance

Answer. 3. Carrying capacity

Question 43. In the equation for S-shaped population growth, r represents

1. Carrying capacity
2. Environmental resistance
3. Biotic potential
4. Population size

Answer. 3. Biotic potential

Question 44. Which of the following statements is not true for J-shaped growth curve?

1. Exponential phase is prolonged.
2. Population never grows beyond carrying capacity.
3. Population crash occurs.
4. Population seldom reaches equilibrium.

Answer. 2. Population never grows beyond carrying capacity.

Question 45. In the formula of population growth, rN represents the

1. Environmental resistance
2. Reproductive potential
3. Growth rate
4. Carrying capacity

Answer. 1. Environmental resistance

Question 46. Which statement is not related to S-shaped population curve?

1. Environmental resistance suddenly becomes effective.
2. Exponential phase is followed by decline phase.
3. Mass mortality and population crash occurs.
4. Both (1) and (3).

Answer. 4. Both (1) and (3).

Question 47. The periodic departure and return is known as

1. Migration
2. Immigration
3. Emigration
4. Mutation

Answer. 1. Migration

Question 48. When an animal group is centered around a dominant female, it is called

1. Patriarchy
2. Matriarchy
3. Swarm
4. Flock

Answer. 2. Matriarchy

Question 49. Altruistic behavior is not found in

1. White ants
2. Spotted deer
3. Honey bees
4. Bitch

Answer. 4. Bitch

Question 50. Territory is defended against

1. Predator
2. Any intruder
3. Intruder of another species
4. Intruder of the same species

Answer. 4. Intruder of the same species

Question 51. The inability of different organisms to interbreed is called

1. Sterility
2. Parasitism
3. Reproductive isolation.
4. Monogamy

Answer. 3. Reproductive isolation.

Question 52. The increased number and density of species in the region of ecotone is called

1. Edge effect
2. Sympatric speciation
3. Dominance
4. Abundance

Answer. 1. Edge effect

Question 53. Which of the following associations is not an example of symbiosis?

1. Lichen
2. Mycorrhiza
3. Root nodules
4. Epiphytes

Answer. 4. Epiphytes

Question 54. Which is not an effect of competition?

1. Regulation of population size
2. Generalization of niche
3. Establishment of social hierarchy
4. Help in speciation

Answer. 2. Generalization of niche

Question 55. Competitive exclusion principle was given by

1. J. Grinnel
2. Gause
3. Lindeman
4. Bates

Answer. 2. Gause

Question 56. Which of the following shows biological antagonism or allelopathy?

1. Amensalism
2. Proto-cooperation
3. Competition
4. Parasitism

Answer. 1. Amensalism

Question 57. The interaction between two living organisms of different species which is beneficial to both but is not obligatory because they can live without each other is known as

1. Proto-cooperation
2. Mutualism or symbiosis
3. Commensalism
4. Amensalism

Answer. 1. Proto-cooperation

Question 58. Find the odd one out:

1. Lianas in tropical rain forest
2. E. coli in large intestine of man
3. Pilot fish remora and shark
4. Rafflesia on the roots of a forest tree

Answer. 4. Rafflesia on the roots of a forest tree

Question 59. Find the odd one out:

1. Mating
2. Competition
3. Aggregation
4. Altruism

Answer. 2. Competition

Question 60. A toxic chemical against nematode is secreted by

1. Tagetes
2. Black walnut
3. Penicillium
4. Grevillea robusta

Answer. 1. Tagetes

Question 61. Which one of the following is a hemiparasite?

1. Viscum
2. Cuscuta
3. Rafflesia
4. None of these

Answer. 1. Viscum

Question 62. Competition for food, light, and space is most severe between two

1. Distantly related species growing in different habitats
2. Distantly related species growing in the same habitat
3. Closely related species growing in different habitats
4. Closely related species growing in the same area

Answer. 4. Closely related species growing in the same area

Question 63. The species which are present in large numbers and have large size are called

1. Ecological equivalent
2. Ecological dominants
3. Link species
4. Keystone species

Answer. 2. Ecological dominants

Question 64. The transition zone between two communities is called

1. Ecocline
2. Ecotone
3. Buffer zone
4. Thermocline

Answer. 2. Ecotone

Question 65. Which of the following is a keystone species?

1. Fig
2. Deer
3. Mycorrhiza
4. Pollinator

Answer. 1. Fig

Question 66. Find the odd one out:

1. Viceroy butterfly resembling monarch butterfly
2. Stick insect resembling thin, dry branches
3. Caterpillars of geometrid moth resembling small branches
4. Leaf insect resembling green leaf

Answer. 1. Viceroy butterfly resembling monarch butterfly

Question 67. Mimicry is a device for

1. Concealing from predator
2. Concealing from prey
3. Both (1) and (2)
4. Becoming conspicuous

Answer. 3. Both (1) and (2)

Question 68. Match the following columns:

Column 1                                Column 2

a. Oxylophytes                (1) Calcium-rich soils

b. Eremophytes              (2) Waste land

c. Chrysophytes              (3) Deserts, steppes

d. Calciphytes                 (4) Acidic soils

1. a (1), b (2), c (3), d (4)
2. a (1), b (3), c (4), d (2)
3. a (4), b (3), c (2), d (1)
4. a (4), b (3), c (1), d (2)

Answer. 3. a (4), b (3), c (2), d (1)

Question 69. Which of the following statements is correct?

1. Two species within a given community can have exactly the same niche.
2. Two species within a given community cannot have exactly the same niche.
3. Two species can live permanently together
4. Both (2) and (3).

Answer. 4. Both (2) and (3).

Question 70. Biotic potential refers to

1. Increase of population under optimum conditions
2. Increase of population under given conditions
3. Increase of population under natural conditions
4. Increase of population under stress conditions

Answer. 1. Increase of population under optimum conditions

Question 71. Edge effect refers to

1. Occurrence of ecophenes and ecotypes in a community
2. Low diversity of organisms in ecotone
3. High diversity of organisms in ecotone
4. Defense of territories by organisms

Answer. 3. High diversity of organisms in ecotone

Question 72. In India, tropical rain forests are generally found in

1. Western Ghats
2. North-eastern Himalayas
3. Gangetic Plains in India
4. Both (1) and (2)

Answer. 4. Both (1) and (2)

Question 73. The forests which show contrasting seasonal aspects are

1. Tropical rain forests
2. Temperate broad-leaf forests
3. Tropical deciduous forests
4. Temperate needle-leaf forests

Answer. 3. Tropical deciduous forests

Question 74. Which is not a characteristic feature of grassland?

1. Extensive root system
2. High productivity
3. Periodic fire
4. Developed stratification

Answer. 4. Developed stratification

Question 75. Most of the deserts are distributed between

1. 150-350 latitude
2. 400-600 latitude
3. 600-800 latitude
4. Only in Southern Hemisphere

Answer. 1. 150-350 latitude

Question 76. A biome having a well-developed grass cover interspersed with scattered trees is a

1. Grassland
2. Savannah
3. Desert
4. Temperate forest

Answer. 2. Savannah

Question 77. The taiga region is also known as

1. Deciduous forest
2. Tropical rain forest
3. Northern conifer forest
4. Tropical savannah

Answer. 3. Northern conifer forest

Question 78. The grassland vegetation of Africa is known as

1. Prairies
2. Pampas
3. Steppes
4. Veldts

Answer. 4. Veldts

Question 79. Arctic tundra is

1. Highest latitudinal biome
2. Located in rain shadow
3. Characterized by Capparis and Prosopis species
4. Highest altitudinal biome

Answer. 1. Highest latitudinal biome

Question 80. Ethology is the study of

1. Behaviour of animals
2. Past life of organism
3. Disease causing pathogens
4. None of these

Answer. 1. Behaviour of animals

Question 81. Humus is

1. Dead and decayed organic matter
2. Living matter
3. Fertilizers
4. Living animal/plants/microbes

Answer. 1. Dead and decayed organic matter

Question 82. Name the famous plant ecologist:

1. Jagdish Chandra Bose
2. Birbal Shani
3. Ramdeva Misra
4. Charles Darwin

Answer. 3. Ramdeva Misra

Question 83. The correct percentage of CO, in atmosphere is

1. 0.03%
2. 0.3%
3. 1%
4. 1.1%

Answer. 1. 0.03%

Question 84. In aquatic environment, microscopic animals and plants are collectively known as

1. Commensals
2. Herbivores
3. Fauna and Flora
4. Planktons

Answer. 4. Planktons

Question 85. June 5 is

1. World Environment Day
2. Wold AIDS Day
3. World Womens Day
4. World Polio Day

Answer. 1. World Environment Day

Question 86. Plants developing in dry condition are

1. Xerophytes
2. Mesophytes
3. Lithophytes
4. Hydrophytes

Answer. 1.Xerophytes

Question 87. Soil carried by gravity is

1. Alluvial
2. Colluvial
3. Elluvial
4. Glacial

Answer. 2. Colluvial

Question 88. Velamen tissue is found in

1. Mesophytes
2. Epiphytes
3. Hydrophytes
4. Xerophytes

Answer. 2. Epiphytes

Question 89. Pneumatophores are characteristic feature of

1. Hydrilla
2. Rhizophora
3. Typha
4. None of these

Answer. 2. Rhizophora

Question 90. Factors relating to form and behavior of the earth’s surface are called

1. Edaphic
2. Topographic
3. Climatic
4. Biotic

Answer. 2. Topographic

Question 91. Aerenchyma is helpful in plants by

1. Providing buoyancy in hydrophytes
2. Absorption in stilt roots
3. Giving mechanical strength to plants
4. Giving flexibility to plants

Answer. 1. Providing buoyancy in hydrophytes

Question 92. Plants growing in saline soil are called

1. Xerophyte
2. Hydrophyte
3. Halophyte
4. Heliophyte

Answer. 3. Halophyte

Question 93. Which one of the following is a well-developed tissue present in hydrophytes?

1. Aerenchyma
2. Collenchyma
3. Stomata
4. Root system

Answer. 1. Aerenchyma

Question 94. Penumetophores are found in

1. Orchid
2. Piper
3. Ficus
4. Rhizophora

Answer. 4. Rhizophora

Question 95. The term “autecology” refers to the study of

1. Plant community
2. Individual organism
3. Environment
4. Soil form

Answer. 2. Individual organism

Question 96. Autoecology refers to

1. Plant ecology
2. Animal ecology
3. Ecological study of individual species
4. Ecological study of group of species, which is grown together

Answer. 3. Ecological study of individual species

Question 97. Which part of the pond ecosystem does not get affected by temperature?

1. Epilimnion
2. Metalimnion
3. Hypolimnion
4. All

Answer. 3. Hypolimnion

Question 98. Root cap is absent in

1. Mesophytes
2. Hydrophytes
3. Epiphytes
4. Xerophytes

Answer. 2. Hydrophytes

Question 99. Which of the following have sunken stomata?

1. Nerium
2. Mangifera
3. Hydrilla
4. Zea mays

Answer. 1. Nerium

Question 100. Velamen and spongy tissue are found in

1. Breathing roots
2. Parasitic roots
3. Tuberous roots
4. Epiphytic roots

Answer. 4. Epiphytic roots

Question 101. Root cap is absent in

1. Lithophytes
2. Xerophytes
3. Hydrophytes
4. Mesophytes

Answer. 3. Hydrophytes

Question 102. Which of the following is the example of xerophytes?

1. Brassica
2. Cuscuta
3. Capparis
4. Hydrilla

Answer. 3. Capparis

Question 103. Organisms inhabiting a common environment belong to the same

1. Species
2. Genus
3. Population
4. Community

Answer. 4. Community

Question 104. Insectivorous plants usually survive in

1. Water rich soil
2. N2 deficient soil
3. N2 rich soil
4. Sugar deficient medium

Answer. 2. N2 deficient soil

Question 105. A group of two or more than two plants species is called

1. Plant community
2. Animal ecosystem
3. Plant ecosystem
4. Ecological niche

Answer. 1. Plant community

Question 106. Two vegetations of ecosystem are separated by

1. Ecotone
2. Ecoline
3. Ecosytem
4. Ecesis

Answer. 1. Ecotone

Question 107. In plant succession, the last community is called

1. Ecotone
2. Climax community
3. Seral community
4. Ecocystem

Answer. 2. Climax community

Question 108. In which of the following habitats the diurnal temperature of soil surface varies the most?

1. Forest
2. Desert
3. Grassland
4. Shrub land

Answer. 2. Desert

Question 109. People who have migrated from the planes to an area adjoining Rohtang Pass about 6 months back

1. Are not physically fit to play games like football
2. Suffer from altitude sickness with symptoms like nausea, fatigue, etc.
3. Have the usual RBC count but their hemoglobin has very high binding affinity to O2
4. Have more RBCs and their hemoglobin has a lower binding affinity to O2

Answer. 4. Have more RBCs and their hemoglobin has a lower binding affinity to O2

Question 110. Sacred groves are especially useful in

1. Generating environmental awareness
2. Preventing soil erosion
3. Year-round flow of water in rivers
4. Conserving rare and threatened species

Answer. 4. Conserving rare and threatened species

Question 111. The second stage of hydrosere is occupied by plants like

1. Azolla
2. Typha
3. Salix
4. Vallisneria

Answer. 4. Vallisneria

Bio Technology And Its Applications

Question 1. Which one of the following can be used as a permanent cure for ADA deficiency?

1. Bone marrow transplantation on detection of disorder in adults.
2. Enzyme replacement therapy at any point in life.
3. Both (1) and (2).
4. Gene therapy at early embryonic stages.

Answer. 4. Gene therapy at early embryonic stages.

Question 2. Which one of the following is a transgenic product useful for the treatment of hemophilia?

1. Factor VIII
2. Antithrombin II
3. α-1-antitrypsin
4. Lysostaphin

Answer. 1. Factor VIII

Question 3. Who is responsible for obtaining interferons through re- combinant DNA technique?

1. A.R. Bounting
2. Eli Lily
3. Charles Weissmann
4. A. Tiselius

Answer. 3. Charles Weissmann

Question 4. Select the incorrect statement:

1. RNAi silencing takes place in all eukaryotic organ- isms as a method of cellular defense.
2. RNAi requires silencing of mRNA by binding of complementary ssDNA molecule.
3. Complementary nucleic acid could be from mobile genetic elements (transposons).
4. Ti plasmid with nematode-specific genes has been used in RNAi.

Answer. 2. RNAi requires silencing of mRNA by binding of complementary ssDNA molecule.

Question 5. Which gene controls the transcription of chain A and chain B required for humulin synthesis in E. coli?

1. B-Lactamase
2. B-Galactosidase
3. Polygalacturonase
4. Chitinase

Answer. 2. B-Galactosidase

Question 6. Transgenic Brassica napus has been used for the synthesis of

1. Hirudin
2. Heparin
3. Polygalacturonase
4. Cry protein

Answer. 1. Hirudin

Question 7. Which genes encode the protein to control bollworm infection in cotton plants?

1. Cry II Ab
2. Cry I Ac
3. Both (1) and (2)
4. Amp

Answer. 3. Both (1) and (2)

Question 8. Which is incorrect with respect to GM food?

1. It contains the protein produced by the transgene in question.
2. GM food contains antibiotic resistance gene itself.
3. The enzyme produced by antibiotic resistance gene will not cause allergies.
4. The bacteria in gut of humans could take by antibiotic resistance gene.

Answer. 3. The enzyme produced by antibiotic resistance gene will not cause allergies.

Question 9. Golden rice-a transgenic variety of rice is principally richer than normal rice in

1. Cry I Ab
2. Hirudin
3. TPA
4. B-carotene

Answer. 4. B-carotene

Question 10. Southern blotting cannot be performed without

1. Restriction endonucleases
2. Agarose
3. Monoclonal antibodies
4. Both (1) and (2)

Answer. 4. Both (1) and (2)

Question 11. Plants, bacteria, fungi, and animals whose genes have been altered by manipulation are called genetically modified organisms (GMO). Which of the following statement is not applicable to GM plants?

1. Reduced reliance on chemical pesticides.
2. Prevent early exhaustion of fertility of soil.
3. Crops less tolerant to abiotic stress (cold, drought, salt, and heat).
4. Enhanced nutritional value of food.

