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NEET Biology For Evolution Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. Following is the diagrammatic representation of Miller’s experiment. What is correct labeling? Choose the correct option.

Diagrammatic representation of Miller’s experiment

A                               B                                  C                Ꭰ

Electrodes    CH4 + NH3 + H2 + H2O    Condenser  Vacuum pump

Electrodes    NH2 + H2o + CH4             Hot water       Trap

Electrodes   NH3 + CH4                          Steam            Trap

Electrodes   NH3 + CO2 + H2 + H2O    Hot water      Vaccum

Answer. 1. Electrodes    CH4 + NH3 + H2 + H2O    Condenser  Vacuum pump

Question 2. Which of the following is not true about coacervates?

1. They are protein aggregates.
2. They do not have lipid membrane and cannot reproduce.
3. The work on coacervates was done by Oparin.
4. They are protobionts with polysaccharides, proteins, and water.

Answer. 1. They are protein aggregates.

Question 3. Extraterrestrial origin of life was proposed by the theory of

1. Catastrophism
2. Spontaneous generation
3. Special creation
4. Panspermia

Answer. 4. Panspermia

Question 4. Eukaryotes developed around

1. 1600 million years ago
2. 459 million years ago
3. 3800 million years ago
4. 4200 million years ago

Answer. 1. 1600 million years ago

Question 5. Simple one-celled cyanobacteria-like organisms appeared on earth

1. 5600 million years ago
2. 5000 million years ago
3. 4600 million years ago
4. 3.3 to 3.5 billion years ago

Answer. 4. 3.3 to 3.5 billion years ago

evolution mcq

Question 6. The theory of abiogenesis or spontaneous generation was finally disapproved by

1. Louis Pasteur
2. A.I. Oparin
3. A.R. Wallace
4. Sydney Fox

Answer. 1. Louis Pasteur

Question 7. Which of the following experiments suggests that the simplest living organisms could not have originated spontaneously from non-living matter?

1. Larvae could appear in decaying organic matter.
2. Microbes did not appear in stored meat.
3. Microbes appeared from unsterilized organic matter.
4. Meat was not spoiled when heated and kept sealed in a vessel.

Answer. 4. Meat was not spoiled when heated and kept sealed in a vessel.

Question 8. The proponent of the theory of spontaneous generation was

1. Louis Pasteur
2. van Helmont
3. Spallanzani
4. Francesco Redi

Answer. 2. van Helmont

Question 9. According to the cosmozoic theory, life comes on the earth from other planets in space in the form of

1. Spores
2. Seeds
3. Gametes
4. All of these

Answer. 4. All of these

Question 10. The theory that living organisms on the earth came from outer space is based on the study of

1. Igneous rocks
2. Sedimentary rocks
3. Meteorites
4. Moon soil

Answer. 3. Meteorites

Question 11. Which one of the following appeared on the earth with the coming of plants and was absent in the past?

1. Carbon dioxide
2. Methane
3. Ammonia
4. Oxygen

Answer. 4. Oxygen

Question 12. The scientist related with the theory of biogenesis and experiments with swan-necked flasks is

1. van Helmont
2. Louis Pasteur
3. Miller
4. Haeckel

Answer. 2. Louis Pasteur

Question 13. The atmosphere became oxidizing with the appearance of

1. Autotrophic bacteria
2. Autotrophic cyanobacteria
3. Land plants
4. Algae

Answer. 2. Autotrophic cyanobacteria

Question 14. Which one of the following gases was not present in free form at the time life originated on the earth?

1. Ammonia
2. Oxygen
3. Hydrogen
4. Methane

Answer. 2. Oxygen

Question 15. An experiment to prove that organic compounds were the basis of life was performed by

1. Von Helmont
2. Opann
3. S. Miller
4. Fox

Answer. 3. S. Miller

Question 16. Stanley Miller had put the Oparin-Haldane theory to test in 1953, by creating in the laboratory the probable conditions on the primitive earth. In the experiment, simple amino acids were synthesized from which of the following mixtures, as observed after 18 days?

1. H2, O2, N2, and H2O
2. CH2, CN, H2, and O2
3. H2, NH3, CH4, and water vapor
4. NH3, CH4, and O2

Answer. 3. H2, NH3, CH4, and water vapor

Question 17. The English scientist who worked on the origin of life and settled in India is

1. A.I. Oparin
2. J.B.S. Haldane
3. Louis Pasteur
4. van Helmont

Answer. 2. J.B.S. Haldane

Question 18. Which ones are the most essential for the origin of life?

1. Enzymes
2. Proteins
3. Carbohydrates
4. Nucleic acids

Answer. 4. Nucleic acids

Question 19. The Russian scientist who proposed the theory of origin of life was

1. Opann
2. Haldane
3. Miller
4. None of these

Answer. 1. Opann

Question 20. The presence of NaCl in body fluid indicates that life originated in

1. Primitive ocean
2. Rain-water lakes
3. Salt solution
4. All of these

Answer. 1. Primitive ocean

Question 21. The origin of life from non-living matter is known as

1. Coaoervates
2. Abiogenesis
3. Biogenesis
4. None of these

Answer. 2. Abiogenesis

Question 22. A.I. Oparin wrote

1. Origin of Species
2. Origin of Life
3. Philosophic Zoologique
4. The Planet

Answer. 2. Origin of Life

Question 23. The first organisms that appeared on the earth were

1. Chemoheterotrophs
2. Chemoautotrophs
3. Photoautotrophs
4. Decomposers

Answer. 1. Chemoheterotrophs

Question 24. The most important condition for the origin of life is the presence of

1. Water
2. Oxygen
3. Nitrogen
4. Carbon

Answer. 1. Water

Question 25. H.C. Urey wrote which of the following books?

1. The Planets
2. Origin of Life
3. The Origin of Species
4. None of these

Answer. 1. The Planets

Question 26. During the origin and evolution of life, key biological compounds were progressively synthesized in ocean with the help of energy obtainable from

1. Lightning
2. Ultraviolet light
3. Lightning as well as ultraviolet light
4. Combustion of certain compounds

Answer. 3. Lightning as well as ultraviolet light

Question 27. Which type of respiration probably arose first?

1. Aerobic as it releases more energy
2. Anaerobic as it releases more energy
3. Aerobic as it is more complex
4. Anaerobic as early atmosphere contained little or no oxygen

Answer. 4. Anaerobic as early atmosphere contained little or no oxygen

Question 28. Early atmosphere contained methane and other hydrocarbons. They have been now replaced by

1. Nitrogen
2. Oxygen
3. Carbon dioxide
4. Hydrogen

Answer. 3. Carbon dioxide

Question 29. According to the discovery made in 1980’s, RNA can act like enzyme to assemble new RNA molecules on RNA template. Which of the following statements is not proved by this theory?

1. Coacervates may not have been the first step in the evolution of life.
2. Perhaps the first macromolecule was RNA.
3. Coacervates were the basis for the first cell.
4. After the formation of RNA, the stability of molecule improved by surrounding RNA within a coacervate.

Answer. 3. Coacervates were the basis for the first cell.

Question 30. The aggregates of artificially produced prebiotic molecules are called

1. Protobionts
2. Microspheres
3. Coacervates
4. Prokaryotes

Answer. 1. Protobionts

Question 31. The evolutionary process giving rise to new species adapted to new habitats and ways of life is called adaptive radiation. For example,

1. Darwin’s finches in Galapagos Islands
2. Australian marsupials that radiated to form new species
3. Wolf and Tasmanian wolf
4. Both (1) and (2)

Answer. 4. Both (1) and (2)

Question 32. Humming birds and hawk illustrate

1. Convergent evolution
2. Homology
3. Adaptive radiation
4. Parallel evolution

Answer. 3. Adaptive radiation

Question 33. Convergent evolution is illustrated by

1. Rat and dog
2. Bacterium and protozoan
3. Star fish and cuttlefish
4. Dog fish and whale

Answer. 4. Dog fish and whale

Question 34. All the following are examples of homologous organs, except

1. Arm of man and flipper of whale
2. Thorn of Bougainvillea and tendril of Cucurbit
3. Eye of an octopus and eye of a mammal
4. Brain of frog and man

Answer. 3. Eye of an octopus and eye of a mammal

Question 35. The homologous organs are

1. Wings of pigeon and housefly
2. Wings of housefly and bat
3. Wings of pigeon and forelimbs of man
4. Wings of butterfly, bat, and housefly

Answer. 3. Wings of pigeon and forelimbs of man

“evolution class 12 mcq “

Question 36. Anatomically and structurally different but functionally similar structures are called

1. Analogous
2. Divergent
3. Homologous
4. Convergent

Answer. 1. Analogous

Question 37. Organs that have similar origin and developmental plan but different functions are called

1. Vestigial organs
2. Analogous organs
3. Homologous organs
4. Physiological organs

Answer. 3. Homologous organs

Question 38. Find the odd one out:

1. Trunk of an elephant and hand of a chimpanzee
2. Ginger and sweet potato
3. Wings of bat and insect
4. Nails of human beings and claws of a cat

Answer. 4. Nails of human beings and claws of a cat

Question 39. The convergent evolution of two species is usually associated with

1. A recent common ancestor
2. Analogous organ
3. Homologous organ
4. Different habitat

Answer. 2. Analogous organ

Question 40. Find the odd one out with respect to evolution.

1. Seal’s flipper
2. Bat’s wing
3. Horse’s foot
4. Butterfly’s wings

Answer. 4. Butterfly’s wings

Question 41. Which of the following is not vestigial organ in human beings?

1. Rudimentary ear muscles, third molars (wisdom teeth), and body hair
2. Coccygeal tail vertebrae and scalp muscles
3. Vermiform appendix and nictitating membrane of the eye
4. Ear pinna, patella, and olecranon process

Answer. 4. Ear pinna, patella, and olecranon process

Question 42. Which of the following are the vestigial organs of man?

1. Hair, olecranon process, coccyx, and patella
2. Coccyx, vermiform appendix, and ear muscles
3. Wisdom tooth, mammary gland, coccyx, and patella
4. Coccyx, hair, ear ossicles, and vermiform appendix

Answer. 2. Coccyx, vermiform appendix, and ear muscles

Question 43. Which of the following is a vestigial organ?

1. Vermiform appendex
2. Atlas
3. Premolars
4. Incisors

Answer. 1.Vermiform appendex

Question 44. Which of the following is not a vestigial organ?

1. Scalp hair
2. Epiglottis
3. Vermiform appendix
4. Wisdom tooth

Answer. 2. Epiglottis

Question 45. Archaeopteryx is a connecting link between

1. Birds and reptiles
2. Reptiles and mammals
3. Annelids and arthropods
4. Amphibians and fishes

Answer. 1. Birds and reptiles

Question 46. The recapitulation theory was put forth by

1. Haeckel
2. Cuvier
3. Wallace
4. Lamarck

Answer. 1. Haeckel

Question 47. Gill clefts and notochord appear in the embryonic development of all vertebrates from fishes to mammals. This supports the theory of

1. Recapitulation
2. Metamorphosis
3. Biogenesis
4. Abiogenesis

Answer. 1. Recapitulation

Question 48. Cycad and Ginkgo are connecting links between

1. Bryophytes and pteridophytes
2. Pteridophytes and gymnosperms
3. Gymnosperms and angiosperms
4. Thallophyla and bryophyla

Answer. 2. Pteridophytes and gymnosperms

Question 49. Which one of the following is not a living fossil?

