Sainavle

NEET Biology – Biotechnology: Principles and Processes

Question 1. 3′-5′ exonucleolytic degradation of DNA is performed by which enzyme?

1. DNA polymerase
2. Alkaline phosphatase
3. DNA ligase
4. RNA polymerase

Answer. 1. DNA polymerase

Question 2. The technique of gel electrophoresis was developed by

1. Kary Mullis
2. J.S. Chamberlain
3. A. Tiselius
4. F. Sanger

Answer. 3. A. Tiselius

Question 3. Which of the following dyes can be used to visualize nucleic acid after electrophoresis?

1. Acridine orange
2. Ethidium bromide
3. Bromophenol blue
4. Both (1) and (2)

Answer. 4. Both (1) and (2)

Question 4. Which of the following bonds are formed by the action of DNA ligase?

1. Sugar-phosphate bond
2. Phosphodiester bond
3. Both (1) and (2)
4. Phosphate-phosphate bond

Answer. 3. Both (1) and (2)

Question 5. Who were responsible for the isolation of “methylase” kind of enzyme from E. coli in 1960’s?

1. Cohen and Boyer
2. Banting and Best
3. Linn and Arber
4. Smith and Wilcox

Answer. 3. Linn and Arber

Question 6. The specific sequence recognized by “molecular scissors” is called

1. Isomer
2. Isobar
3. Misnomer
4. Palindrome

Answer. 4. Palindrome

Question 7. When a piece of DNA is digested with Eco RI, what kind of ends are created?

1. Blunt ends
2. Flush ends
3. Cohesive ends
4. Non-staggered ends

Answer. 3. Cohesive ends

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Question 8. The sticky ends generated by the action of Eco RI on insert DNA facilitate the action of which enzyme?

1. DNA polymerase
2. Taq polymerase
3. Alkaline phosphatase
4. DNA ligase

Answer. 4. DNA ligase

Question 9. Which is incorrect with respect to DNA polymerase III?

1. It requires ATP for polymerase action.
2. It is required for PCR.
3. It is more active than DNA polymerases I and II.
4. It requires a pre-formed DNA template to work on.

Answer. 2. It is required for PCR.

Question 10. Which is not an application of modern biotechnology?

1. Production of humulin
2. Developing a DNA vaccine
3. Gene therapy
4. Production of cheese and butter

Answer. 4. Production of cheese and butter

Question 11. Which of the following cannot be related to biotechnology?

1. Integration of natural science and organisms.
2. Techniques to alter the chemistry of DNA.
3. Introducing undesirable genes into the target organism.
4. Maintenance of sterile ambience to enable the growth of only the desired microbes.

Answer. 3. Introducing undesirable genes into the target organism.

Question 12. Which of the following specific DNA sequence is responsible for initiating replication?

1. Vector site
2. Restriction enzymes action site
3. Ori site
4. Palindromic site

Answer. 3. Ori site

Question 13. Autonomously replicating, circular, extra chromosomal DNA of prokaryotic cell is called

1. Satellite DNA
2. Plasmid
3. Recombinant DNA
4. Nucleoid

Answer. 2. Plasmid

Question 14. Key tools to be involved in recombinant DNA technology are

A. Restriction enzymes

B. Polymerase enzyme

C. Ligase enzymes

D. Vectors

1. (A) only
2. (A) and (C) only
3. (A), (B), and (C)
4. (A), (B), (C), and (D)

Answer. 4. (A), (B), (C), and (D)

Question 15. The first restriction endonuclease to be discovered was

1. Hind II
2. Eco RI
3. Bam HI
4. Pst I

Answer. 1. Hind II

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Question 16. Approximately, how many restriction enzymes have been isolated from the different (over 230) strains of bacteria?

1. 300
2. 600
3. 750
4. 900

Answer. 4. 900

Question 17. The conventional method for naming restriction enzymes is followed. In case of Eco RI, the “R” indicates

1. Genus
2. Species
3. Name of the scientist
4. Strain

Answer. 4. Strain

Question 18. The restriction endonuclease enzyme binds to the DNA and cuts

1. Any one strand of the double helix
2. Each of the two strands at specific points in their base-sugar bonds
3. Each of the two strands at specific points in their base-phosphate bonds
4. Each of the two strands at specific points in their sugar-phosphate backbones

Answer. 4. Each of the two strands at specific points in their sugar-phosphate backbones

Question 19. During gel electrophoresis, for the separation of DNA fragment, the

1. Smallest fragment will move to the farthest point towards cathode
2. Smallest fragment will move to the farthest point towards anode
3. Largest fragment will move to the farthest point towards cathode
4. Largest fragment will move to the farthest point towards anode

Answer. 2. Smallest fragment will move to the farthest point towards anode

Question 20. After electrophoresis, the separated DNA fragment can be visualized in ethidium bromide gel exposed to UV light. These DNA fragments appear as _________ colored bands.

1. Orange
2. Blue
3. Silver
4. Green

Answer. 1. Orange

Question 21. The procedure through which a piece of DNA is introduced in a host bacterium is called

1. Cloning
2. Transformation
3. PCR
4. Clonal selection

Answer. 2. Transformation

Question 22. After completing the transformation experiment involving the coding sequence of enzyme a-galactosidase, the recombinant colonies should

1. Give blue color
2. Not give blue color
3. Have active α-galactosidase
4. Both (2) and (3)

Answer. 2. Not give blue color

Question 23. Which of the following has the ability to transform normal cells into cancerous cells in animals?

1. Agrobacterium tumifaciens
2. Retroviruses
3. DNA viruses
4. Plasmids

Answer. 2. Retroviruses

Question 24. Which of the following is not applicable to Agrobacterium tumifaciens?

1. Pathogen of several dicot plants.
2. Has the ability to transform normal plant cells.
3. Delivers gene of our interest.
4. Ti plasmid of it is always pathogenic to plants with out any exception.

Answer. 4. Ti plasmid of it is always pathogenic to plants with out any exception.

Question 25. Insertional inactivation is related to

1. Microinjection
2. Gene gun
3. Gel electrophoresis
4. Selection of recombinants

Answer. 4. Selection of recombinants

Question 26. For transformation with recombinant DNA, the bacterial cells must first be made competent, which means

1. Should increase their metabolic reactions
2. Should decrease their metabolic reactions
3. Increase efficiency with which DNA enters the bacterium
4. Ability to divide fast

Answer. 3. Increase efficiency with which DNA enters the bacterium

Question 27. Which of the following method can be used for making the bacterial cell competent?

1. Treating with specific concentration of divalent cation (Ca2+).
2. Treating with specific concentration of monovalent cation (K).
3. Heat shock.
4. Both (1) and (3).

Answer. 4. Both (1) and (3).

“biotechnology notes “

Question 28. Which of the following techniques can be used to introduce foreign DNA into cell?

1. Using disarmed pathogen
2. Microinjection
3. Gene gun
4. All of these

Answer. 4. All of these

Question 29. During heat shock, the temperature used for giving thermal shock to the bacterium is

1. 82°C
2. 100°C
3. Liquid nitrogen
4. 42°C

Answer. 4. 42°C

Question 30. Which of the following enzymes is used in case of fungus to cause the release of DNA along with other macromolecules?

1. Lysozyme
2. Cellulase
3. Chitinase
4. Amylase

Answer. 3. Chitinase

Question 31. During the isolation of DNA, the addition of which of the following causes the precipitation of purified DNA?

1. Chilled ethanol
2. Ribonuclease enzyme
3. DNA polymerase
4. Proteases

Answer. 1. Chilled ethanol

Question 32. Which of the following is the correct sequence of PCR (polymerase chain reaction)?

1. Denaturation → Annealing → Extension
2. Extension → Denaturation → Annealing
3. Annealing → Extension → Denaturation
4. Denaturation → Extension → Annealing

Answer. 1. Denaturation → Annealing → Extension

Question 33. The most commonly used bioreactor is of stirring type. The stirrer facilitates

1. Temperature control
2. pH control
3. Oxygen availability
4. Product removal

Answer. 3. Oxygen availability

Question 34. After the completion of biosynthetic stage, the separation and purification of product is called

1. Upstream processing
2. Downstream processing
3. Modern biotechnology
4. Gene amplification

Answer. 2. Downstream processing

Question 35. From isolated DNA from a cell culture with seven de- sired genes, DNA segment can be excised by molecular scissors or chemical scalpels what biotechnologists call as

1. Polymerase enzymes
2. DNA ligase
3. Restriction enzymes
4. Helicase

Answer. 3. Restriction enzymes

Question 36. All the following statements about Stanley Cohen and Herbert Boyer are correct but one is wrong. Which one is wrong?

1. They discovered recombinant DNA (rDNA) technology, and this marks the birth of modern biotechnology.
2. They first produced healthy sheep clone, a Finn Dorset lamb, Dolly, from the differentiated adult mammary cells.
3. They invented genetic engineering by combining a piece of foreign DNA containing a gene from a bacterium with a bacterial plasmid using the enzyme restriction endonuclease.
4. They isolated the antibiotic resistance gene by cutting out a piece of DNA from the plasmid which was responsible for conferring antibiotic resistance.

Answer. 2. They first produced healthy sheep clone, a Finn Dorset lamb, Dolly, from the differentiated adult mammary cells.

Question 37. What is the fate of a piece of DNA which is somehow transferred into an alien organism?

1. This piece of DNA would not be able to multiply itself in the progeny cells of the organism if not integrated into the genome of the organism.
2. If the alien piece of DNA has become a part of the chromosome, it will replicate.
3. If the alien piece of DNA is linked with the origin of replication in chromosome, it will replicate.
4. All of these.

Answer. 4. All of these.

Question 38. In the year 1963, the two enzymes responsible for restricting the growth of bacteriophage in Escherichia coli were isolated. These were and, respectively.

1. Ligase, restriction endonuclease
2. Helicase, restriction endonuclease
3. Methylase, restriction endonuclease
4. DNA polymerase, restriction endonuclease

Answer. 3. Methylase, restriction endonuclease

“process of biotechnology “

Question 39. The cutting of DNA by restriction endonucleases results in fragments of DNA. These fragments are generally separated by a technique known as

1. Gel-filtration chromatography
2. Centrifugation
3. Gel electrophoresis
4. Thin-layer chromatography

Answer. 3. Gel electrophoresis

Question 40. Which of the following bacteria are known as natural genetic engineers of plants, as gene transfer is happening in nature without human interference?

1. Azotobacter
2. Agrobacterium tumefaciens
3. Escherichia coli
4. Rhizobium

Answer. 2. Agrobacterium tumefaciens

Question 41. The technique in which a foreign DNA is precipitated on the surface of tungsten or gold particles and shot into the target cells is known as

1. Microinjection
2. Chemical-mediated genetic transformation
3. Electroporation
4. Biolistics

Answer. 4. Biolistics

Question 42. The isolation of the genetic material in pure form-free from other macromolecules can be achieved by treating the bacterial cells/plant or animal tissues with the following enzymes, except

1. Lysozyme
2. Cellulase
3. Chitinase
4. Ligase

Answer. 4. Ligase

Question 43. Which of the following is not a recombinant protein used in medical practice?

1. TPA (tissue plasminogen activator)
2. Interferon (α, B, and 7)
3. Vaccine (for hepatitis B)
4. Heparin

Answer. 4. Heparin

Question 44. cDNA is

1. Circular DNA in bacteria
2. Complementary DNA
3. Copy DNA
4. Both (2) and (3)

Answer. 4. Both (2) and (3)

Question 45. The Noble Prize of 1978 for restriction endonuclease technology was given to

1. Temin and Baltimore
2. Milstein and Kohler
3. Arber, Nathans, and Smith
4. Holley, Khorana, and Nirenberg

Answer. 3. Arber, Nathans, and Smith

Question 46. Plasmids are used in genetic engineering because they

1. Are easily available
2. Are able to integrate with host chromosome
3. Are able to replicate along with chromosomal DNA
4. Contain DNA sequence coding for drug resistance

Answer. 3. Are able to replicate along with chromosomal DNA

Question 47. Which of the following processes and techniques are included under biotechnology?

A. In vitro fertilization leading to a test-tube baby.

B. Synthesizing gene and using it.

C. Developing DNA vaccine.

D. Correcting a defective gene.

1. (B) and (D) only (3)
2. (B), (C), and (D)
3. (A) and (B)
4. (A), (B), (C), and (D)

Answer. 4. (A), (B), (C), and (D)

Question 48. The tumor-inducing (Ti) plasmid has now been modified to a cloning vector which is no more pathogenic to plants but is still able to use mechanisms to deliver genes of our interest into a variety of plants because Ti plasmid has been modified by

1. Adding tumor-forming genes
2. Deleting tumor-forming genes
3. Adding genes resistant to endonucleases
4. Deleting endonuclease

Answer. 2. Deleting tumor-forming genes

“biotechnology principles and processes class 12 “

Question 49. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

1. Plasmids have the ability to replicate within the bacterial cells independent of the control of chromosomal DNA.
2. Some plasmids have only one or two copies per cell whereas others may have 15-100 copies per cell.
3. Bacteriophages have the ability to replicate within the bacterial cell independent of the control of chromosomal DNA.
4. Transformation is a procedure of separation and isolation of DNA fragments.

Answer. 4. Transformation is a procedure of separation and isolation of DNA fragments.

Question 50. Which of the following is the first artificial cloning vector that has two selectable markers-tetracycline (tetR) and antibiotic restriction enzymes (ampR)?

1. YAC
2. BAC
3. pBR322
4. Cosmid vectors

Answer. 3. pBR322

Question 51. Restriction endonucleases are most widely used in recombinant DNA technology. They are obtained from

1. Bacteriophage
2. Bacterial cells
3. Plasmids
4. All prokaryotic cells

Answer. 2. Bacterial cells

Question 52. All the following statements are correct about genetic engineering, but one is wrong. Which one is wrong?

1. It is a technique for artificially and deliberately modifying DNA (genes) to suit human needs.
2. It is often referred as gene splicing.
3. The organism carrying the foreign genes is termed as transgenic or GMO.
4. Alec Jeffrey is the father of genetic engineering.

Answer. 4. Alec Jeffrey is the father of genetic engineering.

Question 53. All the following are the properties of enzyme Taq polymerase, except

1. It is thermostable DNA polymerase
2. It is isolated from a bacterium, Thermus aquaticus
3. It is used for the amplification of gene of interest using PCR
4. It is thermostable RNA polymerase

Answer. 4. It is thermostable RNA polymerase

Question 54. Which of the following is incorrect match?

1. Gene therapy: An abnormal gene is replaced by normal gene
2. Cloning: Ability to multiply copies of antibiotic resistance gene in E. coli
3. Restriction enzymes: Molecular scissors
4. Exonucleases: Molecular glue

Answer. 4. Exonucleases: Molecular glue

Question 55. Appropriate techniques have been developed for large- scale cell culture using bioreactors for producing

1. Foreign gene product
2. Vaccines
3. Hormones
4. All of these

Answer. 4. All of these

Question 56. The uptake of genes by cells in microbes and plants is termed as

1. Insertional inactivation
2. Transformation
3. Selectable markers
4. Cloning vectors

Answer. 2. Transformation

Question 57. If we ligate a foreign DNA at the BamHI site of tetracycline resistance gene in pBR322, the recombinant plasmid will

1. Show ampicillin resistance only
2. Show tetracycline resistance
3. Will grow well on tetracycline-containing medium
4. Will not grow on ampicillin-containing medium

Answer. 1. Show ampicillin resistance only

Question 58. Polyethylene glycol can help in the uptake of foreign DNA into the host cell. This type of gene transfer is called

1. Electroporation
2. Chemical mediated genetic transformation
3. Microinjection
4. Particle gun

Answer. 2. Chemical mediated genetic transformation

Question 59. The normal E. coli cells carry resistance against which of the following antibiotics?

1. Ampicillin
2. Chloramphenicol
3. Tetracycline or kanamycin
4. None of these

Answer. 4. None of these

Question 60. The isolation of genetic material from fungal cells does not involve the use of

1. Agarose
2. Chitinase
3. Ethanol
4. Water

Answer. 1. Agarose

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Question 61. In a restriction digestion experiment, the sticky ends of vector rejoined forming a circular vector without insert. Which enzyme can be used to eliminate this possibility?

1. DNA ligase
2. Alkaline phosphatase
3. DNA polymerase
4. RNA polymerase

Answer. 2. Alkaline phosphatase

Question 62. Denaturation can be achieved at which temperature during PCR?

1. 72°C
2. 95°C
3. 40°C
4. 25°C

Answer. 2. 95°C

Question 63. Choose the incorrect statement with respect to Agrobacterium tumefaciens.

1. It is a Gram-negative soil bacterium.
2. It produces crown gall disease in dicot plants.
3. The foreign DNA is inserted at the ori site of Ti plasmid.
4. Ti plasmid becomes incorporated into the plant chromosomal DNA.

Answer. 3. The foreign DNA is inserted at the ori site of Ti plasmid.

Question 64. Which is not a method for the introduction of recombinant DNA into host cells?

1. Electroporation
2. Biolistics
3. Transfection
4. Restriction digestion

Answer. 4. Restriction digestion

Question 65. The essential requirements for a gene amplification reaction are

1. 20 mg of DNA template
2. Forward and reverse primers
3. Mg2+
4. All of these

Answer. 4. All of these

Question 66. Choose the incorrect statement with respect to PCR reaction:

1. It requires Taq polymerase.
2. It requires dNTP’s.
3. It generates 2n molecules after n number of cycles.
4. The optimum temperature for polymerization step is greater than or equal to 90°C.

Answer. 4. The optimum temperature for polymerization step is greater than or equal to 90°C.

Question 67. Which is not an application of PCR?

1. DNA fingerprinting
2. DNA foot-printing
3. Detection of mutation
4. Prenatal diagnosis

Answer. 2. DNA foot-printing

Question 68. Rejoining of vector molecule after restriction enzyme digestion can be avoided by

1. Using different enzymes for insert and vector
2. Using same enzyme for insert and vector
3. Using DNA ligase immediately after digestion
4. Using alkaline phosphatase on only vector

Answer. 4. Using alkaline phosphatase on only vector

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Question 69. If the target gene is inserted at Sal 1 site of the recombinant, plasmid will show resistance for pBR322

1. Ampicillin
2. Tetracyline
3. Both (1) and (2)
4. Kanamycin

Answer. 1. Ampicillin

Question 70. It is theoretically possible for a gene from any organism to function in any other organism. Why is this possible?

1. All organisms have ribosomes.
2. All organisms have the same genetic code.
3. All organisms are made up of cells.
4. All organisms have similar nuclei.

Answer. 2. All organisms have the same genetic code.

Question 71. If you discovered a bacterial cell that contained no restriction enzymes, which of the following would you except to happen?

1. The cell would create incomplete plasmids.
2. The cell would be unable to replicate its DNA.
3. The cell would become an obligate parasite.
4. The cell would be easily infected by bacteriophages.

Answer. 4. The cell would be easily infected by bacteriophages.

Question 72. Assume that you are trying to insert a gene into a plasmid and someone gives you a preparation of DNA cut with restriction enzyme X. The gene you wish to insert has sites on both ends for cutting by restriction enzyme Y. You have a plasmid with a single site for Y, but not for X. Your strategy should be to

1. Cut the plasmid with restriction enzyme X and insert the fragments cut with Y into the plasmid
2. Cut the plasmid with restriction enzyme X and insert the gene into the plasmid
3. Cut the plasmid twice with restriction enzyme Y and ligate the two fragments into the plasmid cut with the same enzyme
4. Cut the plasmid twice with restriction enzyme Y and ligate the two fragments onto the ends of the human DNA fragments cut with restriction enzyme X

Answer. 3. Cut the plasmid twice with restriction enzyme Y and ligate the two fragments into the plasmid cut with the same enzyme

Question 73. 1. Transform bacteria with recombinant DNA molecule.

2. Cut the plasmid DNA using restriction enzymes.

3. Extract plasmid DNA from bacterial cells.

4. Hydrogen-bond the plasmid DNA to non-plasmid DNA fragments.

5. Use ligase to seal plasmid DNA to non-plasmid DNA.

From the given list, which of the following is the most logical sequence of steps for splicing foreign DNA into a plasmid and inserting the plasmid into a bacterium?

1. 4, 5, 1, 2, 3
2. 3, 2, 4, 5, 1
3. 3, 4, 5, 1, 2
4. 2, 3, 5, 4, 1

Answer. 2. 3, 2, 4, 5, 1

Question 74. A eukaryotic gene has sticky ends produced by restriction endonuclease Eco RI. The gene is added to a mixture containing Eco RI and a bacterial plasmid that carries two genes, which make it resistant to ampicillin and tetracyline. The plasmid has one recognition site for Eco RI located in the tetracycline resistance gene. This mixture is incubated for several hours and then added to bacteria growing in nutrient broth. The bacteria are allowed to grow overnight and are streaked on a plate using a technique which produces isolated colonies that are clones of the original. Samples of these colonies are then grown in four different media: nutrient broth plus ampicillin, nutrient broth plus tetracycline, nutrient broth plus ampicillin and tetracycline, and nutrient broth containing no antibiotics.

The bacteria containing the engineered plasmid would grow in

1. The ampicillin and tetracycline broth only
2. The nutrient broth, the ampicillin broth, and the tetracycline broth
3. The nutrient broth and the ampicillin broth only
4. The nutrient broth only

Answer. 3. The nutrient broth and the ampicillin broth only

Question 75. Agrobacterium tumefaciens is used in genetic engineering for

1. DNA mapping
2. DNA modification
3. Vector
4. DNA fingerprinting

Answer. 3. Vector

Question 76. A genetically engineered bacteria used for clearing oil spills is

1. Escherischia coli
2. Bacillus subtilis
3. Agrobacterium tumefaciens
4. Pseudomonas putida

Answer. 4. Pseudomonas putida

Question 77. Who isolated the first restriction endonucleases?

1. Temin and Baltimore
2. Sanger
3. Nathans and Smith
4. Paul Berg

Answer. 3. Nathans and Smith

Question 78. Genetic engineering is

1. Study of extra-nuclear gene
2. Manipulation of genes by artificial method
3. Manipulation of RNA
4. Manipulation of enzymes

Answer. 2. Manipulation of genes by artificial method

Question 79. Which of the following enzymes cut the DNA molecule at specific nucleotide sequence?

1. Restriction endonuclease
2. DNA ligase
3. RNA polymerase
4. Exonuclease

Answer. 1. Restriction endonuclease

Question 80. DNA fingerprinting was invented by

1. Karl Mullis
2. Alec Jeffery
3. Dr. Paul Berg
4. Francis Collins

Answer. 2. Alec Jeffery

Question 81. Which structure is involved in genetic engineering?

1. Plastid
2. Plasmid
3. Codon
4. None

Answer. 2. Plasmid

Question 82. Which of the following is the example of chemical scissors?