Answer. 3. Crops less tolerant to abiotic stress (cold, drought, salt, and heat).

Question 12. In case of Bacillus thuringiensis, Bacillus itself is not killed by toxic protein crystals produced by it because

1. Bt toxin protein is not produced in Bacillus
2. Bt toxin protein is produced in very less amount in Bacillus
3. Bt toxin exists as inactive toxin
4. Bt toxin cannot cause any damage to Bacillus

Answer. 3. Bt toxin exists as inactive toxin

Question 13. Bt toxin kills the insect by

1. Blocking nerve conduction
2. Damaging the surface of trachea
3. Creating pores in the tracheal system
4. Creating pores in the mid gut

Answer. 4. Creating pores in the mid gut

Question 14. Which of the following cry gene codes for the protein which can control the corn borer effectively?

1. cry I Ac
2. cry II Ab
3. cry I Ab
4. cry II Ac

Answer. 3. cry I Ab

Question 15. RNA interference (RNAi) technique has been devised to protect plants from nematode. In this technique, the mRNA of nematode is silenced by _______ produced by the host plant.

1. dsDNA
2. ssDNA
3. dsRNA
4. Target proteins

Answer. 3. dsRNA

Question 16. Which of the following peptide chain is removed during the maturation of pro-insulin into insulin?

1. A peptide
2. B peptide
3. C peptide
4. A and C peptides

Answer. 3. C peptide

Question 17. Eli Lilly, an American company, prepared two DNA se- quences corresponding to A and B chains of human insulin and introduced them in the plasmids of E. coli to produce insulin chains. Chains A and B were produced separately, extracted, and combined by creating

1. Peptide bonds
2. Ionic bonds
3. H-bonds
4. Disulfide bonds

Answer. 4. Disulfide bonds

Question 18. The first clinical gene therapy was given in 1990 to a 4-year old girl with which of the following enzyme deficiency?

1. Adenosine deaminase
2. Tyrosine oxidase
3. Monamine oxidase
4. Glutamate dehydrogenase

Answer. 1. Adenosine deaminase

Question 19. Which of the following could be a permanent cure for the treatment of severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID)?

1. Bone marrow transplantation
2. Enzyme replacement therapy
3. Both (1) and (2)
4. Gene therapy

Answer. 4. Gene therapy

Question 20. Which of the following technique is being used to detect mutations in genes in suspected cancer patients?

1. PCR
2. ELISA
3. Blood analysis
4. PAGE

Answer. 1. PCR

Question 21. Animals that have had their DNA manipulated to possess and express an extra gene are known as

1. Foreign animals
2. Superior animals
3. Transgenic animals
4. Intergenic animals

Answer. 3. Transgenic animals

Question 22. About 95% of all existing transgenic animals are

1. Rabbits
2. Pigs
3. Cows
4. Mice

Answer. 4. Mice

Question 23. Today, transgenic models exist for many human diseases which includes

A. Cancer

B. Cystic fibrosis

C. Rheumatoid arthritis

D. Alzheimer’s disease

1. (A) and (C) only
2. (B) and (C) only
3. (A), (B), and (C) only
4. All of these

Answer. 4. All of these

Question 24. Which of the following is not a true statement with respect to Bt cotton?

1. Bt toxin is produced by a bacterium Bacillus thuringiensis.
2. It is an example of biopesticide.
3. Bt toxin gene has been cloned in plants to provide resistance to insects.
4. Bt cotton could decrease the amount of pesticide used.

Answer. 3. Bt toxin gene has been cloned in plants to provide resistance to insects.

Question 25. How many recombinant therapeutics have been approved for human use all over the world?

1. 12
2. 30
3. 20
4. 18

Answer. 2. 30

Question 26. Which of the following techniques serve the purpose of early diagnosis?

A. Recombinant DNA technology

B. PCR

C. ELISA

1. (A) only
2. (A) and (C) only
3. (A) and (B) only
4. All of these

Answer. 4. All of these

Question 27. Which of the following technique is based upon the principle of antigen-antibody interaction?

1. PCR
2. ELISA
3. Recombinant DNA technology
4. RNA interference

Answer. 2. ELISA

Question 28. Which of the following transgenic protein product has been used to treat emphysema?

1. α-l-Antitrypsin
2. α-Lactalbumin
3. Cry protein
4. C-peptide

Answer. 1. α-l-Antitrypsin

Question 29. How many varieties of rice have been estimated to be present in India?

1. 2000
2. 20,000
3. 2,00,000
4. 20,00,000

Answer. 3. 2,00,000

Question 30. The use of bioresources by multinational companies and other organizations without proper authorization from the countries and people concerned without compensatory payment is called

1. Bioethics
2. Biopiracy
3. Bioterror
4. Bioweapon

Answer. 2. Biopiracy

Question 31. Amongst the following, which characteristic is not applicable to Bt cotton?

1. Bt is the abbreviated term for botulinum toxin.
2. Such cotton is resistant to armyworms and beetles.
3. The toxin is activated in the body of the insect.
4. The toxin is coded by a gene called “cry.”

Answer. 1. Bt is the abbreviated term for botulinum toxin.

Question 32. Which biotechnology company is credited with the synthesis of genetically engineered human insulin for the first time?

1. Celera genomics
2. Cipla
3. Eli Lily
4. Ranbaxy

Answer. 3. Eli Lily

Question 33. Functional ADA cDNA can be introduced into the cells of the patient receiving gene therapy by using a vector constituted by

1. E. coli
2. Reovirus
3. Retrovirus
4. Agrobacterium

Answer. 3. Retrovirus

Question 34. Which variety of rice was patented by a US company even though the highest number of varieties of this rice is found in India?

1. Shamati Sonara
2. Co-667
3. Basmati
4. Lerma Roja

Answer. 3. Basmati

Question 35. Which step has the Government of India taken to cater to the requirement of patent terms and other emergency provisions in this regard?

1. Biopiracy Act
2. Indian Patents Bill
3. RTI Act
4. Negotiable Instruments Act

Answer. 2. Indian Patents Bill

Question 36. What is another term used for GMO (genetically modified organisms)?

1. Cybrid organisms
2. Genomorphic organisms
3. Transgenic organisms
4. Conjoint twins

Answer. 3. Transgenic organisms

Question 37. Transgenic models can be used to investigate several human diseases such as

1. Alzheimer’s disease
2. Cystic fibrosis
3. Carcinoma
4. All of these

Answer. 4. All of these

Question 38. Which GMO is now being developed in order to be used in testing the safety of polio vaccines before they are used in humans?

1. Transgenic sheep
2. Transgenic cow
3. Transgenic mice
4. Transgenic viruses

Answer. 3. Transgenic mice

Question 39. Which method of cellular defense is common in all eukaryotic organisms?

1. RNA interference
2. Reverse transcription
3. VNTR
4. Phagocytosis

Answer. 1. RNA interference

Question 40. “Silencing” of mRNA molecule in order to control the production of a harmful protein has been used in the protection of plants from

1. Nematodes
2. Beetles
3. Mosquitoes
4. Flies

Answer. 1. Nematodes

Question 41. Mark the odd one with respect to the advantages of genetically modified plants:

1. Production of food with better nutritional value.
2. Decrease in post harvest losses.
3. Decreased dependence on fertilizers.
4. Decreased usage of minerals.

Answer. 4. Decreased usage of minerals.

Question 42. In which disease has the advancement of genetic engineering still not been used as clinical cure?

1. Emphysema
2. Cystic fibrosis
3. Phenylketonuria
4. Anencephaly

Answer. 4. Anencephaly

Question 43. Which substance is tested in case of toxicity/safety testing using transgenic animals?

1. Chemicals
2. Pathogen
3. The amount of DNA in the cell
4. The amount of tolerable radiation levels of an organism

Answer. 1. Chemicals

Question 44. Which step proved to be the main challenging obstacle in the production of human insulin by genetic engineering?

1. Removal of C-peptide from active insulin.
2. Getting insulin assembled into a mature form.
3. Addition of C-peptide to pro-insulin.
4. Splitting A and B polypeptide chains.

Answer. 2. Getting insulin assembled into a mature form.

Question 45. What is the disadvantage of using processed insulin (from pig pancreas) in diabetic patients?

1. It leads to hypercalcaemia.
2. It may cause allergic reactions.
3. It is expensive.
4. It can lead to mutations in human recipients.

Answer. 2. It may cause allergic reactions.

Question 46. Why are repeated transfusions of genetically engineered cells required in SCID patients?

1. The transfused cells have limited lifespan.
2. The introduced gene is mutated.
3. The enzyme required is degraded after 20 days of transfusion.
4. Both (2) and (3).

Answer. 1. The transfused cells have limited lifespan.

Question 47. Which Indian plants have either been patented or attempts have been made to patent them by the Western nations for their commercial use?

1. Basmati rice
2. Turmeric
3. Neem
4. All of these have been targeted

Answer. 4. All of these have been targeted

Question 48. Why is insulin usually not administered orally to a diabetic patient?

1. Insulin is bitter in taste.
2. Insulin is a peptide.
3. Insulin will lead to a sudden decrease in blood sugar if given orally.
4. Insulin leads to peptic ulcer orally.

Answer. 2. Insulin is a peptide.

Question 49. Which technique would you expect to be completely curative in SCID?

1. Gene therapy in adult stage.
2. Gene therapy in embryonic stage.
3. Bone marrow transplantation.
4. Enzyme replacement therapy.

Answer. 2. Gene therapy in embryonic stage.

Question 50. A doctor while operating on an HIV+ patient accidentally cut himself with a scalpel. He comes to you, suspecting himself to have contracted the virus. Which test will you advise him to rule out/confirm his suspicion?

1. PCR
2. Routine urine examination
3. TLC
4. DLC

Answer. 1. PCR

Question 51. Match the following genes in column 1 with the insects that can be protected from with their coded proteins in column 2.

Column 1                    Column 2

a. cry I Ac                   (1) Cotton bollworm

b.cry I Ab                  (2) Beetles

c. Bt toxin gene        (3) Corn borer

1. a (1), b (3), c (2)
2. a (2), b (1), c (3)
3. a (1), b (2), c (3)
4. a (2), b (3), c (1)

Answer. 1. a (1), b (3), c (2)

Question 52. Which protein would you like to be produced by genetic engineering as cure for diseases such as emphysema?

1. α-1-Antitrypsin
2. Trypsin
3. Chymotrypsin
4. All of the above are required

Answer. 1. α-1-Antitrypsin

Question 53. “Rosie,” a transgenic cow, is known to produce a type of milk which has all the following characteristics, except

1. Protein content of 2.4 g/L
2. Has human a-lactalbumin
3. More balanced diet than normal cow milk for babies
4. Was produced for the first time in 2001

Answer. 4. Was produced for the first time in 2001

Question 54. According to the latest estimates, how many documented varieties of basmati rice are grown in India?

1. 30
2. 27
3. 118
4. 125

Answer. 2. 27

Question 55. Which ingredient was present in high concentrations in genetically modified (GM) rice as compared to the usual rice?

1. Protein
2. Carbohydrates
3. Na+ ions
4. Vitamin A

Answer. 4. Vitamin A

Question 56. Which of the following cannot be achieved using PCR?

1. Detect HIV in AIDS suspect.
2. Detect mutations in cancer patients.
3. Detect antigen-antibody interactions
4. Detect specific microorganisms from soil.

Answer. 3. Detect antigen-antibody interactions

Question 57. In electrophoresis, the separation of DNA fragments is based on

1. Charge
2. Mass only
3. Size
4. Both (1) and (3)

Answer. 4. Both (1) and (3)

Question 58. Pick the odd one out:

1. DNA microinjection
2. RNA interference
3. Retro virus mediated gene transfer
4. Embryonic stem cell mediated gene transfer

Answer. 2. RNA interference

Question 59. In xenotransplantation, a protein that causes graft rejection usually comes from transgenic

1. Cow
2. Mice
3. Pig
4. Sheep

Answer. 3. Pig

Question 60. Transgenics has provided many pharmaceuticals in their milk for the treatment of diseases. Which one of the following has not been a successful story?

1. Phenylketonuria
2. SCID
3. Emphysema (hereditary)
4. CFTR

Answer. 2. SCID

Question 61. Which is not true with respect to transgenic animals and their contribution to human welfare?

1. Transgenic mice are being tested to ensure safety of polio vaccine.
2. Rosie’s milk contained human gene insulin.
3. Transgenic cows produce milk with less lactose.
4. Transgenic sheep grow more wool.

Answer. 2. Rosie’s milk contained human gene insulin.

Question 62. An antibacterial compound that prevents mastitis in cows is

1. α-1-Antitrypsin
2. Lysostaphin
3. Lysozyme
4. Alginate lyase

Answer. 2. Lysostaphin

Question 63. Choose the incorrect statement with respect to bioweapons:

1. They are low-cost weapons.
2. They cause more casualties than conventional weapons.
3. They are extremely difficult to detect.
4. Bacterium E. coli created letter scare in 2001.

Answer. 4. Bacterium E. coli created letter scare in 2001.

Question 64. A set of standards by which a community regulates its behavior and activities in relation to the biological world is termed as

1. Biopatent
2. Biopiracy
3. Patent
4. Bioethic

Answer. 4. Bioethic

Question 65. Nexia Biotechnologies spliced spider genes into the cells of lactating

1. Cow
2. Sheep
3. Goat
4. None of these

Answer. 3. Goat

Question 66. Nif gene for nitrogen fixation in cereal crops such as wheat and jowar is introduced by cloning

1. Rhizobium meliloti
2. Bacillus thuringiensis
3. Rhizopus
4. Rhizophora

Answer. 1. Rhizobium meliloti

Question 67. VNTRS represent

1. New terminal regions in DNA
2. Functional genes in DNA
3. Split genes in sample DNA
4. Specific non-coding sequences with unique tandem repeats

Answer. 4. Specific non-coding sequences with unique tandem repeats

Question 68. Sheep Dolly was genetically similar to

1. The mother from which nucleated fertilized egg was taken
2. The mother from which the nucleus of udder cell was taken
3. The surrogate mother
4. Both surrogate mother and nuclear donor mother

Answer. 2. The mother from which the nucleus of udder cell was taken

Question 69. How does a bacterial cell protect its own DNA from restriction enzymes?

1. By adding methyl groups to adenines and cystosines.
2. By reinforcing bacterial DNA structure with covalent phosphodiester bonds.
3. By adding histones to protect the double-stranded DNA
4. By forming “sticky ends” of bacterial DNA to prevent the enzyme from attaching.

Answer. 1. By adding methyl groups to adenines and cystosines.

Question 70. All cells contain the same genetic information. Why cannot cells other than stem cells differentiate into various tissues?

1. As cells develop, their genetic makeup changes.
2. Stem cells are the only cells that can be implanted.
3. Stem cells are the only cells that do not have an X or Y chromosome and can, therefore, go into either a male or a female.
4. As cells develop, some genes are turned off permanently.

Answer. 4. As cells develop, some genes are turned off permanently.

Question 71. Polymerase chain reaction technology (PCR-technique) is used for

1. DNA identification
2. DNA repair
3. DNA amplification
4. Cleave DNA

Answer. 3. DNA amplification

Question 72. Which scientists obtained interferon through recombinant DNA technology?

1. Kohler and Milstein
2. Charles Weisman
3. Nathans and Smith
4. An American firm

Answer. 2. Charles Weisman

Question 73. When the genotype of an organism is improved by the addition of a foreign gene, the process is called

1. Tissue culture
2. Genetic diversity
3. Genetic engineering
4. Plastic surgery

Answer. 3. Genetic engineering

Question 74. A genetically manipulated organism containing in its genome one or more inserted genes of another species is called

1. Transposon
2. Gene expression
3. Transgenic organism
4. Retroposons

Answer. 3. Transgenic organism

Question 75. The use of transgenic plants as biological factories for the production of special chemicals is called

1. Molecular farming
2. Molecular genetics
3. Molecular mapping
4. Dry farming

Answer. 1. Molecular farming

Question 76. Which vector is commonly used in the transfer of gene in a crop plant?