1. Peripatus
2. King crab
3. Archaeopteryx
4. Sphenodon

Answer. 3. Archaeopteryx

Question 50. Haeckel’s biogenetic law states that

1. Life originates from lifeless beings
2. Course of evolution of a race is repeated in the life- history of an individual
3. Progeny of an organism resembles its parents
4. Life originates from pre-existing life

Answer. 2. Course of evolution of a race is repeated in the life-history of an individual

Question 51. The presence of tail and coarse hair in human baby is

1. Radiation
2. Atavism
3. Mutation
4. Crossing-over

Answer. 2. Atavism

Question 52. Origin of mammal-like reptiles occurred in

1. Triassic period
2. Permian period
3. Jurassic period
4. Tertiary period

Answer. 2. Permian period

Question 53. Excreta preserved as a fossil is called as

1. Stromatolite
2. Compression fossil
3. Intact fossil
4. Caprolite

Answer. 4. Caprolite

Question 54. Ape-like ancestors of humans appear in epoch

1. Pleistocene
2. Pliocene
3. Miocene
4. Oligocene

Answer. 2. Pliocene

Question 55. Which of the following is incorrect match?

1. Devonian period-Age of fishes
2. Carboniferous period-Age of amphibians
3. Ordovician period-Age of invertebrates
4. Cretaceous period-Age of reptiles

Answer. 4. Cretaceous period-Age of reptiles

Question 56. Mesozoic era is called the

1. Age of fishes
2. Age of reptiles
3. Age of mammals
4. Age of birds

Answer. 2. Age of reptiles

Question 57. Which one of the following is known as age of mammals?

1. Mesozoic
2. Palaeozoic
3. Coenozoic
4. Archaeozoic

Answer. 3. Coenozoic

Question 58. First mammals appeared around

1. 459 million years ago
2. 220 million years ago
3. 1600 million years ago
4. 3800 million years ago

Answer. 2. 220 million years ago

Question 59. Which of the following arrangement of periods of Mesozoic era gives a correct sequence from the earliest to the latest?

1. Jurassic, Triassic, Cretaceous
2. Triassic, Jurassic, Cretaceous
3. Permian, Jurassic, Triassic
4. Devonian, Permian, Jurassic

Answer. 2. Triassic, Jurassic, Cretaceous

Question 60. Jurassic period of Mesozoic era is characterized by which of the following?

1. Gymnosperms are dominant plants and first birds appear.
2. Dinosaurs become extinct and angiosperms appear.
3. Flowering plants and first dinosaurs appear.
4. Radiation of reptiles and origin of mammal-like reptiles.

Answer. 1. Gymnosperms are dominant plants and first birds appear.

Question 61. The flowering plants originated in which of the following periods?

1. Cretaceous
2. Tertiary
3. Triassic
4. Carboniferous

Answer. 1. Cretaceous

Question 62. Amphibia first appeared in which of the following period?

1. Permian
2. Carboniferous
3. Devonian
4. Silurian

Answer. 3. Devonian

Question 63. Permian period, during which the first most modern orders of insects appeared, occurred approximately

1. 80 million years ago
2. 150 million years ago
3. 280 million years ago
4. 550 million years ago

Answer. 3. 280 million years ago

Question 64. Dinosaurs were abundant in

1. Jurassic period
2. Devonian period
3. Permian period
4. Pleistocene period

Answer. 1. Jurassic period

Question 65. Fossils of Archaeopteryx were found from

1. Jurassic rocks
2. Triassic rocks
3. Cretaceous rocks
4. Cenozoic rocks

Answer. 3. Cretaceous rocks

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Question 66. The epoch of human civilization is

1. Pliocene
2. Holocene
3. Pleistocene
4. Palaeocene

Answer. 3. Pleistocene

Question 67. Continental drift explains

1. Mass extinctions
2. Distribution of fossils on earth
3. Geographical upheavals
4. All of these

Answer. 4. All of these

Question 68. Which one provides direct and solid evidence in favor of organic evolution through ages?

1. Atavism
2. Palaeontology
3. Vestigial organs
4. Galapagos island fauna

Answer. 2. Palaeontology

Question 69. The origin of seeds in the land plants was achieved about 345 million years ago in lineages recognized as ancestral to all more advanced vascular plants in

1. Rhynia
2. Tracheophyte ancestor
3. Seed ferns
4. Conifers

Answer. 3. Seed ferns

Question 70. The last major evolutionary advancement among vascular plants was the emergence of flowering plants (angio- sperms) about

1. 350 million years ago
2. 140 million years ago
3. 1600 million years ago
4. 220 million years ago

Answer. 2. 140 million years ago

Question 71. An evolutionary trend in which there is general degeneration and loss of organs is

1. Progressive
2. Vestigial
3. Retrogressive
4. Stasigenesis

Answer. 3. Retrogressive

Question 72. As horse evolved, there was progressive reduction in the number of toes. Which of the following is the correct sequence in the evolution of horse?

1. Orohippus, Hyracotherium, Mesohippus, Callipus, Merychippus, Pliohippus, Equus
2. Hyracotherium, Orohippus, Mesohippus, Merychippus, Pliohippus, Equus
3. Orohippus, Callipus, Hyracotherium, Mesohippus, Merychippus, Pliohippus, Equus
4. Hyracotherium, Mesohippus, Orohippus, Gallipus, Merychippus, Pliohippus, and Equus

Answer. 2. Hyracotherium, Orohippus, Mesohippus, Merychippus, Pliohippus, Equus

Question 73. The replacement of original hard parts or even the soft tissues of organisms by minerals is known as

1. Compression
2. Petrification
3. Molds
4. Amber

Answer. 2. Petrification

Question 74. The study of fossil plants is known as

1. Palaeontology
2. Palaeobotany
3. Palynology
4. Palaeoanatomy

Answer. 2. Palaeobotany

Question 75. Which of the following is the richest in fossil?

1. Basalt
2. Granite
3. Lava
4. Sedimentary rock

Answer. 4. Sedimentary rock

Question 76. Why do we dig fossils and study them?

1. To find new fossils that have not yet been recorded.
2. Fossil finding gives occupation to scientists.
3. Fossils fill the gaps in the evolutionary records of animals.
4. Fossils throw light on the evolution of animals of the past.

Answer. 4. Fossils throw light on the evolution of animals of the past.

Question 77. Which one of the following is used for dating archaeological specimens in wood, bones, and shells?

1. Uranium-238
2. Argon isotope
3. Carbon-14
4. Strontium-90

Answer. 3. Carbon-14

Question 78. The age of fossils was previously determined by radioactive elements. More precise and recent method which has led to the revision of evolutionary period is

1. Study of carbohydrate and protein in fossils
2. Study of conditions of fossilization
3. Electron spin resonance and fossil DNA
4. Presence of carbohydrate and protein in rocks

Answer. 3. Electron spin resonance and fossil DNA

Question 79. Fossil X is older than fossil Y. The most evident statement is

1. Fossil Y has got some of the vestigial organs which are functional in X
2. Fossil Y has got homologous and analogous organs of fossil X
3. Fossil X is found in deeper sedimentation than fossil Y
4. Fossil Y was found in better state than fossil Y

Answer. 3. Fossil X is found in deeper sedimentation than fossil Y

Question 80. The oldest fossil of modern horse is known as

1. Eohippus
2. Mesohippus
3. Merychippus
4. Equus

Answer. 1. Eohippus

Question 81. The theory of inheritance of acquired characters or the theory of use and disuse of organ was given by

1. Wallace
2. Lamarck
3. Charles Darwin
4. Hugo de Vries

Answer. 2. Lamarck

Question 82. Weissman cut the tails of new born mice generation after generation, but the tails neither disappeared nor shortened showing that

1. Tail has the power of regeneration
2. Mutation theory is wrong
3. Lamarckism was wrong in the inheritance of acquired characters
4. Tail is an essential organ

Answer. 3. Lamarckism was wrong in the inheritance of acquired characters

Question 83. A scientist kept 80 generations of Drosophila in darkness, and even after that, the flies had normal eyes. This disapproves the law of

1. Natural selection
2. Neo-Darwinism
3. Use and disuse
4. Synthetic theory

Answer. 3. Use and disuse

Question 84. Who among the following is associated with the concept of appetency?

1. Lamarck
2. Charles Darwin
3. Wallace
4. Erasmus Darwin

Answer. 1. Lamarck

Question 85. Penguin is a bird that lost the use of its wings by not flying. Such statement would express the views of

1. Darwin
2. Wallace
3. Lamarck
4. Huxley

Answer. 3. Lamarck

Question 86. The concept of appetency was given by

1. Lamarck
2. Darwin
3. Oparin
4. Haldane

Answer. 1. Lamarck

Question 87. Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in the origin of new species according to Darwinism?

1. Natural selection, variation and their inheritance, survival of fittest, struggle for existence, high rate of reproduction
2. High rate of reproduction, constancy in number, struggle for existence, inheritable variations, survival of fittest, natural selection
3. High rate of reproduction, variations, constancy in number, struggle for existence, survival of fittest
4. Variation, high rate of reproduction, constancy in number, struggle for existence, survival of fittest, natural selection

Answer. 2. High rate of reproduction, constancy in number, struggle for existence, inheritable variations, survival of fittest, natural selection

Question 88. The main drawback of Darwin’s theory of natural selection was that it could not provide satisfactory explanation of

1. Survival of fittest
2. Struggle for existence
3. Mimicry
4. Basis of variation and the mode of transmission of the variants to the next generation

Answer. 4. Basis of variation and the mode of transmission of the variants to the next generation

Question 89. According to the theory proposed by T.R. Malthus,

1. Population and the existing means of subsistence increase at the same rate
2. Population increases arithmetically while the existing means of subsistence increase geometrically
3. Population increases geometrically while the means of subsistence increase arithmetically
4. Population increases at a fast rate but the means of subsistence do not increase

Answer. 3. Population increases geometrically while the means of subsistence increase arithmetically

Question 90. Successful adaptation means

1. Moving to a new means
2. Producing more offsprings
3. An increase in fitness
4. Evolving new characteristics

Answer. 3. An increase in fitness

Question 91. Frequency of a character increases when it is

1. Recessive
2. Dominant
3. Inheritable
4. Adaptable

Answer. 4. Adaptable

Question 92. “Descent of Man and Selection in Relation to Sex” was written by

1. Nicolaus Copernicus
2. Darwin
3. Carolus Linnaeus
4. Francesco Redi

Answer. 2. Darwin

Question 93. Regarding evolution, Darwin’s explanation is that

1. Certain species have “built-in” plans of evolution
2. The traits used most often persist longer
3. Progressive adaptations enable one species to have more offsprings
4. Code determines which species should evolve

Answer. 1. Certain species have “built-in” plans of evolution

Question 94. Darwin’s theory of pangenesis proposes

1. Development of useful organs and degeneration of useless organs
2. Development of an organ due to will power
3. Increase in organ size with age
4. Every organ of the body produces minute hereditary particles called gemmules, carried through the blood from every organ and collected together into gametes

Answer. 4. Every organ of the body produces minute hereditary particles called gemmules, carried through the blood from every organ and collected together into gametes

Question 95. Which of the following theories refused Darwin’s theory of pangenesis mentioned in the book “On the Variation of Animals and Plants Under Domestication”?