1. Eco RI
2. HindIII
3. Bam I
4. All of the above

Answer. 4. All of the above

Question 83. Restriction endonucleases are used in genetic engineering because

1. They can degrade harmful proteins
2. They can join DNA fragments
3. They can cut DNA at variable sites
4. They can cut DNA at specific base sequences

Answer. 4. They can cut DNA at specific base sequences

Question 84. Chimeric DNA is

1. DNA which contains uracil
2. DNA synthesized from RNA
3. Recombinant DNA
4. DNA which contains single strand

Answer. 3. Recombinant DNA

Question 85. A piece of nucleic acid used to find out a gene by forming hybrid with it is called

1. cDNA
2. DNA probe
3. Sticky end
4. Blunt end

Answer. 2. DNA probe

Question 86. Which of the following is the example of direct gene transfer?

1. Microinjection
2. Electroporation
3. Particle gun
4. All the above

Answer. 4. All the above

Question 87. How many copies of DNA sample are produced in PCR technique after 6 cycles?

1. 4
2. 32
3. 16
4. 64

Answer. 3. 16

Question 88. The basic procedure involved in the synthesis of recombinant DNA molecule is depicted. The mistake in the cedure is procedure is

1. Enzyme polymerase is not included
2. The mammalian DNA is shown double stranded
3. Only one fragment is inserted
4. Two different restriction enzymes are used

Answer. 4. Two different restriction enzymes are used

Question 89. Western blotting is used for the identification of

1. DNA
2. RNA
3. Protein
4. All the above

Answer. 3. Protein

Question 90. In rDNA technique, which of the following technique is not used in introducing DNA into host cell?

1. Transduction
2. Conjugation
3. Transformation
4. Electroporation

Answer. 2. Conjugation

Question 91. Which of the following techniques are used in analyzing restriction fragment length polymorphism (RFLP)?

(a) Electrophoresis

(b) Electroporation

(c) Methylation

(d) Restriction digestion

1. (a) and (c)
2. (c) and (d)
3. (a) and (d)
4. (b) and (d)

Answer. 3. (a) and (d)

Question 92. Restriction enzymes are

1. Not always required in genetic engineering
2. Essential tool in genetic engineering
3. Nucleases that cleave DNA at specific sites
4. (2) and (3) both

Answer. 4. (2) and (3) both

Question 93. The function of restriction endonuclease enzyme is

1. It is useful in genetic engineering
2. It protects the bacterial DNA against foreign DNA
3. It is helpful in transcription
4. It is helpful in protein synthesis

Answer. 2. It protects the bacterial DNA against foreign DNA

Question 94. A bacterium modifies its DNA by adding methyl groups to the DNA. It does so to

1. Clone its DNA
2. Be able to transcribe many genes simultaneously
3. Turn its gene on
4. Protect its DNA from its own restriction enzyme

Answer. 4. Protect its DNA from its own restriction enzyme

Question 95. Plasmid has been used as vector because

1. It is circular DNA which has capacity to join eukaryotic DNA
2. It can move between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells
3. Both ends show replication
4. It has antibiotic resistance gene

Answer. 1. It is circular DNA which has capacity to join eukaryotic DNA

Question 96. Which of the following cuts the DNA from specific places?

1. Restriction endonuclease (Eco RI)
2. Ligase
3. Exonuclease
4. Alkaline phosphate

Answer. 1. Restriction endonuclease (Eco RI)

Question 97. The manipulation of DNA in genetic engineering becomes possible due to the discovery of

1. Restriction endonuclease
2. DNA ligase
3. Transcriptase
4. Primase

Answer. 1. Restriction endonuclease

Question 98. Restriction enzymes

1. Are endonucleases which cleave DNA at specific sites
2. Make DNA complementary to an existing DNA or RNA
3. Cut or join DNA fragments
4. Are required in vector-less direct gene transfer

Answer. 1. Are endonucleases which cleave DNA at specific sites

Question 99. DNA fingerprinting refers to

1. Techniques used for the identification of fingerprints of individuals
2. Molecular analysis of profiles of DNA samples
3. Analysis of DNA samples using imprinting devices
4. Techniques used for molecular analysis of different specimens of DNA

Answer. 2. Molecular analysis of profiles of DNA samples

Question 100. Restriction endonucleases

1. Are synthesized by bacteria as part of their defense compound
2. Are present in mammalian cells for degradation of DNA when the cell dies
3. Are used in genetic engineering for ligating two DNA molecules
4. Are used for in vitro DNA synthesis

Answer. 1. Are synthesized by bacteria as part of their defense compound

Question 101. What is the first step in the Southern blot technique?

1. Denaturation of DNA on the gel for hybridization with specific probe.
2. Production of a group of genetically identical cells.
3. Digestion of DNA by restriction enzyme.
4. Isolation of DNA from a nucleated cell such as the one from the scene of crime.

Answer. 1. Denaturation of DNA on the gel for hybridization with specific probe.

Question 102. Which of the following is not produced by E. coli in lactose?

1. B-galactosidase
2. Thiogalactoside transacetylase
3. Lactose dehydrogenase
4. Lactose permease

Answer. 3. Lactose dehydrogenase

Question 103. The technique of transferring DNA fragment separated on agarose gel to a synthetic membrane such as nitrocellulose is known as

1. Northern blotting
2. Southern blotting
3. Western blotting
4. Dot blotting

Answer. 2. Southern blotting

Question 104. The production of a human protein in bacteria in genetic engineering is possible because

1. Bacterial cell can carry out RNA splicing reactions
2. The mechanism of gene regulation is identical in humans and bacteria
3. Human chromosome can replicate in bacterial cell
4. Genetic code is universal

Answer. 4. Genetic code is universal

Question 105. Electroporation procedure involves

1. Fast passage of food through sieve pores in phloem elements with the help of electric stimulation
2. Opening of stomatal pores during night by artificial light
3. Making transient pores in the cell membrane to introduce gene constructs
4. Purification of saline water with the help of a membrane system

Answer. 3. Making transient pores in the cell membrane to introduce gene constructs

Question 106. The total number of nitrogenous bases in human genome is estimated to be about

1. 3.5 million
2. 35 thousand
3. 35 million
4. 3.1 billion

Answer. 4. 3.1 billion

Question 107. Two microbes found to be very useful in genetic engineering are

1. Escherichia coli and Agrobacterium tumefaciens
2. Vibro cholerae and a tailed bacteriophage
3. Diplococcus sp. and Pseudomonas sp.
4. Crown gall bacterium and Caenorhabdits elegans

Answer. 1. Escherichia coli and Agrobacterium tumefaciens

Question 108. Restriction endonuclease

1. Cuts the DNA molecule randomly
2. Cuts the DNA molecule at specific sites
3. Restricts the synthesis of DNA inside the nucleus
4. Synthesizes DNA

Answer. 2. Cuts the DNA molecule at specific sites

Question 109. The restriction enzyme Eco RI has the property of

1. Endonuclease activity
2. Exonuclease activity
3. Ligation activity
4. Correcting the topology of replicating DNA

Answer. 1. Endonuclease activity

Question 110. DNA ligase is an enzyme that catalyzes the

1. Splitting of DNA threads into small bits
2. Joining of the fragments of DNA
3. Denaturation of DNA
4. Synthesis of DNA

Answer. 2. Joining of the fragments of DNA

Question 111. More advancement in genetic engineering is due to

1. Restriction endonuclease
2. Reverse transcriptase
3. Protease
4. Zymase

Answer. 1. Restriction endonuclease

Question 112. The function of PCR is

1. Translation
2. Transcription
3. DNA amplification
4. None of these

Answer. 3. DNA amplification

Question 113. Which of the following is used as the best genetic vector?

1. Bacillus thuriengenesis
2. Agrobacterium tumefaciens
3. Pseudomonas putida
4. All of these

Answer. 2. Agrobacterium tumefaciens

Question 114. The transfer of protein from electrophoretic gel to nitrocellulose membrane is known as

1. Transferase
2. Northern blotting
3. Western blotting
4. Southern blotting

Answer. 3. Western blotting

Question 115. DNA fingerprinting was first discovered by

1. Alec Jeffery
2. Cark Mullis
3. C. Milstein
4. Dr. Paul Berg

Answer. 1. Alec Jeffery

Question 116. Which of the following enzyme is used to join DNA fragments?

1. Terminase
2. Endonuclease
3. Ligase
4. DNA polymerase

Answer. 3. Ligase

Question 117. Restriction endonucleases are enzymes which

1. Make cuts at specific positions within the DNA molecule
2. Recognize a specific nucleotide sequence for binding of DNA ligase
3. Restrict the action of enzyme DNA polymerase
4. Remove nucleotides from the ends of the DNA molecule

Answer. 1. Make cuts at specific positions within the DNA molecule

Question 118. Satellite DNA is a useful tool in

1. Organ transplantation
2. Sex determination
3. Forensic science
4. Genetic engineering

Answer. 3. Forensic science

Question 119. PCR and restriction fragment length polymorphism are the methods for

1. Genetic transformation
2. DNA sequencing
3. Genetic fingerprinting
4. Study of enzymes

Answer. 3. Genetic fingerprinting

Question 120. Which one is a true statement regarding DNA polymerase used in PCR?

1. It serves as a selectable marker.
2. It is isolated from a virus.
3. It remains active at high temperature.
4. It is used to ligate introduced DNA in recipient cells.

Answer. 3. It remains active at high temperature.

Question 121. For transformation, microparticles coated with DNA to be bombarded with gene gun are made up of

1. Platinum or zinc
2. Silicon or platinum
3. Gold or tungsten
4. Silver or platinum

Answer. 3. Gold or tungsten

Question 122. A single strand of nucleic acid tagged with a radioactive molecule is called

1. Selectable marker
2. Plasmid
3. Probe
4. Vector

Answer. 3. Probe

Question 123. The following figure is the diagrammatic representation of the E. coli vector PBR 322. Which one of the given options correctly identifies its certain component(s)? 

1. rop-reduced osmotic pressure
2. Hind III, Eco RI-selectable markers
3. ampR, tetR-antibiotic resistance genes
4. ori-original restriction enzyme

Answer. 3. ampR, tetR-antibiotic resistance genes

Question 124. Which one of the following is a case of wrong matching?

1. Vector DNA: Site for tRNA synthesis
2. Micropropagation: In vitro production of plants in large numbers
3. Callus: Unorganized mass of cells produced in tissue culture
4. Somatic hybridization: Fusion of two diverse cells

Answer. 1. Vector DNA: Site for tRNA synthesis

Question 125. Biolistics (gene gun) is suitable for

1. Disarming pathogen vectors
2. Transformation of plant cells
3. Constructing recombinant DNA by joining with vectors
4. DNA fingerprinting

Answer. 3. Constructing recombinant DNA by joining with vectors

Question 126. In genetic engineering, the antibiotics are used

1. As selectable markers
2. To select healthy vectors
3. As sequences from where replication starts
4. To keep the cultures free of infection

Answer. 1. As selectable markers

Question 127. What is it that forms the basis of DNA fingerprinting?

1. The relative proportions of purines and pyrimidines in DNA.
2. The relative difference in the DNA occurrence in blood, skin, and saliva.
3. The relative amount of DNA in the ridges and grooves of fingerprints.
4. Satellite DNA occurring as highly repeated short DNA segments.

Answer. 4. Satellite DNA occurring as highly repeated short DNA segments.

Question 128. The following figure shows three steps (A)-(C) of PCR. Select the option giving correct identification together with what it represents?

Options:

1. B-Denaturation at a temperature of about 98°C separating the two DNA strands
2. A-Denaturation at a temperature of about 50°C
3. C-Extension in the presence of heat stable DNA polymerase
4. A-Annealing with two sets of primers

Answer. 3. C-Extension in the presence of heat stable DNA polymerase

Question 129. Which one of the following represents a palindromic sequence in DNA?

1. 5′-GAATTC-3′; 3′- CTTAAG-5′
2. 5′-CCATCC-3′; 3′-GAATCC-5′
3. 5′-CATTAG-3′; 3′-GATAAC-5′
4. 5′-GATACC-3′; 3′-CCTAAG-5′

Answer. 1. 5′-GAATTC-3′; 3′- CTTAAG-5′

Question 130. DNA fragments generated by restriction endonucleases in a chemical reaction can be separated by

1. Polymerase chain reaction
2. Electrophoresis
3. Restriction mapping
4. Centrifugation

Answer. 2. Electrophoresis

Question 131. The colonies of recombinant bacteria appear white in contrast to the blue colonies of non-recombinant bacteria because of

1. Insertional inactivation of alpha-galactosidase in non-recombinant bacteria
2. Insertional inactivation of alpha-galactosidase in recombinant bacteria
3. Inactivation of glycosidase enzyme in recombinant bacteria
4. Non-recombinant bacteria containing beta-galactosidase

Answer. 4. Non-recombinant bacteria containing beta-galactosidase

Microbes In Human Welfare Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. Partially degraded concentrate of milk fat and casein is called

1. Sour cream
2. Yoghurt
3. Cheese
4. Bread

Answer. 3. Cheese

Question 2. Indian curd is prepared by inoculating cream and skimmed milk with

1. Lactobacillus acidophilus
2. Leuconostoc cremoris
3. Lactobacillus bulgaricus
4. Streptococcus lactis

Answer. 1. Lactobacillus acidophilus

Question 3. The nutrient medium for beer is

1. Barley malt
2. Fermented rice.
3. Cashew-apple
4. Potato

Answer. 1. Barley malt

” microbes in human welfare “

Question 4. Mark the incorrect option (with respect to distilled alcoholic beverages):

1. Wine
2. Brandy
3. Rum
4. Gin

Answer. 1. Wine

Question 5. Which of the following product is not obtained from fermented soya sauce?

1. Tempeh
2. Tofu
3. Sufu
4. Dosa

Answer. 4. Dosa

Question 6. Select the odd one out with respect to the source of antibiotics:

1. Bacteria
2. Lichen
3. Fungi
4. Seeded plants

Answer. 4. Seeded plants

Question 7. Which of the following enzymes is employed in the conversion of corn starch into fructose-rich corn syrup?

1. Amylases
2. Glucoamylases
3. Glucoisomerases
4. All are correct

Answer. 4. All are correct

Question 8. Statins are competitive inhibitors of

1. Streptokinase
2. HMG COA reductase
3. Pectinase
4. Cellulase

Answer. 2. HMG COA reductase

Question 9. Which of the following organic acid is used as a source of calcium for infants, cows, and lactating mothers?

1. Gluconic acid
2. Lactic acid
3. Citric acid
4. Acetic acid

Answer. 1. Gluconic acid

Question 10. Organic acid used in pharmaceuticals, coloring agents, and plastic industries is

1. Acetic acid
2. Citric acid
3. Lactic acid
4. Gluconic acid

Answer. 1. Acetic acid

Question 11. The first mycoherbicide of the world was obtained from

1. Trichoderma harzianum
2. Phytophthora palmivora
3. Cactoblastis cactorum
4. Pythium debaiyanum

Answer. 2. Phytophthora palmivora

Question 12. The concept of sustainable agriculture lies in

1. Minimizing biopesticides
2. A greater dependence on new crops
3. Least use of biofertilizers
4. Using spores of Bacillus thuringiensis for pest control

Answer. 4. Using spores of Bacillus thuringiensis for pest control

Question 13. Which of the following has been used for controlling sugarcane leaf hopper?

1. Predator bug
2. Bollworm
3. Praying mantis
4. Lady bug

Answer. 1. Predator bug

Question 14. Find the odd one out (with respect to bioherbicide):

1. Cactoblastis cactorum
2. Helianthus anus
3. Phytophthora palmivora
4. Cochliomyia

Answer. 4. Cochliomyia

” microbes in human welfare class 12 ncert”

Question 15. Sustainable agriculture does not include

1. Ecofriendly cropping
2. Green Revolution
3. IPM
4. Biological control

Answer. 2. Green Revolution

Question 16. Which of the following is included in biopesticide?

1. Viruses and bacteria only
2. Viruses, bacteria, and fungi only
3. Viruses, bacteria, fungi, protozoa, and mites
4. Viruses, bacteria, fungi, and protozoa only

Answer. 3. Viruses, bacteria, fungi, protozoa, and mites

Question 17. Biofertilizers include

1. Blue green algae, Rhizobium, other nitrogen-fixing bacteria, and mycorrhiza
2. Blue green algae, Trichoderma, Rhizobium, and other nitrogen-fixing bacteria
3. Rhizobium, other nitrogen-fixing bacteria, NPV, and mycorrhiza
4. Blue green algae, Rhizobium, Bt cotton, and mycorrhiza

Answer. 1. Blue green algae, Rhizobium, other nitrogen-fixing bacteria, and mycorrhiza

Question 18. Devine and Collego are two agricultural substances that are used as

1. Biofertilizers
2. Natural insecticides
3. Insect hormones
4. Bioherbicides

Answer. 4. Bioherbicides

Question 19. Ganga Action Plan for controlling pollution in Ganges started in

1. 1985
2. 1981
3. 1987
4. 1989

Answer. 1. 1985

Question 20. Which of the following statement is incorrect with respect to pectinases?

1. They are used in clearing of fruit juices.
2. They are used in chill-proofing beer and whisky.
3. They are obtained from Byssochlamys fulva.
4. They are used in retting of fibers.

Answer. 2. They are used in chill-proofing beer and whisky.

Question 21. The presence of E. coli in water indicates

1. Water is clear
2. Water is fully polluted
3. Inorganic pollution
4. Fecal pollution

Answer. 4. Fecal pollution

Question 22. In which stage of sewage treatment is desalination and chlorination of water done?

1. Primary treatment
2. Secondary treatment
3. Tertiary treatment
4. Both (1) and (2)

Answer. 3. Tertiary treatment

“an example of endomycorrhiza is “

Question 23. Eutrophication in water bodies leads to

1. High DO
2. Low BOD
3. Low DO
4. Optimum dissolved oxygen

Answer. 3. Low DO

Question 24. Which of the following is not used in the treatment of polluted water?

1. Activated carbon
2. Trickling filter method
3. Cyclone collector
4. Activated sludge method

Answer. 3. Cyclone collector

Question 25. The greater BOD of waste water

1. Increases oxygen content of water
2. Decreases oxygen content of water
3. Relates the decrease of temperature of water
4. All of these

Answer. 2. Decreases oxygen content of water

Question 26. Microbes that cannot be cultured in cell-free extracts are

1. Bacteria
2. Fungi
3. Viruses
4. Algae

Answer. 3. Viruses

Question 27. Most of the antibiotics are obtained from

1. Actinomycetes
2. Eubacteria
3. Ray fungi
4. Both (1) and (3)

Answer. 4. Both (1) and (3)

Question 28. LAB stands for

1. Lactic acid bacteria
2. Lactobacillus acidophilus bacteria
3. Lactose acetaldehyde bacteria
4. Laboratory

Answer. 1. Lactic acid bacteria

Question 29. Which of the following is responsible for yoghurt formation?

a. Streptococcus thermophilus

b. Lactobacillus acidophilus

c. Lactobacillus bulgaricus

d. Streptococus cremoris

1. (a), (b), (c)
2. (a), (d), (c)
3. (a), (c)
4. (a), (d)

Answer. 3. (a), (c)

Question 30. The fermented food of soybean is

1. Tempeh
2. Tofu
3. Sufu
4. All of these

Answer. 4. All of these

Question 31. Which of the following is not a symbiotic nitrogen fixing bacterium?

1. Clostridium
2. Rhizobium leguminosarum
3. Yeast
4. Mycobacterium

Answer. 1. Clostridium

Question 32. Biogas contains

1. 30-40% methane
2. 50-70% CO2
3. 50-70% methane
4. 20% methane

Answer. 3. 50-70% methane

Question 33. Citric acid is obtained from all, except

1. Aspergillus niger
2. Mucor
3. Methanogens
4. Mortierella

Answer. 4. Mortierella

Question 34. Antibiotic obtained from lichens is

1. Neomycin
2. Usnic acid
3. Polymixin
4. Viridin

Answer. 2. Usnic acid

Question 35. Which bacterium is used in bioremidiation process?

1. Rhizobium sp.
2. Pseudomonas pudita
3. Bacillus licheniformis
4. Streptococci

Answer. 2. Pseudomonas pudita

Question 36. CDRI is located in

1. Lucknow
2. Kanpur
3. Delhi
4. Karnal

Answer. 1. Lucknow

Question 37. Viridin antibiotic is effective against

1. Bacteria
2. Fungi
3. Gram positive bacteria
4. Gram negative bacteria

Answer. 2. Fungi

Question 38. Which fungal extract was extensively used in treating wounded American soldiers in World War II?

1. Streptomycin
2. Penicillin
3. Aflatoxin
4. Gluconic acid

Answer. 2. Penicillin

Question 39. Dosa and idli are the fermented preparations of rice and black gram. Fermentation is done with

1. Leuconostoc
2. Streptococcus
3. Saccharomyces
4. More than one option is correct

Answer. 4. More than one option is correct

Question 40. Wine yeast is

1. Saccharomyces effipsoidens
2. S. sake
3. S. pireformis
4. S. cerevisiae

Answer. 1. Saccharomyces effipsoidens

Question 41. Amylases are employed for all, except

1. Softening of bread
2. Clearing of turgidity in juices
3. Preparation of cheese
4. Desizing of textile fibers

Answer. 3. Preparation of cheese

microbes in human welfare neetprep

Question 42. The derivatives of gluconic acid are used as a source of

1. Calcium
2. Iron
3. Glucose
4. Fat

Answer. 1. Calcium

Question 43. The first step in biogas production is carried out with the help of

1. Obligate aerobes
2. Decomposers
3. Frankia
4. Detritivores

Answer. 2. Decomposers

Question 44. Rotenone, a natural insecticide, is obtained from

1. Azadirachta indica
2. Derris sp.
3. Bacillus thuringiensis
4. Phytophthora palmivora

Answer. 2. Derris sp.

Question 45. Fermented beverage with maximum alcohol content is

1. Beer
2. Brandy
3. Whisky
4. Gin

Answer. 2. Brandy

Question 46. Find the correct match:

Column 1                                                                     Column 2

a. Streptomyces venezuelae                                    (1) Neomycin

b. Streptomyces rimosus                                        (2) Gentamycin

c. Micromonosperma purpurea                             (3) Chloramphenicol/ Chloromycetin

d. Streptomyces fradiae                                         (4) Oxytetracycline/ Terramycin

1. a (4), b (3), c (2), d (1)
2. a (4), b (2), c (3), d (1)
3. a (3), b (4), c (1), d (2)
4. a (3), b (4), c (2), d (1)

Answer. 4. a (3), b (4), c (2), d (1)

Question 47. Rennin used in cheese industry is

1. Antibiotic
2. Enzyme
3. Alkaloid
4. Inhibitor

Answer. 2. Enzyme

Question 48. A compound which is produced by an organism and inhibits the growth of other organisms is called

1. Antibody
2. Antigen
3. Anti-allergic
4. Antibiotic

Answer. 4. Antibiotic

Question 49. Genetically engineered bacteria have been used in the commercial production of

1. Thyroxine
2. Testosterone
3. Human insulin
4. Melatonium

Answer. 3. Human insulin

Question 50. For biogas production, besides dung, which of the following is used as manure?