1. Plasmids of B. subtilis
2. Bacteriophages
3. Ti plasmids of Agrobacterium
4. E. coli phages

Answer. 3. Ti plasmids of Agrobacterium

Question 77. The tumor inducing capacity of Agrobacterium tumaefaciens is located in large extrachromosomal plasmid called

1. Ti plasmid
2. Ri plasmid
3. Lambda phage
4. Plasmid pBR322

Answer. 1. Ti plasmid

Question 78. Genetic engineering aims at

1. Destroying wild gene
2. Preserving defective gene
3. Curing human disease by introducing new gene (hemophilia)
4. All the above

Answer. 3. Curing human disease by introducing new gene (hemophilia)

Question 79. Taq polymerase which is used in amplification of DNA is related with

1. Hybridoma technique
2. PCR technique
3. Gene cloning
4. rDNA technology

Answer. 2. PCR technique

Question 80. DNA fragments separated by gel electrophoresis are shown. Mark the correct statement:

1. Band 3 contains more positively charged DNA molecules than band 1.
2. Band 3 indicates more charge density than bands 1 and 2.
3. Band 1 has longer DNA fragment than bands 2 and 3.
4. All bands have equal length and charges but differ in base composition.

Answer. 3. Band 1 has longer DNA fragment than bands 2 and 3.

Question 81. Thermal cycle takes place in which technique?

1. Gel electrophoresis
2. PCR technique
3. Centrifugation
4. Southern blotting

Answer. 2. PCR technique

Question 82. Cry gene, which synthesizes crystal protein, is isolated from

1. Bacillus thuringiensis
2. Rhizobium
3. Bacillus polymyxa
4. Clostridium

Answer. 1. Bacillus thuringiensis

Question 83. Which of the following risks is associated with genetically modified food?

1. Toxicity
2. Allergic reaction
3. Antibiotic resistance in microorganisms present in alimentary canal
4. All of the above

Answer. 4. All of the above

Question 84. PCR technique is used in

1. Production of transgenic microbes
2. Production of genetically modified food
3. Forensic investigation
4. rDNA technique

Answer. 3. Forensic investigation

Question 85. TDF gene is a

1. Gene present on X-chromosome
2. Segment of RNA
3. Proteinaceous factor
4. Gene present on Y-chromosome

Answer. 4. Gene present on Y-chromosome

Question 86. BACS and YACs are

1. Natural DNA obtained from bacteria and yeast
2. Useful vectors for eukaryotic gene transfer
3. Artificial DNA obtained from bacteria and yeast
4. (2) and (3) both

Answer. 4. (2) and (3) both

Question 87. Gene therapy was first used in the treatment of

1. Albinism
2. Hemophilia
3. SCID
4. LIQID

Answer. 3. SCID

Question 88. DNA probe is used for

1. DNA fingerprinting
2. Detection of pathogenic bacteria
3. Medical genetics to find whether a person carries a particular gene or not
4. All of the above

Answer. 4. All of the above

Question 89. Bt cotton is resistant to

1. Roundworm
2. Flukeworm
3. Bollworm
4. Pinworm

Answer. 3. Bollworm

Question 90. A genetically engineered microorganism used successfully in the bioremediation of oil spills is a species of

1. Pseudomonas
2. Trichoderma
3. Xanthomonas
4. Bacillus

Answer. 1. Pseudomonas

Question 91. The first transgenic plant is

1. Potato
2. Tomato
3. Tobacco
4. Maize

Answer. 3. Tobacco

Question 92. Sheep Dolly was obtained by

1. Cloning the udder cell (somatic cell) fused with uninucleated oocyte
2. Cloning of gametes
3. Tissue culture
4. None

Answer. 1. Cloning the udder cell (somatic cell) fused with uninucleated oocyte

Question 93. E. coli are used in the production of

1. Rifampicin
2. LH
3. Ecdyson
4. Interferon

Answer. 4. Interferon

Question 94. A gaint rat is formed in the laboratory. What is the reason?

1. Gene mutation
2. Gene synthesis
3. Gene manipulation
4. Gene replication

Answer. 3. Gene manipulation

Question 95. The first cloned animal was

1. Dolly sheep
2. Polly sheep
3. Molly sheep
4. Dog

Answer. 1. Dolly sheep

Question 96. Introduction of food plants developed by genetic engineering is not desirable because

1. Economy of developing countries may suffer
2. These products are less tasty as compared to the already existing products
3. This method is costly
4. There is danger of introduction of viruses and toxins with introduced crop

Answer. 4. There is danger of introduction of viruses and toxins with introduced crop

Question 97. Which one of the following has found extensive use in genetic engineering work in plants?

1. Bacillus coagulans
2. Agrobacterium tumefaciens
3. Clostridium septicum
4. Xanthomonas citri

Answer. 2. Agrobacterium tumefaciens

Question 98. The maximum application of animal cell culture technology today is in the production of

1. Vaccines
2. Edible protein
3. Insulin
4. Interferon

Answer. 1. Vaccines

Question 99. Ti plasmid is often used for making transgenic plants. This plasmid is found in

1. Yeast as a 2-mm plasmid
2. Azotobacter
3. Rhizobium of the roots of leguminous plants
4. Agrobacterium

Answer. 4. Agrobacterium

Question 100. The cultivation of Bt cotton has been much in the news. Prefix “Bt” means

1. “Barium-treated” cotton seeds
2. “Bigger thread” variety of cotton with better tensile strength
3. Produced by “biotechnology” using restriction enzymes and ligases
4. Carrying an endotoxin gene from Bacillus thuringienisis

Answer. 4. Carrying an endotoxin gene from Bacillus thuringienisis

Question 101. An example of gene therapy is

1. Production of injectable hepatitis B vaccine
2. Production of vaccines in food crops such as potatoes which can be eaten
3. Introduction of gene for adenosine deaminase in persons suffering from severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID)
4. Production of test-tube babies by artificial insemination and implantation of fertilized eggs

Answer. 3. Introduction of gene for adenosine deaminase in persons suffering from severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID)

Question 102. Bacteria Pseudomonas is useful because of its ability to

1. Transfer genes from one plant to another
2. Decompose a variety of organic compounds
3. Fix atmospheric nitrogen in the soil
4. Produce a wide variety of antibiotics

Answer. 2. Decompose a variety of organic compounds

Question 103. Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) strains have been used for designing novel

1. Bioinsecticidal plants
2. Bio-mineralization processes
3. Biofertilizers
4. Bio-metallurgical techniques

Answer. 1. Bioinsecticidal plants

Question 104. Which one of the following is a correct statement?

1. “Bt” in Bt-cotton indicates that it is a genetically modified organism produced through biotechnology.
2. Somatic hybridization involves the fusion of two complete plant cells carrying desired genes.
3. The anticoagulant hirudin is being produced from transgenic Brassica napus seeds.
4. “Flavr Savr” variety of tomato has enhanced the production of ethylene which improves its taste.

Answer. 3. The anticoagulant hirudin is being produced from transgenic Brassica napus seeds.

Question 105. The approximate number of genes contained in the genome of Kalpana Chowla was

1. 40,000
2. 30,000
3. 80,000
4. 1,00,000

Answer. 2. 30,000

Question 106. In transgenics, the expression of transgene in target tissue is determined by

1. Reporter
2. Enhancer
3. Transgene
4. Promoter

Answer. 4. Promoter

Question 107. Golden rice is a promising transgenic crop. When released for cultivation, it will help in

1. Alleviation of vitamin A deficiency
2. Pest resistance
3. Herbicide tolerance
4. Producing a petrol-like fuel from rice

Answer. 1. Alleviation of vitamin A deficiency

Question 108. Agrobacterium tumefaciens contains a large plasmid, which induces tumor in plants. It is termed as

1. Ti plasmid
2. Ri plasmid
3. Recombinant plasmid
4. Shine-Dalgarno sequence

Answer. 1. Ti plasmid

Question 109. Transgenic crops are modified through genetic engineering to develop natural resistance to insect pests. Which one is a transgenic plant?

1. Tobacco and cotton
2. Tomato and rice
3. Maize and sugarcane
4. Tomato and wheat

Answer. 1. Tobacco and cotton

Question 110. Genetically engineered human insulin is called

1. Humulin
2. Haematin
3. Hybriodoma
4. Hybrid

Answer. 1. Humulin

Question 111. Abzymes are

1. Abnormal enzymes
2. Enzymes acting on antibodies
3. Antibodies acting as enzymes
4. All of these

Answer. 3. Antibodies acting as enzymes

Question 112. Hybridoma technology was developed by

1. Taggart, 1982
2. Prie and Saxton, 1987
3. Vitella et. al., 1982
4. Kohler and Milstein

Answer. 4. Kohler and Milstein

Question 113. The technique for monoclonal antibody production was discovered by

1. Steward and Skoog
2. Arban and Haberlan
3. Kohler and Milstein
4. Lister and Koach

Answer. 3. Kohler and Milstein

Question 114. The first clinical gene therapy was given for treating

1. Both sense and anti-sense RNA
2. A particular hormone
3. An antifeedant
4. A toxic protein

Answer. 1. Both sense and anti-sense RNA

Question 115. Tobacco plants resistant to nematode have been developed by the introduction of DNA that produced (in the host cells)

1. Diabetes mellitus
2. Chicken pox
3. Rheumatoid arthritis
4. Adenosine deaminase deficiency

Answer. 4. Adenosine deaminase deficiency

Question 116. Which of the following Bt crops is being grown in India by the farmers?

1. Cotton
2. Brinjal
3. Soybean
4. Maize

Answer. 1. Cotton

NEET Biology – Biotechnology: Principles and Processes

Question 1. 3′-5′ exonucleolytic degradation of DNA is performed by which enzyme?

1. DNA polymerase
2. Alkaline phosphatase
3. DNA ligase
4. RNA polymerase

Answer. 1. DNA polymerase

Question 2. The technique of gel electrophoresis was developed by

1. Kary Mullis
2. J.S. Chamberlain
3. A. Tiselius
4. F. Sanger

Answer. 3. A. Tiselius

Question 3. Which of the following dyes can be used to visualize nucleic acid after electrophoresis?

1. Acridine orange
2. Ethidium bromide
3. Bromophenol blue
4. Both (1) and (2)

Answer. 4. Both (1) and (2)

Question 4. Which of the following bonds are formed by the action of DNA ligase?

1. Sugar-phosphate bond
2. Phosphodiester bond
3. Both (1) and (2)
4. Phosphate-phosphate bond

Answer. 3. Both (1) and (2)

Question 5. Who were responsible for the isolation of “methylase” kind of enzyme from E. coli in 1960’s?

1. Cohen and Boyer
2. Banting and Best
3. Linn and Arber
4. Smith and Wilcox

Answer. 3. Linn and Arber

Question 6. The specific sequence recognized by “molecular scissors” is called

1. Isomer
2. Isobar
3. Misnomer
4. Palindrome

Answer. 4. Palindrome

Question 7. When a piece of DNA is digested with Eco RI, what kind of ends are created?

1. Blunt ends
2. Flush ends
3. Cohesive ends
4. Non-staggered ends

Answer. 3. Cohesive ends

Question 8. The sticky ends generated by the action of Eco RI on insert DNA facilitate the action of which enzyme?

1. DNA polymerase
2. Taq polymerase
3. Alkaline phosphatase
4. DNA ligase

Answer. 4. DNA ligase

Question 9. Which is incorrect with respect to DNA polymerase III?

1. It requires ATP for polymerase action.
2. It is required for PCR.
3. It is more active than DNA polymerases I and II.
4. It requires a pre-formed DNA template to work on.

Answer. 2. It is required for PCR.

Question 10. Which is not an application of modern biotechnology?

1. Production of humulin
2. Developing a DNA vaccine
3. Gene therapy
4. Production of cheese and butter

Answer. 4. Production of cheese and butter

Question 11. Which of the following cannot be related to biotechnology?

1. Integration of natural science and organisms.
2. Techniques to alter the chemistry of DNA.
3. Introducing undesirable genes into the target organism.
4. Maintenance of sterile ambience to enable the growth of only the desired microbes.

Answer. 3. Introducing undesirable genes into the target organism.

Question 12. Which of the following specific DNA sequence is responsible for initiating replication?

1. Vector site
2. Restriction enzymes action site
3. Ori site
4. Palindromic site

Answer. 3. Ori site

Question 13. Autonomously replicating, circular, extra chromosomal DNA of prokaryotic cell is called

1. Satellite DNA
2. Plasmid
3. Recombinant DNA
4. Nucleoid

Answer. 2. Plasmid

Question 14. Key tools to be involved in recombinant DNA technology are

A. Restriction enzymes

B. Polymerase enzyme

C. Ligase enzymes

D. Vectors

1. (A) only
2. (A) and (C) only
3. (A), (B), and (C)
4. (A), (B), (C), and (D)

Answer. 4. (A), (B), (C), and (D)

Question 15. The first restriction endonuclease to be discovered was

1. Hind II
2. Eco RI
3. Bam HI
4. Pst I

Answer. 1. Hind II

Question 16. Approximately, how many restriction enzymes have been isolated from the different (over 230) strains of bacteria?

1. 300
2. 600
3. 750
4. 900

Answer. 4. 900

Question 17. The conventional method for naming restriction enzymes is followed. In case of Eco RI, the “R” indicates

1. Genus
2. Species
3. Name of the scientist
4. Strain

Answer. 4. Strain

Question 18. The restriction endonuclease enzyme binds to the DNA and cuts

1. Any one strand of the double helix
2. Each of the two strands at specific points in their base-sugar bonds
3. Each of the two strands at specific points in their base-phosphate bonds
4. Each of the two strands at specific points in their sugar-phosphate backbones

Answer. 4. Each of the two strands at specific points in their sugar-phosphate backbones

Question 19. During gel electrophoresis, for the separation of DNA fragment, the

1. Smallest fragment will move to the farthest point towards cathode
2. Smallest fragment will move to the farthest point towards anode
3. Largest fragment will move to the farthest point towards cathode
4. Largest fragment will move to the farthest point towards anode

Answer. 2. Smallest fragment will move to the farthest point towards anode

Question 20. After electrophoresis, the separated DNA fragment can be visualized in ethidium bromide gel exposed to UV light. These DNA fragments appear as _________ colored bands.

1. Orange
2. Blue
3. Silver
4. Green

Answer. 1. Orange

Question 21. The procedure through which a piece of DNA is introduced in a host bacterium is called

1. Cloning
2. Transformation
3. PCR
4. Clonal selection

Answer. 2. Transformation

Question 22. After completing the transformation experiment involving the coding sequence of enzyme a-galactosidase, the recombinant colonies should

1. Give blue color
2. Not give blue color
3. Have active α-galactosidase
4. Both (2) and (3)

Answer. 2. Not give blue color

Question 23. Which of the following has the ability to transform normal cells into cancerous cells in animals?

1. Agrobacterium tumifaciens
2. Retroviruses
3. DNA viruses
4. Plasmids

Answer. 2. Retroviruses

Question 24. Which of the following is not applicable to Agrobacterium tumifaciens?

1. Pathogen of several dicot plants.
2. Has the ability to transform normal plant cells.
3. Delivers gene of our interest.
4. Ti plasmid of it is always pathogenic to plants with out any exception.

Answer. 4. Ti plasmid of it is always pathogenic to plants with out any exception.

Question 25. Insertional inactivation is related to

1. Microinjection
2. Gene gun
3. Gel electrophoresis
4. Selection of recombinants

Answer. 4. Selection of recombinants

Question 26. For transformation with recombinant DNA, the bacterial cells must first be made competent, which means

1. Should increase their metabolic reactions
2. Should decrease their metabolic reactions
3. Increase efficiency with which DNA enters the bacterium
4. Ability to divide fast

Answer. 3. Increase efficiency with which DNA enters the bacterium

Question 27. Which of the following method can be used for making the bacterial cell competent?

1. Treating with specific concentration of divalent cation (Ca2+).
2. Treating with specific concentration of monovalent cation (K).
3. Heat shock.
4. Both (1) and (3).

Answer. 4. Both (1) and (3).