1. Lamarck’s theory of inheritance of acquired characters
2. Weismann’s theory of germplasm
3. Haeckel’s recapitulation theory
4. Hugo de Vries’ mutation theory

Answer. 2. Weismann’s theory of germplasm

Question 96. Hugo de Vries’ contribution is

1. Mutation theory, on the basis of his observation on the wild variety of evening primrose (Oenothera lamarckiana)
2. Theory of natural selection
3. Law of dominance
4. Law of segregation

Answer. 1. Mutation theory, on the basis of his observation on the wild variety of evening primrose (Oenothera lamarckiana)

Question 97. Neo-Darwinism is a synthesis of theories proposed by

1. Lamarck and Charles Darwin
2. Charles Darwin and A.R. Wallace
3. Hugo de Vries and Charles Darwin
4. Charles Darwin and F. Redi

Answer. 3. Hugo de Vries and Charles Darwin

Question 98. Evolution at the genetic level due to changes in the hereditary materials at the level of population is called

1. Macroevolution
2. Microevolution
3. Saltation
4. Sports

Answer. 2. Microevolution

Question 99. Coevolution does not occur in case of

1. Parasitism
2. Mutualism
3. Both (1) and (2)
4. Commensalism

Answer. 4. Commensalism

Question 100. Which of the following statements is not applicable to the replica plate experiment of Lederberg and Lederberg?

1. Mutations are actually pre-adaptive.
2. Pre-adaptive mutations appear without exposure to new environment.
3. The new environment induces mutations.
4. The new environment only selects the pre-adaptive mutations that occurred earlier.

Answer. 3. The new environment induces mutations.

Question 101. In Lederberg’s replica plating, streptomycin-resistant strain can develop by using

1. Minimal medium and streptomycin
2. Complete medium and streptomycin
3. Only minimal medium
4. Only complete medium

Answer. 2. Complete medium and streptomycin

Question 102. Using imprints from a plate with complete medium and carrying bacterial colonies, you can select streptomycinresistant mutants and prove that such mutations do not originate as adaptation. These imprints need to be used

1. On plates with and without streptomycin
2. On plates with minimal medium
3. Only on plates with streptomycin
4. Only on plates without streptomycin

Answer. 1. On plates with and without streptomycin

Question 103. Experimental evidence for the selection of bacteria by using the replica technique was demonstrated by

1. Prof. A.D. Bradshaw
2. Prof. Y.D. Tyagi
3. J. Lederberg and E. Lederberg
4. Alfred Russel Wallace

Answer. 3. J. Lederberg and E. Lederberg

Question 104. Lederberg’s replica plating experiment suggests

1. Characters are heritable
2. Natural selection plays an important role in fixing a mutation of survival value
3. Genes are independent entities
4. Bacteria can multiply in culture medium

Answer. 2. Natural selection plays an important role in fixing a mutation of survival value

Question 105. Ultimate source of variation is

1. Recombination
2. Mutation
3. Genetic drift
4. Intermingling of two widely separated populations

Answer. 2. Mutation

Question 106. The concept of genetic drift was introduced by

1. Hardy Weinberg
2. Sewall Wright
3. Huxley
4. Hugo de Vries

Answer. 2. Sewall Wright

Question 107. Random genetic drift in a population results from

1. Highly genetically variable individuals
2. Large population size
3. Constant low mutation rate
4. Interbreeding within small populations

Answer. 4. Interbreeding within small populations

Question 108. In a small population, the increase in the frequency of a character by chance that has little adaptive value is due to

1. Genetic drift
2. Natural selection
3. Artificial selection
4. Migration

Answer. 1. Genetic drift

Question 109. Reduction in allele frequencies in a population which of- ten prevents the species from reversing its path of extinction is called

1. Founder effect
2. Genetic mutation
3. Genetic bottleneck
4. Microevolution

Answer. 3. Genetic bottleneck

Question 110. The unit of natural selection is

1. Individual
2. Population
3. Species
4. Mutation

Answer. 1. Individual

Question 111. Industrial melanism is an example of

1. Neo-Lamarckism
2. Natural selection
3. Neo-Darwinism
4. Mutation

Answer. 2. Natural selection

Question 112. Which of the following statement is incorrect?

1. Industrial melanism is an example of natural selection.
2. Before industrial revolution, Biston betularia with gray color was abundant.
3. Black-colored form of the same moth (melanic), dominant mutant carbonaria, increased after industrial revolution.
4. The gray color of Biston betularia was due to dominant allele.

Answer. 4. The gray color of Biston betularia was due to dominant allele.

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Question 113. Which one of the following phenomena supports Darwin’s concept of natural selection in organic evolution?

1. Development of transgenic animals
2. Production of sheep Dolly by cloning
3. Prevalence of pesticide-resistant insects
4. Development of organs from stem cells for organ transplantation

Answer. 3. Prevalence of pesticide-resistant insects

Question 114. When selection acts to eliminate both extremes from the array of phenotypes, the frequency of intermediate type, which is already more, is increased. This is called

1. Disruptive selection
2. Balancing selection
3. Stabilizing selection
4. Non-directional selection

Answer. 3. Stabilizing selection

Question 115. Which of the following are examples of artificial selection?

1. Kohlrabi
2. Cabbage
3. Cauliflower
4. All of these

Answer. 4. All of these

Question 116. If a sub-population becomes reproductively isolated in the midst of its parent population, this mode of speciation is called

1. Sympatric speciation
2. Allopatric speciation
3. Sibling species
4. Mutation

Answer. 1. Sympatric speciation

Question 117. Reproductive isolation is

1. Inability to interbreed
2. Ability to interbreed
3. Breeding in isolation
4. Intraspecific breeding

Answer. 1. Inability to interbreed

Question 118. Which of the following is not a characteristic of true species?

1. Members of a species can interbreed.
2. Gene flow does not occur between the populations of a species.
3. Each species is reproductively isolated from every other species.
4. Variations occur amongst members of a species.

Answer. 2. Gene flow does not occur between the populations of a species.

Question 119. Mule, which is produced from the mating of male donkey and a mare (female horse), is an example of which type of reproductive isolation?

1. Hybrid breakdown
2. Hybrid sterility
3. Hybrid inviability
4. Reverse evolution

Answer. 2. Hybrid sterility

Question 120. When a hybrid produces sterile or infertile offspring, it is known as

1. Hybrid sterility
2. Hybrid breakdown
3. Hybrid inviability
4. Gametic isolation

Answer. 2. Hybrid breakdown

Question 121. Modern synthetic theory of evolution is based on

1. Genetic and chromosomal mutations
2. Genetic recombination and natural selection
3. Reproductive isolation
4. All of these

Answer. 4. All of these

Question 122. Transfer of genes from one gene pool to another is

1. Genetic drift
2. Gene flow
3. Speciation
4. Mutation

Answer. 2. Gene flow

Question 123. Gene flow is

1. Transfer of genes between genetically distinct but interbreeding populations
2. Transfer of genes from females to males of an organism
3. Transfer of genes from outside to chromosomes
4. Transfer of genes from sperm to egg

Answer. 1. Transfer of genes between genetically distinct but interbreeding populations

Question 124. Gene pool of a population tends to remain stable if the population is large, without large-scale mutations, with- out migration, and with

1. Random mating
2. Moderate environmental changes
3. Natural selection
4. Reduction in predators

Answer. 1. Random mating

Question 125. Primates originated about

1. 210 million years ago
2. 150 million years ago
3. 65 million years ago
4. 36 million years ago

Answer. 3. 65 million years ago

Question 126. Anthropoid apes were ancestors of

1. Monkeys
2. Apes
3. Homo habilis
4. All the these

Answer. 4. All the these

Question 127. Which one of the following is the closest relative of man?

1. Chimpanzee
2. Orangutan
3. Gorilla
4. Gibbon

Answer. 1. Chimpanzee

Question 128. Evolution of man is believed to have taken place in

1. Central America
2. Australia
3. Asia
4. Africa

Answer. 4. Africa

Question 129. Cradle of human evolution is

1. Grassland of South Africa
2. Savannah of Central Africa
3. Subarctic Europe
4. Arabia

Answer. 2. Savannah of Central Africa

Question 130. Proconsul is ancestor of

1. Apes only
2. Man only
3. Both (1) and (2)
4. All primates

Answer. 3. Both (1) and (2)

Question 131. One thing that is not similar in great apes and man is

1. Posture
2. DNA content
3. Protein homology
4. Banding pattern of chromosome

Answer. 1. Posture

Question 132. The family to which Homo sapiens belongs is

1. Pongidae
2. Hylobatidae
3. Hominidae
4. None of these

Answer. 3. Hominidae

Question 133. The brain of Australopithecus measured

1. 350-450 cm3
2. 1400-1450 cm3
3. 700-900 cm3
4. 800-1400 cm3

Answer. 1. 350-450 cm3

Question 134. The ancestor of man who first stood erect was

1. Australopithecus
2. Java ape-man
3. Peking man
4. Cro-Magnon man

Answer. 1. Australopithecus

Question 135. The earliest man who used tools was

1. Homo habilis
2. Homo erectus
3. Java man
4. Peking man

Answer. 1. Homo habilis

Question 136. The connecting link between ape and man is

1. Cro-Magnon man
2. Australopithecus
3. Neanderthal man
4. Lemur

Answer. 2. Australopithecus

Question 137. Bipedal locomotion is advantageous because it

1. Increases speed
2. Reduces body weight
3. Provides better support to body
4. Releases forelimbs for other purposes

Answer. 4. Releases forelimbs for other purposes

Question 138. Fossils of so called Java man and Peking man belong to

1. Homo sapiens
2. Homo erectus
3. Homo habilis
4. None of these

Answer. 2. Homo erectus

Question 139. Dubois, in 1891, found the fossil of Java ape-man. It is

1. Sinanthropus pekinensis
2. Pithecanthropus erectus
3. Homo rhodesiensis
4. Homo sapiens

Answer. 2. Pithecanthropus erectus

Question 140. The smallest cranial capacity is that of the

1. Modern man
2. Cro-Magnon man
3. Neanderthal man
4. Java man

Answer. 4. Java man

Question 141. Which of the following fossil man possessed a cranial capacity almost equal to that of modern man?

1. Neanderthal man
2. Java ape-man
3. Peking man
4. Australopithecus africanus

Answer. 1. Neanderthal man

“questions about evolution “

Question 142. Fire was first used for protection and cooking by

1. Java man
2. Neanderthal man
3. Peking man
4. Cro-Magnon man

Answer. 1. Java man

Question 143. “Lucy” is the fossil of

1. Australopithecus afarensis
2. Homo sapiens
3. Homo erectus
4. Cro-Magnon man

Answer. 1. Australopithecus afarensis

Question 144. The fossils of Neanderthal were first obtained from Neander Valley in

1. Germany
2. Italy
3. America
4. France

Answer. 1. Germany

Question 145. The first evidence of ceremonial burial of dead have been found with fossils of

1. Cro-Magnon man
2. Java ape-man
3. Neanderthal man
4. Peking man

Answer. 3. Neanderthal man

Question 146. Who were the first to built hut-like structure for dwelling and buried their dead?

1. Neanderthal man
2. Cro-Magnon man
3. Java man
4. Homo sapiens sapiens

Answer. 1. Neanderthal ma

Question 147. Man (Homo) originated in

1. Palaeocene
2. Miocene
3. Oligocene
4. Pleistocene

Answer. 4. Pleistocene

Question 148. Which is correct?

1. Neanderthal man is direct ancestor of humans.
2. Homo erectus is direct ancestor of man.
3. Cro-Magnon man was found in Ethiopia.
4. Australopithecus is real ancestor of modern man.

Answer. 2. Homo erectus is direct ancestor of man.