1. Eichhornia
2. Parthenium
3. Glycine
4. Arachis

Answer. 1. Eichhornia

Question 51. The bioconcentration of DDT in the body fat of Indians is

1. 18-36 ppm
2. 5-10 ppm
3. 13-31 ppm
4. 2-5 ppm

Answer. 3. 13-31 ppm

Question 52. DDT is a/an

1. Organochlorine
2. Organophosphate
3. Carbamate
4. Pyrethroid

Answer. 1. Organochlorine

Question 53. Biopesticides include

1. Only bioinsecticide
2. Only bioherbicide
3. Bioinsecticide and bioherbicide
4. Bioherbicide, bioinsecticide, and biofertilizers

Answer. 3. Bioinsecticide and bioherbicide

Question 54. Which of the following pairs serve as biofertilizers?

1. Albugo and lichen
2. Frankia and Nostoc
3. Pseudomonas and E. coli
4. Spirogyra and Mucor

Answer. 2. Frankia and Nostoc

Question 55. The most famous pesticide of the world is

1. Methyl isocyanate
2. DDT
3. Malathion
4. BHC

Answer. 2. DDT

“select the correct group of biocontrol agents “

Question 56. Which of the following plant is used as green manure?

1. Crotalaria juncea
2. Vigna sinensis
3. Barseem
4. All the above

Answer. 4. All the above

Question 57. Which of the following statement is incorrect about DDT?

1. DDT is a pesticide, which is an organochlorine.
2. It is lipophilic and non-biodegradable.
3. Milk is a good carrier of DDT.
4. DDT does not undergo bioconcentration when it enters in food chain.

Answer. 4. DDT does not undergo bioconcentration when it enters in food chain.

Question 58. The first inorganic pesticide to be used commercially was

1. Bordeaux mixture
2. Burgandy mixture
3. DDT
4. 2-4D

Answer. 1. Bordeaux mixture

Question 59. VAM is important for

1. Breaking of dormancy
2. Phosphate nutrition
3. Water uptake
4. Retarding flowering
5. Decrease in yield

Answer. 2. Phosphate nutrition

Question 60. Besides dung, the weed that can be used in biogas production is

1. Hydrilla
2. Solanum nigrum
3. Eichhornia crassipes
4. Parthenium hysterophorus
5. All of these

Answer. 2. Solanum nigrum

Question 61. Which one is a neem product used as insect repellent?

1. Azardirachtin
2. Rotenone
3. Parathione
4. Endrin

Answer. 1. Azardirachtin

Question 62. The enzyme that converts glucose into alcohol is

1. Lipase
2. Zymase
3. Diastase
4. Invertase

Answer. 2. Zymase

Question 63. Which one of the following statements is correct?

1. Cyanobacteria such as Anabaena and Nostoc are important mobilizers of phosphates and potassium for plant nutrition in soil.
2. At present, it is not possible to grow maize without chemical fertilizers.
3. Extensive use of chemical fertilizers may lead to eutrophication of nearby water bodies.
4. Both Azotobacter and Rhizobium fix atmospheric nitrogen in the root nodules of plants.

Answer. 3. Extensive use of chemical fertilizers may lead to eutrophication of nearby water bodies.

Question 64. DDT residues are rapidly passed through food chain causing biomagnification because DDT is

1. Water soluble
2. Lipo soluble
3. Moderately toxic
4. Non-toxic to aquatic animals

Answer. 2. Lipo soluble

Question 65. The term “antibiotic” was coined by

1. Alexander Fleming
2. S. Waksman
3. Louis Pasteur
4. Edward Jenner

Answer. 2. S. Waksman

Question 66. The antibiotic Terramycin is obtained from

1. Streptomyces griseus
2. Streptomyces ramosus
3. Streptomyces venezuelae
4. Clostridium botulinum

Answer. 2. Streptomyces ramosus

Question 67. Which one of the following is not true about antibiotics?

1. The first antibiotic was discovered by Alexander Fleming.
2. The term “antibiotic” was coined by S. Waksman in 1942.
3. Some persons can be allergic to a particular antibiotic.
4. Each antibiotic is effective only against one particular kind of germ.

Answer. 4. Each antibiotic is effective only against one particular kind of germ.

Question 68. Penicillin is obtained from

1. Aspergillus fumigatus
2. Penicillium chrysogenum
3. Penicillium griseofulvum
4. Streptomyces griseus

Answer. 2. Penicillium chrysogenu

Question 69. Antibiotic flavicin is obtained from

1. Aspergillus fumigatus
2. Aspergillus flavus
3. Streptomyces griesus
4. Streptomyces fradiae

Answer. 2. Aspergillus flavus

Question 70. Cyclosporin-an immunosuppressive drug-is produced by

1. Aspergillus niger
2. Manascus purpureus
3. Penicillium notatum
4. Trichoderma polysporum

Answer. 4. Trichoderma polysporum

Question 71. A sewage treatment process in which a part of decomposer bacteria present in the waste is recycled into the starting of the process is called

1. Cyclic treatment
2. Activated sludge treatment
3. Primary treatment
4. Tertiary treatment

Answer. 2. Activated sludge treatment

Question 72. When domestic sewage mixes with water,

1. Small animals such as rats will die after drinking river water
2. The increased microbial activity releases micronutrients such as iron
3. The increased microbial activity uses up dissolved oxygen
4. The river water is still suitable for drinking as impurities are only about 0.1%

Answer. 3. The increased microbial activity uses up dissolved oxygen

Question 73. Which one of the following is used as biological insecticide?

1. Tiger beetle
2. Caterpillar
3. Silk moth
4. Majra Poka

Answer. 1. Tiger beetle

Question 74. Biogas production is carried out by

1. Thermoacidophiles
2. Methanogens
3. Halophiles
4. Luminants

Answer. 2. Methanogens

Question 75. Biogas produced by the fermentation of manure, sewage, cattle dung, etc., predominantly comprises

1. Methane, nitrogen, and hydrogen
2. Methane and carbon dioxide
3. Methane and carbon monoxide
4. Methane and nitric oxide

Answer. 2. Methane and carbon dioxide

Question 76. Which one of the following is an example of carrying out biological control of pests/diseases using microbes?

1. Nucleopolyhedrovirus against white rust in Brassica.
2. Bt-cotton to increase cotton yield.
3. Lady bird beetle against aphids in mustard.
4. Trichodrma sp. against certain plant pathogens.

Answer. 4. Trichodrma sp. against certain plant pathogens.

Question 77. Green Revolution in India occurred during

1. 1960’s
2. 1970’s
3. 1980’s
4. 1950’s

Answer. 1. 1960’s

Question 78. In gobar gas, the maximum amount is of

1. Butane
2. Methane
3. Propane
4. Carbon dioxide

Answer. 2. Methane

Question 79. Domestic sewage in large cities

1. Has a high BOD as it contains both aerobic and anaerobic bacteria
2. Is processed by aerobic and then anaerobic bacteria in the secondary treatment in sewage treatment plants (STPs)
3. When treated in STPS does not really require the aeration step as the sewage contains adequate oxygen.
4. Has very high amounts of suspended solids and dissolved salts

Answer. 4. Has very high amounts of suspended solids and dissolved salts

Question 80. During sewage treatment, biogas is produced which includes

1. Methane, oxygen, and hydrogen sulfide
2. Hydrogen sulfide, methane, and sulfur dioxide
3. Hydrogen sulfide, nitrogen, and methane
4. Methane, hydrogen sulfide, and carbon dioxide

Answer. 3. Hydrogen sulfide, nitrogen, and methane

Question 81. A good producer of citric acid is

1. Pseudomonas
2. Clostridium
3. Saccharomyces
4. Aspergillus

Answer. 3. Saccharomyces

NEET Biology Strategies For Enhancement In Food Production Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. Babesia bigemina causes

1. Rhinderpest
2. Tick fever
3. Anthrax
4. Diarrhea

Answer. 2. Tick fever

Question 2. A viral disease of poultry is

1. Coryza
2. New castle disease
3. Pasteurellosis
4. Salmonellosis

Answer. 2. New castle disease

Question 3. Bull semen for artificial insemination is stored in

1. Ice
2. Liquid carbon dioxide
3. Liquid oxygen
4. Liquid nitrogen

Answer. 4. Liquid nitrogen

Question 4. Zebu is

1. Bos indicus
2. Gallus gallus
3. Bubalus bubalus
4. Bombyx mori

Answer. 1. Bos indicus

Question 5. A disease of poultry is

1. Anthrax
2. Ranikhet
3. Foot and mouth disease
4. Pébrine

Answer. 2. Ranikhet

Question 6. One of the earliest animals to be domesticated was

1. Cow
2. Sheep
3. Dog
4. Elephant

Answer. 3. Dog

” strategies for enhancement in food production ncert”

Question 7. The approximate number of cattle breeds in India is

1. 6
2. 16
3. 12
4. 26

Answer. 4. 26

Question 8. Jaffrabadi is a breed of

1. Sheep
2. Cattle
3. Horse
4. Buffalo

Answer. 4. Buffalo

Question 9. Lactation in sterile cows is induced by

1. Gonadotropin
2. Folic acid
3. Oxytocin
4. Stilbesterol

Answer. 4. Stilbesterol

Question 10. A draught breed of cattle is

1. Gir
2. Malvi
3. Deoni
4. Kankrej

Answer. 2. Malvi

Question 11. Surrogate mother is used for

1. Future mother with transplanted embryo
2. Artificial insemination
3. Induction of lactation
4. Artificially inseminated female

Answer. 1. Future mother with transplanted embryo

Question 12. National Dairy Research Institute is situated in

1. Lucknow
2. Patna
3. Karnal
4. Ludhiana

Answer. 3. Karnal

Question 13. Which of the following country is the lowest in milk yield per cow?

1. India
2. UK
3. Switzerland
4. Netherlands

Answer. 1. India

Question 14. Draught breeds produce

1. Good milk producing cows
2. Good working bullocks
3. Both (1) and (2)
4. General utility cattle

Answer. 2. Good working bullocks

Question 15. Super ovulation and embryo transplantation are meant for improving

1. Poultry
2. Human race
3. Livestock
4. Plants

Answer. 3. Livestock

Question 16. High milk-yielding varieties of cows are obtained by

1. Artificial insemination
2. Super ovulation
3. Use of surrogate mothers
4. All of these

Answer. 4. All of these

Question 17. MOET is a method of

1. Fish cultivation
2. Cloning in sheep
3. Hybridization in cattles
4. Birth control in humans

Answer. 3. Hybridization in cattles

Question 18. Gestation period for buffalo is

1. 9 months
2. 14 months
3. 10 months
4. 21-22 months

Answer. 3. 10 months

Question 19. The best milk breed in the world is

1. Sahiwal
2. Deani
3. Holstein Friesian
4. Sindhi

Answer. 3. Holstein Friesian

Question 20. The disease rinderpest is also called

1. Blue tongue
2. Cattle plague
3. Ring worm
4. Both (1) and (3)

Answer. 2. Cattle plague

Question 21. Which of the following breed of buffaloes is mostly demanded?

1. Surti
2. Murrah
3. Jaffrabadi
4. Bhadawari

Answer. 2. Murrah

Question 22. To increase the milk yield, Indian cows are cross-bred with European breeds which are

1. Holstein
2. Brown Swiss
3. Red Dane
4. All of these

Answer. 4. All of these

Question 23. Lohi is a breed of

1. Goat
2. Sheep
3. Horse
4. Buffalo

Answer. 2. Sheep

Question 24. Which of the following statement is correct for honey bees?

1. Queen is sterile haploid female.
2. Workers are diploid males and females.
3. Bee hive has four types of bees.
4. Drones are haploid fertile males.

Answer. 4. Drones are haploid fertile males.

Question 25. Apis dorsata refers to

1. Little bee
2. Indian bee
3. Rock bee
4. European bee

Answer. 3. Rock bee

Question 26. A queen honey bee lays eggs of

1. One type from which all castes develop
2. Two types, one forming queen and workers and second forming drones
3. Three types forming queen, drones, and workers
4. Unfertilized eggs die while fertilized ones form all castes

Answer. 2. Two types, one forming queen and workers and second forming drones

Question 27. Who amongst the following got a noble prize for decoding the language of “bee dances”?

1. Trembley
2. Wilson
3. Karl Von Frish
4. Morgan

Answer. 3. Karl Von Frish

Question 28. Honey bees exhibit a dance to communicate the location of food. It is

1. Break-dance
2. Wagging dance
3. Top dance
4. Round and wagging dance

Answer. 4. Round and wagging dance

Question 29. A colony of honey bee consists of

1. One queen and a few drones
2. One queen, 10-100 drones, and 20,000-60,000 workers
3. Two queens, 5-10 drones, and 20,000 workers
4. No queen, 10-20 drones, and 60,000 workers

Answer. 2. One queen, 10-100 drones, and 20,000-60,000 workers

Question 30. Honey is

1. Alkaline
2. Acidic
3. Almost neutral
4. Basic after some days

Answer. 3. Almost neutral

Question 31. Which among the following is the real product of honey bee?

1. Honey
2. Pollen
3. Bee wax
4. Propolis

Answer. 3. Bee wax

Question 32. Worker bees are

1. Fertile males
2. Fertile females
3. Sterile females
4. Sterile males

Answer. 3. Sterile females

Question 33. Rearing of bees is

1. Horticulture
2. Apiary
3. Apiculture
4. Poultry

Answer. 3. Apiary

Question 34. Honey mainly consists of

1. Monosaccharides
2. Disaccharides
3. Polysaccharides
4. Fats

Answer. 1. Monosaccharides

Question 35. Wax gland occurs in which honey bee?

1. Queen
2. Drones
3. Workers
4. Queen and workers

Answer. 3. Workers

Question 36. What is wrong about bee colony?

1. Sex determination is based on haplodiploidy.
2. Female dominated society.
3. Domesticated species are A. indica and A. mellifera.
4. Fertilized eggs develop into sterile females only.

Answer. 4. Fertilized eggs develop into sterile females only.

Question 37. The young chickens raised specifically for meat are called

1. Broilers
2. Cockerels
3. Pellets
4. Hen

Answer. 1. Broilers

Question 38. Ranikhet disease is connected with

1. Honey bee
2. Hens
3. Fishes
4. Pigs

Answer. 2. Hens

Question 39. Induced breeding is carried out in case of

1. Pisciculture
2. Apiculture
3. Sericulture
4. Lacculture

Answer. 1. Pisciculture

Question 40. The most common species of Indian jungle fowl is

1. Gallus lafayetti
2. Gallus sonneratti
3. Gallus gallus
4. Plymouth rock

Answer. 3. Gallus gallus

Question 41. Some improved cross-breed strains of poultry birds are

1. HH-260
2. IBL-80
3. B-77
4. All of these

Answer. 4. All of these

Question 42. Which amongst the following indigenous fowls is used in cock fighting and is called as Indian game?

1. Aseel
2. Busra
3. Chittagong
4. Ghagus

Answer. 1. Aseel

Question 43. Exotic breeds popularly used in our country are

1. White Leghorn and Rhode Island Red
2. Rhode Island Red and Andalusian
3. Plymouth Rock and Andalusian
4. White Leghom and Andalusian

Answer. 1. White Leghorn and Rhode Island Red

Question 44. Three carp fishes, Catla, Labeo, and Cirrhina, can be grown together in the same pond more economically as they have

1. Positive interactions
2. Commensalism
3. Symbiosis
4. No competition for food

Answer. 4. No competition for food

Question 45. The best aquarium is located at

1. Vishakhapatnam
2. Chennai
3. Tarapur, Mumbai
4. ZSI, Kolkata

Answer. 3. Tarapur, Mumbai

Question 46. Inland fisheries are

1. Deep sea fishing
2. Capturing fishes from sea coast
3. Raising and capturing fishes in fresh water
4. Oil extraction from fish

Answer. 3. Raising and capturing fishes in fresh water

Question 47. Pisciculture is the rearing and production of

1. Fishes
2. Birds
3. Reptiles
4. Wool yielding animals

Answer. 1. Fishes

Question 48. Crustacean fishery is connected with the exploitation of

1. Oysters and crabs
2. Mussels and squids
3. Shells and cuttle fish
4. Lobster and prawn

Answer. 4. Lobster and prawn

Question 49. Ponds are used for rearing

1. Spawns
2. Fingerlings
3. Frils
4. Juveniles

Answer. 2. Fingerlings

Question 50. VHS (viral hemorrhagic septicemia) is a well known infectious disease of

1. Honey bees
2. Silk worm
3. Fishes
4. Poultry birds

Answer. 3. Fishes

Question 51. Tick mark the incorrect match with respect to infectious diseases:

1. Coryza-Poultry birds
2. Pébrine-Silk worm
3. IPN (infectious pancreatic necrosis)-Fishes
4. Muscardine-Honey bees

Answer. 4. Muscardine-Honey bees

Question 52. Fish meat is better than the meat of other animals because it contains more

1. Water
2. Fat
3. Oil
4. Proteins

Answer. 4. Proteins

” class 12 biology ch 9 notes”

Question 53. The latest technique to produce the child is GIFT. The full form is

1. Gametic internal fertilization and transfer
2. Gametic intra fallopian transfer
3. Gametic internal fallopian transfer
4. General internal fallopian transfer

Answer. 2. Gametic intra fallopian transfer

Question 54. Which one is a fungal disease in silkworm?

1. Flacherie
2. Maggot disease
3. Muscardine
4. None of these

Answer. 3. Muscardine

Question 55. Hybrid breed of cattle is

1. Sunandini
2. Holstein
3. Brown Swiss
4. Kankrej

Answer. 1. Sunandini

Question 56. Livestock refers to

1. Pet animals
2. Poultry and pet animals
3. Domestic animals which are kept for use or profit
4. Sheep and goat only

Answer. 3. Domestic animals which are kept for use or profit

Question 57. Cattle breeds in India are classified into

1. Milch and draught breeds
2. Draught and general utility breed
3. Milch, draught, and general utility breeds
4. General utility and milch breeds

Answer. 3. Milch, draught, and general utility breeds

Question 58. Tick mark the incorrect match:

1. Gir, Red Sindhi, and Deoni-Milch breeds
2. Malvi, Nagari, and Halliker-Draught breeds
3. Haryana, Ongole, and Kankrej-Draught breeds
4. Tharparkar, Kankraj, and Ongole-General utility breeds

Answer. 3. Haryana, Ongole, and Kankrej-Draught breeds

Question 59. An improved variety of cattle produced by controlled breeding in our country is

1. Jersey
2. Ayrshire
3. Brown Swiss-Sahiwal
4. Red Dane

Answer. 3. Brown Swiss-Sahiwal

Question 60. Which of the following is a disease-resistant high-yielding breed of poultry developed in Karnataka?

1. Aseel
2. White leghorn
3. Giriraja
4. Plymouth rock

Answer. 1. Aseel

Question 61. The scientific name of zebu is

1. Bos indicus
2. Bombyx mori
3. Bubalus bubalus
4. Gallus gallus

Answer. 1. Bos indicus

Question 62. Fish introduced in India by foreigners is

1. Labeo rohita
2. Pomphret
3. Clarius
4. Mystus singhala

Answer. 2. Pomphret

Question 63. New strains of bird flu virus originate in the Far East because

1. They are overpopulated areas
2. They lack adequate sanitation
3. The various hosts (birds, pigs, and ducks) live in close proximity of man
4. They arise due to mutation

Answer. 3. The various hosts (birds, pigs, and ducks) live in close proximity of man

Question 64. Avian pneumonia is also called

1. Bird flu
2. Newcastle’s disease (Ranikhet disease)
3. Pullorum
4. Coccidiosis

Answer. 2. Newcastle’s disease (Ranikhet disease)

Question 65. Babesia species causes tick fever in which of the following?

A. Cattle (cow and buffalo)

B. Dogs

C.Birds

D. Man

1. (A) only
2. (A) and (B)
3. (A), (B), and (C)
4. (A), (B), (C), and (D)

Answer. 4. (A), (B), (C), and (D)

Question 66. Which of the following animal diseases is caused by a virus?

1. Anthrax
2. Rinderpest
3. Tick fever
4. Coccidiosis

Answer. 2. Rinderpest

Question 67. Following are the steps in the MOET program for herd improvement, in which a cow has been administered hormones with FSH-like activity. What is the correct sequence of steps from A to D?

A. Instead of one egg which it normally produces per cycle, the female cow with hormones injected in it produces 6 to 8 eggs.

B. Transferred to surrogate mother.

C. It is either mated with elite bull or is artificially inseminated.

D. Fertilized eggs at 8-32 celled stage are recovered non-surgically.

1. (A), (C), (D), (B)
2. (C), (A), (B), (D)
3. (C), (A), (D), (B)
4. (A), (C), (B), (D)

Answer. 1. (A), (C), (D), (B)

Question 68. In which part of the body honey bee keeps the nectar for some time?

1. Crop
2. Mouth
3. Gizzard
4. Pollen basket

Answer. 1. Crop

Question 69. Honey has a high content of

1. Levulose
2. Glucose
3. Sucrose
4. Fructose

Answer. 1. Levulose

” class 12 biology chapter 9 notes”

Question 70. The term “livestock” means

1. Domestic animals
2. Poultry animals
3. Pet animals
4. Both (2) and (3)

Answer. 1. Domestic animals

Question 71. Worker honey bee lives for

1. One week
2. Five weeks
3. Ten weeks
4. Fifteen days

Answer. 2. Five weeks

Question 72. The study of fishes is called

1. Ornithology
2. Herpetology
3. Ichthyology
4. Conchology

Answer. 3. Ichthyology

Question 73. Fish culture is called

1. Pisciculture
2. Aquaculture
3. Apiculture
4. Inland fisheries

Answer. 1. Pisciculture

Question 74. Which of the following is a freshwater edible fish?

1. Ele
2. Rohu
3. Hilsa
4. Sardine

Answer. 2. Rohu

Question 75. Inland fisheries means the culturing of fishes in

1. Sea
2. Space
3. Fresh water
4. Marine water

Answer. 3. Fresh water

Question 76. Which of the following is a marine fish?

1. Eel
2. Catla
3. Rohu
4. Magur

Answer. 1. Eel

Question 77. If a honey bee is conveying an information by round dance, then the distance of source will be about

1. 1000 m
2. 50 m
3. 2000 m
4. 150 m

Answer. 2. 50 m

Question 78. Fish rohu widely used for high biological values is rich in

1. Thymine, creatine, and tryosine
2. Lecithin and cholesterol
3. Vitamins B, C, D, and E
4. All of the above

Answer. 4. All of the above

Question 79. Honey bee is of the greatest use to man due to which reason?