Question 28. Which of the following techniques can be used to introduce foreign DNA into cell?

1. Using disarmed pathogen
2. Microinjection
3. Gene gun
4. All of these

Answer. 4. All of these

Question 29. During heat shock, the temperature used for giving thermal shock to the bacterium is

1. 82°C
2. 100°C
3. Liquid nitrogen
4. 42°C

Answer. 4. 42°C

Question 30. Which of the following enzymes is used in case of fungus to cause the release of DNA along with other macromolecules?

1. Lysozyme
2. Cellulase
3. Chitinase
4. Amylase

Answer. 3. Chitinase

Question 31. During the isolation of DNA, the addition of which of the following causes the precipitation of purified DNA?

1. Chilled ethanol
2. Ribonuclease enzyme
3. DNA polymerase
4. Proteases

Answer. 1. Chilled ethanol

Question 32. Which of the following is the correct sequence of PCR (polymerase chain reaction)?

1. Denaturation → Annealing → Extension
2. Extension → Denaturation → Annealing
3. Annealing → Extension → Denaturation
4. Denaturation → Extension → Annealing

Answer. 1. Denaturation → Annealing → Extension

Question 33. The most commonly used bioreactor is of stirring type. The stirrer facilitates

1. Temperature control
2. pH control
3. Oxygen availability
4. Product removal

Answer. 3. Oxygen availability

Question 34. After the completion of biosynthetic stage, the separation and purification of product is called

1. Upstream processing
2. Downstream processing
3. Modern biotechnology
4. Gene amplification

Answer. 2. Downstream processing

Question 35. From isolated DNA from a cell culture with seven de- sired genes, DNA segment can be excised by molecular scissors or chemical scalpels what biotechnologists call as

1. Polymerase enzymes
2. DNA ligase
3. Restriction enzymes
4. Helicase

Answer. 3. Restriction enzymes

Question 36. All the following statements about Stanley Cohen and Herbert Boyer are correct but one is wrong. Which one is wrong?

1. They discovered recombinant DNA (rDNA) technology, and this marks the birth of modern biotechnology.
2. They first produced healthy sheep clone, a Finn Dorset lamb, Dolly, from the differentiated adult mammary cells.
3. They invented genetic engineering by combining a piece of foreign DNA containing a gene from a bacterium with a bacterial plasmid using the enzyme restriction endonuclease.
4. They isolated the antibiotic resistance gene by cutting out a piece of DNA from the plasmid which was responsible for conferring antibiotic resistance.

Answer. 2. They first produced healthy sheep clone, a Finn Dorset lamb, Dolly, from the differentiated adult mammary cells.

Question 37. What is the fate of a piece of DNA which is somehow transferred into an alien organism?

1. This piece of DNA would not be able to multiply itself in the progeny cells of the organism if not integrated into the genome of the organism.
2. If the alien piece of DNA has become a part of the chromosome, it will replicate.
3. If the alien piece of DNA is linked with the origin of replication in chromosome, it will replicate.
4. All of these.

Answer. 4. All of these.

Question 38. In the year 1963, the two enzymes responsible for restricting the growth of bacteriophage in Escherichia coli were isolated. These were and, respectively.

1. Ligase, restriction endonuclease
2. Helicase, restriction endonuclease
3. Methylase, restriction endonuclease
4. DNA polymerase, restriction endonuclease

Answer. 3. Methylase, restriction endonuclease

Question 39. The cutting of DNA by restriction endonucleases results in fragments of DNA. These fragments are generally separated by a technique known as

1. Gel-filtration chromatography
2. Centrifugation
3. Gel electrophoresis
4. Thin-layer chromatography

Answer. 3. Gel electrophoresis

Question 40. Which of the following bacteria are known as natural genetic engineers of plants, as gene transfer is happening in nature without human interference?

1. Azotobacter
2. Agrobacterium tumefaciens
3. Escherichia coli
4. Rhizobium

Answer. 2. Agrobacterium tumefaciens

Question 41. The technique in which a foreign DNA is precipitated on the surface of tungsten or gold particles and shot into the target cells is known as

1. Microinjection
2. Chemical-mediated genetic transformation
3. Electroporation
4. Biolistics

Answer. 4. Biolistics

Question 42. The isolation of the genetic material in pure form-free from other macromolecules can be achieved by treating the bacterial cells/plant or animal tissues with the following enzymes, except

1. Lysozyme
2. Cellulase
3. Chitinase
4. Ligase

Answer. 4. Ligase

Question 43. Which of the following is not a recombinant protein used in medical practice?

1. TPA (tissue plasminogen activator)
2. Interferon (α, B, and 7)
3. Vaccine (for hepatitis B)
4. Heparin

Answer. 4. Heparin

Question 44. cDNA is

1. Circular DNA in bacteria
2. Complementary DNA
3. Copy DNA
4. Both (2) and (3)

Answer. 4. Both (2) and (3)

Question 45. The Noble Prize of 1978 for restriction endonuclease technology was given to

1. Temin and Baltimore
2. Milstein and Kohler
3. Arber, Nathans, and Smith
4. Holley, Khorana, and Nirenberg

Answer. 3. Arber, Nathans, and Smith

Question 46. Plasmids are used in genetic engineering because they

1. Are easily available
2. Are able to integrate with host chromosome
3. Are able to replicate along with chromosomal DNA
4. Contain DNA sequence coding for drug resistance

Answer. 3. Are able to replicate along with chromosomal DNA

Question 47. Which of the following processes and techniques are included under biotechnology?

A. In vitro fertilization leading to a test-tube baby.

B. Synthesizing gene and using it.

C. Developing DNA vaccine.

D. Correcting a defective gene.

1. (B) and (D) only (3)
2. (B), (C), and (D)
3. (A) and (B)
4. (A), (B), (C), and (D)

Answer. 4. (A), (B), (C), and (D)

Question 48. The tumor-inducing (Ti) plasmid has now been modified to a cloning vector which is no more pathogenic to plants but is still able to use mechanisms to deliver genes of our interest into a variety of plants because Ti plasmid has been modified by

1. Adding tumor-forming genes
2. Deleting tumor-forming genes
3. Adding genes resistant to endonucleases
4. Deleting endonuclease

Answer. 2. Deleting tumor-forming genes

Question 49. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

1. Plasmids have the ability to replicate within the bacterial cells independent of the control of chromosomal DNA.
2. Some plasmids have only one or two copies per cell whereas others may have 15-100 copies per cell.
3. Bacteriophages have the ability to replicate within the bacterial cell independent of the control of chromosomal DNA.
4. Transformation is a procedure of separation and isolation of DNA fragments.

Answer. 4. Transformation is a procedure of separation and isolation of DNA fragments.

Question 50. Which of the following is the first artificial cloning vector that has two selectable markers-tetracycline (tetR) and antibiotic restriction enzymes (ampR)?

1. YAC
2. BAC
3. pBR322
4. Cosmid vectors

Answer. 3. pBR322

Question 51. Restriction endonucleases are most widely used in recombinant DNA technology. They are obtained from

1. Bacteriophage
2. Bacterial cells
3. Plasmids
4. All prokaryotic cells

Answer. 2. Bacterial cells

Question 52. All the following statements are correct about genetic engineering, but one is wrong. Which one is wrong?

1. It is a technique for artificially and deliberately modifying DNA (genes) to suit human needs.
2. It is often referred as gene splicing.
3. The organism carrying the foreign genes is termed as transgenic or GMO.
4. Alec Jeffrey is the father of genetic engineering.

Answer. 4. Alec Jeffrey is the father of genetic engineering.

Question 53. All the following are the properties of enzyme Taq polymerase, except

1. It is thermostable DNA polymerase
2. It is isolated from a bacterium, Thermus aquaticus
3. It is used for the amplification of gene of interest using PCR
4. It is thermostable RNA polymerase

Answer. 4. It is thermostable RNA polymerase

Question 54. Which of the following is incorrect match?

1. Gene therapy: An abnormal gene is replaced by normal gene
2. Cloning: Ability to multiply copies of antibiotic resistance gene in E. coli
3. Restriction enzymes: Molecular scissors
4. Exonucleases: Molecular glue

Answer. 4. Exonucleases: Molecular glue

Question 55. Appropriate techniques have been developed for large- scale cell culture using bioreactors for producing

1. Foreign gene product
2. Vaccines
3. Hormones
4. All of these

Answer. 4. All of these

Question 56. The uptake of genes by cells in microbes and plants is termed as

1. Insertional inactivation
2. Transformation
3. Selectable markers
4. Cloning vectors

Answer. 2. Transformation

Question 57. If we ligate a foreign DNA at the BamHI site of tetracycline resistance gene in pBR322, the recombinant plasmid will

1. Show ampicillin resistance only
2. Show tetracycline resistance
3. Will grow well on tetracycline-containing medium
4. Will not grow on ampicillin-containing medium

Answer. 1. Show ampicillin resistance only

Question 58. Polyethylene glycol can help in the uptake of foreign DNA into the host cell. This type of gene transfer is called

1. Electroporation
2. Chemical mediated genetic transformation
3. Microinjection
4. Particle gun

Answer. 2. Chemical mediated genetic transformation

Question 59. The normal E. coli cells carry resistance against which of the following antibiotics?

1. Ampicillin
2. Chloramphenicol
3. Tetracycline or kanamycin
4. None of these

Answer. 4. None of these

Question 60. The isolation of genetic material from fungal cells does not involve the use of

1. Agarose
2. Chitinase
3. Ethanol
4. Water

Answer. 1. Agarose

Question 61. In a restriction digestion experiment, the sticky ends of vector rejoined forming a circular vector without insert. Which enzyme can be used to eliminate this possibility?

1. DNA ligase
2. Alkaline phosphatase
3. DNA polymerase
4. RNA polymerase

Answer. 2. Alkaline phosphatase

Question 62. Denaturation can be achieved at which temperature during PCR?

1. 72°C
2. 95°C
3. 40°C
4. 25°C

Answer. 2. 95°C

Question 63. Choose the incorrect statement with respect to Agrobacterium tumefaciens.

1. It is a Gram-negative soil bacterium.
2. It produces crown gall disease in dicot plants.
3. The foreign DNA is inserted at the ori site of Ti plasmid.
4. Ti plasmid becomes incorporated into the plant chromosomal DNA.

Answer. 3. The foreign DNA is inserted at the ori site of Ti plasmid.

Question 64. Which is not a method for the introduction of recombinant DNA into host cells?

1. Electroporation
2. Biolistics
3. Transfection
4. Restriction digestion

Answer. 4. Restriction digestion

Question 65. The essential requirements for a gene amplification reaction are

1. 20 mg of DNA template
2. Forward and reverse primers
3. Mg2+
4. All of these

Answer. 4. All of these

Question 66. Choose the incorrect statement with respect to PCR reaction:

1. It requires Taq polymerase.
2. It requires dNTP’s.
3. It generates 2n molecules after n number of cycles.
4. The optimum temperature for polymerization step is greater than or equal to 90°C.

Answer. 4. The optimum temperature for polymerization step is greater than or equal to 90°C.

Question 67. Which is not an application of PCR?

1. DNA fingerprinting
2. DNA foot-printing
3. Detection of mutation
4. Prenatal diagnosis

Answer. 2. DNA foot-printing

Question 68. Rejoining of vector molecule after restriction enzyme digestion can be avoided by

1. Using different enzymes for insert and vector
2. Using same enzyme for insert and vector
3. Using DNA ligase immediately after digestion
4. Using alkaline phosphatase on only vector

Answer. 4. Using alkaline phosphatase on only vector

Question 69. If the target gene is inserted at Sal 1 site of the recombinant, plasmid will show resistance for pBR322

1. Ampicillin
2. Tetracyline
3. Both (1) and (2)
4. Kanamycin

Answer. 1. Ampicillin

Question 70. It is theoretically possible for a gene from any organism to function in any other organism. Why is this possible?

1. All organisms have ribosomes.
2. All organisms have the same genetic code.
3. All organisms are made up of cells.
4. All organisms have similar nuclei.

Answer. 2. All organisms have the same genetic code.

Question 71. If you discovered a bacterial cell that contained no restriction enzymes, which of the following would you except to happen?

1. The cell would create incomplete plasmids.
2. The cell would be unable to replicate its DNA.
3. The cell would become an obligate parasite.
4. The cell would be easily infected by bacteriophages.

Answer. 4. The cell would be easily infected by bacteriophages.

Question 72. Assume that you are trying to insert a gene into a plasmid and someone gives you a preparation of DNA cut with restriction enzyme X. The gene you wish to insert has sites on both ends for cutting by restriction enzyme Y. You have a plasmid with a single site for Y, but not for X. Your strategy should be to

1. Cut the plasmid with restriction enzyme X and insert the fragments cut with Y into the plasmid
2. Cut the plasmid with restriction enzyme X and insert the gene into the plasmid
3. Cut the plasmid twice with restriction enzyme Y and ligate the two fragments into the plasmid cut with the same enzyme
4. Cut the plasmid twice with restriction enzyme Y and ligate the two fragments onto the ends of the human DNA fragments cut with restriction enzyme X

Answer. 3. Cut the plasmid twice with restriction enzyme Y and ligate the two fragments into the plasmid cut with the same enzyme

Question 73. 1. Transform bacteria with recombinant DNA molecule.

2. Cut the plasmid DNA using restriction enzymes.

3. Extract plasmid DNA from bacterial cells.

4. Hydrogen-bond the plasmid DNA to non-plasmid DNA fragments.

5. Use ligase to seal plasmid DNA to non-plasmid DNA.

From the given list, which of the following is the most logical sequence of steps for splicing foreign DNA into a plasmid and inserting the plasmid into a bacterium?

1. 4, 5, 1, 2, 3
2. 3, 2, 4, 5, 1
3. 3, 4, 5, 1, 2
4. 2, 3, 5, 4, 1

Answer. 2. 3, 2, 4, 5, 1

Question 74. A eukaryotic gene has sticky ends produced by restriction endonuclease Eco RI. The gene is added to a mixture containing Eco RI and a bacterial plasmid that carries two genes, which make it resistant to ampicillin and tetracyline. The plasmid has one recognition site for Eco RI located in the tetracycline resistance gene. This mixture is incubated for several hours and then added to bacteria growing in nutrient broth. The bacteria are allowed to grow overnight and are streaked on a plate using a technique which produces isolated colonies that are clones of the original. Samples of these colonies are then grown in four different media: nutrient broth plus ampicillin, nutrient broth plus tetracycline, nutrient broth plus ampicillin and tetracycline, and nutrient broth containing no antibiotics.

The bacteria containing the engineered plasmid would grow in

1. The ampicillin and tetracycline broth only
2. The nutrient broth, the ampicillin broth, and the tetracycline broth
3. The nutrient broth and the ampicillin broth only
4. The nutrient broth only

Answer. 3. The nutrient broth and the ampicillin broth only

Question 75. Agrobacterium tumefaciens is used in genetic engineering for

1. DNA mapping
2. DNA modification
3. Vector
4. DNA fingerprinting

Answer. 3. Vector

Question 76. A genetically engineered bacteria used for clearing oil spills is

1. Escherischia coli
2. Bacillus subtilis
3. Agrobacterium tumefaciens
4. Pseudomonas putida

Answer. 4. Pseudomonas putida

Question 77. Who isolated the first restriction endonucleases?

1. Temin and Baltimore
2. Sanger
3. Nathans and Smith
4. Paul Berg

Answer. 3. Nathans and Smith

Question 78. Genetic engineering is

1. Study of extra-nuclear gene
2. Manipulation of genes by artificial method
3. Manipulation of RNA
4. Manipulation of enzymes

Answer. 2. Manipulation of genes by artificial method

Question 79. Which of the following enzymes cut the DNA molecule at specific nucleotide sequence?

1. Restriction endonuclease
2. DNA ligase
3. RNA polymerase
4. Exonuclease

Answer. 1. Restriction endonuclease

Question 80. DNA fingerprinting was invented by

1. Karl Mullis
2. Alec Jeffery
3. Dr. Paul Berg
4. Francis Collins

Answer. 2. Alec Jeffery

Question 81. Which structure is involved in genetic engineering?