Question 149. Cro-Magnon was

1. Carnivorous
2. Omnivorous
3. Herbivorous
4. Frugivorous

Answer. 2. Omnivorous

Question 150. Cranial capacity of Neanderthal man was

1. 1400 cc
2. 1300 cc
3. 1200 cc
4. 1100 cc

Answer. 1. 1400 cc

Question 151. Chronological sequence of evolution of the genus Homo is

1. Homo habilis, H. erectus, H. sapiens neanderthalensis, H. sapiens sapiens
2. Homo habilis, H. sapiens neanderthalensis, H. sapiens sapiens
3. Homo erectus, H. habilis, H. sapiens sapiens, H. neanderthalensis
4. H. neanderthalensis, H. erectus, H. sapiens sapiens, H. habilis

Answer. 1. Homo habilis, H. erectus, H. sapiens neanderthalensis, H. sapiens sapiens

Question 152. A common ancestry for man and great apes has been deduced from similarities in

1. Proteins
2. Banding pattern of chromosomes
3. DNA content
4. All of these

Answer. 4. All of these

Question 153. In gorilla, great apes, and chimpanzee, the number of chromosomes is

1. 2n = 46
2. 2n=44
3. 2n=48
4. None of these

Answer. 3. 2n=48

Question 154. Trends in human evolution have been

1. Erect posture
2. Opposable thumb
3. Bipedal
4. All of these

Answer. 4. All of these

Question 155. Colored rock-paintings were presumably first made by

1. Cro-Magnon man
2. Neanderthal man
3. Java ape-man
4. Peking man

Answer. 1. Cro-Magnon man

Question 156. The characteristics of modern man are

1. Small teeth without large canines and slight curvature of vertebral column
2. Flattened face without muzzle and brow ridges
3. Rounded skull with downward looking foramen magnum
4. All of these

Answer. 4. All of these

Question 157. Which is direct ancestor of Homo sapiens?

1. Homo erectus
2. H. sapiens neanderthalensis
3. Ramapithecus
4. Australopithecus

Answer. 1. Homo erectus

Question 158. Which is correct regarding the evolution of mankind?

1. Homo erectus was preceded by Homo habilis.
2. Australopithecus lived in Australia.
3. Neanderthal man and Cro-Magnon man lived together.
4. None of these.

Answer. 1. Homo erectus was preceded by Homo habilis.

Question 159. Common origin of man and chimpanzee is best shown by

1. Cranial capacity
2. Binocular vision
3. Chromosomes
4. Dental formula

Answer. 3. Chromosomes

Question 160. Who amongst the following diverged from the main line of hominid evolution about 10 million years ago?

1. Gibbon
2. Orangutan
3. Gorilla
4. Chimpanzee

Answer. 1. Gibbon

Question 161. Which is correct order in the evolutionary history of man?

1. Peking man → habilis man → Neanderthal man → Cro-Magnon man
2. Peking man → Heidelberg man → Neanderthal man → Cro-Magnon man
3. Peking man → Neanderthal man → Homo sapiens → Heidelberg man
4. Peking man → Homo sapiens → Neanderthal man → Cro-Magnon man

Answer. 2. Peking man → Heidelberg man → Neanderthal man → Cro-Magnon man

Question 162. The fossil of Cro-Magnon man was found in

1. Southern France
2. Northern France
3. Northern Germany
4. South Africa

Answer. 1. Southern France

Question 163. Dryopithecus is also called

1. Parapithecus
2. Proconsul
3. Oreopithecus
4. Pithecanthropus

Answer. 2. Proconsul

Question 164. In recent years, DNA sequences of mitochondrial DNA and V-chromosomes were considered for the study of human evolution because

1. They can be studied from the sample of fossil remains
2. They are small and, therefore, easy to study
3. They are uniparental in origin and do not take part in recombination
4. Their structure is known in greater detail

Answer. 3. They are uniparental in origin and do not take part in recombination

Question 165. Some bio-indicator plants have evolved metal tolerance, and can indicate the occurrence of specific metal deposits. The plant which is the bio-indicator of lead is

1. Agrostis tenuis
2. Astragalus
3. Haplopappus
4. Impatiens balsamina

Answer. 1. Agrostis tenuis

Question 166. A baby has been born with a small tail. It is a case of exhibiting

1. Retrogressive evolution
2. Mutation
3. Atavism
4. Metamorphosis

Answer. 3. Atavism

Question 167. In which condition gene ratio remains constant in a species?

1. Gene flow
2. Mutation
3. Random mating
4. Sexual selection

Answer. 3. Random mating

Question 168. Nothing in biology makes sense except in the light of evolution. This statement was given by

1. Thedosius Dobzhansky
2. Darwin
3. Wallace
4. Malthus

Answer. 1. Thedosius Dobzhansky

Question 169. The phrase “survival of fittest” was used by

1. Charles Darwin
2. Herbert Spencer
3. Jean Baptiste Lamarck
4. Hugo de Vries

Answer. 2. Herbert Spencer

Question 170. Degradation, aggregation, and diastrophism have resulted in

1. Folding of land masses
2. Raising of land masses
3. Lowering of land masses
4. All of these

Answer. 4. All of these

Question 171. It is useful to study the origin and evolution of life because

1. We learn that life cannot exist anywhere else
2. We learn about the unity and diversity of living organisms
3. We learn that human species has the responsibility to conserve nature
4. Human species is the most evolved; so, no harm can come to us

Answer. 2. We learn about the unity and diversity of living organisms

Question 172. The role of isolation in evolution is

1. Differentiation of species
2. Maintenance of species
3. Extermination of species
4. Evolutionary divergence

Answer. 4. Evolutionary divergence

Question 173. Which of the following animals exhibit poisonous Müllerian mimicry?

1. Bees
2. Wasps
3. Hornets
4. All of these

Answer. 4. All of these

Question 174. Which one of the following plants is tolerant to selenium?

1. Astragalus
2. Agrostis tenuis
3. Impatiens balsamia
4. Prosopis juliflora

Answer. 1. Astragalus

Question 175. Which one of the following animal has been extinct recently?

1. Dodo
2. Dinosaur
3. Pterodactyla
4. Mammoth

Answer. 1. Dodo

Question 176. Two bands of a population come together after a period of isolation. Speciation will have taken place if the two groups

1. No longer mate
2. Cannot interbreed or produce fertile offsprings
3. Compete for the same food supply
4. No longer intermingle

Answer. 2. Cannot interbreed or produce fertile offsprings

Question 177. Organic evolution would not have taken place if

1. Individual in a population did not show genetic variation
2. Individuals did not transmit the characters acquired during their lifetime to offsprings
3. Somatic variations were not inherited
4. Somatic variations were not transformed into genetic variations

Answer. 1. Individual in a population did not show genetic variation

Question 178. What is wrong about evolution?

1. Evolution is a slow and continuous process of change.
2. All diversity of organisms has arisen due to evolution.
3. Evolution is due to natural selection only.
4. Evolution is due to variations arising from changes in genetic material.

Answer. 3. Evolution is due to natural selection only.

Question 179. Survival due to geographic isolation is best exemplified by mammalian fauna of

1. Oriental region
2. Ethiopean region
3. Palaearctic region
4. Australian region

Answer. 4. Australian region

Question 180. Which of the following is irrelevant in the evolution of man?

1. Loss of tail
2. Increase in the ability to communicate with others and develop community behavior
3. Protection of hand for toolmaking
4. Change of diet from hard nuts and hard roots to soft food

Answer. 1. Loss of tail

Question 181. According to geological clock, if last 4800 million years = 24 h, then the appearance of animals took place

1. At 18.30 h, 4600 million years ago
2. At 18.30 h, 1100 million years ago
3. At 13.00 h, 220 million years ago
4. At 10.00 h, 1-2 million years ago

Answer. 2. At 18.30 h, 1100 million years ago

Question 182. There are two opposing views about the origin of mod- ern man. According to one view, Homo erectus in Asia were the ancestors of modern man. A study of variation in DNA, however, suggested African origin of modern man. What kind of observation on DNA variation could suggest this?

1. Greater variation in Asia than in Africa
2. Greater variation in Africa than in Asia
3. Similar variation in Africa and Asia
4. Variation only in Asia and no variation in Africa

Answer. 2. Greater variation in Africa than in Asia

Question 183. Which of the following is relatively the most accurate method for dating of fossils?

1. Radiocarbon method
2. Potassium-argon method
3. Electron-spin resonance method
4. Uranium-lead method

Answer. 3. Electron-spin resonance method

Question 184. Evolution due to genetic changes within a species is

1. Microevolution
2. Macroevolution
3. Megaevolution
4. Coevolution

Answer. 1. Microevolution

Question 185. Future human generations will be less adapted due to

1. Genetic drift
2. Mutation
3. Natural selection
4. Gene flow

Answer. 3. Natural selection

Question 186. Today, the tiger population in India has reduced. This is because

A. Tigers exist in geographically isolated population

B. Of hunting and habitat destruction

C. Of genetic drift

D. Of homogenizing effect of gene flow

Choose the correct option:

1. (A) and (B) only
2. (A), (B), and (C)
3. (B) and (C) only
4. (A), (B), (C), and (D)

Answer. 2. (A), (B), and (C)

Question 187. What molecular evidence suggests that Homo sapiens originated in Africa and then radiated out to other places?

A. Maximum variations are found in the mitochondrial DNA of Africans

B. Variations in V-chromosome

C. Similarity in skull of apes and man

D. Binocular vision

1. (A) only
2. A and B
3. (A), (B), and (C)
4. (A), (B), (C), and (D)

Answer. 2. A and B

Question 188. The eyes of first primates faced forward. All the following are advantages of these, except

1. Binocular vision
2. This gave the primates excellent depth perception, which enabled them to judge distances accurately when moving through the trees
3. The field of vision of two eyes is different
4. Binocular vision results in three-dimensional image

Answer. 3. The field of vision of two eyes is different

Question 189. As Pangaea broke apart,

1. Dinosaurs became more alike
2. Mammals became dominant
3. Dinosaur species flourished
4. World climate changed

Answer. 4. World climate changed

Question 190. The illustration shows the skull of two different mammals. Use the illustration to answer the question that follows:

Which of the following accurately describes the differ- ences between these skulls?

1. Skull (A) has more teeth than skull (B)
2. Skull (A) has more brain capacity than skull (B)
3. Skull (A) is of primate and skull (B) is not of a primate
4. Skull (A) is the skull of an ape because of simian gap and skull (B) is the skull of human

Answer. 4. Skull (A) is the skull of an ape because of simian gap and skull (B) is the skull of human

Question 191. Which of the following is not true?

1. About 15 mya, primates Oryopithecus and Ramap- ithecus existed.
2. Ramapithecus was more ape-like.
3. Homo erectus had a large brain around 900 cm3.
4. The brain capacities of Homo habilis were between 650 cm3 and 800 cm3.

Answer. 2. Ramapithecus was more ape-like.

Question 192. Who were the first to use hides to protect their body and buried their dead?