1. We get honey from it.
2. Helps in cross-pollination.
3. Because of medicinal value.
4. Entertains.

Answer. 2. Helps in cross-pollination.

Question 80. Inland fisheries is

1. Deep sea fishing
2. Capturing fishes from sea coast
3. Raising and capturing fishes in fresh water
4. Oil extraction from fish

Answer. 3. Raising and capturing fishes in fresh water

Question 81. In poultry, “broiler finish mash” is fed to the chicks from _________ weeks.

1. 1 to 6
2. 7 to 10
3. 10 to 15
4. 15 to 20

Answer. 1. 1 to 6

Question 82. Milk yield of cattle in India is low due to

1. Inadequate food
2. Inferior breed
3. Both of these
4. None of these

Answer. 3. Both of these

Question 83. Whose milk is nutritionally superior?

1. Cow
2. Camel
3. Goat
4. Buffalo

Answer. 4. Buffalo

Question 84. Fish meat is considered to be good because

1. It has more proteins
2. It has more fats
3. It has lesser carbohydrates
4. None of the above

Answer. 1. It has more proteins

Question 85. Frieswal is a cross-breed of

1. Brown Swiss and Sahiwal
2. Tharparkar and Holstein-Friesian
3. Holstein-Friesian x Sahiwal
4. Jersey Sahiwal

Answer. 3. Holstein-Friesian x Sahiwal

Question 86. In poultry, coccidiosis is caused by

1. Virus
2. Fungus
3. Helminth parasite
4. Protozoan

Answer. 4. Protozoan

Question 87. Animal husbandry is

1. Agricultural practice of breeding and raising the livestock
2. Dealing with care and breeding of livestock such as buffaloes, cows, pigs, horses, sheep, and goat.
3. A vital skill for farmers and is as much science as it is an art
4. All of these

Answer. 4. All of these

Question 88. Hisardale, a new breed of sheep developed in Punjab by crossing Bikaneri ewes and Marino rams, is an example of

1. Outcrossing
2. Cross-breeding
3. Interspecific hybridization
4. Outbreeding

Answer. 2. Cross-breeding

Question 89. Inbreeding depression can be overcome by

1. Mating of animals of same breed, but having no common ancestors on either side of their pedigree upto 4-6 generations
2. Mating males of one breed with superior females of another breed
3. Interspecific hybridization
4. All of these

Answer. 1. Mating of animals of same breed, but having no common ancestors on either side of their pedigree upto 4-6 generations

Question 90. The most common species of honey bee reared in hives is

1. Apis florea
2. Apis dorsata
3. Apis indica
4. Apis mellifera

Answer. 3. Apis indica

Question 91. Which of the following industry is devoted to the catching, processing, or selling of fish, shellfish, or other aquatic animals?

1. Aquaculture
2. Inland fishery
3. Fishery
4. Pisciculture

Answer. 3. Fishery

Question 92. Which of the following are edible marine water fishes?

1. Catla, Rohu, Clarias
2. Hilsa, Mackerels, Pompfrets
3. Heteropneustes, Wallago, Catla
4. Labeo, Calbasu, Singhi

Answer. 2. Hilsa, Mackerels, Pompfrets

Question 93. Which of the following points are important for successful bee-keeping?

1. Knowledge of the nature and habits of bees
2. Catching and hiving swarms
3. Management of bee-hives during different seasons
4. All of these

Answer. 4. All of these

Question 94. Isinglass in used for

1. Production of insulin
2. Feeding cattle, pig, and poultry
3. Preparation of paints and varnishes
4. Clarification of vinegar, wines, and beer

Answer. 4. Clarification of vinegar, wines, and beer

Question 95. Cod liver oil is rich in

1. Vitamin 8
2. Vitamin K
3. Vitamins A and D
4. Vitamin C

Answer. 3. Vitamins A and D

Question 96. Smoking is used as a techniques of

1. Fish preservation
2. Mushroom cultivation
3. Crystallization of sugar
4. Crop harvesting

Answer. 1. Fish preservation

Question 97. The term aquaculture means

1. Inland fisheries
2. Aspergillosis
3. Marine fisheries
4. Both (1) and (3)

Answer. 4. Both (1) and (3)

Question 98. Which of the following is not true?

1. Fish meal is rich source of protein for cattle and poultry.
2. Fish meal is produced from the non-edible parts of fishes.
3. Silver revolution is increase in fish production.
4. Shagreen is the skin of shark.

Answer. 3. Silver revolution is increase in fish production.

Question 99. Fish flour is rich in

1. Fat
2. Proteins
3. Vitamins
4. Minerals

Answer. 2. Proteins

Question 100. An improved variety is

1. Always superior to the other existing varieties
2. Always inferior to the other existing varieties
3. May be superior to the other existing varieties
4. More than one answer is correct

Answer. 1. Always superior to the other existing varieties

Question 101. A pure line is obtained through

1. Mass selection
2. Clonal selection
3. Domestication
4. Inbreeding

Answer. 4. Inbreeding

Question 102. Pure line variety of wheat is

1. Sonara 63
2. Sonara 64
3. HUW 468
4. All of these

Answer. 3. HUW 468

Question 103. Wheat variety which was earlier resistant to leaf rust disease but now has become susceptible to the same is known as

1. Kalyan Sona
2. Lerma Rojo
3. Sonara 64
4. Sarbati

Answer. 1. Kalyan Sona

Question 104. Picking up cross-pollinating plants with superior phenotype for further propagation is

1. Mass selection
2. Pure line selection
3. Hybrid vigor
4. Introduction

Answer. 1. Mass selection

Question 105. Emasculation (removal of anthem) is required for

1. Pure lines
2. Selective hybridization
3. Self-pollination
4. Inbreeding

Answer. 2. Selective hybridization

Question 106. Which was first Indian dwarf amber grained variety of wheat made from Sonora 64 by rays?

1. Sonalika
2. Sharbati Sonora
3. Kalyan Sona
4. HUW-468

Answer. 2. Sharbati Sonora

Question 107. The evaluation of a new variety in India is done by

1. IARI
2. IVRI
3. ICAR
4. RRI

Answer. 3. ICAR

Question 108. Gene responsible for dwarfing in wheat is

1. Dee-geo-woo-gen
2. Norin-10
3. Cry gene
4. Nod gene

Answer. 2. Norin-10

Question 109. The crop in which hybrid vigor has been utilized the most is

1. Rice
2. Maize
3. Barley
4. Oat

Answer. 2. Maize

Question 110. Which of the following is a chemical mutagen?

1. Ethyl methane sulfonate and X rays
2. Sodium azide and UV rays
3. Ethyl methane sulfonate and sodium azide
4. X rays, gamma rays, and UV rays

Answer. 3. Ethyl methane sulfonate and sodium azide

Question 111. Scented basmati rice is the contribution of

1. Dr. Borlaug
2. Dr. B.P. Paul
3. Dr. M.S. Swaminathan
4. Dr. A.K. Singh

Answer. 3. Dr. M.S. Swaminathan

Question 112. Which of the following is an example of intergeneric hybridization?

1. Triticale
2. Raphanobrassica
3. Gossypium hirsutum
4. More than one is correct

Answer. 4. More than one is correct

Question 113. The dwarf wheat varieties brought from Mexico to India were

1. Sonalika
2. Sharbati Sonara and Pusa Lerma
3. Sonara-64 and Lerma Rojo-64
4. Sonara-64 and Sonalika

Answer. 3. Sonara-64 and Lerma Rojo-64

Question 114. Maize is rich in

1. Thiamine
2. Lysine
3. Tryptophan
4. Alanine

Answer. 1. Thiamine

Question 115. Bread wheat is

1. Diploid
2. Tetraploid
3. Hexaploid
4. Triploid

Answer. 3. Hexaploid

Question 116. Antinutritional factor neurotoxic cyanoalanine is found in

1. Brassica oleracea
2. Almond
3. Seeds of khesari
4. Kidney bean

Answer. 3. Seeds of khesari

Question 117. Atlas 66 variety of wheat was developed for

1. High protein content
2. Scented grains
3. Checking grassy stunt virus
4. Vitamin C

Answer. 1. High protein content

Question 118. Viruses enter their host through

1. Wounds made by insect vectors
2. Natural openings
3. Direct penetration
4. Wounds made mechanically or by insect vectors

Answer. 3. Direct penetration

Question 119. Late blight of potato is caused by the fungus

1. Fusarium udum
2. Phytophthora infestans
3. Plasmopara viticola
4. Alternaria solani

Answer. 2. Phytophthora infestans

Question 120. Red rot of sugarcane is caused by

1. Anguina tritici
2. Meloidogyne incognita
3. Colletotrichum falcatum
4. Sugarcane mosaic virus

Answer. 3. Colletotrichum falcatum

Question 121. Turnip mosaic and black rot of crucifers are due to

1. Viruses and bacteria, respectively
2. Bacteria and viruses, respectively
3. Bacteria and nematodes, respectively
4. Virus and nematodes, respectively

Answer. 1. Viruses and bacteria, respectively

Question 122. Cereals and millets are mainly deficient in which amino acid?

1. Sulfur-containing amino acids-methionine and cysteine
2. Lysine
3. Tryptophan
4. Both (2) and (3)

Answer. 4. Both (2) and (3)

Question 123. The use of colchicines is involved in the production of

1. Somaclonal variation
2. Haploids
3. Polyploids
4. Hybrids

Answer. 3. Polyploids

Question 124. An important germplasm-storing center in India is

1. CDRI
2. FRI
3. ICRISAT
4. NEERI

Answer. 3. ICRISAT

Question 125. Clonal selection for crop improvement is done in

1. Aruna and NP 836
2. PV-18 and Kalyan Sona
3. HUW-468 and Atomita-2
4. Kufri Sated potato and Bombay Navel

Answer. 4. Kufri Sated potato and Bombay Navel

Question 126. The highest yielding grain crop of the world is

1. Maize
2. Barley
3. Wheat
4. Rice

Answer. 1. Maize

Question 127. Tissue culture is recommended for

1. Production of virus-free plants
2. Induction of polyploidy
3. Phytoremediation
4. Gene cloning

Answer. 1. Production of virus-free plants

Question 128. Which one of the following is a natural culture media?

1. Agar-agar
2. Coconut milk
3. Corn extract
4. All of these

Answer. 2. Coconut milk

Question 129. An embryoid is

1. Somatic embryo developed in culture
2. A microscopic embryo
3. A monozygotic embryo formed in in vitro culture
4. Haploid embryo

Answer. 1. Somatic embryo developed in culture

Question 130. Embryo culture is used for

1. Establishing suspension culture
2. Recovery of interspecific hybrids
3. Somatic hybridization
4. Haploid production

Answer. 2. Recovery of interspecific hybrids

Question 131. Protoplasts of two different cells can be made with the help of

1. Polyethylene glycol (PEG)
2. Calcium chloride
3. Sodium bicarbonate
4. HCI

Answer. 1. Polyethylene glycol (PEG)

Question 132. Protoplast fusion performs

1. Rapid growth of offspring
2. Somatic hybridization
3. Hybridization
4. Acclimatization

Answer. 2. Somatic hybridization

Question 133. A technique of androgenic haploid formation was developed by

1. Carlson et. al.
2. Guha and Maheshwari
3. Halperin and Wetherell
4. Steward et. al.

Answer. 2. Guha and Maheshwari

Question 134. An example of a somaclonal variation is

1. Bhikohin dye
2. Short crop duration in sugarcane
3. Male sterility
4. White rust resistance in crucifers

Answer. 2. Short crop duration in sugarcane

Question 135. Cybrid is a result of

1. Fusion of cytoplasm and nuclei of the two somatic cells
2. Fusion of cytoplasm of two somatic cells but the nuclei remain unfused
3. Fusion of cytoplasm of two somatic cells, but the nucleus of one cell persists and the nucleus of the second cell degenerates
4. Fusion of cytoplasm of two somatic cells, but one part of the nucleus of one cell fuses with the entire nucleus of the second cell

Answer. 3. Fusion of cytoplasm of two somatic cells, but the nucleus of one cell persists and the nucleus of the second cell degenerates

Question 136. Perfect homozygous individuals are produced by

1. Meristem culture
2. Anther culture
3. Protoplast culture
4. Somatic hybridization

Answer. 2. Anther culture

Question 137. Bomato is an example of

1. Parasexual hybrid
2. Interspecific hybrid
3. Sexual hybrid
4. Intrageneric hybrid

Answer. 1. Parasexual hybrid

Question 138. SOP has to be processed to remove excess of

1. Proteins
2. Nucleic acids
3. Minerals
4. Carbohydrates

Answer. 2. Nucleic acids

Question 139. Which one of the following is not an improved variety of flat bean?

1. Pusa Sem 2
2. Pusa Sem 3
3. Pusa Sawani
4. Both (1) and (2)

Answer. 3. Pusa Sawani

Question 140. Nagpuri buffalo is

1. Milker
2. Drought cattle
3. Dual purpose
4. Grazer

Answer. 1. Milker

Question 141. To increase milk yield, cow is given

1. Sorbitol
2. Stilbesterol
3. Prolactin
4. Gonadotrophin

Answer. 2. Stilbesterol

Question 142. The term aquaculture means

1. Inland fisheries
2. Aspergillosis
3. Marine fisheries
4. Both (1) and (3)

Answer. 4. Both (1) and (3)

Question 143. Fishes reared in the cultured fishery in India are

1. Salmon and Rohu
2. Salmon and Catla
3. Catla and Magur
4. Rohu and Catla

Answer. 4. Rohu and Catla

Question 144. The best milk breed in the world is

1. Chittagong
2. Deoni
3. Holstein-Friesian
4. Sindhi

Answer. 3. Holstein-Friesian

Question 145. Which one of the following is a disease of poultry?

1. Anthrax
2. Pebrine disease
3. Ranikhet disease
4. Foot and mouth disease

Answer. 3. Ranikhet disease

Question 146. The yellow-colored milk secreted by cattle soon after the birth of a calf is called

1. Chyme
2. Chyle
3. Cholesterol
4. Colostrum

Answer. 4. Colostrum

Question 147. Bee keeping is known as

1. Pearl culture
2. Pisciculture
3. Sericulture
4. Apiculture

Answer. 4. Apiculture

Question 148. The culturable fishes should

1. Have the ability to feed on natural as well as artificial food diet
2. Be able to tolerate a sudden change in climatic condition
3. Be omnivorous in nature
4. Be slow growing

Answer. 2. Be able to tolerate a sudden change in climatic condition

Question 149. Honey that has a high concentration of sugar does not decay because

1. It contains natural antioxidants that prevent bacterial attack
2. Bacteria cannot survive in an active state in a solution of high osmotic strength as water is drawn out of honey
3. In honey, bacteria are totally deprived of oxygen
4. None of the above

Answer. 1. It contains natural antioxidants that prevent bacterial attack

Question 150. The most commonly maintained species of bee by bee-keepers is

1. Apis mellifera
2. Apis dorsata
3. Apis indica
4. Apis florea

Answer. 1. Apis mellifera

Question 151. Which statement is correct?

1. A. indica is the largest wild honey bee.
2. Wax is the waste material of honey bee.
3. C.V. Fries discovered the transmission methods in honey bee.
4. The drone of honey bee is diploid.

Answer. 2. Wax is the waste material of honey bee.

Question 152. Which one of the following is a viral disease of poultry?

1. Coryza
2. Newcastle disease
3. Pasteurellosis
4. Salmonellosis

Answer. 2. Newcastle disease

Question 153. To yield milk, cow is given

1. Stilbestrol
2. Sorbitol
3. Gonadotropin
4. Prolactin

Answer. 4. Prolactin

Question 154. Pure line breed refers to

1. Heterozygosity only
2. Heterozygosity and linkage
3. Homozygosity only
4. Homozygosity and self-assortment

Answer. 3. Homozygosity only

Question 155. Cattle fed with spoilt hay of sweet clover which contains dicumarol

1. Are healthier due to a good diet
2. Catch infections easily
3. May suffer from vitamin K deficiency and prolonged bleeding
4. May suffer from beriberi due to the deficiency of vitamin B

Answer. 3. May suffer from vitamin K deficiency and prolonged bleeding

Question 156. Drones in a colony of honey bee originate by

1. Thelotoky
2. Cyclic parthenogenesis
3. Arrhenotoky
4. Diploid parthenogenesis

Answer. 3. Arrhenotoky

Question 157. In poultry industry, the production of hatching eggs is more expensive than the production of market eggs mainly because

1. The cost of males and their depreciation in value is high
2. The number of eggs produced by hatchery flock is to be sold only as market eggs
3. Mortality among females is usually lower when they are mated with males
4. Some of the eggs produced by hatchery flocks are not acceptable for incubation

Answer. 4. Some of the eggs produced by hatchery flocks are not acceptable for incubation

Question 158. In India, which of the following species of honey bee is reared in artificial hives?

1. Apis indica
2. Apis florea
3. Apis dorsata
4. None of these

Answer. 1. Apis indica

Question 159. A fungal disease of the poultry is

1. Coccidioss
2. Coryza
3. Moniliasis
4. Marck’s disease

Answer. 3. Moniliasis

Question 160. In a colony of honey bee family, there are

1. Lots of workers, one drone, one queen
2. Lots of workers, few drones, one queen
3. Few workers, few drones, one queen
4. Lots of workers, lots of drones, one queen

Answer. 2. Lots of workers, few drones, one queen

Question 161. Coccidiosis in poultry is caused by

1. Virus
2. Protozoa
3. Nematoda
4. Bacteria

Answer. 2. Protozoa

Question 162. The best milk breed in the world is

1. Chittagong
2. Deoni
3. Holstein-Friesian
4. Sindhi

Answer. 3. Holstein-Friesian

Question 163. Inland fisheries is

1. In freshwater
2. Fishing in island
3. Fish culture in pond
4. Fishing inside water

Answer. 1. In freshwater

Question 164. The drug used for de-worming in poultry is

1. Antihistamine
2. Antiviral
3. Antihelminthic
4. Antibiotic

Answer. 3. Antihelminthic

Question 165. High milk yielding cross-breed, the Frieswal cow, is a product of

1. Friesian and Sahiwal
2. Holstein and Tharpaikar
3. Brown Swiss and Sahiwal
4. Brown Swiss and Red Sindhi

Answer. 1. Friesian and Sahiwal

Question 166. Choose the minor carp from the following:

1. Labeo bata
2. Labeo calbasu
3. Cyprinus carpio
4. Ctenopharyngodon idella

Answer. 1. Labeo bata

NEET Biology For Respiration In Plants Multiple Choice Question And Answers

Question 1. RQ of fats and proteins is generally

1. 1
2. Less than 1
3. Greater than 1
4. Zero

Answer: 2. Less than 1

Question 2. The value of RQ, when the respiratory substance is poor in oxygen, is

1. Zero
2. Infinity
3. Greater than 1
4. Less than 1

Answer: 4. Less than 1

Question 3. The term protoplasmic respiration is used for the respiration of

1. Fats
2. Proteins
3. Carbohydrates
4. Organic acids

Answer: 3. Carbohydrates

Question 4. Common pathways of aerobic and anaerobic respiration is

1. PPP
2. Glycolysis
3. TCA cycle
4. ETS

Answer: 2. Glycolysis

Question 5. Anaerobic respiration in the presence of microorganisms is known as

1. Pasteurization
2. Decay
3. Fermentation
4. Putrefaction

Answer: 3. Fermentation

Question 6. The term anaerobic respiration was coined by

1. Kostylchev
2. Henry Beevers
3. Dickens
4. Cmickshank

Answer: 1. Kostylchev

respiration in plants

Question 7. In anaerobic glycolysis, a net gain of ATP is

1. 2 ATP
2. 6 ATP
3. 8 ATP
4. 1 ATP

Answer: 1. 2 ATP

Question 8. Which is not a product of fermentation?

1. CO₂
2. H₂O
3. ATP
4. Alcohol

Answer: 2. H₂O

Question 9. The site of EMP in eukaryotes is

1. Inner mitochondrial membrane
2. Cytoplasm
3. Mitochondrial matrix
4. Both 2 and 3

Answer: 2. Cytoplasm

Question 10. The pacemaker enzyme of glycolysis is

1. Hexokiimse
2. Hnolnsc
3. Phosphofructokinase
4. Pyruvate kinase

Answer: 3. Phosphofructokinase

Question 11. The number of NADH molecules produced in EMP is

1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4

Answer: 2. 2

Question 12. BTS in Baeleria Lakes place at

1. Cell wall
2. Plasma membrane
3. Nucleus
4. Cytoplasm

Answer: 2. Plasma membrane

Question 13. The path of glucose breakdown to pyruvic acid was discovered by

1. Embden, Meyerhof, and Parnas
2. Warburg and Dickon
3. Sir Hans Kreb
4. Calvin

Answer: 1. Embden, Meyerhof, and Parnas

Question 14. ATPs generated by 1 NADH₂ and 1 FADH₂ are, respectively,

1. 3,2
2. 2,3
3. 3. 5
4. 5, 3

Answer: 1. 3,2

Question 15. The connecting link between glycolysis and the TCA cycle is

1. Acetyl CoA
2. OAK
3. Pyruvic acid
4. Citric acid

Answer: 1. Acetyl CoA

Question 16. The primary acceptor of the TCA cycle is

1. OAA
2. Acetyl CoA
3. Citric acid
4. Pyruvic acid

Answer: 1. OAA

Question 17. In the TCA cycle, how many reduced co-enzymes are produced from one acetyl CoA?

1. 3 NADH₂, 1 FADH₂
2. 2 NADH₂, 1 FADH₂
3. 4 NADH₂, 2 FADH₂
4. 5 NADH₂, 1 FADH₂

Answer: 1. 3 NADH₂, 1 FADH₂

Question 18. The first 5-C acid in the TCA cycle is

1. Citric acid
2. Succinyl CoA
3. a-ketoglutaric acid
4. Fumaric acid

Answer: 3. a-ketoglutaric acid

” fate of pyruvate “

Question 19. The number of total ATP generated in the TCA cycle per acetyl CoA molecule is

1. 10
2. 12
3. 14
4. 24

Answer: 2. 12

Question 20. One molecule of FADH₂ upon oxidative phosphorylation yields

1. 2 ATP
2. 3 ATP
3. 4 ATP
4. 5 ATP

Answer: 1. 2 ATP

Question 21. The element required for the activation of the aconitase enzyme is.