1. Plastid
2. Plasmid
3. Codon
4. None

Answer. 2. Plasmid

Question 82. Which of the following is the example of chemical scissors?

1. Eco RI
2. HindIII
3. Bam I
4. All of the above

Answer. 4. All of the above

Question 83. Restriction endonucleases are used in genetic engineering because

1. They can degrade harmful proteins
2. They can join DNA fragments
3. They can cut DNA at variable sites
4. They can cut DNA at specific base sequences

Answer. 4. They can cut DNA at specific base sequences

Question 84. Chimeric DNA is

1. DNA which contains uracil
2. DNA synthesized from RNA
3. Recombinant DNA
4. DNA which contains single strand

Answer. 3. Recombinant DNA

Question 85. A piece of nucleic acid used to find out a gene by forming hybrid with it is called

1. cDNA
2. DNA probe
3. Sticky end
4. Blunt end

Answer. 2. DNA probe

Question 86. Which of the following is the example of direct gene transfer?

1. Microinjection
2. Electroporation
3. Particle gun
4. All the above

Answer. 4. All the above

Question 87. How many copies of DNA sample are produced in PCR technique after 6 cycles?

1. 4
2. 32
3. 16
4. 64

Answer. 3. 16

Question 88. The basic procedure involved in the synthesis of recombinant DNA molecule is depicted. The mistake in the cedure is procedure is

1. Enzyme polymerase is not included
2. The mammalian DNA is shown double stranded
3. Only one fragment is inserted
4. Two different restriction enzymes are used

Answer. 4. Two different restriction enzymes are used

Question 89. Western blotting is used for the identification of

1. DNA
2. RNA
3. Protein
4. All the above

Answer. 3. Protein

Question 90. In rDNA technique, which of the following technique is not used in introducing DNA into host cell?

1. Transduction
2. Conjugation
3. Transformation
4. Electroporation

Answer. 2. Conjugation

Question 91. Which of the following techniques are used in analyzing restriction fragment length polymorphism (RFLP)?

(a) Electrophoresis

(b) Electroporation

(c) Methylation

(d) Restriction digestion

1. (a) and (c)
2. (c) and (d)
3. (a) and (d)
4. (b) and (d)

Answer. 3. (a) and (d)

Question 92. Restriction enzymes are

1. Not always required in genetic engineering
2. Essential tool in genetic engineering
3. Nucleases that cleave DNA at specific sites
4. (2) and (3) both

Answer. 4. (2) and (3) both

Question 93. The function of restriction endonuclease enzyme is

1. It is useful in genetic engineering
2. It protects the bacterial DNA against foreign DNA
3. It is helpful in transcription
4. It is helpful in protein synthesis

Answer. 2. It protects the bacterial DNA against foreign DNA

Question 94. A bacterium modifies its DNA by adding methyl groups to the DNA. It does so to

1. Clone its DNA
2. Be able to transcribe many genes simultaneously
3. Turn its gene on
4. Protect its DNA from its own restriction enzyme

Answer. 4. Protect its DNA from its own restriction enzyme

Question 95. Plasmid has been used as vector because

1. It is circular DNA which has capacity to join eukaryotic DNA
2. It can move between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells
3. Both ends show replication
4. It has antibiotic resistance gene

Answer. 1. It is circular DNA which has capacity to join eukaryotic DNA

Question 96. Which of the following cuts the DNA from specific places?

1. Restriction endonuclease (Eco RI)
2. Ligase
3. Exonuclease
4. Alkaline phosphate

Answer. 1. Restriction endonuclease (Eco RI)

Question 97. The manipulation of DNA in genetic engineering becomes possible due to the discovery of

1. Restriction endonuclease
2. DNA ligase
3. Transcriptase
4. Primase

Answer. 1. Restriction endonuclease

Question 98. Restriction enzymes

1. Are endonucleases which cleave DNA at specific sites
2. Make DNA complementary to an existing DNA or RNA
3. Cut or join DNA fragments
4. Are required in vector-less direct gene transfer

Answer. 1. Are endonucleases which cleave DNA at specific sites

Question 99. DNA fingerprinting refers to

1. Techniques used for the identification of fingerprints of individuals
2. Molecular analysis of profiles of DNA samples
3. Analysis of DNA samples using imprinting devices
4. Techniques used for molecular analysis of different specimens of DNA

Answer. 2. Molecular analysis of profiles of DNA samples

Question 100. Restriction endonucleases

1. Are synthesized by bacteria as part of their defense compound
2. Are present in mammalian cells for degradation of DNA when the cell dies
3. Are used in genetic engineering for ligating two DNA molecules
4. Are used for in vitro DNA synthesis

Answer. 1. Are synthesized by bacteria as part of their defense compound

Question 101. What is the first step in the Southern blot technique?

1. Denaturation of DNA on the gel for hybridization with specific probe.
2. Production of a group of genetically identical cells.
3. Digestion of DNA by restriction enzyme.
4. Isolation of DNA from a nucleated cell such as the one from the scene of crime.

Answer. 1. Denaturation of DNA on the gel for hybridization with specific probe.

Question 102. Which of the following is not produced by E. coli in lactose?

1. B-galactosidase
2. Thiogalactoside transacetylase
3. Lactose dehydrogenase
4. Lactose permease

Answer. 3. Lactose dehydrogenase

Question 103. The technique of transferring DNA fragment separated on agarose gel to a synthetic membrane such as nitrocellulose is known as

1. Northern blotting
2. Southern blotting
3. Western blotting
4. Dot blotting

Answer. 2. Southern blotting

Question 104. The production of a human protein in bacteria in genetic engineering is possible because

1. Bacterial cell can carry out RNA splicing reactions
2. The mechanism of gene regulation is identical in humans and bacteria
3. Human chromosome can replicate in bacterial cell
4. Genetic code is universal

Answer. 4. Genetic code is universal

Question 105. Electroporation procedure involves

1. Fast passage of food through sieve pores in phloem elements with the help of electric stimulation
2. Opening of stomatal pores during night by artificial light
3. Making transient pores in the cell membrane to introduce gene constructs
4. Purification of saline water with the help of a membrane system

Answer. 3. Making transient pores in the cell membrane to introduce gene constructs

Question 106. The total number of nitrogenous bases in human genome is estimated to be about

1. 3.5 million
2. 35 thousand
3. 35 million
4. 3.1 billion

Answer. 4. 3.1 billion

Question 107. Two microbes found to be very useful in genetic engineering are

1. Escherichia coli and Agrobacterium tumefaciens
2. Vibro cholerae and a tailed bacteriophage
3. Diplococcus sp. and Pseudomonas sp.
4. Crown gall bacterium and Caenorhabdits elegans

Answer. 1. Escherichia coli and Agrobacterium tumefaciens

Question 108. Restriction endonuclease

1. Cuts the DNA molecule randomly
2. Cuts the DNA molecule at specific sites
3. Restricts the synthesis of DNA inside the nucleus
4. Synthesizes DNA

Answer. 2. Cuts the DNA molecule at specific sites

Question 109. The restriction enzyme Eco RI has the property of

1. Endonuclease activity
2. Exonuclease activity
3. Ligation activity
4. Correcting the topology of replicating DNA

Answer. 1. Endonuclease activity

Question 110. DNA ligase is an enzyme that catalyzes the

1. Splitting of DNA threads into small bits
2. Joining of the fragments of DNA
3. Denaturation of DNA
4. Synthesis of DNA

Answer. 2. Joining of the fragments of DNA

Question 111. More advancement in genetic engineering is due to

1. Restriction endonuclease
2. Reverse transcriptase
3. Protease
4. Zymase

Answer. 1. Restriction endonuclease

Question 112. The function of PCR is

1. Translation
2. Transcription
3. DNA amplification
4. None of these

Answer. 3. DNA amplification

Question 113. Which of the following is used as the best genetic vector?

1. Bacillus thuriengenesis
2. Agrobacterium tumefaciens
3. Pseudomonas putida
4. All of these

Answer. 2. Agrobacterium tumefaciens

Question 114. The transfer of protein from electrophoretic gel to nitrocellulose membrane is known as

1. Transferase
2. Northern blotting
3. Western blotting
4. Southern blotting

Answer. 3. Western blotting

Question 115. DNA fingerprinting was first discovered by

1. Alec Jeffery
2. Cark Mullis
3. C. Milstein
4. Dr. Paul Berg

Answer. 1. Alec Jeffery

Question 116. Which of the following enzyme is used to join DNA fragments?

1. Terminase
2. Endonuclease
3. Ligase
4. DNA polymerase

Answer. 3. Ligase

Question 117. Restriction endonucleases are enzymes which

1. Make cuts at specific positions within the DNA molecule
2. Recognize a specific nucleotide sequence for binding of DNA ligase
3. Restrict the action of enzyme DNA polymerase
4. Remove nucleotides from the ends of the DNA molecule

Answer. 1. Make cuts at specific positions within the DNA molecule

Question 118. Satellite DNA is a useful tool in

1. Organ transplantation
2. Sex determination
3. Forensic science
4. Genetic engineering

Answer. 3. Forensic science

Question 119. PCR and restriction fragment length polymorphism are the methods for

1. Genetic transformation
2. DNA sequencing
3. Genetic fingerprinting
4. Study of enzymes

Answer. 3. Genetic fingerprinting

Question 120. Which one is a true statement regarding DNA polymerase used in PCR?

1. It serves as a selectable marker.
2. It is isolated from a virus.
3. It remains active at high temperature.
4. It is used to ligate introduced DNA in recipient cells.

Answer. 3. It remains active at high temperature.

Question 121. For transformation, microparticles coated with DNA to be bombarded with gene gun are made up of

1. Platinum or zinc
2. Silicon or platinum
3. Gold or tungsten
4. Silver or platinum

Answer. 3. Gold or tungsten

Question 122. A single strand of nucleic acid tagged with a radioactive molecule is called

1. Selectable marker
2. Plasmid
3. Probe
4. Vector

Answer. 3. Probe

Question 123. The following figure is the diagrammatic representation of the E. coli vector PBR 322. Which one of the given options correctly identifies its certain component(s)? 

1. rop-reduced osmotic pressure
2. Hind III, Eco RI-selectable markers
3. ampR, tetR-antibiotic resistance genes
4. ori-original restriction enzyme

Answer. 3. ampR, tetR-antibiotic resistance genes

Question 124. Which one of the following is a case of wrong matching?

1. Vector DNA: Site for tRNA synthesis
2. Micropropagation: In vitro production of plants in large numbers
3. Callus: Unorganized mass of cells produced in tissue culture
4. Somatic hybridization: Fusion of two diverse cells

Answer. 1. Vector DNA: Site for tRNA synthesis

Question 125. Biolistics (gene gun) is suitable for

1. Disarming pathogen vectors
2. Transformation of plant cells
3. Constructing recombinant DNA by joining with vectors
4. DNA fingerprinting

Answer. 3. Constructing recombinant DNA by joining with vectors

Question 126. In genetic engineering, the antibiotics are used

1. As selectable markers
2. To select healthy vectors
3. As sequences from where replication starts
4. To keep the cultures free of infection

Answer. 1. As selectable markers

Question 127. What is it that forms the basis of DNA fingerprinting?

1. The relative proportions of purines and pyrimidines in DNA.
2. The relative difference in the DNA occurrence in blood, skin, and saliva.
3. The relative amount of DNA in the ridges and grooves of fingerprints.
4. Satellite DNA occurring as highly repeated short DNA segments.

Answer. 4. Satellite DNA occurring as highly repeated short DNA segments.

Question 128. The following figure shows three steps (A)-(C) of PCR. Select the option giving correct identification together with what it represents?

Options:

1. B-Denaturation at a temperature of about 98°C separating the two DNA strands
2. A-Denaturation at a temperature of about 50°C
3. C-Extension in the presence of heat stable DNA polymerase
4. A-Annealing with two sets of primers

Answer. 3. C-Extension in the presence of heat stable DNA polymerase

Question 129. Which one of the following represents a palindromic sequence in DNA?

1. 5′-GAATTC-3′; 3′- CTTAAG-5′
2. 5′-CCATCC-3′; 3′-GAATCC-5′
3. 5′-CATTAG-3′; 3′-GATAAC-5′
4. 5′-GATACC-3′; 3′-CCTAAG-5′

Answer. 1. 5′-GAATTC-3′; 3′- CTTAAG-5′

Question 130. DNA fragments generated by restriction endonucleases in a chemical reaction can be separated by

1. Polymerase chain reaction
2. Electrophoresis
3. Restriction mapping
4. Centrifugation

Answer. 2. Electrophoresis

Question 131. The colonies of recombinant bacteria appear white in contrast to the blue colonies of non-recombinant bacteria because of

1. Insertional inactivation of alpha-galactosidase in non-recombinant bacteria
2. Insertional inactivation of alpha-galactosidase in recombinant bacteria
3. Inactivation of glycosidase enzyme in recombinant bacteria
4. Non-recombinant bacteria containing beta-galactosidase

Answer. 4. Non-recombinant bacteria containing beta-galactosidase

Microbes In Human Welfare Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. Partially degraded concentrate of milk fat and casein is called

1. Sour cream
2. Yoghurt
3. Cheese
4. Bread

Answer. 3. Cheese

Question 2. Indian curd is prepared by inoculating cream and skimmed milk with

1. Lactobacillus acidophilus
2. Leuconostoc cremoris
3. Lactobacillus bulgaricus
4. Streptococcus lactis

Answer. 1. Lactobacillus acidophilus

Question 3. The nutrient medium for beer is

1. Barley malt
2. Fermented rice.
3. Cashew-apple
4. Potato

Answer. 1. Barley malt

Question 4. Mark the incorrect option (with respect to distilled alcoholic beverages):

1. Wine
2. Brandy
3. Rum
4. Gin

Answer. 1. Wine

Question 5. Which of the following product is not obtained from fermented soya sauce?

1. Tempeh
2. Tofu
3. Sufu
4. Dosa

Answer. 4. Dosa

Question 6. Select the odd one out with respect to the source of antibiotics:

1. Bacteria
2. Lichen
3. Fungi
4. Seeded plants

Answer. 4. Seeded plants

Question 7. Which of the following enzymes is employed in the conversion of corn starch into fructose-rich corn syrup?

1. Amylases
2. Glucoamylases
3. Glucoisomerases
4. All are correct

Answer. 4. All are correct

Question 8. Statins are competitive inhibitors of

1. Streptokinase
2. HMG COA reductase
3. Pectinase
4. Cellulase

Answer. 2. HMG COA reductase

Question 9. Which of the following organic acid is used as a source of calcium for infants, cows, and lactating mothers?

1. Gluconic acid
2. Lactic acid
3. Citric acid
4. Acetic acid

Answer. 1. Gluconic acid

Question 10. Organic acid used in pharmaceuticals, coloring agents, and plastic industries is

1. Acetic acid
2. Citric acid
3. Lactic acid
4. Gluconic acid

Answer. 1. Acetic acid

Question 11. The first mycoherbicide of the world was obtained from

1. Trichoderma harzianum
2. Phytophthora palmivora
3. Cactoblastis cactorum
4. Pythium debaiyanum

Answer. 2. Phytophthora palmivora

Question 12. The concept of sustainable agriculture lies in

1. Minimizing biopesticides
2. A greater dependence on new crops
3. Least use of biofertilizers
4. Using spores of Bacillus thuringiensis for pest control

Answer. 4. Using spores of Bacillus thuringiensis for pest control

Question 13. Which of the following has been used for controlling sugarcane leaf hopper?

1. Predator bug
2. Bollworm
3. Praying mantis
4. Lady bug

Answer. 1. Predator bug

Question 14. Find the odd one out (with respect to bioherbicide):

1. Cactoblastis cactorum
2. Helianthus anus
3. Phytophthora palmivora
4. Cochliomyia

Answer. 4. Cochliomyia

Question 15. Sustainable agriculture does not include

1. Ecofriendly cropping
2. Green Revolution
3. IPM
4. Biological control

Answer. 2. Green Revolution

Question 16. Which of the following is included in biopesticide?