1. Neanderthal man
2. Homo erectus
3. Cro-Magnon man
4. Homo habilis

Answer. 1. Neanderthal man

Question 193. Modern Homo sapiens arose

1. Near East and Central Asia between 100,000 and 40,000 years ago
2. During ice age between 75,000 and 10,000 years ago
3. About 10,000 years ago
4. About 18,000 years ago

Answer. 2. During ice age between 75,000 and 10,000 years ago

Question 194. The most apparent change during the evolutionary history of Homo sapiens is traced in

1. Loss of body hair
2. Walking upright
3. Shortening of the jaws
4. Remarkable increase in the brain size

Answer. 4. Remarkable increase in the brain size

Question 195. The first human-like being-the hominid-was called

1. Australopithecus
2. Homo erectus
3. Homo habilis
4. Homo sapiens

Answer. 3. Homo habilis

Question 196. The most advanced theory of origin of life is that of

1. Catastrophic
2. Haldane and Oparin
3. Cosmozoic
4. Spontaneous

Answer. 2. Haldane and Oparin

Question 197. Possible early source of energy was

1. Chlorophyll
2. CO2
3. UV radiations and lightning
4. Green plants

Answer. 3. UV radiations and lightning

Question 198. Swan-necked flask experiment was performed by

1. Louis Pasteur
2. Robert Koch
3. Francisco Redi
4. Aristotle

Answer. 1. Louis Pasteur

Question 199. Spark discharge apparatus for testing the chemical origin of life was designed by

1. Urey and Miller
2. Jacob and Monod
3. Oparin and Haldane
4. Dixon and Joly

Answer. 1. Urey and Miller

Question 200. Which is the most important for the origin of life?

1. Oxygen
2. Water
3. Nitrogen
4. Carbon

Answer. 2. Water

Question 201. Theory of spontaneous generation was supported by

1. Van Helmont
2. Redi
3. Spallanzani
4. Pasteur

Answer. 1. Van Helmont

Question 202. One of the greatest advocates of the theory of special creation was

1. C. Darwin
2. Aristotle
3. Father Saurez
4. Huxley

Answer. 3. Father Saurez

Question 203. A compound important in prebiotic evolution was

1. SO2
2. YCH1
3. SO3
4. NO

Answer. 2. YCH1

Question 204. Which ones are the most essential for the origin of life?

1. Enzymes
2. Proteins
3. Carbohydrates
4. Nucleic acids

Answer. 4. Nucleic acids

Question 205. Approximate age of earth (in million years) is

1. 3600
2. 4600
3. 7200
4. 6000

Answer. 2. 4600

Question 206. According to the theory of abiogenesis, life originates from

1. Non-living
2. Spontaneously
3. Chemicals
4. Other planets

Answer. 1. Non-living

Question 207. Abiogenesis is

1. Origin of life from non-living organisms
2. Origin of microbes from living organisms
3. Spontaneous
4. Origin of microbes and viruses

Answer. 3. Spontaneous

Question 208. Experimental proof that organic compounds formed the basis of evolution was given by

1. Oparin
2. Pasteur
3. Miller and Urey
4. Spallanzani

Answer. 3. Miller and Urey

Question 209. Which of the following has been basic to the origin of life?

1. Carbohydrates
2. Proteins
3. Nucleic acids
4. Nucleoproteins

Answer. 3. Nucleic acids

Question 210. Coacervates were experimentally produced by

1. Oparin and Sidney Fox
2. Fischer and Huxley
3. Jacob and Monod
4. Urey and Miller

Answer. 1. Oparin and Sidney Fox

Question 211. Who disapproved abiogenesis for the first time?

1. Lamarck
2. F. Redi
3. Pasteur
4. Darwin

Answer. 2. F. Redi

Question 212. Which experiment suggests that simplest living organ- isms could not have originated spontaneously from non- living matter?

1. Microbes did not appear in stored meat.
2. Microbes appeared from unsterilized organic matter.
3. Larvae could appear in decaying organic matter.
4. Meat was not spoiled when heated and kept in sealed vessel.

Answer. 4. Meat was not spoiled when heated and kept in sealed vessel.

Question 213. The origin of life from pre-existing life is propounded by 

1. Biogenesis theory
2. Abiogenesis theory
3. Special creation theory
4. Extra terrestrial theory

Answer. 1. Biogenesis theory

Question 214. Extra terrestrial origin of life was proposed by the theory of

1. Catastrophism
2. Spontaneous generation
3. Special creation
4. Panspermia

Answer. 4. Panspermia

Question 215. Stanley Miller’s experiment supports

1. Abiogenesis
2. Biogenesis
3. Pangenesis
4. Chemical theory

Answer. 4. Chemical theory

Question 216. Cyanobacteria originated on earth about

1. 4.3-4.8 billion years ago
2. 3.3-3.8 billion years ago
3. 2.3-2.8 billion years ago
4. 1.3-1.8 billion years ago

Answer. 2. 3.3-3.8 billion years ago

Question 217. Coacervates belong to the category of

1. Protozoans
2. Molecular aggregates
3. Molecular aggregates surrounded by lipid mem- brane
4. Cyanobacteria

Answer. 2. Molecular aggregates

Question 218. The oldest fossil record of blue-green algae is 2.9 billion years old. It is

1. Stromatolites
2. Archaeopteryx
3. Archaeopterix
4. Chlamydomonas

Answer. 3. Archaeopterix

Question 219. First life consisted of

1. Provirus
2. Virus
3. Bacteria
4. Protovirus

Answer. 4. Protovirus

Question 220. Which of the following amino acids was not found to be synthesized in Miller’s experiment?

1. Alanine
2. Glycine
3. Aspartic acid
4. Glutamic acid

Answer. 4. Glutamic acid

Question 221. Miller and Urey performed an experiment to prove the origin of life. They took gases ammonia and hydrogen along with

1. N2 and H2O
2. CH4 and N2
3. H2O and CH4
4. CO2 and NH3

Answer. 3. H2O and CH4

Question 222. The term “hot dilute soup” was given by

1. Haldane
2. Urey
3. Oparin
4. None of the above

Answer. 1. Haldane

Question 223. Coacervates are

1. Protein aggregates
2. Protein and lipid aggregates
3. Chemical aggregates
4. Protobionts with polysaccharides, proteins, and water

Answer. 4. Protobionts with polysaccharides, proteins, and water

Question 224. The concept of chemical evolution of life is based on

1. Effect of solar radiations on chemicals
2. Interaction of water, air, and clay under intense heat
3. Combination of chemicals under hot moist environment conditions
4. Crystallization of chemicals

Answer. 3. Combination of chemicals under hot moist environment conditions

Question 225. The living form resulting from the final stage of chemical evolution of life is called

1. Prebiont
2. Protobiont
3. Protenoid
4. Probiont

Answer. 2. Protobiont

Question 226. Scientists believe that life on earth originated by

1. Spontaneous generation
2. Chemical evolution/abiogenesis
3. Special creation
4. Extra terrestrial transfer

Answer. 2. Chemical evolution/abiogenesis

Question 227. Which of the following was formed in S. Miller’s experiment?

1. Microspheres
2. Nucleic acids
3. Amino acids
4. UV radiations

Answer. 3. Amino acids

Question 228. S.L. Miller’s closed flask contained

1. CH4
2. NH, and water vapors
3. H2
4. All the above

Answer. 4. All the above

Question 229. Microspheres possessed a membrane of 

1. Lipid and protein
2. Lipid
3. Carbohydrates
4. Fats

Answer. 2. Lipid

Question 230. Which is incorrect about protobionts in the abiogenic origin of life?

1. They were partially isolated from surroundings.
2. They could maintain an internal environment.
3. They were able to reproduce.
4. They could separate combination of molecules from the surroundings.

Answer. 3. They were able to reproduce.

Question 231. Origin of life occurred in

1. Precambrian
2. Coenozoic
3. Palaeozoic
4. Mesozoic

Answer. 1. Precambrian

Question 232. In their experiment to prove the origin of life, Miller and Urey took gases

1. Methane, ethane, hydrogen, ammonia
2. Methane, ethane, ammonia, water vapors
3. Methane, ethane, ammonia, water vapors
4. Ammonia, water vapors, butane, hydrogen

Answer. 3. Methane, ethane, ammonia, water vapors

Question 233. Miller performed experiment to prove abiogenetic molecular evolution of life. Which molecule was not present in Miller’s experiment?

1. Water
2. Methane
3. Oxygen
4. Ammonia

Answer. 3. Oxygen

Question 234. Which is incorrect?

1. J.B.S Haldane Law of continuity of germplasm
2. Louis Pasteur – Germ theory of disease and immunology
3. de Vries – Mutation theory
4. Lemaitre – Big bang theory

Answer. 1. Lemaitre – Big bang theory

Question 235. Fossils are studied for

1. Tracing evolutionary history of organisms
2. Studying extinct organisms
3. Filling gaps in our study
4. Providing jobs to scientists

Answer. 2. Studying extinct organisms

Question 236. The theory “ontogeny recapitulates phylogeny” was proposed by

1. Mendel
2. Haeckel
3. Erasmus
4. Weismann

Answer. 2. Haeckel

Question 237. Monkeys and some lower groups have certain blood groups which are

1. Identical to those of man
2. Identical to those of anthropod apes
3. Identical to those of anthropod apes
4. Somewhat similar to white persons
5. Not identical to those of man

Answer. 1. Identical to those of man

Question 238. Organic evolution is change in

1. Single individual
2. A few members of population
3. Major portion of population
4. Entire population

Answer. 3. Major portion of population

Question 239. Heart is four-chambered in

1. Amphibia
2. Fishes
3. Mammals
4. Reptiles

Answer. 3. Mammals

Question 240. Homologous organs are

1. Human eyes and squid eyes
2. Gills of fish and lungs of man
3. Hands of man and wings of bat
4. Leaf of moss and frond of fern

Answer. 3. Hands of man and wings of bat

Question 241. Coal has been mainly formed by

1. Bryophytes
2. Pteridophytes/pteridosperms
3. Angiosperms
4. Algae

Answer. 2. Pteridophytes/pteridosperms

Question 242. Darwin’s finches provide evidence of evolution from

1. Anatomy
2. Morphology
3. Biogeography
4. All the above

Answer. 3. Biogeography

Question 243. Which one is not vestigial in humans?

1. Third molar
2. Coccyx
3. Segmental abdominal muscles
4. Finger nails

Answer. 4. Finger nails

Question 244. Vestigial pelvic girdle and bone remnants of hind limbs nare characteristic of

1. Whale
2. Dolphin
3. Shark
4. Seal

Answer. 1. Whale

Question 245. The sequence in the evolution of horse was

1. Equus, Eohippus, Mesohippus, Merychippus
2. Eohippus, Mesohippus, Merychippus, Equus
3. Mesohippus, Eohippus, Equus, Mesohippus
4. Merychippus, Mesohippus, Eohippus, Equus

Answer. 2. Eohippus, Mesohippus, Merychippus, Equus

Question 246. Origin of life occurred in

1. Carboniferous
2. Cambrian
3. Pre-Cambrian
4. Ordovician

Answer. 3. Pre-Cambrian

Question 247. The age of evolution of man is measured by

1. Electron microscope
2. Chemical reaction
3. Radioactive dating
4. Ultraviolet radiation

Answer. 2. Chemical reaction

Question 248. Modern birds rose in

1. Palaeozoic
2. Coenozoic
3. Mesozoic
4. Archaeozoic

Answer. 1. Palaeozoic

Question 249. Tasmanian wolf is a marsupial while wolf is a placental mammal. This shows

1. Convergent evolution
2. Divergent evolution
3. Parallelism
4. Inheritance of acquired characters

Answer. 2. Divergent evolution

Question 250. Pioneers in the field of organic evolution were

1. Darwin, Lamarck, Landsteiner, and de Vries
2. Darwin, de Vries, Lamarck, Huxley
3. Lamarck, Landsteiner, Malthus, de Vries
4. Landsteiner, de Vries, Malthus, Darwin

Answer. 2. Darwin, de Vries, Lamarck, Huxley

Question 251. Occurrence of higher number of endemic species in South America and Australia is due to

1. Retrogressive evolution
2. Continental separation
3. These species have become extinct from other regions
4. Absence of terrestrial links between these places

Answer. 1. Retrogressive evolution

Question 252. Similarities between organisms of different genotypes is due to

1. Convergent evolution
2. Divergent evolution
3. Microevolution
4. Macroevolution

Answer. 3. Microevolution

Question 253. Which of the following is not atavistic in humans?