1. Fe²⁺
2. Mn²⁺
3. Mg²⁺
4. All of these

Answer: 1. Fe²⁺

Question 22. A characteristic feature of the ripening of some fruits (such as bananas) is a sudden increase in respiration, which is known as

1. Climactic
2. Photorespiration
3. Anthesis
4. Climacteric

Answer: 4. Climacteric

Question 23. Substrate phosphorylation in TCA occurs when

1. Succinic acid changes to fumaric acid
2. Fumaric acid changes to malic acid
3. Succinyl CoA changes to succinic acid
4. Oxalosuccinic acid changes to ketoglutaric acid

Answer: 3. Succinyl CoA changes to succinic acid

Question 24. The mineral activator needed for the enzyme isocitrate dehydrogenase of the TCA cycle is

1. Fe
2. Mg
3. Mn
4. Cu

Answer: 3. Mn

Question 25. A single turn of the Krebs cycle yields

1. 1 FADH₂, 2 NADH₂, and 1 ATP
2. 2 FADH₂, 2 NADH₂, and 2 ATP
3. 1 FADH₂, 3 NADH₂, and 1 ATP
4. 1 FADH₂, 1 NADH₂, and 1 ATP

Answer: 3. 1 FADH₂, 3 NADH₂, and 1 ATP

Question 26. Fumarase enzyme converts

1. Succinic acid to malic acid
2. Succinic acid to fumaric acid
3. Fumaric acid to malic acid
4. Fumaric acid to citric acid

Answer: 3. Fumaric acid to malic acid

Question 27. ETS (electron transport system) is found in

1. Cytoplasm
2. Mitochondrial matrix
3. Inner mitochondrial membrane
4. Outer mitochondrial membrane

Answer: 3. Inner mitochondrial membrane

Question 28. The number of multiprotein complexes in ETS in mitochondria is

1. 3
2. 4
3. 5
4. 6

Answer: 3. 5

Question 29. The complex concerned with oxidative phosphorylation in the inner mitochondrial membrane is

1. Complex 4
2. Complex 5
3. Complex 3
4. Complex 2

Answer: 2. Complex 5

Question 30. Mobile electron carriers in ETS in the mitochondrial membrane are

1. PQ, PC
2. CoQ, Cyt c
3. PQ, Cyt c
4. PC, CoQ

Answer: 2. CoQ, Cyt c

Question 31. The Proton channel is found in

1. F0 of ATPase
2. F1 of ATPase
3. Cyt c
4. CoQ

Answer: 1. F0 of ATPase

Question 32. In prokaryotic cells, the number of ATPs generated from one glucose molecule is

1. 36
2. 38
3. 34
4. 32

Answer: 2. 38

Question 33. Inhibition of sugar breakdown due to the presence of O₂ under aerobic conditions is called

1. Pasteur effect
2. Warburg effect
3. Gibbs effect
4. Kutusky effect

Answer: 1. Pasteur effect

Question 34. The number of shuttles for transporting extra mitochondrial NADH, into mitochondria is

1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 0

Answer: 2. 2

Question 35. Which acid of the TCA cycle is connecting the link with nitrogen metabolism?

1. Succinic acid
2. Malic acid
3. a-ketoglutaric acid
4. Citric acid

Answer: 3. a-ketoglutaric acid

Question 36. According to the chemiosmotic mechanism for ATP synthesis given by P. Mitchell, the force/factor responsible for ATP synthesis is

1. Membrane potential across the membrane
2. Proton motive force
3. Electron motive force
4. Redox potential

Answer: 2. Proton motive force

Question 37. The intermediate common to fatty acid and carbohydrate oxidation is

1. Pyruvate
2. Acetyl CoA
3. Oxaloacetate
4. Succinate

Answer: 2. Acetyl CoA

Question 38. From the oxidation of one molecule of palmitic acid (fatty acid), the number of ATP molecules gained are

1. 131
2. 129
3. 38
4. 142

Answer: 2. 129

” end product of oxidative phosphorylation “

Question 39. β-oxidation occurs in

1. Pea seeds
2. Gram seeds
3. Wheat grains
4. Cotton seeds

Answer: 4. Cotton seeds

Question 40. The number of dehydrogenations in pentose phosphate pathways is

1. 2
2. 1
3. 3
4. 4

Answer: 1. 2

Question 41. The  ATP cycle was given by

1. Karl Lohman
2. Warburg and Lipman
3. Peter Mitchel
4. Fritz Lipman

Answer: 4. Fritz Lipman

Question 42. In cyanide-resistant respiration, the electrons are passed from ubiquinone to

1. Cyt b
2. Fe-S protein
3. Flavoprotein
4. FMN protein

Answer: 3. Flavoprotein

Question 43. In PPP, the net gain of ATP molecules for one glucose molecule is

1. 34 ATPs
2. 35 ATPs
3. 36 ATPs
4. 38 ATPs

Answer: 2. 35 ATPs

Question 44. A shunt to EMP or a safety valve is called

1. Pentose phosphate pathways
2. Cyanide resistance pathways
3. ED pathway
4. ETS

Answer: 1. Pentose phosphate pathways

Question 45. Which is not an important intermediate of PPP (HMS)?

1. NADPH₂,
2. Erythrose 4phosphate
3. Ribulose
4. Aromatic compounds

Answer: 4. Aromatic compounds

Question 46. The first step of ethyl alcohol fermentation requires

1. Dehydrogenation
2. Decarboxylation
3. FMN
4. Zn²⁺

Answer: 2. Decarboxylation

Question 47. Hexose monophosphate shunt is

1. The pentose phosphate pathway is a set of reactions that bypasses the glycolysis and Krebs cycle routes for glucose oxidation in the cell.
2. Conversion of glucose into pyruvic acid.
3. The sum of all chemical transformations.
4. A process by which starch is synthesized.

Answer: 1. Pentose phosphate pathway or a set of reactions that bypasses the glycolysis and Krebs cycle routes for glucose oxidation in the cell.

Question 48. The efficiency of respiration is approximately

1. 45%
2. 50%
3. 90%
4. 30%

Answer: 1. 45%

” respiration in plant”

Question 49. Cytochromes are

1. Simple proteins
2. S-containing proteins
3. Conjugated proteins
4. Cu-containing proteins

Answer: 3. Conjugated proteins

Question 50. The most appropriate reason for storing green-colored apples at low temperatures is

1. The rate of photosynthesis is reduced.
2. Respiration and photosynthesis are completely inhibited.
3. The rate of respiration is reduced.
4. The rate of photosynthesis and respiration are reduced.

Answer: 3. The rate of respiration is reduced.

Question 51. The Respiratory Quotient (RQ) is defined as

1. Volume of O₂/Vblume of CO₂
2. Volume of CO₂/Volume of O₂
3. Volume of O₂/Volume of N₂
4. Volume of N₂/Volume of CO₂

Answer: 2. Volume of CO₂ /Volume of O₂

Question 52. Pyruvic acid is formed during

1. Krebs cycle
2. Glycolysis
3. Ornithine cycle
4. Calvin cycle

Answer: 2. Glycolysis

Question 53. The correct sequence of electron acceptor in ATP synthesis is

1. cyt, a, a₃ b, c
2. cyt b, c, a, a₃
3. cyt b, c₃, a, a₃
4. cyt c, b, a, a₃

Answer: 2. cyt b, c, a, a₃

Question 54. Which one of the following contains copper besides iron?

1. Cytochrome-f
2. Cytochrome oxidase
3. Platoquinone
4. Cytochrome-C₁

Answer: 2. Cytochrome oxidase

Question 55. Where does the formation of acetyl CoA from pyruvic acid take place?

1. Mitochondria
2. Chloroplast
3. Cytoplasm
4. Golgi body

Answer: 1. Mitochondria

Question 56. The number of ATP molecules produced by the electron  transport system from Krebs cycle intermediates in a single turn is

1. H
2. 14
3. 12
4. 16

Answer: 1. H

Question 57. In anaerobic respiration, the number of ATP molecules  produced are

1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 8

Answer: 2. 2

Question 58. In which of the following steps of the Krebs cycle, CO₂ is evolved?

1. Isocitric acid → Oxalosuccinic acid
2. Oxalosuccinic acid → α-ketoglutaric acid
3. Succinic acid → Fumaric acid
4. Malic acid → Oxaloacetic acid

Answer: 2. Oxalosuccinic acid → α-ketoglutaric acid

Question 59. Which of the following enzymes is not used in the Krebs  cycle?

1. Aconitase
2. Decarboxylase
3. Aldolase
4. Fumarase

Answer: 3.  Aldolase

Question 60. The end product of fermentation is

1. O₂,
2. N₂O
3. H₂O
4. C₂H₅OH

Answer: 4. C₂H₅OH

Question 61. Gluconeogenesis is the

1. Formation of glucose from other than carbohydrate
2. Formation of glycogen
3. Breakdown of glucose
4. Formation of ammonia from glucose

Answer: 1. Formation of glucose from other than carbohydrate

Question 62. β-oxidation takes place in

1. Matrix of mitochondria
2. Cell cytoplasm
3. Inter mitochondrial chamber
4. Ribosomes

Answer: 3. Intermitochondrial chamber

Question 63. In the TCA cycle, the conversion of succinyl CoA to succinic  acid requires

1. Acetyl CoA+GTP + iP
2. Acetyl CoA + GDP + IP
3. CoA+GTP + iP
4. GDP + iP

Answer: 4. GDP + iP

Question 64. Yeast is used in the formation of

1. Ammonia
2. Alcohol
3. Curd
4. Petrol

Answer: 2. Alcohol

Question 65. The equation represents fermentation

Answer: 2. C₆H₁₂O₆ → 2C₂H₅OH + 2CO₂

Question 66. Which of the following is formed during respiration?

1. O₂ (oxygen)
2. CO₂ (carbon dioxide)
3. NO₂ (nitrogen dioxide)
4. SO₂ (sulfur dioxide)

Answer: 2. CO₂ (carbon dioxide)

Question 67. The pyruvic acid formed in glycolysis is oxidized to CO₂ and H₂O in a cycle called

1. Calvin cycle
2. Hill reaction
3. Starch
4. Vitamins

Answer: 3. Starch

Question 68. The end product of glycolysis is

1. Glucose
2. Fructose
3. Pyruvic acid
4. Ethyl alcohol

Answer: 3. Pyruvic acid

Question 69. R.Q. is more than 1 in case of

1. Fat
2. Fructose
3. Glucose
4. Organic acid

Answer: 4. Organic acid

Question 70. The total yield in one Krebs cycle is

1. 3 FADH_2, 2 NADH₂ 1 ATP
2. 2 FADH₂, 2 NADH₂, 2 ATP
3. 2 NADH₂, 1 FADH₂ 2ATP
4. 3 NADH_2, 1 FADH₂, 1 ATP

Answer: 4. 3 NADH₂, 1 FADH₂, 1 ATP

Question 71. How much ATP will be produced during the production of 1 molecule of acetyl CoA from 1 molecule of pyruvic acid?

1. 3 ATP
2. 5 ATP
3. 8 ATP
4. 38 ATP

Answer: 1. 3 ATP

Question 72. The sequence of cytochromes is

1. Cyt a, b, c, a₃
2. Cyt b, c, a, a₃
3. Cyt b, a, a₃, c
4. Cyt b, c, a₃, a

Answer: 2. Cyt b, c, a, a₃

Question 73. Cytochrome is a

1. Mg pyrrole ring
2. Fe porphyrin ring
3. Nucleotide
4. Alloy of nichrome

Answer: 2. Fe porphyrin ring

Question 74. Krebs cycle takes place in

1. Mitochondrial matrix
2. Cytoplasm
3. Lysosome
4. Nucleus

Answer: 1. Mitochondrial matrix

Question 75. Cellular respiration occurs in

1. Chloroplast
2. Golgi bodies
3. Mitochondria
4. Nucleus

Answer: 3. Mitochondria

Question 76. Maximum amount of energy/ATP is liberated on the oxidation of

1. Fats
2. Proteins

Answer: 1. Fats

Question 77. More CO₂ is evolved than the volume of oxygen consumed when the respiratory substrate is

1. Fat
2. Sucrose
3. Glucose
4. Organic acid

Answer: 4. Organic acid

Question 78. Krebs cycle begins with the reaction [Jharkhand 2004]

1. Citric acid + Acetyl CoA
2. Oxaloacetic acid + Pyruvic acid
3. Oxaloacetic acid + Citric acid
4. Oxaloacetate + Acetyl CoA

Answer: 4. Oxaloacetate + Acetyl CoA

Question 79. Hydrolysis of fat yields

1. Fatty acids
2. Fatty acids and glycerol
3. Mannose and glycerol
4. Maltose and fatty acid

Answer: 2. Fatty acids and glycerol

Question 80. Respiratory quotient of which diet is less than unity?

1. Carbohydrate
2. Fats
3. Organic acid
4. Sugar

Answer: 2. Fats

Question 81. The richest energy compound is

1. Creatinine phosphate
2. protein
3. Carbohydrate
4. Fat

Answer: 4. Fat

Question 82. The stage up to which glycolysis and fermentation are common is

1. Dihydroxyacetone
2. 3-Phosphoglyceraldehyde
3. Pyruvate
4. Glucose-6-phosphate

Answer: 3. Pyruvate

Question 83. The respiratory quotient of carbohydrate is

1. Unity
2. Greater than unity
3. Less than unity
4. Equal to five

Answer: 1. Less than unity

Question 84. During the conversion of pyruvic acid into acetyl CoA,  pyruvic acid is

1. Oxidized
2. Reduced
3. Isomerized
4. Condensed

Answer: 1. Oxidized

Question 85. In the Krebs cycle,

1. ADP is converted into CO₂
2. Pyruvic acid is converted into CO₂ and H₂O
3. Glucose is converted into CO₂
4. Pyruvic acid is converted into ATP

Answer: 2. Pyruvic acid is converted into CO₂ and H₂O

Question 86. Incomplete breakdown of sugar in anaerobic respiration forms

1. Glucose and CO₂
2. Alcohol and CO₂
3. Water and CO₂
4. Fructose and water

Answer: 2. Alcohol and CO₂

Question 87. The significance of the Krebs cycle is the

1. Synthesis of ATP
2. Synthesis of amino acid
3. Synthesis of chlorophyll
4. All of the above

Answer: 4. All of the above

Question 88. In plants, respiration takes place

1. During day only
2. During night only
3. All 24 hours
4. At dusk

Answer: 3. All 24-hours

Question 89. Glycolysis takes place in

1. Cytoplasm
2. Nucleus
3. Plastid
4. Mitochondria

Answer: 1. Cytoplasm

Question 90. In respiration, the largest amount of energy is produced in

1. Anaerobic respiration
2. Krebs cycle
3. Glycolysis
4. None of the above

Answer: 2. Krebs cycle

Question 91. Which of the following is not an intermediate in the Krebs  cycle?

1. Acetic acid
2. Succinyl coenzyme-A
3. Malic acid
4. Citric acid

Answer: 1. Acetic acid

Question 92. The pyruvic acid is formed during

1. Krebs cycle
2. Glycolysis
3. Ornithine cycle
4. Photophosphorylation

Answer: 2. Glycolysis

Question 93. The number of ATP molecules gained during aerobic respiration of 1 mole of glucose is

1. 12
2. 18
3. 30
4. 38

Answer: 4. 38

Question 94. Alcoholic fermentation takes place in the presence of

1. Maltase
2. Zymase
3. Amylase
4. Invertase

Answer: 2. Zymase

Question 95. The site of the EMP pathway in the cell is

1. Peroxisome
2. Cytoplasm
3. Matrix of mitochondria
4. The inner membrane of mitochondria

Answer: 2. Cytoplasm

Question 96. The steps of respiration are controlled by

1. Substrates
2. Enzymes
3. Hormone
4. Bile juice

Answer: 2. Enzymes

Question 97. Enzymes of the electron transport system are present in

1. Inner mitochondrial membrane
2. Matrix
3. Intermembranous space
4. Endoplasmic reticulum

Answer: 1. Inner mitochondrial membrane

Question 98. Which of the following connects glycolysis to Krebs cycle?

1. Acetyl Co A
2. Ribozyme
3. Cytochrome oxidase
4. N-acetyl glucosamine

Answer: 1. Acetyl Co A

Question 99. Pyruvic acid is the end product of

1. Krebs cycle
2. Electron transport system
3. Photosynthesis
4. Glycolysis

Answer: 4. Glycolysis

Question 100. Which of the following accepts terminal electrons during aerobic respiration?

1. Molecular O₂
2. Molecular H₂
3. Molecular CO₂
4. NADPH₂

Answer: 1. Molecular O₂

Question 101. Glycolysis occurs in

1. Cytoplasm
2. Nucleus
3. Mitochondria
4. Both 1 and 3

Answer: 1. Cytoplasm

Question 102. Which one of the following is the first step of glycolysis?

1. Breakdown of glucose
2. Phosphorylation of glucose
3. Conversion of glucose into fructose
4. Dehydrogenation of glucose

Answer: 2. Phosphorylation of glucose

Question 103. How many ATP molecules are released when 1 molecule of glucose is oxidized in our liver cells?

1. 36
2. 38
3. 2
4. 8

Answer: 2. 38

Question 104. The sequence of food materials consumed during starvation is

1. Carbohydrates→ Fats → Proteins
2. Carbohydrates → Proteins → Fats
3. Proteins → Fats → Carbohydrates
4. Fats → proteins → Carbohydrates

Answer: 1. Carbohydrates → Fats → Proteins

Question 105. How many ATPs are produced during the glycolysis of one molecule of glucose?

1. 4
2. 2
3. 36
4. 38

Answer: 2. 2

Question 106. The final electron acceptor in ETS is

1. NAD
2. FAD
3. Oxygen
4. Hydrogen

Answer: 3. Oxygen

Question 107. The respiratory cycle where NADH₂ is produced is

1. Calvin cycle
2. Krebs cycle
3. EMP pathway
4. HMP shunt

Answer: 2. Krebs cycle

Question 108. Most of the enzymes that participate in the Krebs cycle are found in

1. Matrix of mitochondria
2. The inner membrane of mitochondria
3. The outer membrane of mitochondria
4. Stroma of chloroplast

Answer: 1. Matrix of mitochondria

Question 109. The connecting link between glycolysis and the Krebs cycle is

1. Acetyl CoA
2. CoQ
3. Coenzyme
4. CoA

Answer: 1. Acetyl CoA

Question 110. The process of oxidative phosphorylation takes place in

1. Mitochondria
2. Chloroplasts
3. Ribosomes
4. Cytoplasm

Answer: 1. Mitochondria

Question 111. Glycolysis is the conversion of

1. Glucose to glycogen
2. Glycogen to glucose
3. Glucose to pyruvic acid
4. Glucose to citric acid

Answer: 3. Glucose to pyruvic acid

Question 112. Anaerobic respiration takes place in

1. Ribosome
2. Nucleus
3. Cytoplasm
4. Vacuole

Answer: 3. Cytoplasm

Question 113. Which of the following is the product of glucose fermentation by yeast?

1. C₆H₁₂O₆
2. C₂H₅OH
3. (C₆H₁₀O₅)_n
4. CH₂OH

Answer: 2. C₂H₅OH

Question 114. Fermentation is an

1. Anaerobic respiration
2. Incomplete oxidation
3. Excretory process
4. None of the above

Answer: 2. Incomplete oxidation

Question 115. Organelles that are regarded as the house of the cell and in which oxidative reactions of the respiratory process take place are known as 

1. Chloroplast
2. Ribosomes
3. Mitochondria
4. Endoplasmic reticulum

Answer: 3. Mitochondria

Question 116. In which of the following, respiration in the absence of oxygen also takes place?

1. Man
2. Potato
3. Yeast
4. Spirogyra

Answer: 3. Yeast

Question 117.CO₂ is liberated during

1. Ascent of sap
2. Respiration
3. Photosynthesis
4. Transpiration

Answer: 2. Respiration

Question 118. ATP stands for which of the following?

1. Adenine tetraphosphate
2. Adenine triphosphate
3. Adenosine diphosphate
4. Adenosine triphosphate

Answer: 4. Adenosine triphosphate

Question 119. Glycolysis occurs in

1. Vacuoles
2. Nucleolus
3. Mitochondria
4. Cytoplasm

Answer: 4. Cytoplasm

Question 120. The number of ATP produced during the production of 1 molecule of acetyl CoA from 1 molecule of pyruvic acid is

1. 3 ATP
2. 8 ATP
3. 36 ATP
4. 38 ATP

Answer: 1. 3 ATP

Question 121. The energy produced by one ATP molecule is

1. 7.6 kcal
2. 12kcal
3. 20 kcal
4. 100 kcal

Answer: 1. 7.6 kcal

Question 122. Which of the following shows anaerobic respiration?

1. Earthworms
2. Rabbit
3. Echinoderras
4. Tapeworms

Answer: 4. Tapeworms

Question 123. It is believed that the organisms that first inhabited the earth’s surface were

1. Autotrophs
2. Mixotrophs
3. Chemoautotrophs
4. Heterotrophs

Answer: 3. Chemoautotrophs

Question 124. Pyruvic acid before combining with the oxaloacetic acid of the Krebs cycle becomes

1. Citric acid
2. Acetoacetic acid
3. Cis-aconitic acid
4. Acetyl CoA

Answer: 4. Acetyl CoA

Question 125. Anaerobic respiration takes place in

1. Ribosome
2. Nucleus
3. Cytoplasm
4. Vacuole

Answer: 3. Cytoplasm

Question 126. What is the energy coin of a cell?

1. DNA
2. RNA
3. ATP
4. Minerals

Answer: 3. ATP

Question 127. The process of oxidative phosphorylation takes place in

1. Mitochondria
2. Chloroplasts
3. Ribosomes
4. Cytoplasm

Answer: 1. Mitochondria

Question 128. RQ of which diet is less than unity?

1. Carbohydrate
2. Fats
3. Organic acid
4. Sugar

Answer: 2. Fats

Question 129. Pyruvic acid is the end product of which process?

1. Krebs cycle
2. Calvin cycle
3. Pentose phosphate pathway
4. Glycolysis

Answer: 4. Glycolysis

Question 130. 1 molecule glucose, 6 molecules of O₂, and 38 ADP combine to form 6H₂O, 6CO₂, and

1. 38 molecules of ATP
2. 28 ATP
3. 38 ADP
4. 28 ADP

Answer: 1. 38 molecules of ATP

Question 131. The number of ATP obtained at the end of the Krebs cycle

1. 2 ATP
2. 4 ATP
3. 8 ATP
4. 38 ATP

Answer: 4. 8 ATP

Question 132. During the formation of bread, it becomes porous due to  the release of CO₂ by the action of

1. Yeast
2. Bacterial
3. Virus
4. Protozoans

Answer: 1. Yeast

Question 133. How many ATP molecules are produced by the aerobic oxidation of one molecule of glucose?

1. 2
2. 4
3. 38
4. 34

Answer: 3. 38

Question 134. In which one of the following do the two names refer to the same thing?