1. Viruses and bacteria only
2. Viruses, bacteria, and fungi only
3. Viruses, bacteria, fungi, protozoa, and mites
4. Viruses, bacteria, fungi, and protozoa only

Answer. 3. Viruses, bacteria, fungi, protozoa, and mites

Question 17. Biofertilizers include

1. Blue green algae, Rhizobium, other nitrogen-fixing bacteria, and mycorrhiza
2. Blue green algae, Trichoderma, Rhizobium, and other nitrogen-fixing bacteria
3. Rhizobium, other nitrogen-fixing bacteria, NPV, and mycorrhiza
4. Blue green algae, Rhizobium, Bt cotton, and mycorrhiza

Answer. 1. Blue green algae, Rhizobium, other nitrogen-fixing bacteria, and mycorrhiza

Question 18. Devine and Collego are two agricultural substances that are used as

1. Biofertilizers
2. Natural insecticides
3. Insect hormones
4. Bioherbicides

Answer. 4. Bioherbicides

Question 19. Ganga Action Plan for controlling pollution in Ganges started in

1. 1985
2. 1981
3. 1987
4. 1989

Answer. 1. 1985

Question 20. Which of the following statement is incorrect with respect to pectinases?

1. They are used in clearing of fruit juices.
2. They are used in chill-proofing beer and whisky.
3. They are obtained from Byssochlamys fulva.
4. They are used in retting of fibers.

Answer. 2. They are used in chill-proofing beer and whisky.

Question 21. The presence of E. coli in water indicates

1. Water is clear
2. Water is fully polluted
3. Inorganic pollution
4. Fecal pollution

Answer. 4. Fecal pollution

Question 22. In which stage of sewage treatment is desalination and chlorination of water done?

1. Primary treatment
2. Secondary treatment
3. Tertiary treatment
4. Both (1) and (2)

Answer. 3. Tertiary treatment

Question 23. Eutrophication in water bodies leads to

1. High DO
2. Low BOD
3. Low DO
4. Optimum dissolved oxygen

Answer. 3. Low DO

Question 24. Which of the following is not used in the treatment of polluted water?

1. Activated carbon
2. Trickling filter method
3. Cyclone collector
4. Activated sludge method

Answer. 3. Cyclone collector

Question 25. The greater BOD of waste water

1. Increases oxygen content of water
2. Decreases oxygen content of water
3. Relates the decrease of temperature of water
4. All of these

Answer. 2. Decreases oxygen content of water

Question 26. Microbes that cannot be cultured in cell-free extracts are

1. Bacteria
2. Fungi
3. Viruses
4. Algae

Answer. 3. Viruses

Question 27. Most of the antibiotics are obtained from

1. Actinomycetes
2. Eubacteria
3. Ray fungi
4. Both (1) and (3)

Answer. 4. Both (1) and (3)

Question 28. LAB stands for

1. Lactic acid bacteria
2. Lactobacillus acidophilus bacteria
3. Lactose acetaldehyde bacteria
4. Laboratory

Answer. 1. Lactic acid bacteria

Question 29. Which of the following is responsible for yoghurt formation?

a. Streptococcus thermophilus

b. Lactobacillus acidophilus

c. Lactobacillus bulgaricus

d. Streptococus cremoris

1. (a), (b), (c)
2. (a), (d), (c)
3. (a), (c)
4. (a), (d)

Answer. 3. (a), (c)

Question 30. The fermented food of soybean is

1. Tempeh
2. Tofu
3. Sufu
4. All of these

Answer. 4. All of these

Question 31. Which of the following is not a symbiotic nitrogen fixing bacterium?

1. Clostridium
2. Rhizobium leguminosarum
3. Yeast
4. Mycobacterium

Answer. 1. Clostridium

Question 32. Biogas contains

1. 30-40% methane
2. 50-70% CO2
3. 50-70% methane
4. 20% methane

Answer. 3. 50-70% methane

Question 33. Citric acid is obtained from all, except

1. Aspergillus niger
2. Mucor
3. Methanogens
4. Mortierella

Answer. 4. Mortierella

Question 34. Antibiotic obtained from lichens is

1. Neomycin
2. Usnic acid
3. Polymixin
4. Viridin

Answer. 2. Usnic acid

Question 35. Which bacterium is used in bioremidiation process?

1. Rhizobium sp.
2. Pseudomonas pudita
3. Bacillus licheniformis
4. Streptococci

Answer. 2. Pseudomonas pudita

Question 36. CDRI is located in

1. Lucknow
2. Kanpur
3. Delhi
4. Karnal

Answer. 1. Lucknow

Question 37. Viridin antibiotic is effective against

1. Bacteria
2. Fungi
3. Gram positive bacteria
4. Gram negative bacteria

Answer. 2. Fungi

Question 38. Which fungal extract was extensively used in treating wounded American soldiers in World War II?

1. Streptomycin
2. Penicillin
3. Aflatoxin
4. Gluconic acid

Answer. 2. Penicillin

Question 39. Dosa and idli are the fermented preparations of rice and black gram. Fermentation is done with

1. Leuconostoc
2. Streptococcus
3. Saccharomyces
4. More than one option is correct

Answer. 4. More than one option is correct

Question 40. Wine yeast is

1. Saccharomyces effipsoidens
2. S. sake
3. S. pireformis
4. S. cerevisiae

Answer. 1. Saccharomyces effipsoidens

Question 41. Amylases are employed for all, except

1. Softening of bread
2. Clearing of turgidity in juices
3. Preparation of cheese
4. Desizing of textile fibers

Answer. 3. Preparation of cheese

Question 42. The derivatives of gluconic acid are used as a source of

1. Calcium
2. Iron
3. Glucose
4. Fat

Answer. 1. Calcium

Question 43. The first step in biogas production is carried out with the help of

1. Obligate aerobes
2. Decomposers
3. Frankia
4. Detritivores

Answer. 2. Decomposers

Question 44. Rotenone, a natural insecticide, is obtained from

1. Azadirachta indica
2. Derris sp.
3. Bacillus thuringiensis
4. Phytophthora palmivora

Answer. 2. Derris sp.

Question 45. Fermented beverage with maximum alcohol content is

1. Beer
2. Brandy
3. Whisky
4. Gin

Answer. 2. Brandy

Question 46. Find the correct match:

Column 1                                                                     Column 2

a. Streptomyces venezuelae                                    (1) Neomycin

b. Streptomyces rimosus                                        (2) Gentamycin

c. Micromonosperma purpurea                             (3) Chloramphenicol/ Chloromycetin

d. Streptomyces fradiae                                         (4) Oxytetracycline/ Terramycin

1. a (4), b (3), c (2), d (1)
2. a (4), b (2), c (3), d (1)
3. a (3), b (4), c (1), d (2)
4. a (3), b (4), c (2), d (1)

Answer. 4. a (3), b (4), c (2), d (1)

Question 47. Rennin used in cheese industry is

1. Antibiotic
2. Enzyme
3. Alkaloid
4. Inhibitor

Answer. 2. Enzyme

Question 48. A compound which is produced by an organism and inhibits the growth of other organisms is called

1. Antibody
2. Antigen
3. Anti-allergic
4. Antibiotic

Answer. 4. Antibiotic

Question 49. Genetically engineered bacteria have been used in the commercial production of

1. Thyroxine
2. Testosterone
3. Human insulin
4. Melatonium

Answer. 3. Human insulin

Question 50. For biogas production, besides dung, which of the following is used as manure?

1. Eichhornia
2. Parthenium
3. Glycine
4. Arachis

Answer. 1. Eichhornia

Question 51. The bioconcentration of DDT in the body fat of Indians is

1. 18-36 ppm
2. 5-10 ppm
3. 13-31 ppm
4. 2-5 ppm

Answer. 3. 13-31 ppm

Question 52. DDT is a/an

1. Organochlorine
2. Organophosphate
3. Carbamate
4. Pyrethroid

Answer. 1. Organochlorine

Question 53. Biopesticides include

1. Only bioinsecticide
2. Only bioherbicide
3. Bioinsecticide and bioherbicide
4. Bioherbicide, bioinsecticide, and biofertilizers

Answer. 3. Bioinsecticide and bioherbicide

Question 54. Which of the following pairs serve as biofertilizers?

1. Albugo and lichen
2. Frankia and Nostoc
3. Pseudomonas and E. coli
4. Spirogyra and Mucor

Answer. 2. Frankia and Nostoc

Question 55. The most famous pesticide of the world is

1. Methyl isocyanate
2. DDT
3. Malathion
4. BHC

Answer. 2. DDT

Question 56. Which of the following plant is used as green manure?

1. Crotalaria juncea
2. Vigna sinensis
3. Barseem
4. All the above

Answer. 4. All the above

Question 57. Which of the following statement is incorrect about DDT?

1. DDT is a pesticide, which is an organochlorine.
2. It is lipophilic and non-biodegradable.
3. Milk is a good carrier of DDT.
4. DDT does not undergo bioconcentration when it enters in food chain.

Answer. 4. DDT does not undergo bioconcentration when it enters in food chain.

Question 58. The first inorganic pesticide to be used commercially was

1. Bordeaux mixture
2. Burgandy mixture
3. DDT
4. 2-4D

Answer. 1. Bordeaux mixture

Question 59. VAM is important for

1. Breaking of dormancy
2. Phosphate nutrition
3. Water uptake
4. Retarding flowering
5. Decrease in yield

Answer. 2. Phosphate nutrition

Question 60. Besides dung, the weed that can be used in biogas production is

1. Hydrilla
2. Solanum nigrum
3. Eichhornia crassipes
4. Parthenium hysterophorus
5. All of these

Answer. 2. Solanum nigrum

Question 61. Which one is a neem product used as insect repellent?

1. Azardirachtin
2. Rotenone
3. Parathione
4. Endrin

Answer. 1. Azardirachtin

Question 62. The enzyme that converts glucose into alcohol is

1. Lipase
2. Zymase
3. Diastase
4. Invertase

Answer. 2. Zymase

Question 63. Which one of the following statements is correct?

1. Cyanobacteria such as Anabaena and Nostoc are important mobilizers of phosphates and potassium for plant nutrition in soil.
2. At present, it is not possible to grow maize without chemical fertilizers.
3. Extensive use of chemical fertilizers may lead to eutrophication of nearby water bodies.
4. Both Azotobacter and Rhizobium fix atmospheric nitrogen in the root nodules of plants.

Answer. 3. Extensive use of chemical fertilizers may lead to eutrophication of nearby water bodies.

Question 64. DDT residues are rapidly passed through food chain causing biomagnification because DDT is

1. Water soluble
2. Lipo soluble
3. Moderately toxic
4. Non-toxic to aquatic animals

Answer. 2. Lipo soluble

Question 65. The term “antibiotic” was coined by

1. Alexander Fleming
2. S. Waksman
3. Louis Pasteur
4. Edward Jenner

Answer. 2. S. Waksman

Question 66. The antibiotic Terramycin is obtained from

1. Streptomyces griseus
2. Streptomyces ramosus
3. Streptomyces venezuelae
4. Clostridium botulinum

Answer. 2. Streptomyces ramosus

Question 67. Which one of the following is not true about antibiotics?

1. The first antibiotic was discovered by Alexander Fleming.
2. The term “antibiotic” was coined by S. Waksman in 1942.
3. Some persons can be allergic to a particular antibiotic.
4. Each antibiotic is effective only against one particular kind of germ.

Answer. 4. Each antibiotic is effective only against one particular kind of germ.

Question 68. Penicillin is obtained from

1. Aspergillus fumigatus
2. Penicillium chrysogenum
3. Penicillium griseofulvum
4. Streptomyces griseus

Answer. 2. Penicillium chrysogenu

Question 69. Antibiotic flavicin is obtained from

1. Aspergillus fumigatus
2. Aspergillus flavus
3. Streptomyces griesus
4. Streptomyces fradiae

Answer. 2. Aspergillus flavus

Question 70. Cyclosporin-an immunosuppressive drug-is produced by

1. Aspergillus niger
2. Manascus purpureus
3. Penicillium notatum
4. Trichoderma polysporum

Answer. 4. Trichoderma polysporum

Question 71. A sewage treatment process in which a part of decomposer bacteria present in the waste is recycled into the starting of the process is called

1. Cyclic treatment
2. Activated sludge treatment
3. Primary treatment
4. Tertiary treatment

Answer. 2. Activated sludge treatment

Question 72. When domestic sewage mixes with water,

1. Small animals such as rats will die after drinking river water
2. The increased microbial activity releases micronutrients such as iron
3. The increased microbial activity uses up dissolved oxygen
4. The river water is still suitable for drinking as impurities are only about 0.1%

Answer. 3. The increased microbial activity uses up dissolved oxygen

Question 73. Which one of the following is used as biological insecticide?

1. Tiger beetle
2. Caterpillar
3. Silk moth
4. Majra Poka

Answer. 1. Tiger beetle

Question 74. Biogas production is carried out by

1. Thermoacidophiles
2. Methanogens
3. Halophiles
4. Luminants

Answer. 2. Methanogens

Question 75. Biogas produced by the fermentation of manure, sewage, cattle dung, etc., predominantly comprises

1. Methane, nitrogen, and hydrogen
2. Methane and carbon dioxide
3. Methane and carbon monoxide
4. Methane and nitric oxide

Answer. 2. Methane and carbon dioxide

Question 76. Which one of the following is an example of carrying out biological control of pests/diseases using microbes?

1. Nucleopolyhedrovirus against white rust in Brassica.
2. Bt-cotton to increase cotton yield.
3. Lady bird beetle against aphids in mustard.
4. Trichodrma sp. against certain plant pathogens.

Answer. 4. Trichodrma sp. against certain plant pathogens.

Question 77. Green Revolution in India occurred during

1. 1960’s
2. 1970’s
3. 1980’s
4. 1950’s

Answer. 1. 1960’s

Question 78. In gobar gas, the maximum amount is of

1. Butane
2. Methane
3. Propane
4. Carbon dioxide

Answer. 2. Methane

Question 79. Domestic sewage in large cities

1. Has a high BOD as it contains both aerobic and anaerobic bacteria
2. Is processed by aerobic and then anaerobic bacteria in the secondary treatment in sewage treatment plants (STPs)
3. When treated in STPS does not really require the aeration step as the sewage contains adequate oxygen.
4. Has very high amounts of suspended solids and dissolved salts

Answer. 4. Has very high amounts of suspended solids and dissolved salts

Question 80. During sewage treatment, biogas is produced which includes

1. Methane, oxygen, and hydrogen sulfide
2. Hydrogen sulfide, methane, and sulfur dioxide
3. Hydrogen sulfide, nitrogen, and methane
4. Methane, hydrogen sulfide, and carbon dioxide

Answer. 3. Hydrogen sulfide, nitrogen, and methane

Question 81. A good producer of citric acid is

1. Pseudomonas
2. Clostridium
3. Saccharomyces
4. Aspergillus

Answer. 3. Saccharomyces

Strategies For Enhancement In Food Production Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. Babesia bigemina causes

1. Rhinderpest
2. Tick fever
3. Anthrax
4. Diarrhea

Answer. 2. Tick fever

Question 2. A viral disease of poultry is

1. Coryza
2. New castle disease
3. Pasteurellosis
4. Salmonellosis

Answer. 2. New castle disease

Question 3. Bull semen for artificial insemination is stored in

1. Ice
2. Liquid carbon dioxide
3. Liquid oxygen
4. Liquid nitrogen

Answer. 4. Liquid nitrogen

Question 4. Zebu is

1. Bos indicus
2. Gallus gallus
3. Bubalus bubalus
4. Bombyx mori

Answer. 1. Bos indicus

Question 5. A disease of poultry is

1. Anthrax
2. Ranikhet
3. Foot and mouth disease
4. Pébrine

Answer. 2. Ranikhet

Question 6. One of the earliest animals to be domesticated was

1. Cow
2. Sheep
3. Dog
4. Elephant

Answer. 3. Dog

Question 7. The approximate number of cattle breeds in India is

1. 6
2. 16
3. 12
4. 26

Answer. 4. 26

Question 8. Jaffrabadi is a breed of

1. Sheep
2. Cattle
3. Horse
4. Buffalo

Answer. 4. Buffalo

Question 9. Lactation in sterile cows is induced by

1. Gonadotropin
2. Folic acid
3. Oxytocin
4. Stilbesterol

Answer. 4. Stilbesterol

Question 10. A draught breed of cattle is

1. Gir
2. Malvi
3. Deoni
4. Kankrej

Answer. 2. Malvi

Question 11. Surrogate mother is used for

1. Future mother with transplanted embryo
2. Artificial insemination
3. Induction of lactation
4. Artificially inseminated female

Answer. 1. Future mother with transplanted embryo

Question 12. National Dairy Research Institute is situated in

1. Lucknow
2. Patna
3. Karnal
4. Ludhiana

Answer. 3. Karnal

Question 13. Which of the following country is the lowest in milk yield per cow?