1. Tail in some babies
2. Enlarged canines
3. Six fingers
4. Dense body hair

Answer. 2. Enlarged canines

Question 254. Which are not homologous?

1. Forearms of humans and fins of fishes
2. Wings of bat and insects
3. Fins of fishes and flippers of whales
4. Human forearms, bat’s wings, and flippers of whale

Answer. 2. Wings of bat and insects

Question 255. The presence of tail and coarse hair in human baby is 

1. Radiation
2. Atavism
3. Mutation
4. Crossing-over

Answer. 2. Atavism

Question 256. The unit of evolution is

1. Population
2. Species
3. Individual
4. Subspecies

Answer. 1. Population

Question 257. The possibility of occurrence of coal in an area is determined by the study of

1. Microfossils
2. Ecology
3. Economic botany
4. Mining contents

Answer. 1. Microfossils

Question 258. Darwin’s finches occur in

1. Australia
2. Galapagos Islands
3. Siberia
4. India

Answer. 2. Galapagos Islands

Question 259. Evolution does not occur in case of

1. Parasitism
2. Mutualism
3. Both (1) and (2)
4. Commensalism

Answer. 4. Commensalism

Question 260. Ancestral amphibians were tetrapods that evolved during

1. Carboniferous period
2. Cretaceous period
3. Jurassic period
4. Devonian period

Answer. 4. Devonian period

Question 261. Interacting populations are

1. Symbiotic
2. Mutualistic
3. Parasitic
4. Coevolved

Answer. 4. Coevolved

Question 262. Archaeopteryx, toothed fossil bird, occurred during

1. Jurassic
2. Triassic
3. Cretaceous
4. Permian

Answer. 2. Triassic

Question 263. Mesozoic era is known as golden age of

1. Fishes
2. Amphibians
3. Reptiles
4. Molluscs

Answer. 3. Reptiles

Question 264. Continental drift explains

1. Mass extinctions
2. Distribution of fossils on earth
3. Geographical upheavals
4. All the above

Answer. 4. All the above

Question 265. Reptilian feature of Archaeopteryx is

1. U-shaped furcula
2. Beak
3. Abdominal ribs
4. Feathers

Answer. 3. Abdominal ribs

Question 266. Archaeopteryx is the connecting link between

1. Fishes and amphibians
2. Amphibians and birds
3. Amphibians and reptiles
4. Reptiles and birds

Answer. 4. Reptiles and birds

Question 267. Which is not vestigial in man?

1. Tail vertebrae
2. Nails
3. Nictitating membrane
4. Vermiform appendix

Answer. 2. Nails

Question 268. The development of adaptations along parallel lines in unrelated groups of animals is

1. Adaptive convergence
2. Adaptive radiation
3. Adaptive divergence
4. Adaptive induction

Answer. 1. Adaptive convergence

Question 269. Which of the following is vestigial in humans?

1. Mammary glands in males
2. Knee bones
3. Nictitating membrane
4. Ear pinna

Answer. 3. Nictitating membrane

Question 270. Which is a pair of vestigial organs?

1. Coccyx and intercostal muscles
2. Coccyx and auricular muscles
3. Facial hairs in ladies
4. Coccyx and premolars

Answer. 2. Coccyx and auricular muscles

Question 271. Which of the following is used for dating archaeological specimens such as bones, shells, and wood?

1. 3 H
2. 14 C
3. 121 I
4. 32 P

Answer. 2. 14 C

Question 272. Convergent evolution is illustrated by

1. Rat and dog
2. Bacterium and protozoan
3. Starfish and cuttlefish
4. Dogfish and whale

Answer. 4. Dogfish and whale

Question 273. Which one correctly describes homologous structures?

1. Organs with anatomical similarities but performing different functions
2. Organs with anatomical similarities but performing different functions
3. Organs that have no function now but had an important function in ancestors
4. Organs appearing only in embryonic stage and disappearing later in the adult

Answer. 1. Organs with anatomical similarities but performing different functions

Question 274. The early-stage human embryo distinctly possesses

1. Gills
2. Gill slits
3. External ear (pinna)
4. Eye brows

Answer. 2. Gill slits

Question 275. Mesozoic era was dominated by

1. Birds
2. Fishes
3. Reptiles
4. Mammals

Answer. 3. Reptiles

Question 276. The age of fossils was previously determined by radioactive elements. More precise recent method which has led to the revision of evolutionary periods is

1. Study of carbohydrates and proteins in fossils
2. Study of conditions of fossilization
3. Electron spin resonance and fossil DNA
4. Presence of carbohydrates and proteins in rocks

Answer. 3. Electron spin resonance and fossil DNA

Question 277. The flippers of seal are modified

1. Hindlimbs
2. Forelimbs
3. Fins
4. Gills

Answer. 2. Forelimbs

Question 278. Potato and sweet potato have edible parts that are

1. Homologous
2. Analogous
3. Recent introductions
4. Two species of the same genus

Answer. 2. Analogous

Question 279. The classical example of adaptive radiation during the formation of new species is

1. Marsupials of Australia
2. Darwin’s finches
3. Giant tortoise
4. All the above

Answer. 4. All the above

Question 280. Mammals such as whale, dolphin, bat, monkey, and horse have some common characters but also show conspicuous differences. This is due to the phenomenon of

1. Divergence
2. Convergence
3. Genetic drift
4. Normalization

Answer. 1. Divergence

Question 281. Which of the following pairs of structures is homologous?

1. Wings of grasshopper and forelimbs of flying squirrel
2. Tentacles of Hydra and arms of starfish
3. Forelimbs of a bat and forelegs of a horse
4. Wings of a bird and wings of a moth

Answer. 3. Forelimbs of a bat and forelegs of a horse

Question 282. Which is relatively the most accurate method of dating of fossils?

1. Radiocarbon method
2. Potassium-argon method
3. Electron spin-resonance method
4. Uranium-lead method

Answer. 3. Electron spin-resonance method

Question 283. What is the correct arrangement of periods of Paleozoic era in ascending order in geological time scale?

1. Cambrian Devonian → Ordovician → Silurian → Carboniferous → Permian
2. Cambrian Ordovician → Silurian → Devonian → Carboniferous → Permian
3. Cambrian Ordovician → Devonian → Silurian → Carboniferous → Permian
4. Silurian→ Devonian → Cambrian → Ordovician → Permian → Carboniferous

Answer. 2. Cambrian Ordovician→ Silurian → Devonian →Carboniferous → Permian

Question 284. An important evidence in favor of organic evolution is the occurrence of

1. Homologous and analogous organs
2. Homologous and vestigial organs
3. Analogous and vestigial organs
4. Homologous organs only

Answer. 1. Homologous and analogous organs

Question 285. Jurassic period of Mesozoic era is characterized by

1. Flowering plants and first dinosaurs appear
2. Gymnosperms are dominant plants and first birds appear
3. Radiation of reptiles and angiosperms appear
4. Dinosaurs become extinct and angiosperms appear

Answer. 2. Gymnosperms are dominant plants and first birds appear

Question 286. Evolutionary history of an organism is known as

1. Ontogeny
2. Phylogeny
3. Ancestry
4. Palaeontology

Answer. 2. Phylogeny

Question 287. Duck-billed platypus is connecting link between

1. Echinodermata and Chordata
2. Arthropoda and Mollusca
3. Reptilia and Mammalia
4. Reptilia and Aves

Answer. 3. Reptilia and Mammalia

Question 288. Tendrils of Cucurbita and thorns of Bougainvillea are

1. Homologous organs
2. Analogous organs
3. Vestigial organs
4. Atavistic divergence

Answer. 1. Homologous organs

Question 289. Parallelism is due to

1. Adaptive divergence
2. Adaptive convergence
3. Adaptive convergence of unrelated species
4. Adaptive convergence of closely related species

Answer. 4. Adaptive convergence of closely related species

Question 290. Which one is correct?

1. There is no evidence of presence of gills in mammalian embryos.
2. Ontogeny repeats phylogeny.
3. All plant and animal cells are totipotent.
4. Stem cells are specialized cells.

Answer. 2. Ontogeny repeats phylogeny.

Question 291. Finches of Galapagos provide evidence for

1. Retrogressive evolution
2. Special creation
3. Biogeographical evolution
4. Evolution due to mutation

Answer. 3. Biogeographical evolution

Question 292. Two species of different genealogy show resemblance due to similar adaptation. The phenomenon is

1. Convergent evolution
2. Divergent evolution
3. Microevolution
4. Coevolution

Answer. 1. Convergent evolution

Question 293. Adaptive radiation is

1. Evolution of different species from a common ancestor
2. Adaptation due to geographical isolation
3. Migration of members of a species to different geographical areas
4. Power of adaptation of an individual to a variety of environments

Answer. 1. Evolution of different species from a common ancestor

Question 294. What is common to whale, seal, and shark?

1. Homoiothermy
2. Seasonal migration
3. Thick subcutaneous fat
4. Convergent evolution

Answer. 4. Convergent evolution

Question 295. Life has existed on earth for the last

1. 2.3 billion years
2. 3.9 billion years
3. 4.3 billion years
4. 5.0 billion years

Answer. 2. 3.9 billion years

Question 296. Darwin’s finches show

1. Adaptive radiation
2. Parallel evolution
3. Homology
4. Natural selection

Answer. 1. Adaptive radiation

Question 297. Connecting link between Annelida and Mollusca is

1. Nautilus
2. Neopilina
3. Glochidium
4. Veliger larva

Answer. 2. Neopilina

Question 298. Which period is largely associated with the extinction of dinosaurs and increase in flowering plants and reptiles? 

1. Triassic
2. Jurassic
3. Cretaceous
4. Permian

Answer. 3. Cretaceous

Question 299. Tachyglossus is connecting link between

1. Reptiles and mammals
2. Reptiles and birds
3. Amphibians and reptiles
4. Birds and mammals

Answer. 1. Reptiles and mammals

Question 300. Phylogeny is

1. Evolutionary history
2. Small body mass
3. Group of phyla
4. Smaller extremities

Answer. 1. Evolutionary history

Question 301. As per Allen’s rule, mammals of cold regions conserve body heat through

1. Larger body mass
2. Life history
3. Longer extremities
4. Genetics of animals

Answer. 4. Genetics of animals

Question 302. Peripatus is connecting link between

1. Porifera and coelenterata
2. Ctenophora and Platyhelminthes
3. Mollusca and Echinodermata
4. Annelida and Arthropoda

Answer. 4. Annelida and Arthropoda

Question 303. A living connecting link that provides evidence of organic evolution is

1. Sphenodon between reptiles and birds
2. Archaeopteryx between reptiles and birds
3. Lung fishes between pisces and reptiles
4. Duck-billed platypus between reptiles and mammals

Answer. 4. Duck-billed platypus between reptiles and mammals

Question 304. After the Industrial Revolution, melanic moths survived because

1. They had black color
2. They had gray body color
3. They shifted to different habitat
4. They reproduced vigorously

Answer. 1. They had black color

Question 305. Vesitiges of girdles are found in

1. Rattle snake
2. Krait
3. Cobra
4. Python

Answer. 4. Python

Question 306. An evolutionary pattern characterized by a rapid increase in the number of kinds of closely related species is called

1. Divergent evolution
2. Convergent evolution
3. Adaptive radiation
4. Parallel evolution

Answer. 3. Adaptive radiation

Question 307. The first seed plants appeared in

1. Cretaceous era
2. Carboniferous era
3. Devonian era
4. Silurian era

Answer. 2. Carboniferous era

Question 308. Given are four statements (a)-(d) with one or two blanks. Select the option which fills up the blanks in two statements.