1. Krebs cycle and Calvin cycle
2. Tricarboxylic acid cycle and citric acid cycle
3. Citric acid cycle and Calvin cycle
4. Tricarboxylic acid cycle and urea cycle

Answer: 2. Tricarboxylic acid cycle and citric acid cycle

Question 135. In alcohol fermentation,

1. Triosephosphate is the electron donor, while acetaldehyde is the electron acceptor.
2. Triosephosphate is the electron donor, while pyruvic acid is the electron acceptor.
3. There is no electron donor.
4. Oxygen is the electron acceptor.

Answer: 1. Triosephosphate is the electron donor, while acetaldehyde is the electron acceptor.

Question 136. In glycolysis, during oxidation, electrons are removed by

1. Molecular oxygen
2. ATP
3. Glyceraldehyde
4. NAD+

Answer: 4. NAD+

Question 137. Aerobic respiration is how many times more useful than anaerobic respiration

1. 2
2. 8
3. 9
4. 38

Answer: 3. 9

Question 138. For the retting of jute, the fermenting microbe used is

1. Helicobacter pylori
2. Methanophilic bacteria
3. Streptococcus lactic
4. Butyric acid bacteria

Answer: 4. Butyric acid bacteria

Question 139. During which stage in the complete oxidation of glucose are the greatest number of ATP molecules formed from ADP?

1. Conversion of pyruvic acid to acetyl CoA
2. Electron transport chain
3. Glycolysis
4. Krebs cycle

Answer: 2. Electron transport chain

Question 140. The deficiencies of micronutrients affect not only the growth of plants but also vital functions such as photosynthetic and mitochondrial electron flow. Among the list given below, which group of three elements shall affect the most, both photosynthetic and mitochondrial electron transport?

1. Cu, Mn Fe
2. Co, Ni, Mo
3. Mn Co, Ca
4. Ca, K, Na

Answer: 1. Cu, Mn Fe

Question 141. The chemiosmotic theory of ATP synthesis in the chloro- plast and mitochondria is based on

1. Proton gradient
2. Accumulation of K ions
3. Accumulation of Na ions
4. Membrane potential

Answer: 1. Proton gradient

Question 142. Respiration is which type of process?

1. Catabolic
2. Metabolic
3. Anabolic
4. None

Answer: 1. Catabolic

Question 143. RQ is represented by

1. O₂ /CO₂
2. CO₂ /O₂ ,
3. V₂ /(V₂ -V)
4. O₂ taken in

Answer: 2. CO₂ /O,

Question 144. Which is the site of the Krebs cycle?

1. Chloroplast
2. Golgi body
3. Mitochondria
4. Endoplasmic reticulum

Answer: 3. Mitochondria

Question 145. The curing of tea leaves is brought about by the activity of

1. Viruses
2. Fungi
3. Bacteria
4. Mycorrhiza

Answer: 3. Bacteria

Question 146. Which of the following statements regarding mitochondrial membrane is NOT correct?

1. The inner membrane is highly convoluted forming a series of infolding.
2. The outer membrane resembles a sieve.
3. The outer membrane is permeable to all kinds of molecules.
4. The enzymes of the electron transfer chain are embedded in the outer membrane.

Answer: 4. The enzymes of the electron transfer chain are embedded in the outer membrane.

Question 147. How many ATP molecules could maximally be generated from one molecule of glucose, if the complete oxidation of one mole of glucose to C02 and H20 yields 686 kcal and the useful chemical energy available in the high energy phosphate bond of 1 mole of ATP is 2 kcal?

1. 57
2. 2
3. 30
4. 28

Answer: 1. 57

Question 148. The overall goal of glycolysis, the Krebs cycle, and the electron transport system is the formation of

1. Nucleic acids
2. ATP in small stepwise units
3. ATP in one large oxidation reaction
4. Sugars

Answer: 2. ATP in small stepwise units

Question 149. All enzymes of the TCA cycle are located in the mitochondrial matrix except one which is located in the iimer mitochondrial membrane in eukaryotes and cytosol in prokaryotes. This enzyme is

1. Succinate dehydrogenase
2. Lactate dehydrogenase
3. Isocitrate dehydrogenase
4. Malate dehydrogenase

Answer: 1. Succinate dehydrogenase

Question 150. Which one of the following mammalian cells is not capable of metabolizing glucose to carbon dioxide aerobically?

1. Red blood cells
2. White blood cells
3. Unstriated muscle cells
4. Liver cells

Answer: 1. Red blood cells

Question 151. A competitive inhibitor of succinic dehydrogenase is

1. μ-ketoglutarate
2. Malate
3. Malonate
4. Oxaloacetate

Answer: 3. Malonate

Question 152. The chemiosmotic coupling hypothesis of oxidative  phosphorylation proposes that adenosine triphosphate (ATP) is formed because

1. A proton gradient forms across the inner membrane
2. There is a change in the permeability of the inner mitochondrial membrane towards adenosine diphosphate (ADP)
3. Hich-energy bonds are formed in mitochondrial proteins
4. ADP is pumped out of the matrix into the intermembrane space

Answer: 1. A proton gradient forms across the inner membrane

Question 153. The energy-releasing process in which the substrate is oxidized without an external electron acceptor is called

1. Aerobic respiration
2. Glycolysis
3. Fermentation
4. Photorespiration

Answer: 3. Fermentation

Question 154. In germinating seeds, fatty acids are degraded exclusively in the

1. Peroxisomes
2. Mitochondria
3. Proplastids
4. Glyoxysomes

Answer: 4. Glyoxysomes

Question 155. The energy-releasing metabolic process in which the substrate is oxidized without an external electron acceptor is called(Pre)

1. Aerobic respiration
2. Photorespiration
3. Glycolysis
4. Fermentation

Answer: 4. Fermentation

NEET Biology Neural Control And Coordination Multiple Choice Questions Answers

Question 1. Cranial and spinal nerves can be included under

1. Central nervous system
2. Autonomic nervous system
3. Peripheral nervous system
4. Visceral nervous system

Answer: 3. Peripheral nervous system

Question 2. Odd one out w.r.t. origin.

1. Astrocyte
2. Microglial cells
3. Oligodendrocytes
4. Ependyma cells

Answer: 2. Microglial cells

Question 3. In human beings, a typical nerve cell is

1. Bipolar
2. Apolar
3. Multipolar
4. Pseudounipolar

Answer: 3. Multipolar

Question 4. The rapid movement of Na⁺ ions from extracellular fluid into the nerve cell leads to

1. Polarization
2. Depolarization
3. Repolarization
4. All of these

Answer: 2. Depolarization

Question 5. Depolarization is an/a

1. Active process
2. Passive process
3. Both active and passive process
4. First, it is passive and then it becomes active

Answer: 2. Passive process

” nervous system questions and answers pdf “

Question 6. If the Na⁺-K⁺ pump stops working, then

1. Na⁺ and K⁺ will be in excess in extracellular fluid
2. Na⁺ will be in excess in extracellular fluid
3. K⁺ will be excess in intracellular fluid
4. Na⁺ will be in excess in intracellular fluid

Answer: 4. Na⁺ will be in excess in intracellular fluid

Question 7. If the receptors are removed from the post-synaptic membrane, then

1. Synaptic transmission will be faster
2. The chemical synaptic transmission will become slow
3. Chemical synaptic transmission will not occur
4. Synaptic transmission will be not affected

Answer: 3. Chemical synaptic transmission will not occur

Question 8. For most excitable cells, the threshold stimulus is

1. +40 mV
2. -55 to -60 mV
3. +60 mV
4. -70 mV

Answer: 2. -55 to -60 mV

Question 9. The rate of conduction of impulse will be faster in the case of

1. Myelinated nerve fibers
2. Thicker nerve fibers
3. Non-myelinated nerve fibers
4. Both 1 and 2

Answer: 4. Both 1 and 2

Question 10. The synaptic cleft, an intercellular gap separating the axon tip and target neuron, is

1. 10-20 nm
2. 10-20 μm
3. 1 dm
4. 1-10 mm

Answer: 1. 10-20 nm

Question 11. Axon endings release from their synaptic vesicles a neurotransmitter substance known as

1. Acetylcholine
2. Acetylcholinesterase
3. Inositol-3 phosphate
4. Diacylglycerol

Answer: 1. Acetylcholine

Question 12. What is common about serotonin, acetylcholine, adrenaline, and noradrenaline?

1. All are antidiuretic drugs.
2. All are pain-relieving drugs.
3. All are chemical transmitters or neurohormones.
4. All are blood pressure-lowering drugs.

Answer: 3. All are chemical transmitters or neurohormones.

Question 13.In the presence of Ca²⁺ channel blockers, which of the following will be true?

1. Neurotransmitter is released but the Na⁺ channel of post-synaptic neuron will not open.
2. Neurotransmitter is not released but the Na⁺ channel of the post-synaptic neuron will open up.
3. Neurotransmitter is released but the K⁺ channel of post-synaptic neuron opens up.
4. Neither neurotransmitter is released nor the Na⁺ channel of post-synaptic neuron open up.

Answer: 4. Neither neurotransmitter is released nor the Na4 channel of the post-synaptic neuron opens up.

Question 14. The largest number of cell bodies of neurons in our body is found in

1. Brain
2. Retina
3. Spinal cord
4. Tongue

Answer: 1. Brain

Question 15. One of the following is not the lobe of the cerebral hemisphere.

1. Parietal lobe
2. Occipital lobe
3. Temporal lobe
4. Olfactory lobe

Answer: 4. Olfactory lobe

Question 16. A highly vascular and closely investing protective coat around the brain is known as

1. Arachnoid
2. Pia mater
3. Dura mater
4. Sub-arachnoid space

Answer: 2. Pia mater

Question 17. Corpus callosum is the link between

1. Cerebellar hemispheres
2. Midbrain and hindbrain
3. Cerebral hemisphere
4. Brain and cranium

Answer: 3. Cerebral hemisphere

Question 18. The genu and splenium in the brain are associated with

1. Cerebellum
2. Cerebrum
3. Medulla oblongata
4. Vermis

Answer: 2. Cerebrum

Question 19. Due to the presence of gyri and sulci, the surface area of the cerebral cortex almost

1. Doubles
2. Becomes three times
3. Becomes four times
4. Becomes six times

Answer: 2. Becomes three times

Question 20. Which part of the brain is involved in organizing the behavior of an organism related to its survival?

1. Amygdala lobe
2. Cerebral cortex
3. Corpus callosum
4. Hypothalamus

Answer: 4. Hypothalamus

Question 21. Which part of the limbic system converts information from short-term to long-term memory, essential in learning?

1. Amygdala
2. Basal ganglia
3. Hippocampus
4. Hypothalamus

Answer: 3. Hippocampus

Question 22. Characteristically large large-flask-shaped Purkinje cells are associated with

1. Cerebral cortex
2. Cerebellar cortex
3. Pons
4. Hypothalamus

Answer: 2. Cerebellar cortex

Question 23. Which part is involved in the movement of the head to locate and detect the source of a sound?

1. Superior colliculi
2. Inferior colliculi
3. Pons
4. Medulla oblongata

Answer: 2. Inferior colliculi

Question 24. Activities of the cerebellum are

1. AH is involuntary but may involve learning in the early stage
2. All are voluntary and may involve learning in their early stage
3. All are voluntary and do not involve learning in their early stage
4. All are involuntary and do not involve learning in their early stage

Answer: 1. AH is involuntary but may involve learning in the early stage

Question 25. Basal ganglion is a collection of subcortical nuclei in the forebrain, at the base of the cortex. A primary function of the basal ganglia is

1. Sensory integration
2. Short term memory
3. Planning stereotyped movements
4. Neuroendocrine control

Answer: 3. Planning stereotyped movements

Question 26. Which part of the brain is like a defense castle controlling moods and plays an important role in emotional behavior such as aggression and remembering fear?

1. Hippocampus
2. Amygdala
3. Limbic system
4. Thalamus

Answer: 2. Amygdala

Question 27. The link between parallel and diaconal is through

1. Foramina Luschka
2. Foramina Magendie
3. Foramen of Monro
4. Aqueduct of Sylvius

Answer: 3. Foramen of Monro

Question 28. Pallium is

1. Lateral walls of the diencephalon
2. Lateral walls of the cerebrum
3. Floor walls of paracoel
4. Roof of paracoel

Answer: 4. Roof of paracoel

Question 29. The brain stem consists of

1. Medulla oblongata, pons Varolii, cerebellum
2. The cerebellum, diencephalon, and midbrain
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Medulla, pons, midbrain

Answer: 4. Medulla, pons, midbrain

Question 30. The function of the choroid plexus is

1. To produce lymph
2. To produce blood
3. To produce cerebrospinal fluid
4. To produce endolymph

Answer: 3. To produce cerebrospinal fluid

Question 31. The pneumonitis center in the body is present in

1. Heart
2. Lungs
3. Pons Varolii
4. Medulla

Answer: 3. Pons Varolii

Question 32. One of the following transmits impulses from one side of the cerebellum to the other

1. Pons Varolii
2. Crura cerebri
3. Corpora quadrigeminal
4. Cerebellum

Answer: 1. Pons Varolii

Question 33. A branched tree-like structure present in the cerebellum is

1. Arboreal
2. Areole
3. Arbor vitae
4. Archenteron

Answer: 3. Arbor vitae

Question 34. Vermis is

1. A tiny worm
2. Cavity of medulla
3. The small median lobe of the cerebellum in mammals
4. A portion of the midbrain

Answer: 3. The small median lobe of the cerebellum in mammals

Question 35. The vomiting center is situated in

1. Cerebrum
2. Cerebellum
3. Medulla
4. Hypothalamus

Answer: 3. Medulla

Question 36. The CSF moves from the ventricle of the brain to the subarachnoid space through

1. Foramina Magendie
2. Foramina Luschka
3. Foramen of Monro
4. Both 1 and 2

Answer: 4. Both 1 and 2

Question 37. The end of the spinal cord is

1. Cauda equina
2. Foramina Luschka
3. Filum terminals
4. Both 1 and 2

Answer: 2. Foramina Luschka

Question 38. Brachial swelling of the spinal cord extends from

1. 4th cervical to the 1st thoracic vertebrae
2. 1st cervical to the 4th cervical vertebrae
3. 5th cervical to the 8th cervical vertebrae
4. 1st thoracic to the 4th thoracic vertebrae

Answer: 1. 4th cervical to the 1st thoracic vertebrae

Question 39. Those nerves which carry impulses from the central nervous system to the muscles and glands are known as

1. Sensory nerves
2. Motor nerves
3. Mixed nerves
4. Afferent nerves

Answer: 2. Motor nerves

Question 40. The trigeminal nerve arises from the brain in the region of

1. Pons varolii and divides into palatine, chorda tym-pani, and hyomandibular
2. Medulla and divides into palatine, hyomandibular, and chorda tympani
3. The cerebellum divides into ophthalmic, maxillary, and mandibular
4. Pons Varolii and divides into ophthalmic, maxillary, and mandibular

Answer: 4. Pons Varolii divides into ophthalmic, maxillary, and mandibular

Question 41. The nerve related to eyeball movement, accommodation, and contraction of the pupil is

1. Optic
2. Auditory
3. Oculomotor
4. Trochlear

Answer: 3. Oculomotor

Question 42. How many pairs of cranial nerves are purely sensory?

1. Five
2. Four
3. Six
4. Three

Answer: 4. Three

Question 43. Gastric and pancreatic secretion, gastrointestinal movements, respiratory reflexes, and visceral reflexes are controlled by

1. Vagus
2. Abducens
3. Oculomotor
4. Trochlear

Answer: 1. Vagus

“nervous system questions “

Question 44. Which one of the following pairs is the motor nerve?

1. Oculomotor and facial
2. Vagus and trigeminal
3. Optic and olfactory
4. Trochlear and hypoglossal

Answer: 4. Trochlear and hypoglossal

Question 45. The lateral rectus muscle of the eye is provided with which cranial nerve?

1. 3
2. 4
3. 5
4. 6

Answer: 4. 6

Question 46. Paralysis of jaw muscles is due to the loss of function of which cranial nerve?

1. 3
2. 5
3. 7
4. 10

Answer: 2. 5

Question 47. Which of the following cranial nerves in man is both sensory and motor?

1. Optic
2. Olfactory
3. Trigeminal
4. Auditory

Answer: 3. Trigeminal

Question 48. Which of the following cranial nerves arc linked with taste buds?

1. 7 and 3
2. 9 and 2
3. 4 and 8
4. 7 and 9

Answer: 4. 7 and 9

Question 49. The smallest cranial nerve in the body is

1. Trigeminal
2. Abducens
3. Ophthalmic
4. Trochlear

Answer: 4. Trochlear

Question 50. The fourth cranial nerve of man is

1. Abducens
2. Trochlear
3. Auditory
4. Oculomotor

Answer: 2. Trochlear

Question 51. The spinal nerve plexus involving the 1st thoracic spinal nerve is

1. Cervical plexus
2. Brachial plexus
3. Lumbar plexus
4. Sacral plexus

Answer: 2. Brachial plexus

Question 52. The number of spinal nerves in man is

1. 31
2. 62
3. 12
4. 24

Answer: 2. 62

Question 53. What is the function of the parasympathetic nervous system?

1. Acceleration of heartbeat
2. Constriction of pupil
3. Stimulation of sweat gland
4. Contraction of erector pili

Answer: 2. Constriction of the pupil

Question 54. The ganglia that lie nearer to the tissues and away from the chain and in which preganglionic fibers terminate are known as

1. Autonomic ganglion
2. Collateral ganglion
3. Paratonic ganglion
4. None of these

Answer: 2. Collateral ganglion

Question 55. Which of the following cranial nerves is involved in the sympathetic nervous system?

1. 3
2. 7
3. Both of these
4. None of these

Answer: 4. None of these

Question 56. The neurotransmitter with the sympathetic postganglionic nerve fiber terminating at the sweat gland is

1. Epinephrine
2. Acetylcholine
3. Adrenaline
4. Both 1 and 3

Answer: 2. Acetylcholine

Question 57. Reflex action is exhibited by

1. Sympathetic nerves
2. Sensory nerves
3. Automatic response
4. Motor nerves

Answer: 3. Automatic response

Question 58. In reflex action, the reflex arc is formed by

1. Brain-spinal cord-muscles
2. Receptor-spinal cord-muscles
3. Muscles-receptor-muscles
4. Muscles-spinal cord-receptor

Answer: 2. Receptor-spinal cord-muscles

Question 59. Which one is not a reflex action?

1. Closing the eyelids suddenly
2. Release of saliva
3. Obeying the order
4. None of these

Answer: 3. Obeying the order

Question 60. Receptors of pain are

1. Free nerve endings
2. Merkel’sdiscs
3. Meissner’s corpuscles
4. Pacinian corpuscles

Answer: 1. Free nerve endings

Question 61. Krause’s end bulbs arc the skin receptors which are concerned with the sense of

1. Touch
2. Heat
3. Cold
4. Pressure

Answer: 3. Cold

Question 62. Meissner’s corpuscles are located in

1. Pancreas secrete trypsinogen
2. Adrenal and secrete trypsinogen
3. Spleen and destroy erythrocytes
4. Skin and perceive gentle pressure

Answer: 4. Skin and perceive gentle pressure

Question 63. Tactile organs at the root of the hair are

1. Free nerve endings (nerve basket)
2. Epidermis and dermis
3. Dorsal branches of spinal nerves
4. Touch corpuscles

Answer: 1. Free nerve endings (nerve basket)

Question 64. The receptors located in muscles, joints, and tendons are known as

1. Exteroceptors
2. Proprioceptors
3. Interoceptors
4. External receptors

Answer: 2. Proprioceptors

Question 65. The corpuscles lying deep in the dermis and responsible for deep pressure are known as

1. Pacinian corpuscles
2. Meissner’s corpuscles
3. Merkel’s discs
4. Ruffini’s endings

Answer: 1. Pacinian corpuscles

Question 66. White of the eye is

1. Cornea
2. Sclera
3. Choroid
4. Conjunctiva

Answer: 2. Sclera

Question 67. Pupil is regulated by

1. Radial muscles
2. Circular muscles
3. Meridional muscles
4. Radial and circular muscles

Answer: 4. Radial and circular muscles

“control and coordination questions “

Question 68. The exposed transparent region of the eyeball represents

1. Fovea
2. Cornea and conjuctiva
3. Fibrous coat
4. Cornea

Answer: 2. Cornea and conjunctiva

Question 69. Macula lutea is a part of

1. Optic nerve
2. Sclerotic
3. Choroid
4. Retina

Answer: 4. Retina

Question 70. Color to the eye is imparted by

1. Lens
2. Pupil
3. Iris
4. Vitreous humor

Answer: 3. Iris

Question 71. Eye muscles are attached with

1. Sclerotic
2. Cornea
3. Choroid
4. Retina

Answer: 1. Sclerotic

Question 72. The eye rotates in the orbit by

1. Six muscles
2. Three muscles
3. Four muscles
4. Five muscles

Answer: 1. Six muscles

Question 73. Cornea transplantation is especially successful because

1. Its technique is very simple.
2. The preservation of the cornea is very simple.
3. Cornea has no relation with blood circulation and immunization.
4. The cornea is available easily.

Answer: 3. Cornea has no relation with blood circulation and immunization.

Question 74. When the object is at a distance of more than 6 m, at that time

1. Ciliary muscles arc fully contracted
2. The convexity of a lens is the maximum
3. Eyes are fully relaxed
4. All of these

Answer: 3. Eyes arc fully relaxed

Question 75. The part of the eye which acts like a diaphragm of a photographic camera is

1. Pupil
2. Iris
3. Lens
4. Cornea

Answer: 2. Iris

Question 76. The ciliary body is located

1. Near the ciliary muscles
2. Near the blind spot
3. Just behind the cornea
4. At the junction of the iris and choroid

Answer: 4. At the junction of the iris and choroid

Question 77. Cyanopsin pigment is sensitive to

1. Green color
2. Red color
3. Blue color
4. Dim light

Answer: 3. Blue color

Question 78. The chamber between the iris and lens in the cavity of the eyeball is known as

1. Vitreous chamber
2. Aqueous chamber
3. Posterior part of vitreous chamber
4. Posterior part of an aqueous chamber

Answer: 4. Posterior part of aqueous chamber

Question 79. In old age, the vision of the eye becomes dim. It is due to

1. Myopia
2. Hypermetropia
3. Cataract
4. Astigmatism

Answer: 3. Cataract

Question 80. In hypermetropia, the image is formed

1. Before the retina is corrected by a convex lens
2. Behind the retina and is corrected by a convex lens
3. Before the retina is corrected by the concave lens
4. Behind the retina and is corrected by the concave lens

Answer: 2. Behind the retina and is corrected by a convex lens

Question 81. In presbyopia,

1. The eyeball becomes short
2. The lens becomes opaque
3. The retina gets damaged
4. Diminution of accommodation of lens due to loss of elasticity

Answer: 4. Diminution of accommodation of lens due to loss of elasticity

Question 82. In myopia, light rays from far-off objects converge

1. Behind the retina
2. In front of the retina
3. On the retina
4. In the retina

Answer: 2. In front of the retina

Question 83. The overproduction of aqueous humor results in

1. Astigmatism
2. Fovea centralis
3. Macula lutea or yellow spot
4. Glaucoma

Answer: 4. Glaucoma

Question 84. Short-sightedness or myopic vision is corrected by wearing

1. Convex lenses
2. Concave lenses
3. Convex mirrors
4. Concave mirrors

Answer: 2. Concave lenses

Question 85. During the transmission of impulse from the tympanum to the internal ear, amplification of sound waves occurs. The amplification due to the difference in the size of the tympanum and fenestra ovalis is about

1. 10 times
2. 22 times
3. 2.2 times
4. 40 times

Answer: 3. 2.2 times

Question 86. In the tympanic cavity, there is an aperture in which stapes are fitted. It is

1. Foramen rotundus
2. Foramen triosseum
3. Foramen of Monro
4. Fenestra ovalis

Answer: 4. Fenestra ovalis

Question 87. The upper aperture which puts the tympanic cavity in communication with a narrow space around the internal ear is known as

1. Fenestra ovalis
2. Fenestra rotundus
3. Fossa ovalis
4. Foramen ovale

Answer: 1. Fenestra ovalis

Question 88. Which of the following structures is not filled with endolymph?