1. India
2. UK
3. Switzerland
4. Netherlands

Answer. 1. India

Question 14. Draught breeds produce

1. Good milk producing cows
2. Good working bullocks
3. Both (1) and (2)
4. General utility cattle

Answer. 2. Good working bullocks

Question 15. Super ovulation and embryo transplantation are meant for improving

1. Poultry
2. Human race
3. Livestock
4. Plants

Answer. 3. Livestock

Question 16. High milk-yielding varieties of cows are obtained by

1. Artificial insemination
2. Super ovulation
3. Use of surrogate mothers
4. All of these

Answer. 4. All of these

Question 17. MOET is a method of

1. Fish cultivation
2. Cloning in sheep
3. Hybridization in cattles
4. Birth control in humans

Answer. 3. Hybridization in cattles

Question 18. Gestation period for buffalo is

1. 9 months
2. 14 months
3. 10 months
4. 21-22 months

Answer. 3. 10 months

Question 19. The best milk breed in the world is

1. Sahiwal
2. Deani
3. Holstein Friesian
4. Sindhi

Answer. 3. Holstein Friesian

Question 20. The disease rinderpest is also called

1. Blue tongue
2. Cattle plague
3. Ring worm
4. Both (1) and (3)

Answer. 2. Cattle plague

Question 21. Which of the following breed of buffaloes is mostly demanded?

1. Surti
2. Murrah
3. Jaffrabadi
4. Bhadawari

Answer. 2. Murrah

Question 22. To increase the milk yield, Indian cows are cross-bred with European breeds which are

1. Holstein
2. Brown Swiss
3. Red Dane
4. All of these

Answer. 4. All of these

Question 23. Lohi is a breed of

1. Goat
2. Sheep
3. Horse
4. Buffalo

Answer. 2. Sheep

Question 24. Which of the following statement is correct for honey bees?

1. Queen is sterile haploid female.
2. Workers are diploid males and females.
3. Bee hive has four types of bees.
4. Drones are haploid fertile males.

Answer. 4. Drones are haploid fertile males.

Question 25. Apis dorsata refers to

1. Little bee
2. Indian bee
3. Rock bee
4. European bee

Answer. 3. Rock bee

Question 26. A queen honey bee lays eggs of

1. One type from which all castes develop
2. Two types, one forming queen and workers and second forming drones
3. Three types forming queen, drones, and workers
4. Unfertilized eggs die while fertilized ones form all castes

Answer. 2. Two types, one forming queen and workers and second forming drones

Question 27. Who amongst the following got a noble prize for decoding the language of “bee dances”?

1. Trembley
2. Wilson
3. Karl Von Frish
4. Morgan

Answer. 3. Karl Von Frish

Question 28. Honey bees exhibit a dance to communicate the location of food. It is

1. Break-dance
2. Wagging dance
3. Top dance
4. Round and wagging dance

Answer. 4. Round and wagging dance

Question 29. A colony of honey bee consists of

1. One queen and a few drones
2. One queen, 10-100 drones, and 20,000-60,000 workers
3. Two queens, 5-10 drones, and 20,000 workers
4. No queen, 10-20 drones, and 60,000 workers

Answer. 2. One queen, 10-100 drones, and 20,000-60,000 workers

Question 30. Honey is

1. Alkaline
2. Acidic
3. Almost neutral
4. Basic after some days

Answer. 3. Almost neutral

Question 31. Which among the following is the real product of honey bee?

1. Honey
2. Pollen
3. Bee wax
4. Propolis

Answer. 3. Bee wax

Question 32. Worker bees are

1. Fertile males
2. Fertile females
3. Sterile females
4. Sterile males

Answer. 3. Sterile females

Question 33. Rearing of bees is

1. Horticulture
2. Apiary
3. Apiculture
4. Poultry

Answer. 3. Apiary

Question 34. Honey mainly consists of

1. Monosaccharides
2. Disaccharides
3. Polysaccharides
4. Fats

Answer. 1. Monosaccharides

Question 35. Wax gland occurs in which honey bee?

1. Queen
2. Drones
3. Workers
4. Queen and workers

Answer. 3. Workers

Question 36. What is wrong about bee colony?

1. Sex determination is based on haplodiploidy.
2. Female dominated society.
3. Domesticated species are A. indica and A. mellifera.
4. Fertilized eggs develop into sterile females only.

Answer. 4. Fertilized eggs develop into sterile females only.

Question 37. The young chickens raised specifically for meat are called

1. Broilers
2. Cockerels
3. Pellets
4. Hen

Answer. 1. Broilers

Question 38. Ranikhet disease is connected with

1. Honey bee
2. Hens
3. Fishes
4. Pigs

Answer. 2. Hens

Question 39. Induced breeding is carried out in case of

1. Pisciculture
2. Apiculture
3. Sericulture
4. Lacculture

Answer. 1. Pisciculture

Question 40. The most common species of Indian jungle fowl is

1. Gallus lafayetti
2. Gallus sonneratti
3. Gallus gallus
4. Plymouth rock

Answer. 3. Gallus gallus

Question 41. Some improved cross-breed strains of poultry birds are

1. HH-260
2. IBL-80
3. B-77
4. All of these

Answer. 4. All of these

Question 42. Which amongst the following indigenous fowls is used in cock fighting and is called as Indian game?

1. Aseel
2. Busra
3. Chittagong
4. Ghagus

Answer. 1. Aseel

Question 43. Exotic breeds popularly used in our country are

1. White Leghorn and Rhode Island Red
2. Rhode Island Red and Andalusian
3. Plymouth Rock and Andalusian
4. White Leghom and Andalusian

Answer. 1. White Leghorn and Rhode Island Red

Question 44. Three carp fishes, Catla, Labeo, and Cirrhina, can be grown together in the same pond more economically as they have

1. Positive interactions
2. Commensalism
3. Symbiosis
4. No competition for food

Answer. 4. No competition for food

Question 45. The best aquarium is located at

1. Vishakhapatnam
2. Chennai
3. Tarapur, Mumbai
4. ZSI, Kolkata

Answer. 3. Tarapur, Mumbai

Question 46. Inland fisheries are

1. Deep sea fishing
2. Capturing fishes from sea coast
3. Raising and capturing fishes in fresh water
4. Oil extraction from fish

Answer. 3. Raising and capturing fishes in fresh water

Question 47. Pisciculture is the rearing and production of

1. Fishes
2. Birds
3. Reptiles
4. Wool yielding animals

Answer. 1. Fishes

Question 48. Crustacean fishery is connected with the exploitation of

1. Oysters and crabs
2. Mussels and squids
3. Shells and cuttle fish
4. Lobster and prawn

Answer. 4. Lobster and prawn

Question 49. Ponds are used for rearing

1. Spawns
2. Fingerlings
3. Frils
4. Juveniles

Answer. 2. Fingerlings

Question 50. VHS (viral hemorrhagic septicemia) is a well known infectious disease of

1. Honey bees
2. Silk worm
3. Fishes
4. Poultry birds

Answer. 3. Fishes

Question 51. Tick mark the incorrect match with respect to infectious diseases:

1. Coryza-Poultry birds
2. Pébrine-Silk worm
3. IPN (infectious pancreatic necrosis)-Fishes
4. Muscardine-Honey bees

Answer. 4. Muscardine-Honey bees

Question 52. Fish meat is better than the meat of other animals because it contains more

1. Water
2. Fat
3. Oil
4. Proteins

Answer. 4. Proteins

Question 53. The latest technique to produce the child is GIFT. The full form is

1. Gametic internal fertilization and transfer
2. Gametic intra fallopian transfer
3. Gametic internal fallopian transfer
4. General internal fallopian transfer

Answer. 2. Gametic intra fallopian transfer

Question 54. Which one is a fungal disease in silkworm?

1. Flacherie
2. Maggot disease
3. Muscardine
4. None of these

Answer. 3. Muscardine

Question 55. Hybrid breed of cattle is

1. Sunandini
2. Holstein
3. Brown Swiss
4. Kankrej

Answer. 1. Sunandini

Question 56. Livestock refers to

1. Pet animals
2. Poultry and pet animals
3. Domestic animals which are kept for use or profit
4. Sheep and goat only

Answer. 3. Domestic animals which are kept for use or profit

Question 57. Cattle breeds in India are classified into

1. Milch and draught breeds
2. Draught and general utility breed
3. Milch, draught, and general utility breeds
4. General utility and milch breeds

Answer. 3. Milch, draught, and general utility breeds

Question 58. Tick mark the incorrect match:

1. Gir, Red Sindhi, and Deoni-Milch breeds
2. Malvi, Nagari, and Halliker-Draught breeds
3. Haryana, Ongole, and Kankrej-Draught breeds
4. Tharparkar, Kankraj, and Ongole-General utility breeds

Answer. 3. Haryana, Ongole, and Kankrej-Draught breeds

Question 59. An improved variety of cattle produced by controlled breeding in our country is

1. Jersey
2. Ayrshire
3. Brown Swiss-Sahiwal
4. Red Dane

Answer. 3. Brown Swiss-Sahiwal

Question 60. Which of the following is a disease-resistant high-yielding breed of poultry developed in Karnataka?

1. Aseel
2. White leghorn
3. Giriraja
4. Plymouth rock

Answer. 1. Aseel

Question 61. The scientific name of zebu is

1. Bos indicus
2. Bombyx mori
3. Bubalus bubalus
4. Gallus gallus

Answer. 1. Bos indicus

Question 62. Fish introduced in India by foreigners is

1. Labeo rohita
2. Pomphret
3. Clarius
4. Mystus singhala

Answer. 2. Pomphret

Question 63. New strains of bird flu virus originate in the Far East because

1. They are overpopulated areas
2. They lack adequate sanitation
3. The various hosts (birds, pigs, and ducks) live in close proximity of man
4. They arise due to mutation

Answer. 3. The various hosts (birds, pigs, and ducks) live in close proximity of man

Question 64. Avian pneumonia is also called

1. Bird flu
2. Newcastle’s disease (Ranikhet disease)
3. Pullorum
4. Coccidiosis

Answer. 2. Newcastle’s disease (Ranikhet disease)

Question 65. Babesia species causes tick fever in which of the following?

A. Cattle (cow and buffalo)

B. Dogs

C.Birds

D. Man

1. (A) only
2. (A) and (B)
3. (A), (B), and (C)
4. (A), (B), (C), and (D)

Answer. 4. (A), (B), (C), and (D)

Question 66. Which of the following animal diseases is caused by a virus?

1. Anthrax
2. Rinderpest
3. Tick fever
4. Coccidiosis

Answer. 2. Rinderpest

Question 67. Following are the steps in the MOET program for herd improvement, in which a cow has been administered hormones with FSH-like activity. What is the correct sequence of steps from A to D?

A. Instead of one egg which it normally produces per cycle, the female cow with hormones injected in it produces 6 to 8 eggs.

B. Transferred to surrogate mother.

C. It is either mated with elite bull or is artificially inseminated.

D. Fertilized eggs at 8-32 celled stage are recovered non-surgically.

1. (A), (C), (D), (B)
2. (C), (A), (B), (D)
3. (C), (A), (D), (B)
4. (A), (C), (B), (D)

Answer. 1. (A), (C), (D), (B)

Question 68. In which part of the body honey bee keeps the nectar for some time?

1. Crop
2. Mouth
3. Gizzard
4. Pollen basket

Answer. 1. Crop

Question 69. Honey has a high content of

1. Levulose
2. Glucose
3. Sucrose
4. Fructose

Answer. 1. Levulose

Question 70. The term “livestock” means

1. Domestic animals
2. Poultry animals
3. Pet animals
4. Both (2) and (3)

Answer. 1. Domestic animals

Question 71. Worker honey bee lives for

1. One week
2. Five weeks
3. Ten weeks
4. Fifteen days

Answer. 2. Five weeks

Question 72. The study of fishes is called

1. Ornithology
2. Herpetology
3. Ichthyology
4. Conchology

Answer. 3. Ichthyology

Question 73. Fish culture is called

1. Pisciculture
2. Aquaculture
3. Apiculture
4. Inland fisheries

Answer. 1. Pisciculture

Question 74. Which of the following is a freshwater edible fish?

1. Ele
2. Rohu
3. Hilsa
4. Sardine

Answer. 2. Rohu

Question 75. Inland fisheries means the culturing of fishes in

1. Sea
2. Space
3. Fresh water
4. Marine water

Answer. 3. Fresh water

Question 76. Which of the following is a marine fish?

1. Eel
2. Catla
3. Rohu
4. Magur

Answer. 1. Eel

Question 77. If a honey bee is conveying an information by round dance, then the distance of source will be about

1. 1000 m
2. 50 m
3. 2000 m
4. 150 m

Answer. 2. 50 m

Question 78. Fish rohu widely used for high biological values is rich in

1. Thymine, creatine, and tryosine
2. Lecithin and cholesterol
3. Vitamins B, C, D, and E
4. All of the above

Answer. 4. All of the above

Question 79. Honey bee is of the greatest use to man due to which reason?

1. We get honey from it.
2. Helps in cross-pollination.
3. Because of medicinal value.
4. Entertains.

Answer. 2. Helps in cross-pollination.

Question 80. Inland fisheries is

1. Deep sea fishing
2. Capturing fishes from sea coast
3. Raising and capturing fishes in fresh water
4. Oil extraction from fish

Answer. 3. Raising and capturing fishes in fresh water

Question 81. In poultry, “broiler finish mash” is fed to the chicks from _________ weeks.

1. 1 to 6
2. 7 to 10
3. 10 to 15
4. 15 to 20

Answer. 1. 1 to 6

Question 82. Milk yield of cattle in India is low due to

1. Inadequate food
2. Inferior breed
3. Both of these
4. None of these

Answer. 3. Both of these

Question 83. Whose milk is nutritionally superior?

1. Cow
2. Camel
3. Goat
4. Buffalo

Answer. 4. Buffalo

Question 84. Fish meat is considered to be good because

1. It has more proteins
2. It has more fats
3. It has lesser carbohydrates
4. None of the above

Answer. 1. It has more proteins

Question 85. Frieswal is a cross-breed of

1. Brown Swiss and Sahiwal
2. Tharparkar and Holstein-Friesian
3. Holstein-Friesian x Sahiwal
4. Jersey Sahiwal

Answer. 3. Holstein-Friesian x Sahiwal

Question 86. In poultry, coccidiosis is caused by

1. Virus
2. Fungus
3. Helminth parasite
4. Protozoan

Answer. 4. Protozoan

Question 87. Animal husbandry is

1. Agricultural practice of breeding and raising the livestock
2. Dealing with care and breeding of livestock such as buffaloes, cows, pigs, horses, sheep, and goat.
3. A vital skill for farmers and is as much science as it is an art
4. All of these

Answer. 4. All of these

Question 88. Hisardale, a new breed of sheep developed in Punjab by crossing Bikaneri ewes and Marino rams, is an example of

1. Outcrossing
2. Cross-breeding
3. Interspecific hybridization
4. Outbreeding

Answer. 2. Cross-breeding

Question 89. Inbreeding depression can be overcome by

1. Mating of animals of same breed, but having no common ancestors on either side of their pedigree upto 4-6 generations
2. Mating males of one breed with superior females of another breed
3. Interspecific hybridization
4. All of these

Answer. 1. Mating of animals of same breed, but having no common ancestors on either side of their pedigree upto 4-6 generations

Question 90. The most common species of honey bee reared in hives is

1. Apis florea
2. Apis dorsata
3. Apis indica
4. Apis mellifera

Answer. 3. Apis indica

Question 91. Which of the following industry is devoted to the catching, processing, or selling of fish, shellfish, or other aquatic animals?