(a) Wings of butterfly and birds look alike and are the result of _______ evolution.

(b) Miller showed that CH4, H2, NH3, and ______ when exposed to electric discharge in a flask resulted in the formation of _______ evidence of evolution.

(c) Vermiform appendix is a _______ organ and ________.

(d) According to Darwin, evolution took place due to _______ and ______of the fittest.

1. (d)-(1) small variations, (2) survival; (a)-(1) convergent
2. (a)-(1) convergent; (b)-(1) oxygen, (2) nucleolides
3. (b)-(1) water vapors, (2) amino acids; (c)-(1) rudimentary, (2) anatomical
4. (c)-(1) vestigial, (2) anatomical; (d)-(1) mutations, (2) multiplication

Answer. 1. (d)-(1) small variations, (2) survival; (a)-(1) convergent

Question 309. What was the most significant trend in the evolution of modern man (Homo sapiens) from his ancestors? 

1. Binocular vision
2. Increasing cranial capacity
3. Upright posture
4. Shortening of jaws

Answer. 2. Increasing cranial capacity

Question 310. Which one of the following options gives one correct ex- ample each of convergent evolution and divergent evolution?

Answer. 4. Eyes of octopus and mammals    Bones of forelimbs of vertebrates

Question 311. The extinct human who lived 1,00,000 to 40,000 years ago, in Europe, Asia, and parts of Africa, with short stature, heavy eyebrows, retreating foreheads, large jaws with heavy teeth, stocky bodies, a lumbering gait, and stooped posture was

1. Neanderthal human
2. Cro-Magnon human
3. Ramapithecus
4. Homo habilis

Answer. 1. Neanderthal human

Question 312. Evolution of different species in a given area starting from a point and spreading to other geographical areas is known as

1. Nutrition
2. Migration
3. Divergent evolution
4. Adaptive radiation

Answer. 4. Adaptive radiation

Question 313. The process by which organisms with different evolutionary history evolve similar phenotypic adaptations in response to a common environmental challenge is called

1. Convergent evolution
2. Non-random evolution
3. Adaptive radiation
4. Natural selection

Answer. 1. Convergent evolution

Question 314. Variation in gene frequencies within populations can occur by chance rather than by natural selection. This is referred to as

1. Genetic drift
2. Random mating
3. Genetic load
4. Genetic flow

Answer. 1. Genetic drift

Question 315. According to Darwin, the organic evolution is due to

1. Interspecific competition
2. Competition within closely related species
3. Reduced feeding efficiency in one species due to the presence of interfering species
4. Intraspecific competition

Answer. 1. Interspecific competition

NEET Biology For Molecular Basis Of Inheritance Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. The strongest evidence in favor of DNA as genetic material comes from

1. Griffith effect
2. Conjugation
3. Taylor’s experiment
4. Cairn’s effect

Answer. 1. Griffith effect

Question 2. Molecular explanation for transformation was given by

1. Griffith
2. Avery, McCarty, and Macleod
3. Lederberg and Tatum
4. Avery and McCarty

Answer. 2. Avery, McCarty, and Macleod

Question 3. Radioactive element used to label the DNA of bacterio- phage in the Waring blender experiment of Hershey and Chase was

1. S35
2. p32
3. N15
4. C14

Answer. 2. p32

Question 4. Transforming principle in Griffith’s experiments explains

1. Certain rules for auxenic culture of bacteria
2. Ingredients of culture medium
3. Chemical substance released by S type
4. Chemical substance released by R type

Answer. 3. Chemical substance released by S type

” molecular basis of inheritance “

Question 5. Some viruses do not have DNA. This suggests that

1. They are non-infective viruses
2. RNA is the genetic material in these viruses
3. DNA is not the genetic material
4. RNA is a self-replicating molecule

Answer. 2. RNA is the genetic material in these viruses

Question 6. RNA as genetic material in plant viruses was shown by

1. Hershey and Chase
2. Fraenkal Conrat
3. F. Griffith
4. Lederberg and Tatum

Answer. 1. Hershey and Chase

Question 7. The largest biomolecule in the cell which shows autocatalytic and heterocatalytic functions is

1. Protein
2. RNA
3. DNA
4. Carbohydrate

Answer. 2. RNA

Question 8. Who gave 3D model of B-DNA?

1. Watson and Crick
2. Wilkins and Franklin
3. F. Meischer
4. Zacharis

Answer. 3. F. Meischer

Question 9. Bonding between deoxyribose and base in pyrimidine nucleoside molecule is

1. 1′-1 glycosidic linkage
2. 1′-6 glycosidic linkage
3. 1′-9 glycosidic linkage
4. 1′-4 glycosidic linkage

Answer. 1. 1′-1 glycosidic linkage

Question 10. According to the Chargaff rule, (A+T)/(G + C) values in E. coli and human beings, respectively, are

1. 1.52 and 0.93
2. 0.93 and 1.52
3. 0.66 and 1
4. Always unit in both

Answer. 1. 1.52 and 0.93

Question 11. Numbers of base pairs in one turn of B-DNA and Z-DNA are, respectively,

1. 9 and 11
2. 10 and 11
3. 10 and 12
4. 8 and 9

Answer. 3. 10 and 12

Question 12. The total amount of DNA present in the haploid genome of an organism is called its

1. C-value
2. Phenotype
3. Genotype
4. Karyotype

Answer. 1. C-value

Question 13. T (melting temperature) value of DNA is high when it contains

1. A+T>G+C
2. G+C>A+T
3. A+T=G+C
4. A +G=T+C

Answer. 2. G+C>A+T

Question 14. Select the incorrect statement regarding RNA molecule:

1. It has highly reactive 2′-OH group.
2. It shows high rate of mutation than DNA.
3. It is genetic material in some viruses.
4. It follows Chargaff’s rule.

Answer. 4. It follows Chargaff’s rule.

Question 15. The distance covered by a complete turn of DNA double helix is

1. 3.4 Å
2. 34 Å
3. 3.6 Å
4. 36 Å

Answer. 2. 34 Å

Question 16. The ratio of bases which confirms Chargaff’s rule is/are

1. A +G=T+C
2. G+T=A+C
3. A+T=G+C
4. Both (1) and (2)

Answer. 4. Both (1) and (2)

Question 17. The terms cistron, recon, and muton were proposed by

1. W. Ingram
2. Bateson
3. J. Lederberg
4. S. Benzer

Answer. 4. S. Benzer

Question 18. The modern concept of gene is that it is

1. A segment of DNA capable of crossing-over
2. A functional unit of DNA
3. A segment of DNA
4. A segment of chromosome

Answer. 2. A functional unit of DNA

Question 19. DNA replication is

1. Semi-conservative
2. Semi-discontinuous
3. Conservative and discontinuous
4. Both (1) and (2)

Answer. 4. Both (1) and (2)

Question 20. Semiconservative mode of DNA replication was experimentally proved in prokaryotes by

1. Meselson and Stahl
2. Taylor
3. Jacob and Monod
4. A. Kornberg

Answer. 1. Meselson and Stahl

Question 21. In Meselson and Stahl’s experiment, heavy isotope 15N was used in the form of

1. NaNO,
2. 15NH,CI
3. KNO
4. NH4NO,

Answer. 2. 15NH,CI

Question 22. If a hybrid DNA molecule labeled with 15N is allowed to replicate twice in normal culture medium, the percentage of hybrid DNA after second replication will be

1. 50%
2. 12.5%
3. 25%
4. 75%

Answer. 3. 25%

Question 23. Assuming that 50 heavy (i.e., containing N15) DNA molecules replicated twice in a medium containing N14, we expect

1. 100 half and 150 light DNA molecules
2. 100 half-heavy and half-light and 100 light DNA molecules
3. 50 heavy and 150 light DNA molecules
4. 50 heavy and 100 light DNA molecules

Answer. 2. 100 half-heavy and half-light and 100 light DNA molecules

Question 24. Semi-conservative nature of the replication of eukaryotic chromosome was experimentally demonstrated by

1. Cairns
2. Meselson and Stahl
3. Taylor
4. Hershey and Chase

Answer. 3. Taylor

Question 25. Which statement is correct for bacterial replication?

1. Has single ori
2. Bidirectional
3. Many ori and bidirectional
4. Both (1) and (2)

Answer. 4. Both (1) and (2)

Question 26. Prokaryotic topoisomerase is

1. Helicase
2. Primase
3. DNA polymerase
4. DNA gyrase

Answer. 4. DNA gyrase

Question 27. Kornberg enzyme is known as

1. DNA polymerase I
2. DNA polymerase II
3. DNA polymerase 3
4. RNA polymerase

Answer. 1. DNA polymerase 1

Question 28. The enzyme which has polymerizing activity in 5′ → 3′ direction but exonuclease activity in 3’→ 5′ direction only is

1. RNA polymerase 3
2. DNA polymerase 2
3. DNA polymerase 1
4. All of these

Answer. 2. DNA polymerase 2

Question 29. New strands of DNA are formed only in

1. 5’3′ direction
2. 3′ 5′ direction
3. Both directions
4. There is no specific polarity

Answer. 1. 5’3′ direction

” molecular biology mcq”

Question 30. Okazaki fragments are formed by one strand of DNA, known as

1. Leading strand
2. Lagging strand
3. Continuous strand
4. Semi-discontinuous strand

Answer. 2. Lagging strand

Question 31. DNA polymerase I is involved in

1. Removal of RNA primer
2. Filling of gap
3. Joining of Okazaki fragments
4. Both (1) and (2)

Answer. 4. Both (1) and (2)

Question 32. DNA replication in the lagging strand of most eukaryotic organisms is

1. Conservative and continuous
2. Semi-conservative but discontinuous
3. Conservative and semi-discontinuous
4. Semi-conservative but continuous

Answer. 2. Semi-conservative but discontinuous

Question 33. In eukaryotes, DNA synthesis on the leading strand is catalyzed by

1. DNA polymerase ε
2. DNA polymerase β
3. DNA polymerase β
4. DNA polymerase y

Answer. 2. DNA polymerase β

Question 34. Wild type of Neurospora crassa which can synthesize all essential metabolites from raw materials is called

1. Auxotroph
2. Autotroph
3. Prototroph
4. Saprotroph

Answer. 3. Prototroph

Question 35. Find the incorrect matching:

1. One gene one enzyme-Beadle and Tatum
2. One gene one polypeptide-Yanofsky
3. One gene one character de Vries
4. One mRNA one polypeptide-Monad

Answer. 4. One mRNA one polypeptide-Monad

Question 36. Unidirectional flow of information called central dogma was given by

1. F.H.C. Crick
2. Temin
3. Baltimore
4. Dulbecco

Answer. 1. F.H.C. Crick

Question 37. The synthesis of DNA on RNA template was first observed in

1. Rice dwarf virus
2. Wound tumor virus
3. Rous sarcoma virus
4. E. coli

Answer. 3. Rous sarcoma virus

Question 38. Reverse transcriptase is

1. RNA-dependent RNA polymerase
2. RNA-dependent DNA polymerase
3. DNA-dependent RNA polymerase
4. DNA-dependent DNA polymerase

Answer. 2. RNA-dependent DNA polymerase

Question 39. The segment of master strand of DNA involved in transcription is called

1. Sense strand
2. Cistron
3. Recon
4. Muton

Answer. 2. Cistron

Question 40. In eukaryotes, RNAP 3 catalyzes the synthesis of

1. All rRNA and tRNA
2. mRNA, hnRNA, and snRNA
3. 5S rRNA, tRNA, and snRNA
4. 28S, 18S, and 5S rRNA

Answer. 3. 5S rRNA, tRNA, and snRNA

Question 41. Find the incorrect match (with respect to transcription by RNAP):

1. Core enzyme-a2BB’
2. Catalytic center-BB’
3. Pribnow box-4 bp recognition site
4. p (rho) factor-ATP dependent

Answer. 3. Pribnow box-4 bp recognition site

Question 42. DNA generally acts as a template for the synthesis of

1. Only protein
2. Only DNA
3. Only RNA
4. Both DNA and RNA

Answer. 4. Both DNA and RNA

Question 43. The core enzyme requires a factor for the termination of RNA synthesis at some sites. This is known as

1. Sigma factor
2. Rho factor
3. Gamma factor
4. Alpha particle

Answer. 2. Rho factor

Question 44. In which of the following organism mRNA has introns?