1. Utriculus
2. Tympanic cavity
3. Sacculus
4. Semicircular canal

Answer: 2. Tympanic cavity

Question 89. One of the following is a stirrup-shaped bone.

1. Incus
2. Malleus
3. Stapes
4. Tongue shaped

Answer: 3. Stapes

Question 90. Which part of the internal ear receives sound waves in man?

1. Cochlea
2. Lagena and utriculus
3. Ampullae and utriculus
4. None of these

Answer: 1. Cochlea

Question 91. One of the following is not a part of the membranous labyrinth.

1. Semicircular canal
2. Cochlear duct
3. Vestibule
4. Bony labyrinth

Answer: 4. Bony labyrinth

“class 11 neural control and coordination “

Question 92. The membranous labyrinth is found in

1. Columella auris
2. Occipitals
3. Parietals
4. Periotic

Answer: 4. Periotic

Question 93. The equilibrium is maintained by

1. Semicircular ducts
2. Ampulla
3. Crista
4. Cupula

Answer: 3. Crista

Question 94. The roof of scala media is called

1. Reissner’s membrane
2. Basilar membrane
3. Tectorial membrane
4. Organ of Corti

Answer: 1. Reissner’s membrane

Question 95. The tectorial membrane is found in the

1. Eye of frog
2. Eye of mammals
3. Ear of mammals
4. Tongue of frog

Answer: 3. Ear of mammals

Question 96. A molecule cannot be tasted or smelled until it has been

1. Converted into protein
2. Converted into transmitter
3. Grouped into multimolecular complex
4. Dissolved in a liquid

Answer: 4. Dissolved in a liquid

Question 97. Bowman’s glands are associated with

1. Olfactory epithelium
2. Taste buds
3. Organ of Corti
4. Vallate papillae

Answer: 1. Olfactory epithelium

Question 98.The activity of which cranial nerve can protect by warning about harmful chemicals in the air?

1. 5
2. 9
3. 6
4. 10

Answer: 1. 5

Question 99. The total number of taste buds in the human tongue is approximately

1. 1000
2. 10,000
3. 100,000
4. 50,000

Answer: 2. 10,000

Question 100. Which of the following cranial nerves is involved in causing the movement of the tongue?

1. 7
2. 9
3. 10
4. 11

Answer: 4. 11

Question 101. In right-handed individuals,

1. The left cerebral hemisphere is poorly developed
2. The right hemisphere is the dominant hemisphere
3. The left cerebral hemisphere is the dominant hemisphere
4. Both cerebral hemispheres are dominant

Answer: 3. The left cerebral hemisphere is the dominant hemisphere

Question 102. Stimulation of parasympathetic nerves is likely to produce all of the following except

1. Decreased insulin secretion
2. Increased exocrine pancreatic secretion
3. Increased bile synthesis
4. Increased gastric secretion

Answer: 1. Decreased insulin secretion

Question 103. The hypothalamus is involved in the regulation of

1. Circadian rhythm

2. Water balance

3. Respiration and heartbeat

4. Maintenance of homeostasis

5. Appetite and Satiety

Mark the correct one.

1. (1), (2), (3), (4), and (5)
2. (2) and (4) only
3. (1), (2), (3), and (4) only
4. (1), (2), and (4) only

Answer: 1. (1), (2), (3), (4), and (5)

Question 104. Which of the following do not occur during accommodation reflex?

1. Contraction in ciliary muscles
2. Suspensory ligaments become loose
3. Decrease in radius of curvature
4. Decreasing refraction

Answer: 4. Decreasing refraction

Question 105. Broca’s area (motor speech) is located in

1. Frontal lobe
2. Parietal lobe
3. Temporal lobe
4. Occipital lobe

Answer: 1. Frontal lobe

Question 106. Mark the incorrect match.

1. Parkinson’s—Deficiency of dopamine disease
2. Schizophrenia—Excess of dopamine
3. Excess of Alzheimer’s disease—Acetylcholine
4. Multiple sclerosis—Degeneration myelin sheath

Answer: 3. Excess of Alzheimer’s disease—Acetylcholine

Question 107. A person is unable to speak fluent sentences, although he has no problem understanding written or spoken words due to damage to the

1. Broca’s area
2. Wernicke’sarea
3. Visual area
4. Auditory area

Answer: 1. Broca’s area

Question 108. When the visual field of both eyes overlaps, it is called

1. Binocular vision
2. Monocular vision
3. Stereoscopic vision
4. Both 1 and 3

Answer: 1. Binocular vision

Question 109. If we accidentally focus on intense light sources such as the sun. it will damage

1. Macula lutea
2. Lens
3. Blind spot
4. Cornea

Answer: 1. Macula lutea

Question 110. If we put water in the eye. there will be blurred images due to

1. Decrease in refraction as cornea forms plane surface
2. Increase in refraction as cornea forms plane surface
3. Decrease in refraction as cornea forms a concave surface
4. Increase in refraction as cornea forms concave surface.

Answer: 1. Decrease in refraction as cornea forms plane surface

Question 111. The correct sequence of meninges from inner to outer side is

1. Arachnoid → Dura mater → Pia mater
2. Arachnoid → Pia mater → Dura mater
3. Pia mater → Dura mater → Arachnoid
4. Pia mater → Arachnoid → Dura mater

Answer: 4. Pia mater → Arachnoid → Dura mater

Question 112. The Vagus nerve is composed mainly of parasympathetic fibers. The preganglionic fibers form a network known as

1. Choroid plexus
2. Nervousplexus
3. Auerbach’s plexus
4. Brachialplexus

Answer: 3. Auerbach’s plexus

Question 113. During nerve impulse transmission, the permeability of the membrane is greater for

1. Na⁺
2. K⁺
3. Equal for both 1 and 2
4. Ca²⁺

Answer: 1. Na⁺

Question 114. In mammals, the brain center, which regulates body temperature, is situated in

1. Cerebrum
2. Olfactory lobe
3. Cerebellum
4. Medulla oblongata

Answer: 1. Cerebrum

Question 115. The junction between the axon of one neuron and the dendrite of the next is called

1. A joint
2. A synapse
3. Constant bridge
4. Junction point

Answer: 2. A synapse

Question 116. Which one of the following is a motor nerve?

1. Auditoty
2. Abducens
3. Optic nerve
4. Trigeminal nerve

Answer: 2. Abducens

Question 117. NissI granules are absent in

1. Axon
2. Cyton
3. Dendron
4. Schwann cells

Answer: 1. Axon

Question 118. Which of the following is a purely motor cranial nerve?

1. Olfactory
2. Optic
3. Abducens
4. Vagus

Answer: 3. Abducens

Question 119. The trigeminal nerve in the case of frogs is

1. 1 cranial nerve
2. 2 cranial nerve
3. 4 cranial nerve
4. 5 cranial nerve

Answer: 4. 5 cranial nerve

Question 110. In the human body, muscular coordination is controlled by

1. Spinal cord
2. Cortex
3. Cerebellum
4. Cerebral hemisphere

Answer: 3. Cerebellum

Question 111. The sense of smell is controlled by

1. Cerebrum
2. Cerebellum
3. Olfactory lobe
4. Hypothalamus

Answer: 1. Cerebrum

Question 112. The third ventricle connects to lateral ventricles through

1. Foramen magnum
2. Foramen monro
3. Foramen magnetic
4. Foramen Anuschka

Answer: 2. Foramen monro

Question 113. The connection between axon and dendrite is

1. Synapse
2. Synapse
3. Desmosome
4. Tight junction

Answer: 1. Synapse

Question 114. Depolarization of axolemma during nerve conduction takes place because of

1. Equal amounts of Na⁺ and K⁺ move out across axon- lemma
2. Na+ move inside
3. More Na⁺ outside
4. None

Answer: 2. Na⁺ move inside

“questions about the nervous system “

Question 115. Which of the following statements is correct for the node of Ranvier of nerve

1. Neurilemma is discontinuous.
2. Myelin sheath is discontinuous.
3. Both neurilemma and myelin sheath are discontinuous.
4. Covered by myelin sheath.

Answer: 2. Myelin sheath is discontinuous.

Question 116. What used to be described as Nissl granules in a nerve cell are now identified as

1. Cell metabolites
2. Fat granules
3. Ribosomes
4. Mitochondria

Answer: 3. Ribosomes

Question 117. In the resting state of the neural membrane, diffusion due to concentration gradients, if allowed, would drive

1. K⁺ and Na⁺ out of the cell
2. Na⁺ into the cell
3. Na⁺ out of the cell
4. K⁺ into the cell

Answer: 2. Na⁺ into the cell

Question 118. Unidirectional transmission of a nerve impulse through nerve fibers is because

1. Nerve fiber is insulated by a medullary sheath.
2. The sodium pump starts operating only at the cyton and then continues into the nerve fiber.
3. Neurotransmitters are released by dendrites and not by axon endings.
4. Neurotransmitters are released by axon endings and not by dendrites.

Answer: 4. Neurotransmitters are released by axon endings and not by dendrites.

Question 119. Nerve cells do not possess

1. Neurilemma
2. Sarcolemma
3. Dendrites
4. Axon

Answer: 2. Sarcolemma

Question 120. Dendrites are associated with which system?

1. Nervous system
2. Digestive system
3. Muscular system
4. Blood vascular system

Answer: 1. Nervous system

Question 121. During the transmission of nerve impulses through a nerve fiber, the potential on the inner side of the plasma membrane has which type of electric charge?

1. First positive, then negative, and continue to be negative
2. First negative, then positive, and continue to be positive
3. First positive, then negative, and again back to positive
4. First negative, then positive, and again back to negative

Answer: 4. First negative, then positive, and again back to negative

Question 122. Arbor vitae is a part of

1. Cerebrum
2. Cerebellum
3. Midbrain
4. Forebrain

Answer: 2. Cerebellum

Question 123. Which has H-shaped gray matter?

1. Cerebrum
2. Spinal cord
3. Cerebellum
4. Medulla oblongata

Answer: 2. Spinal cord

Question 124. Which of the following is the part of the midbrain of the rabbit?

1. Cerebrum
2. Diencephalon
3. Corpora quadrigemina
4. None of these

Answer: 3. Corpora quadrigemina

Question 125. The function of cerebrospinal fluid does not include

1. Protection of the brain and spinal cord by containing antibody
2. Protection of delicate brain and spinal cord from shock
3. As a medium for the excretion of waste product
4. Buoyancy to brain

Answer: 1. Protection of the brain and spinal cord by containing antibody

Question 126. The third ventricle lies in

1. Medulla oblongata
2. Midbrain
3. Diencephalon
4. Cerebrum

Answer: 3. Diencephalon

Question 127. Which part of the brain is supposed to be damaged if, in an accident, a person loses control of water balance, hunger, and body temperature?

1. Cerebellum
2. Hypothalamus
3. Medula oblongata
4. Corpora quadrigemina

Answer: 2. Hypothalamus

Question 128. Column 1 lists the parts of the human brain and column 2 lists the function. Match the two columns and identify the correct choice from those given.

Answer: 4.

Question 129. Which of the following destroys acetylcholinesterase?

1. Malathion
2. CO
3. KCN
4. Colchicine

Answer: 1. Malathion

Question 130. Botulism affects

1. Digestive system
2. Blood vascular system
3. Nervous system
4. Respiratory system

Answer: 3. Nervous system

Question 131. Nor-epinephrine leads to an increase in

1. Blood pressure
2. Urine production
3. Cellular respiration
4. Release of epinephrine

Answer: 1. Blood pressure

Question 132. Injury to the vagus nerve in humans is not likely to affect

1. Gastrointestinal movements
2. Pancreatic secretion
3. Cardiac movements
4. Tongue movements

Answer: 4. Tongue movements

Question 133. In a man, the abducens nerve is injured. Which one of the following functions will be affected?

1. Movement of the neck
2. Movement of the tongue
3. Movement of the eyeball
4. Swallowing

Answer: 3. Movement of the eyeball

Question 134. One of the examples of the action of the autonomous nervous system is

1. Pupillary reflex
2. Swallowing of food
3. Peristalsis of the intestines
4. Knee-jerk response

Answer: 3. Peristalsis of the intestines

Question 135. Excessive stimulation of the vagus nerve in humans may lead to

1. Hoarse voice
2. Peptic ulcers
3. Efficient digestion of protein
4. Irregular contractions of the diaphragm

Answer: 2. Peptic ulcers

Question 136. Mulch the following human spinal nerves in column 1 with 2 and choose the correct options:

1. 1→ B, 2 → D, 3 → A, 4 → C
2. 1 → D, 2 → C, 3→ A, 4 → B
3. 1 → D, 2 → B, 3 → A, 4 → D
4. 1→ A, 2 → D, 3 → B, 4 → C

Answer: 2. 1 → D, 2 → C, 3→ A, 4 → B

Question 137. The ninth pair of cranial nerves in frog is

1. Vagus
2. Trigeminal
3. Hypoglossal
4. Glossopharyngeal

Answer: 4. Glossopharyngeal

Question 138. Which of the following is not under the control of the vagus nerve?

1. Gastrointestinal movement
2. Respiratory movement
3. Salivation
4. None of these

Answer: 3. Salivation

Question 139. Which of the following is released by the parasympathetic nervous system?

1. Serotonin
2. Acetylcholine
3. Epinephrine
4. Nor-epinephrine

Answer: 2. Acetylcholine

“questions about nervous system “

Question 140. The mandibular nerve is the branch of which cranial nerve?

1. 2
2. 3
3. 5
4. 6

Answer: 3. 5

Question 141. The Vagus nerve is composed mainly of parasympathetic fibers. The preganglionic fibers form a network in the walls of the gut. This network is known as

1. Choroid plexus
2. Nervous plexus
3. Auerbach’s plexus
4. Brachial plexus

Answer: 3. Auerbach’s plexus

Question 142. Given below is a table comparing the effects of sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system for four features (1-4). Which one feature is correctly matched?

Answer: 2.

Question 143. Effect of anesthetics on the body

1. Inhibits Na-K pump
2. Kills nerves
3. Stops brain functions
4. Inactivates skin cells

Answer: 1. Inhibits Na-K pump

Question 144. A deficiency of oxygen affects mainly the

1. Brain
2. Skin
3. Kidney
4. Intestine

Answer: 1. Brain

Question 145. Neuroglial cells associated with

1. Heart
2. Kidney
3. Brain
4. Eyes

Answer: 3. Brain

Question 146. Adrenaline directly affects on

1. S A node
2. β-cells of Langerhans
3. Dorsal root of the spinal cord
4. Epithelial cells of the stomach

Answer: 1. S A node

Question 147. In which animal, nerve cell is present but brain is absent?

1. Sponge
2. Earthworm
3. Cockroach
4. Hydra

Answer: 4. Hydra

Question 148. Which of the following is the dominant intracellular anion?

1. Potassium
2. Chloride
3. Phosphate
4. Calcium

Answer: 3. Phosphate

Question 149. The nervous system develops from

1. Ectoderm
2. Mesoderm
3. Ectomesoderm
4. Endomesoderm

Answer: 1. Ectoderm

Question 150. Which of the following is not correctly matched?

1. Rhinencephalon—Olfaction
2. Hypothalamus—Pituitary
3. Cerebellum—Balance
4. Medulla oblongata—Temperature regulation

Answer: 4. Medulla oblongata—Temperature regulation

Question 151. The internal carotid artery supplies blood to

1. Kidney
2. Liver
3. Heart
4. Brain

Answer: 4. Brain

Question 152. Which one of the following characters is not typical of the class Mammalia?

1. Seven cervical vertebrae
2. Thecodont dentition
3. Alveolar lungsnerves
4. Ten pairs of cranial

Answer: 4. Ten pairs of cranial

Question 153. Parkinson’s disease (characterized by tremors and progressive rigidity of limbs) is caused by the degeneration of brain neurons that are involved in movement control and make use of neurotransmitter

1. Acetylcholine
2. Nor-epinephrine
3. Dopamine
4. GABA

Answer: 3. Dopamine

Question 154. Which one of the following statements is correct?

1. Neither hormones control neural activity, nor the nervous control endocrine activity
2. Endocrine glands regulate neural activity, but not vice versa
3. Neurons regulate endocrine activity, but not vice versa
4. Endocrine glands regulate neural activity and the nervous system regulates endocrine glands

Answer: 4. Endocrine glands regulate neural activity and the nervous system regulates endocrine glands

Question 155. Which one of the following does not act as a neurotransmitter?

1. Nor-epinephrine
2. Cortisone
3. Acetylcholine
4. Epinephrine

Answer: 2. Cortisone

Question 156. Which of the following two systems are opposite in action to each other?

1. Nervous, sensory
2. Nervous, endocrine
3. Sensory, Endocrine
4. Parasympathetic, sympathetic

Answer: 4. Parasympathetic, sympathetic

Question 157. Which of the following structures is present only in the mammalian brain?

1. Corpus luteum
2. Corpus striatum
3. Corpus fibrosum
4. Corpuscallosum

Answer: 4. Corpuscallosum

Question 158. You are watching a horror movie and you notice your heart is beating fast and your mouth is dry. It is because of

1. Fight and flight response
2. Autonomic nervous system
3. Sympathetic nervous system
4. Both 1 and 3

Answer: 2. Autonomic nervous system

Question 159. Tongue is under the control of

1. Trigeminal
2. Facial
3. Autonomic system
4. Glossopharyngeal

Answer: 4. Glossopharyngeal

Question 160. The number of cranial nerves in frogs is

1. 10
2. 12
3. 10 pairs
4. 12 pairs

Answer: 3. 10 pairs

Question 161. Intercellular communication in multicellular organisms occurs through

1. Nervous system only
2. Digestive system only
3. Respiratory system only
4. Both the nervous and endocrine systems

Answer: 4. Both the nervous and endocrine systems

Question 162. Which of the following substances leads to the inhibition of the central nervous system?

1. Glycine
2. GABA
3. Nor-epinephrine
4. Both 1 and 2

Answer: 4. Both 1 and 2

Question 163. Which one of the following pairs of structures distinguishes a nerve cell from other types of cells?

1. Vacuoles and fibers
2. Flagellum and medullary sheath
3. Nucleus and mitochondria
4. Perikaryon and dendrites

Answer: 4. Perikaryon and dendrites

Question 164. The fifth cranial nerve of a frog is called

1. Optic nerve
2. Vagus
3. Trigeminal
4. Ophthalmic

Answer: 3. Trigeminal

Question 165. If the dorsal root of the spinal cord is broken down, then its effect is

1. No effect on impulse
2. Impulse is transmitted fast
3. Impulse is transmitted but slowly
4. No impulse is transmitted from the receptor

Answer: 4. No impulse is transmitted from the receptor

Question 166. The acetylcholinesterase enzyme splits acetylcholine into

1. Acetone and choline
2. Acetic acid and choline
3. Amino acid and choline
4. Aspartic acid and acetylcholine

Answer: 2. Acetic acid and choline

Question 167. The olfactory area is present in :

1. Frontal lobe
2. Parietal lobe
3. Temporal lobe
4. Occipital lobe

Answer: 3. Temporal lobe

Question 168. Somesthetic or post-central area is responsible for

1. Initiation of motor impulses for voluntary muscles
2. Initiation of motor impulses for involuntary muscles
3. Perception of pain, touch, and temperature
4. Coordination of speech

Answer: 3. Perception of pain, touch, and temperature

Question 169. Dilation of the pupil of the human eye is caused by

1. Parathormone
2. Sympathetic
3. Parasympathetic nerve system
4. Autonomic nervous

Answer: 2. Sympathetic

Question 170. The nerve impulse is generated when nerve cell undergoes

1. Depolarization
2. Repolarization
3. Hyperpolarization
4. Pscudopolarization

Answer: 1. Depolarization

Question 171. Nerve impulse initiates with the movements of

1. K⁺
2. Na⁺
3. Ca²⁺
4. Mg²⁺

Answer: 2. Na⁺

Question 172. Which part of the brain controls intellectual ability?

1. Frontal lobe
2. Parietal lobe
3. Temporal lobe
4. Occipital lobe

Answer: 1. Frontal lobe

Question 173. The occipital lobe is connected with

1. Smell
2. Vision
3. Speech
4. Hearing

Answer: 2. Vision

Question 174. A: The imbalance in the concentration of Na⁺, K⁺, and proteins generates resting potential. R: To maintain the unequal distribution of Na⁺ and K⁺, the neurons use electrical energy.

1. Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is a true statement, but (R) is false.
4. Both (A) and (R) are false.

Answer: 2. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Question 175. During the conduction of nerve impulses, the action potential is the result of the movement of

1. Na⁺ from intracellular fluid to extracellular fluid
2. Na⁺ from extracellular fluid to intracellular fluid
3. Na⁺ toward both directions
4. None of the above

Answer: 2. Na⁺ from extracellular fluid to intracellular fluid

Question 176. Which of the damaged cells cannot be repaired?

1. Liver cells
2. Brain cells
3. Bone cells
4. Epidermal cells

Answer: 2. Brain cells

Question 177. The 4 cranial nerve is

1. Facial
2. Trochlear
3. Olfactory
4. Oculomotor

Answer: 2. Trochlear

Question 178. Adrenaline is equivalent to which neurotransmitter?