1. Aquaculture
2. Inland fishery
3. Fishery
4. Pisciculture

Answer. 3. Fishery

Question 92. Which of the following are edible marine water fishes?

1. Catla, Rohu, Clarias
2. Hilsa, Mackerels, Pompfrets
3. Heteropneustes, Wallago, Catla
4. Labeo, Calbasu, Singhi

Answer. 2. Hilsa, Mackerels, Pompfrets

Question 93. Which of the following points are important for successful bee-keeping?

1. Knowledge of the nature and habits of bees
2. Catching and hiving swarms
3. Management of bee-hives during different seasons
4. All of these

Answer. 4. All of these

Question 94. Isinglass in used for

1. Production of insulin
2. Feeding cattle, pig, and poultry
3. Preparation of paints and varnishes
4. Clarification of vinegar, wines, and beer

Answer. 4. Clarification of vinegar, wines, and beer

Question 95. Cod liver oil is rich in

1. Vitamin 8
2. Vitamin K
3. Vitamins A and D
4. Vitamin C

Answer. 3. Vitamins A and D

Question 96. Smoking is used as a techniques of

1. Fish preservation
2. Mushroom cultivation
3. Crystallization of sugar
4. Crop harvesting

Answer. 1. Fish preservation

Question 97. The term aquaculture means

1. Inland fisheries
2. Aspergillosis
3. Marine fisheries
4. Both (1) and (3)

Answer. 4. Both (1) and (3)

Question 98. Which of the following is not true?

1. Fish meal is rich source of protein for cattle and poultry.
2. Fish meal is produced from the non-edible parts of fishes.
3. Silver revolution is increase in fish production.
4. Shagreen is the skin of shark.

Answer. 3. Silver revolution is increase in fish production.

Question 99. Fish flour is rich in

1. Fat
2. Proteins
3. Vitamins
4. Minerals

Answer. 2. Proteins

Question 100. An improved variety is

1. Always superior to the other existing varieties
2. Always inferior to the other existing varieties
3. May be superior to the other existing varieties
4. More than one answer is correct

Answer. 1. Always superior to the other existing varieties

Question 101. A pure line is obtained through

1. Mass selection
2. Clonal selection
3. Domestication
4. Inbreeding

Answer. 4. Inbreeding

Question 102. Pure line variety of wheat is

1. Sonara 63
2. Sonara 64
3. HUW 468
4. All of these

Answer. 3. HUW 468

Question 103. Wheat variety which was earlier resistant to leaf rust disease but now has become susceptible to the same is known as

1. Kalyan Sona
2. Lerma Rojo
3. Sonara 64
4. Sarbati

Answer. 1. Kalyan Sona

Question 104. Picking up cross-pollinating plants with superior phenotype for further propagation is

1. Mass selection
2. Pure line selection
3. Hybrid vigor
4. Introduction

Answer. 1. Mass selection

Question 105. Emasculation (removal of anthem) is required for

1. Pure lines
2. Selective hybridization
3. Self-pollination
4. Inbreeding

Answer. 2. Selective hybridization

Question 106. Which was first Indian dwarf amber grained variety of wheat made from Sonora 64 by rays?

1. Sonalika
2. Sharbati Sonora
3. Kalyan Sona
4. HUW-468

Answer. 2. Sharbati Sonora

Question 107. The evaluation of a new variety in India is done by

1. IARI
2. IVRI
3. ICAR
4. RRI

Answer. 3. ICAR

Question 108. Gene responsible for dwarfing in wheat is

1. Dee-geo-woo-gen
2. Norin-10
3. Cry gene
4. Nod gene

Answer. 2. Norin-10

Question 109. The crop in which hybrid vigor has been utilized the most is

1. Rice
2. Maize
3. Barley
4. Oat

Answer. 2. Maize

Question 110. Which of the following is a chemical mutagen?

1. Ethyl methane sulfonate and X rays
2. Sodium azide and UV rays
3. Ethyl methane sulfonate and sodium azide
4. X rays, gamma rays, and UV rays

Answer. 3. Ethyl methane sulfonate and sodium azide

Question 111. Scented basmati rice is the contribution of

1. Dr. Borlaug
2. Dr. B.P. Paul
3. Dr. M.S. Swaminathan
4. Dr. A.K. Singh

Answer. 3. Dr. M.S. Swaminathan

Question 112. Which of the following is an example of intergeneric hybridization?

1. Triticale
2. Raphanobrassica
3. Gossypium hirsutum
4. More than one is correct

Answer. 4. More than one is correct

Question 113. The dwarf wheat varieties brought from Mexico to India were

1. Sonalika
2. Sharbati Sonara and Pusa Lerma
3. Sonara-64 and Lerma Rojo-64
4. Sonara-64 and Sonalika

Answer. 3. Sonara-64 and Lerma Rojo-64

Question 114. Maize is rich in

1. Thiamine
2. Lysine
3. Tryptophan
4. Alanine

Answer. 1. Thiamine

Question 115. Bread wheat is

1. Diploid
2. Tetraploid
3. Hexaploid
4. Triploid

Answer. 3. Hexaploid

Question 116. Antinutritional factor neurotoxic cyanoalanine is found in

1. Brassica oleracea
2. Almond
3. Seeds of khesari
4. Kidney bean

Answer. 3. Seeds of khesari

Question 117. Atlas 66 variety of wheat was developed for

1. High protein content
2. Scented grains
3. Checking grassy stunt virus
4. Vitamin C

Answer. 1. High protein content

Question 118. Viruses enter their host through

1. Wounds made by insect vectors
2. Natural openings
3. Direct penetration
4. Wounds made mechanically or by insect vectors

Answer. 3. Direct penetration

Question 119. Late blight of potato is caused by the fungus

1. Fusarium udum
2. Phytophthora infestans
3. Plasmopara viticola
4. Alternaria solani

Answer. 2. Phytophthora infestans

Question 120. Red rot of sugarcane is caused by

1. Anguina tritici
2. Meloidogyne incognita
3. Colletotrichum falcatum
4. Sugarcane mosaic virus

Answer. 3. Colletotrichum falcatum

Question 121. Turnip mosaic and black rot of crucifers are due to

1. Viruses and bacteria, respectively
2. Bacteria and viruses, respectively
3. Bacteria and nematodes, respectively
4. Virus and nematodes, respectively

Answer. 1. Viruses and bacteria, respectively

Question 122. Cereals and millets are mainly deficient in which amino acid?

1. Sulfur-containing amino acids-methionine and cysteine
2. Lysine
3. Tryptophan
4. Both (2) and (3)

Answer. 4. Both (2) and (3)

Question 123. The use of colchicines is involved in the production of

1. Somaclonal variation
2. Haploids
3. Polyploids
4. Hybrids

Answer. 3. Polyploids

Question 124. An important germplasm-storing center in India is

1. CDRI
2. FRI
3. ICRISAT
4. NEERI

Answer. 3. ICRISAT

Question 125. Clonal selection for crop improvement is done in

1. Aruna and NP 836
2. PV-18 and Kalyan Sona
3. HUW-468 and Atomita-2
4. Kufri Sated potato and Bombay Navel

Answer. 4. Kufri Sated potato and Bombay Navel

Question 126. The highest yielding grain crop of the world is

1. Maize
2. Barley
3. Wheat
4. Rice

Answer. 1. Maize

Question 127. Tissue culture is recommended for

1. Production of virus-free plants
2. Induction of polyploidy
3. Phytoremediation
4. Gene cloning

Answer. 1. Production of virus-free plants

Question 128. Which one of the following is a natural culture media?

1. Agar-agar
2. Coconut milk
3. Corn extract
4. All of these

Answer. 2. Coconut milk

Question 129. An embryoid is

1. Somatic embryo developed in culture
2. A microscopic embryo
3. A monozygotic embryo formed in in vitro culture
4. Haploid embryo

Answer. 1. Somatic embryo developed in culture

Question 130. Embryo culture is used for

1. Establishing suspension culture
2. Recovery of interspecific hybrids
3. Somatic hybridization
4. Haploid production

Answer. 2. Recovery of interspecific hybrids

Question 131. Protoplasts of two different cells can be made with the help of

1. Polyethylene glycol (PEG)
2. Calcium chloride
3. Sodium bicarbonate
4. HCI

Answer. 1. Polyethylene glycol (PEG)

Question 132. Protoplast fusion performs

1. Rapid growth of offspring
2. Somatic hybridization
3. Hybridization
4. Acclimatization

Answer. 2. Somatic hybridization

Question 133. A technique of androgenic haploid formation was developed by

1. Carlson et. al.
2. Guha and Maheshwari
3. Halperin and Wetherell
4. Steward et. al.

Answer. 2. Guha and Maheshwari

Question 134. An example of a somaclonal variation is

1. Bhikohin dye
2. Short crop duration in sugarcane
3. Male sterility
4. White rust resistance in crucifers

Answer. 2. Short crop duration in sugarcane

Question 135. Cybrid is a result of

1. Fusion of cytoplasm and nuclei of the two somatic cells
2. Fusion of cytoplasm of two somatic cells but the nuclei remain unfused
3. Fusion of cytoplasm of two somatic cells, but the nucleus of one cell persists and the nucleus of the second cell degenerates
4. Fusion of cytoplasm of two somatic cells, but one part of the nucleus of one cell fuses with the entire nucleus of the second cell

Answer. 3. Fusion of cytoplasm of two somatic cells, but the nucleus of one cell persists and the nucleus of the second cell degenerates

Question 136. Perfect homozygous individuals are produced by

1. Meristem culture
2. Anther culture
3. Protoplast culture
4. Somatic hybridization

Answer. 2. Anther culture

Question 137. Bomato is an example of

1. Parasexual hybrid
2. Interspecific hybrid
3. Sexual hybrid
4. Intrageneric hybrid

Answer. 1. Parasexual hybrid

Question 138. SOP has to be processed to remove excess of

1. Proteins
2. Nucleic acids
3. Minerals
4. Carbohydrates

Answer. 2. Nucleic acids

Question 139. Which one of the following is not an improved variety of flat bean?

1. Pusa Sem 2
2. Pusa Sem 3
3. Pusa Sawani
4. Both (1) and (2)

Answer. 3. Pusa Sawani

Question 140. Nagpuri buffalo is

1. Milker
2. Drought cattle
3. Dual purpose
4. Grazer

Answer. 1. Milker

Question 141. To increase milk yield, cow is given

1. Sorbitol
2. Stilbesterol
3. Prolactin
4. Gonadotrophin

Answer. 2. Stilbesterol

Question 142. The term aquaculture means

1. Inland fisheries
2. Aspergillosis
3. Marine fisheries
4. Both (1) and (3)

Answer. 4. Both (1) and (3)

Question 143. Fishes reared in the cultured fishery in India are

1. Salmon and Rohu
2. Salmon and Catla
3. Catla and Magur
4. Rohu and Catla

Answer. 4. Rohu and Catla

Question 144. The best milk breed in the world is

1. Chittagong
2. Deoni
3. Holstein-Friesian
4. Sindhi

Answer. 3. Holstein-Friesian

Question 145. Which one of the following is a disease of poultry?

1. Anthrax
2. Pebrine disease
3. Ranikhet disease
4. Foot and mouth disease

Answer. 3. Ranikhet disease

Question 146. The yellow-colored milk secreted by cattle soon after the birth of a calf is called

1. Chyme
2. Chyle
3. Cholesterol
4. Colostrum

Answer. 4. Colostrum

Question 147. Bee keeping is known as

1. Pearl culture
2. Pisciculture
3. Sericulture
4. Apiculture

Answer. 4. Apiculture

Question 148. The culturable fishes should

1. Have the ability to feed on natural as well as artificial food diet
2. Be able to tolerate a sudden change in climatic condition
3. Be omnivorous in nature
4. Be slow growing

Answer. 2. Be able to tolerate a sudden change in climatic condition

Question 149. Honey that has a high concentration of sugar does not decay because

1. It contains natural antioxidants that prevent bacterial attack
2. Bacteria cannot survive in an active state in a solution of high osmotic strength as water is drawn out of honey
3. In honey, bacteria are totally deprived of oxygen
4. None of the above

Answer. 1. It contains natural antioxidants that prevent bacterial attack

Question 150. The most commonly maintained species of bee by bee-keepers is

1. Apis mellifera
2. Apis dorsata
3. Apis indica
4. Apis florea

Answer. 1. Apis mellifera

Question 151. Which statement is correct?

1. A. indica is the largest wild honey bee.
2. Wax is the waste material of honey bee.
3. C.V. Fries discovered the transmission methods in honey bee.
4. The drone of honey bee is diploid.

Answer. 2. Wax is the waste material of honey bee.

Question 152. Which one of the following is a viral disease of poultry?

1. Coryza
2. Newcastle disease
3. Pasteurellosis
4. Salmonellosis

Answer. 2. Newcastle disease

Question 153. To yield milk, cow is given

1. Stilbestrol
2. Sorbitol
3. Gonadotropin
4. Prolactin

Answer. 4. Prolactin

Question 154. Pure line breed refers to

1. Heterozygosity only
2. Heterozygosity and linkage
3. Homozygosity only
4. Homozygosity and self-assortment

Answer. 3. Homozygosity only

Question 155. Cattle fed with spoilt hay of sweet clover which contains dicumarol

1. Are healthier due to a good diet
2. Catch infections easily
3. May suffer from vitamin K deficiency and prolonged bleeding
4. May suffer from beriberi due to the deficiency of vitamin B

Answer. 3. May suffer from vitamin K deficiency and prolonged bleeding

Question 156. Drones in a colony of honey bee originate by

1. Thelotoky
2. Cyclic parthenogenesis
3. Arrhenotoky
4. Diploid parthenogenesis

Answer. 3. Arrhenotoky

Question 157. In poultry industry, the production of hatching eggs is more expensive than the production of market eggs mainly because

1. The cost of males and their depreciation in value is high
2. The number of eggs produced by hatchery flock is to be sold only as market eggs
3. Mortality among females is usually lower when they are mated with males
4. Some of the eggs produced by hatchery flocks are not acceptable for incubation

Answer. 4. Some of the eggs produced by hatchery flocks are not acceptable for incubation

Question 158. In India, which of the following species of honey bee is reared in artificial hives?

1. Apis indica
2. Apis florea
3. Apis dorsata
4. None of these

Answer. 1. Apis indica

Question 159. A fungal disease of the poultry is

1. Coccidioss
2. Coryza
3. Moniliasis
4. Marck’s disease

Answer. 3. Moniliasis

Question 160. In a colony of honey bee family, there are

1. Lots of workers, one drone, one queen
2. Lots of workers, few drones, one queen
3. Few workers, few drones, one queen
4. Lots of workers, lots of drones, one queen

Answer. 2. Lots of workers, few drones, one queen

Question 161. Coccidiosis in poultry is caused by

1. Virus
2. Protozoa
3. Nematoda
4. Bacteria

Answer. 2. Protozoa

Question 162. The best milk breed in the world is

1. Chittagong
2. Deoni
3. Holstein-Friesian
4. Sindhi

Answer. 3. Holstein-Friesian

Question 163. Inland fisheries is

1. In freshwater
2. Fishing in island
3. Fish culture in pond
4. Fishing inside water

Answer. 1. In freshwater

Question 164. The drug used for de-worming in poultry is

1. Antihistamine
2. Antiviral
3. Antihelminthic
4. Antibiotic

Answer. 3. Antihelminthic

Question 165. High milk yielding cross-breed, the Frieswal cow, is a product of

1. Friesian and Sahiwal
2. Holstein and Tharpaikar
3. Brown Swiss and Sahiwal
4. Brown Swiss and Red Sindhi

Answer. 1. Friesian and Sahiwal

Question 166. Choose the minor carp from the following:

1. Labeo bata
2. Labeo calbasu
3. Cyprinus carpio
4. Ctenopharyngodon idella

Answer. 1. Labeo bata