1. GABA
2. Serotonin
3. Epinephrine
4. Nor-epinephrine

Answer: 3. Epinephrine

Question 179. All sensory pathways to the cerebral cortex synapse at

1. Pons
2. Thalamus
3. Cerebellum
4. Hypothalamus

Answer: 1. Pons

Question 180. A man is admitted to a hospital. He is suffering from an abnormally low body temperature, loss of appetite, and extreme thirst. His brain scan would probably show a tumor in

1. Pons
2. Cerebellum
3. Hypothalamus
4. Medulla oblongata

Answer: 3. Hypothalamus

Question 181. The nerve centers which control the body temperature and the urge to eat are contained in

1. Pons
2. Thalamus
3. Cerebellum
4. Hypothalamus

Answer: 4. Hypothalamus

Question 182. The optic lobes in humans are represented by corpora

1. Bigemina
2. Arenacea
3. Striata
4. Quadrigemina

Answer: 4. Quadrigemina

Question 183. In a medullated nerve fiber, the conduction of impulses is faster due to the presence of

1. Pericytes
2. Nissl granules
3. Endoneurium and Epineurium
4. Myelin sheath and node of Ranvier

Answer: 4. Myelin sheath and node of Ranvier

Question 184. Which of the following is not an effect of the sympathetic nervous system?

1. Dilation of the pupil
2. Inhibition of peristalsis
3. Elevation of blood pressure
4. Stimulation of saliva secretion

Answer: 4. Stimulation of saliva secretion

Question 185. When a neuron is in a resting state, i.e., not conducting any impulse, the axonal membrane is

1. Comparatively more permeable to Na⁺ ions and nearly impermeable to K⁺ ions
2. Equally permeable to both Na⁺ and K⁺ ions
3. Impermeable to both Na⁺ and K⁺ ions
4. Comparatively more permeable to K⁺ ions and nearly impermeable to Na⁺ ions

Answer: 4. Comparatively more permeable to K⁺ ions and nearly impermeable to Na⁺ ions

Question 186. The human hindbrain comprises three parts, one of which is

1. Corpus callosum
2. Cerebellum
3. Hypothalamus
4. Spinal cord

Answer: 2. Cerebellum

Question 187. Diagrammatic cross-section of a single loop of human cochlea

Which one of the following options correctly represents the names of the three different parts?

1. D: Sensory hair cells, A: Endolymph, B: Tectorial membrane
2. A: Perilymph, B: Tectorial membrane, C: Endolymph
3. B: Tectorial membrane, C: Perilymph, D: Secretory cells
4. C: Endolymph, D: Sensory hair cells, A: Serum

Answer: 2. A: Perilymph, B: Tectorial membrane, C: Endolymph

Question 188. Which one of the following is the correct difference between rod cells and cone cells of our retina?

Answer: 1

Question 189. A coma transplant in humans is almost never rejected. This is because

1. It is composed of enucleated cells
2. It is a non-living layer
3. Its cells are least penetrable by bacteria
4. It has no blood supply

Answer: 4. It has no blood supply

Question 190. Static equilibrium is maintained by

1. Utriculus
2. Sacculus
3. Both of these
4. Semicircular canals

Answer: 3. Both of these

Question 191. Organ of Corti helps in

1. Maintaining equilibrium
2. Formation of wax
3. Hearing
4. All of these

Answer: 3. Hearing

Question 192. Eustachian tube connects

1. Pharynx to the middle ear
2. Middle ear to external ear
3. Left ventricle to right ventricle
4. Left atrium to right atrium

Answer: 1. Pharynx to middle ear

Question 193. Which organ of the rabbit is concerned with equilibrium?

1. Cochlea
2. Ear ossicles
3. Eustachian ducts
4. Semicircular canals

Answer: 4. Semicircular canals

Question 194. Bowman’s glands are found in

1. Olfactory epithelium
2. External auditory canal
3. Cortical nephrons only
4. Juxtamedullary nephrons

Answer: 1. Olfactory epithelium

Question 195. The correct order of arrangement of ear ossicles starting from the tympanum is

1. Incus, malleus, stapes
2. Malleus, incus, stapes
3. Stapes, malleus, incus
4. Incus, stapes, malleus

Answer: 2. Malleus, incus, stapes

Question 196. In the following abnormalities of the eyes, which one is a serious condition that leads to blindness?

1. Myopia
2. Glaucoma
3. Presbyopia
4. Astigmatism
5. Hypermetropia

Answer: 2. Glaucoma

Question 197. The lens and cornea do not have a blood supply. So the nutrients are supplied by

1. Retina
2. Eyelash
3. Blind spot
4. Aqueous humor

Answer: 4. Aqueous humor

Question 198. Which part of the human ear plays no role in hearing as such but is otherwise very much required?

1. Organ of Corti
2. Vestibular apparatus
3. Ear ossicles
4. Eustachian tube

Answer: 2. Vestibular apparatus

Question 199. Select the answer that correctly matches the endocrine gland with the hormone it secretes and its function/deficiency symptom.

Answer: 2.

Question 200. Parts A, B, C, and D of the human eye. Select the option which gives correct identification along with its functions/characteristics.:

1. B—Blind spot—Has only a few rods and cones.
2. C—Aqueous chamber—Reflects the light which does not pass through the lens.
3. D—Choroid—Its anterior part forms the ciliary body.
4. A—Retina—Contains photoreceptors: rods and cones.

Answer: 4. A—Retina—Contains photoreceptors: rods and cones.

Question 201. Axon terminal and synapse. Identify correctly at least two of A-D.

1. B – Synaptic connection, D – K⁺
2. A – Neurotransmitter, B – Synaptic cleft
3. C – Neurotransmitter, D – Ca⁺⁺
4. A – Receptor, C – Synaptic vesicles

Answer: 4. A – Receptor, C – Synaptic vesicles

NEET Biology Plant Growth And Development Multiple Choice Questions And Answers

Question 1. The condition of suspended growth due to external environmental conditions is called

1. Dormancy
2. Rest
3. Quiescence
4. All of these

Answer: 4. All of these

Question 2. Seed dormancy in tomato seeds is due to

1. Impermeable seed coat
2. Immature embryo
3. Presence of ferulic acid in pulp
4. Abscisic acid in pulp

Answer: 2. Immature embryo

Question 3. A method to break the dormancy of seed by subjecting to low and high temperatures is called

1. Scarification
2. Pressure chamber method
3. Stratification
4. Impaction

Answer: 3. Stratification

Question 4. Which does not happen during seed germination?

1. Emergence of radical
2. Increase in the rate of respiration
3. Hydrolysis of stored polysaccharides and proteins
4. Photosynthesis by cotyledons

Answer: 4. Photosynthesis by cotyledons

Question 5. Real growth is

1. Protoplasmic growth
2. Cell wall growth
3. Growth in size
4. Growth in volume

Answer: 1. Protoplasmic growth

” plant growth and development neetprep”

Question 6. Growth in plant organs is

1. Qualitative and extrinsic
2. Quantitative and intrinsic
3. Qualitative and intrinsic
4. Quantitative and extrinsic

Answer: 3. Qualitative and intrinsic

Question 7. The point in the S-shaped growth curve where growth is maximum is called

1. Inflection point
2. Compensation point
3. Extinction point
4. Deflection point

Answer: 3. Extinction point

Question 8. The exponential phase in growth is characterized by

1. Enlargements of cells
2. Constant increase in growth rate
3. Maturation of cells
4. Both (1) and (2)

Answer: 4. Both (1) and (2)

Question 9. Which of the following is not a growth-measuring instrument?

1. Auxanometer
2. Crescograph
3. Horizontal microscope
4. Clinostat

Answer: 1. Auxanometer

Question 10. The plant growth is regulated by

1. Climatic factor
2. Growth hormones
3. Both (1) and (2)
4. None of these

Answer: 2. Growth hormones

Question 11. The growth in plants differs from the growth in animals

1. Being localized and indefinite
2. Being indefinite
3. Having indefinite lifespan
4. Having a definite lifespan

Answer: 1. Being localized and indefinite

Question 12. The scientist who suspected the presence of some growth substances was

1. Linnaeus
2. Mendel
3. Charles Darwin
4. Robert Brown

Answer: 3. Charles Darwin

Question 13. If an etiolated stem could be first saturated with auxin by spraying and then exposed to a streak of light from one side, it will

1. Bend toward the light
2. Bend away from the light
3. Grow straight upward
4. Be prevented from growing

Answer: 2. Bend away from the light

Question 14. The plant hormone which is basic in nature is

1. Auxin
2. Gibberellin
3. Cytokinin
4. Abscisic acid

Answer: 2. Gibberellin

Question 15. Which is not a physiological effect of auxins?

1. Cell elongation
2. Development of parthenocarpic fruits
3. Prevention of abscission of leaves and fruits
4. Reversal of genetic dwarfism

Answer: 2. Development of parthenocarpic fruits

Question 16. Transport of auxins is

1. Polar
2. Diffuse
3. Through xylem
4. Through phloem

Answer: 4. Through phloem

Question 17. The movement shown by a plant kept in a phototropic chamber is due to

1. Differential synthesis of hormones
2. Differential translocation of hormones
3. None of these
4. Both (1) and (2)

Answer: 2. Differential translocation of hormones

Question 18. Sprouting of potatoes can be prevented in storage by

1. CH₄
2. GA₃
3. MH
4. CK

Answer: 2. GA₃

Question 19. A phytotron is a device by which

1. Electron flow is measured
2. Mutations are induced in plants
3. The wind velocity is measured
4. Plants are grown in a controlled environment

Answer: 2. Mutations are induced in plants

Question 20. Apical dominance in higher plants is due to

1. The balance between auxins and cytokinins
2. Enzyme activity
3. Carbohydrates and nitrogen ratio
4. Incorrect photoperiod

Answer: 2. Enzyme activity

Question 21. Cholodny-Went theory is related with

1. Phototropism
2. Photomorphogenesis
3. Photorespiration
4. Photosynthesis

Answer: 2. Photomorphogenesis

Question 22. Gibbane ring skeleton in structure and production of hydrolytic enzymes in barley endosperm is a characteristic of

1. Cytokinin
2. Auxins
3. Gibberellins
4. Ethylene

Answer: 3. Gibberellins

” plant questions”

Question 23. The Avena curvature test and dwarf maize test are bioassays of respectively,

1. Auxins and gibberellins
2. GA and CK
3. Auxins and CK
4. IAA and ethylene

Answer: 1. Auxins and gibberellins

Question 24. Specific property attributed to GA is

1. Shortening of genetically tall plants
2. Elongation of genetically dwarf plants
3. Rooting or stem cuttings
4. Promotion of leaf and fruit fall

Answer: 2. Elongation of genetically dwarf plants

Question 25. The synthesis of α-amylase in certain cereals is stimulated by

1. IAA
2. GA
3. OK
4. ABA

Answer: 4. ABA

Question 26. Cytokinins are considered a part of

1. t-RNA
2. r-RNA
3. DNA
4. Vascular tissues

Answer: 2. r-RNA

Question 27. An anti-ageing plant hormone from the following is

1. IAA
2. GA₃
3. Zeatin
4. C₂H₄

Answer: 1. IAA

Question 28. The delay of senescence or Richmond-Lang effect is a physiological effect of

1. IAA
2. OK
3. GA
4. C₂H₄

Answer: 2. OK

Question 29. The number of female flowers can be increased by the application of

1. IAA
2. C₂H₄
3. OK
4. All of these

Answer: 1. IAA

Question 30. The triple response is shown by the hormone

1. Ethylene
2. CK
3. 2, 4-D
4. GA₃

Answer: 4. GA₃

Question 31. Which of the following is an anti-gibberellin as well as a stress hormone?

1. ABA
2. CK
3. NAAM
4. 2,4-D

Answer: 2. CK

Question 32. Which is not true for abscisic acid?

1. Acts as an anti-transpirant
2. Synthesized in chloroplast from carotenoids
3. Increases stress tolerance in plants
4. Induces epinasty of leaves and flowers

Answer: 1. Acts as an anti-transpirant

Question 33. CH₂=CH₂ is mainly responsible for

1. Formation of root hair
2. Formation of nodes
3. Ripening of fruits
4. Formation of intemodes

Answer: 4. Formation of internodes

Question 34. For flowering, the critical dark period should always be exceeded in

1. Long day plants
2. Short day plants
3. Day-neutral plants
4. All types of plants

Answer: 4. All types of plants

Question 35. Photoperiodic stimulus is perceived by

1. Meristematic cells
2. Leaves
3. Flowers
4. Seeds

Answer: 1. Meristematic cells

Question 36. Which of the following statements does not characterize photoperiodism?

1. Mediated by florigen hormone.
2. Conversion of shoot apex into reproductive apex.
3. Red light is stimulatory in SDP, LDP, and DNP for flowering.
4. The number of correct photoperiodic induction may be 1-25.

Answer: 2. Conversion of shoot apex into reproductive apex.

Question 37. Find the odd one (with respect to photoperiod) from the following.

1. Rice
2. Cosmos
3. Chrysanthemum
4. Larkspur

Answer: 4. Larkspur

Question 38. Hypothetical florigen could be produced prematurely in day plants by exposing it to

1. Shortening light period
2. Red light during the night
3. Extending dark period
4. Far-red light

Answer: 2. Red light during the night

Question 39. The acquisition of the ability to flower by chilling treatment is called

1. Vernalization
2. Yarovization
3. Springification
4. All of these

Answer:  3. Springification

Question 40. Which is not a requirement of vernalization?

1. Aerobic condition
2. Moisture
3. Low temperature
4. Differentiated tissues

Answer: 1. Aerobic condition

Question 41. The hormone that can replace the long days and low-temperature requirement for flowering in some plants is

1. Gibberellin
2. Cytokinin
3. Vemalin
4. Ethylene

Answer: 2. Cytokinin

Question 42. Senescence is

1. Terminal irreversible phase of aging
2. Combined deteriorative processes in mature plant
3. A period between complete maturity and final death of an organ
4. All of these

Answer: 2. Combined deteriorative processes in mature plant

neet related questions

Question 43. Shoot or top senescence occurs in

1. Rice
2. Gladiolus
3. Mango
4. Dalbergia

Answer: 2. Gladiolus

Question 44. The abscission zone is characterized by

1. Presence of callose plugs
2. The presence of a distinct layer
3. Activity of celluloses and pectinases
4. All of these

Answer: 1. Presence of callose plugs

Question 45. In which layer of the abscission zone, the breakdown of cells occur?

1. Gonidial layer
2. Protective layer
3. Separation layers
4. All of these

Answer: 4. All of these

Question 46. The leaves of Mimosa pudica (sensitive plant) droop down on touch because

1. The plant has a nervous system
2. The leaves are very tender
3. The leaves are injured
4. The turgor pressure of the leaf base changes

Answer: 3. The leaves are injured

Question 47. Plants growing under prolonged water stress conditions develop the phenomenon of leaf area adjustment which is

1. Shortening of plastochron
2. Reduction of leaf surface area
3. Shortening of intermodal length
4. Shedding of older leaves

Answer: 4. Shedding of older leaves

Question 48. The seasonal activity of cambium is promoted by

1. Proline
2. Auxin
3. Ethylene
4. Abscisic acid

Answer: 1. Proline

Question 49. Find the odd one (with respect to the cause of seed dormancy)

1. Amaranthus
2. Capsella
3. Ginkgo
4. Trigonella

Answer: 4. Trigonella

Question 50. The pigment concerned with various photomorphogenic processes in plants has

1. Open tetrapyrrolic structure
2. Absorption spectra different from that of chlorophyll
3. Positive effects on membrane permeability
4. All of these

Answer: 3. Positive effects on membrane permeability

Question 51. Plant hormones are

1. Growth regulators
2. Growth promoters
3. Growth inhibitors
4. None of above

Answer: 1. Growth regulators

Question 52. The most common auxin is

1. GA
2. ABA
3. Kinetin
4. IAA

Answer: 4. IAA

Question 53. Gibberellin promotes cell division and elongation in

1. Leaves
2. Roots
3. Shoots
4. All of these

Answer: 4. All of these

Question 54. The deteriorative processes in plants that naturally terminate their functional life are collectively called

1. Wilting
2. Abscission
3. Plasmolysis
4. Senescence

Answer: 4. Senescence

Question 55. Which of the following is

1. Auxin
2. ABA
3. Ethylene gas
4. Cytokinin

Answer: 3. Ethylene gas

Question 56. The induction of flowering treatment is called

1. Vernalization
2. Photoperiodism
3. Cryobiology
4. Chronology

Answer: 1. Vernalization

Question 57. Plant growth is

1. Limited
2. Unlimited
3. Diffused
4. Both (1) and (2)

Answer: 4. Both (1) and (2)

Question 58. Hormones produced during leaf fall is

1. IAA
2. ABA
3. Florigen
4. Kinetin

Answer: 2. ABA

Question 59. Climacteric fruit shows

1. High respiration rate at ripening
2. Sudden change in taste
3. Sudden change in color and shape
4. None of the above

Answer: 1. High respiration rate at ripening

Question 60. Phytochrome is present in

1. Vascular cryptogams
2. Prokaryotes
3. Brain cell
4. Kidney cell

Answer: 1. Vascular cryptogams

” which of the following is day neutral plant”

Question 61. Genetically, dwarf plants can be converted into a plant of normal height with the application of

1. Auxin
2. Gibberellin
3. Cytokinins
4. Auxin

Answer: 2. Gibberellin

Question 62. A phytohormone involved in the de novo synthesis of α-amylase in germinating seeds is

1. Auxin
2. Gibberellin
3. Ethylene
4. Cytokinin

Answer: 2. Gibberellin

Question 63. Phytochrome is responsible for

1. Photosynthesis
2. Flowering
3. Fruit formation
4. Respiration

Answer: 2. Flowering

Question 64. Which of the following is a gaseous hormone?

1. Ethylene
2. Cytokinin
3. Both ethylene and auxin
4. Gibberellin

Answer: 1. Ethylene

Question 65. The pineapple which under natural conditions is difficult to blossom has been made to produce fruits throughout the year by the application of

1. IAA, IBA
2. NAA, 2,4-D
3. Phenyl mercuric acid
4. Cytokinins

Answer: 1. IAA, IBA

Question 66. Most of the plants are seasonal due to

1. Photoperiodism
2. Phototropism
3. Photosynthesis
4. Photolysis

Answer: 1. Photoperiodism

Question 67. Certain chemical substances having profound effects on plant growth are called

1. Catalytic agents
2. Phytohormones
3. Enzymes
4. Compost

Answer: 2. Phytohormones

Question 68. Phytochrome was discovered by

1. W. Went
2. Gamer and Allard
3. F.F. Blackman
4. Borthwick and Hendricks

Answer: 4. Borthwick and Hendricks

Question 69. The activity of α-amylase in the endosperm of barley germinating seed is induced by

1. Ethylene
2. Cytokinin
3. IAA
4. Gibberellin

Answer: 4. Gibberellin

Question 70. A pigment concerned with floral induction is

1. Florigen
2. Chlorophyll
3. Plastocyanin
4. Phytochrome

Answer: 4. Phytochrome

Question 71. Gibberellins were first discovered in the fungal genus

1. Mucor
2. Rhizopus
3. Agaricus
4. Fusarhim

Answer: 4. Fusarhim

Question 72. The presence of auxins in a solution could be tested based on

1. Avena sativa stem tip test
2. Carbon tetrachloride test
3. Iodine test
4. Defoliation test

Answer: 1. Avena sativa stem tip test

Question 73. An auxanometer is used to measure

1. Length
2. Width
3. Depth
4. Growth

Answer: 4. Growth

Question 74. The pigment sensitivity for red and far-red light is

1. Chlorophyll
2. Phytochrome
3. Cytochrome
4. Carotene

Answer: 2. Phytochrome

Question 75. The hormone that breaks seed dormancy is

1. Auxin
2. Gibberellin
3. Ethylene
4. Cytokinin

Answer: 2. Gibberellin

Question 76. Which one of the following is not a synthetic auxin?

1. 2,4-D
2. 2,4,5-T
3. NAA
4. IAA

Answer: 4. IAA

Question 77. Which plant hormone causes fruit ripening?

1. IAA
2. Cytokinin
3. Ethylene
4. GA

Answer: 3. Ethylene

Question 78. Which hormone is responsible for apical growth?

1. IAA
2. ABA
3. GA
4. All of these

Answer: 1. IAA

Question 79. Abscisic acid controls

1. Cell elongation and cell wall formation
2. Shoot elongation
3. Leaf fall and dormancy
4. Cell division

Answer: 3. Leaf fall and dormancy

Question 80. Which hormone is used to induce ripening in bananas?

1. Cytokinin
2. Ethylene
3. ABA
4. GA₃

Answer: 2. Ethylene

Question 81. Which among the following is a synthesis plant hormone?

1. IAA
2. GA
3. 2,4-D
4. ABA

Answer: 3. 2,4-D

Question 82. Richmond-Lang effect is shown by

1. Auxins
2. Sugars
3. Zeatin
4. Gibberellins

Answer: 3. Zeatin

Question 83. Ethylene gas is used for

1. Growth of plants
2. Delaying fruit abscission
3. Ripening of fruits
4. Stopping the leaf abscission

Answer: 3. Ripening of fruits

Question 84. An auxanometer is used to detect

1. Respiration
2. Transpiration
3. Plant movement
4. Growth

Answer: 4. Growth

Question 85. Which of the following plant hormones is extracted from fungus?

1. Ethylene
2. Gibberellin
3. Cytokinin
4. 2,4-D

Answer: 2. Gibberellin

Question 86. The highest concentration of auxin is found in

1. Root and shoot tips
2. Leaves and fruits
3. Mid stem portion
4. None of these

Answer: 1. Root and shoot tips

Question 87. Ethylene is used for

1. Decreasing the senescence
2. Increasing the heights of the stem
3. Ripening of fruits
4. Prevention of leaf fall

Answer: 3. Ripening of fruits

Question 88. The movement of the pollen tube is called

1. Chemotropism
2. Thermotaxis
3. Their monastic
4. Hydrotropism

Answer: 1. Chemotropism

Question 89. Phytotron is

1. A controlled condition chamber for plants
2. Leaf culture process
3. Special culture of seeds
4. Root culture process

Answer: 1. A controlled condition chamber for plants

Question 90. Phytochrome occurs in two forms. Its stable form is

1. P_fr form
2. P_r form
3. Both forms
4. None of these

Answer: 2. P_r form

Question 91. Which pigment is responsible for flowering in plants?

1. Phytochrome
2. Cytochrome
3. Anthocyanin
4. Xanthophyll

Answer: 1. Xanthophyll

Question 92. The process of vernalization can be induced by

1. Cytokinin
2. Auxin
3. Phototropin
4. GA

Answer: 4. GA

Question 93. Which of the following plant is LDP?

1. Xanthium
2. Soyabean
3. Wheat
4. Tobacco

Answer: 3. Wheat

Question 94. Phototropism is due to the hormone