1. Nostoe
2. Rhizobium
3. Chlamydomonas
4. Mycoplasma

Answer. 3. Chlamydomonas

Question 45. If one strand of DNA has base sequence ATCCACGACTAG and the second strand undergoes transcription, what would be the base sequence on mRNA?

1. TACGTGCTGATC
2. ATCCACGACTAG
3. AUCCACGACUAG
4. AUGCACGACTAG

Answer. 3. AUCCACGACUAG

Question 46. During protein synthesis, amino acid gets attached to tRNA with the help of

1. mRNA
2. Aminoacyl synthetase
3. Ribosome
4. rRNA

Answer. 2. Aminoacyl synthetase

Question 47. The first amino acid in any polypeptide chain of prokaryotes is always

1. Formylated methionine
2. Formylated arginine
3. Lysine
4. Methionine

Answer. 1. Formylated methionine

Question 48. Considering that we have four nucleotides A, G, C, and T, the number of base substitutions that can occur in the amino acid codons is

1. 549
2. 564
3. 281
4. 256

Answer. 1. 549

Question 49. The termination of chain growth in protein synthesis is brought about by

1. UUG, UGC, UCA
2. UCG, GCG, ACC
3. UAA, UAG, UGA
4. UUG, UAG, UCG

Answer. 3. UAA, UAG, UGA

questions on dna

Question 50. In protein synthesis, the codon used as a start signal is

1. AUG
2. UGA
3. GUA
4. UAG, UAA

Answer. 1. AUG

Question 51. The translation step in the process of protein synthesis in which the conversion of the language of nucleic acid into that of proteins is made by a charged form of

1. mRNA
2. tRNA
3. rRNA
4. Template DNA

Answer. 2. tRNA

Question 52. Which site of a tRNA molecule forms hydrogen bonds with mRNA molecule?

1. Codon
2. Anticodon
3. 5′ end of the tRNA molecule
4. 3′ end of the tRNA molecule

Answer. 3. 5′ end of the tRNA molecule

Question 53. In eukaryotes, the initiation of polypeptide chain in protein synthesis is induced by

1. Methionine
2. Glycine
3. Leucine
4. Lysine

Answer. 1. Methionine

Question 54. The function of a nonsense codon is

1. To release polypeptide chain from tRNA
2. To form an unspecified amino acid
3. To terminate the message of gene controlling protein synthesis
4. To convert a sense DNA into nonsense DNA

Answer. 3. To terminate the message of gene controlling protein synthesis

Question 55. When the codon of mRNA is 5′-GUC-3′, then the anticodon on tRNA will be

1. 5′-CAG-3′
2. 3′-CAG-5′
3. 3′-CUG-5′
4. 3′-GAC-5′

Answer. 2. 3′-CAG-5′

Question 56. To code 50 amino acids in a polypeptide chain, what will be the minimum number of nucleotides in its cistron?

1. 50
2. 153
3. 306
4. 300

Answer. 3. 306

Question 57. An antibiotic which inhibits translation in eukaryotes is

1. Chloromycetin
2. Penicillin
3. Puromycin
4. Tetracycline

Answer. 3. Puromycin

Question 58. Find the correct match:

Column I                                         Column II

a. Non-degenerate codon               (1) GUG

b. Ambiguous codon.                      (2) UAG

c. Amber                                         (3) UGG

d. Ochre                                         (4) UGA

(5) UAA

1. a (3), b (1), c (2), d (5)
2. a (1), b (2), c (5), d (3)
3. a (3), b (1), c(4), d (5)
4. a (3), b (1), c (5), d (2)

Answer. 1. a (3), b (1), c (2), d (5)

Question 59. Triplet nature of genetic code was theoretically proposed by

1. Nirenberg
2. Hoagland
3. Gamow
4. Khorana

Answer. 3. Gamow

Question 60. Deciphering of genetic code was done by

1. Nirenberg and Matthaei
2. Holley and Komberg
3. F.H.C. Crick
4. Both (1) and (2)

Answer. 4. Both (1) and (2)

“questions about dna “

Question 61. Genetic code consists of

1. Adenine and guanine
2. Guanine and cytosine
3. Cytosine and uracil
4. All of these

Answer. 4. All of these

Question 62. A single anticodon can recognize more than one codon of mRNA. This phenomenon is termed as

1. Richmond and Lang effect
2. Gene flow hypothesis
3. Wobble hypothesis
4. Transposability

Answer. 3. Wobble hypothesis

Question 63. The term “genetic code” was given by

1. Watson and Crick
2. Gamow
3. Beadle and Tatum
4. Yanofsky

Answer. 2. Gamow

Question 64. Genetic code is called a degenerate code because

1. One codon has many meanings
2. More than one codon has the same meaning
3. One codon has one meaning
4. There are 64 codons present

Answer. 2. More than one codon has the same meaning

Question 65. Genetic code determines

1. Structural pattern of organism
2. The sequence of amino acids in a protein
3. The number and variation of offspring
4. Constancy of morphological traits

Answer. 2. The sequence of amino acids in a protein

Question 66. Khorana synthesized a biologically functional tyrosine tRNA of E. coli in 1979. It contained

1. 77 nucleotide pairs
2. 207 nucleotide pairs
3. 312 nucleotide pairs
4. 333 nucleotides only

Answer. 2. 207 nucleotide pairs

Question 67. There are 64 codons in genetic code dictionary because

1. There are 64 types of tRNAs found in the cell
2. There are 44 meaningless and 20 codons for amino acids
3. There are 64 amino acids to be coded
4. Genetic code is triplet

Answer. 4. Genetic code is triplet

Question 68. According to the operon concept, the regulatory gene regulates biochemical reaction in a cell by

1. Inhibiting transcription
2. Inactivating enzymes
3. Inactivating substrate
4. Inhibiting migration of mRNA

Answer. 1. Inhibiting transcription

Question 69. Which statement is correct for negative operon?

1. Co-repressor binds with inducer.
2. Co-repressor binds with repressor.
3. Co-repressor does not bind with repressor.
4. CAMP shows negative effect.

Answer. 2. Co-repressor binds with repressor.

Question 70. In E. coli, according to the lac operon theory, an operator gene combines with

1. Inducer gene to “switch on” structural gene tran- scription
2. Regulator gene to “switch on” structural gene tran- scription
3. Regulatory protein to “switch off” structural gene transcription
4. Regulator protein to “switch on” structural gene transcription.

Answer. 3. Regulatory protein to “switch off” structural gene transcription

Question 71. In an operon, the RNA polymerase binds to

1. Regulator
2. Promoter gene
3. Operator gene
4. Constitutive gene

Answer. 2. Promoter gene

Question 72. Find the correct match:

Column I                                Column II

a. Housekeeping genes       (1) Histone gene

b. Luxury genes                   (2) snRNA genes

c. Repeated genes              (3) ATPase gene

d. Pseudogenes                  (4) Nitrate reductase gene

1. a (1), b (2), c (3), d (4)
2. a (3), b (4), c (2), d (1)
3. a (3), b (4), c (1), d (2)
4. a (3), b (2), c (1), d (4)

Answer. 3. a (3), b (4), c (1), d (2)

Question 73. How many types of genes are identified for cancerous transformation after mutation?

1. One
2. Three
3. Four
4. Two

Answer. 4. Two

Question 74. Covalently closed circular chromosome is

1. Nucleosome
2. Viral chromosome
3. Eukaryotic chromosome
4. Bacterial chromosome

Answer. 4. Bacterial chromosome

“which one of the following is not applicable to rna “

Question 75. Idiochromosomes are

1. Somatic chromosomes
2. Autosomes
3. Prochromosomes
4. Heterosomes

Answer. 4. Heterosomes

Question 76. Non-histone chromosomal protein which forms the core or axis of chromosome is

1. HMG protein
2. Scaffold protein
3. Regulatory protein
4. All of these

Answer. 2. Scaffold protein

Question 77. Which statement is incorrect for asymmetric karyotype?

1. Large difference between smallest and largest chromosome
2. Small difference between smallest and largest chromosome
3. It is advance type
4. It is associated with zygomorphic flower

Answer. 2. Small difference between smallest and largest chromosome

Question 78. The number of base pairs in DNA helix around the octamer histone molecule is

1. 140-200 bp
2. 100-150 bp
3. 40-67 bp
4. 200-260 bp

Answer. 1. 140-200 bp

Question 79. nu-body of nucleosome consists of

1. H, and H2A
2. H2A and H2B
3. H3 and H4
4. Both (2) and (3)

Answer. 4. Both (2) and (3)

Question 80. Super-solenoid model of nucleosome has

1. 10-15 nm diameter
2. 100-125 nm diameter
3. 300-700 Å diameter
4. 300-700 nm diameter

Answer. 4. 300-700 nm diameter

Question 81. Which one of the following is used as marker chromosome?

1. Monocentric chromosome
2. SAT-chromosome
3. Idiosome
4. L-chromosome

Answer. 2. SAT-chromosome

Question 82. The Human Genome Project as megaproject was a 13 year project coordinated by the

1. US Department of Energy
2. National Institute of Health
3. US Department of Molecular Biology
4. Both (1) and (2)

Answer. 4. Both (1) and (2)

Question 83. Sequencing of model organism like Caenorhabditis elegans was achieved in April, 2003, with

1. 97 mbp
2. 3× 109 bp
3. 18 x 105 bp
4. 12 mbp

Answer. 1. 97 mbp

Question 84. Percentage of protein encoding genes and transposable elements in human genome are, respectively,

1. 76% and 3%
2. 1% and 45%
3. 20% and 24%
4. 3% and 1%

Answer. 2. 1% and 45%

Question 85. SNP which is pronounced as “snips” stands for

1. Small nuclear protein
2. Single nucleotide particle
3. Single nucleotide polymorphism
4. Small nicking points

Answer. 3. Single nucleotide polymorphism

Question 86. HGP methodology which includes the identification of all genes that expressed as RNA is referred as

1. RFLP
2. ESTS
3. VNTR
4. RAPDS

Answer. 2. ESTS

Question 87. The largest human gene is located on chromosome _____ and has _______.

1. X, 2.4 million bases
2. Y, 2400 × 103 bp
3. 12, 24 × 105 bp
4. X, 2400 mbp

Answer. 2. Y, 2400 × 103 bp

Question 88. The last human chromosome whose sequence was completed in May, 2006, is

1. Chromosome 22
2. Chromosome 14
3. Chromosome 1
4. Chromosomes X and Y

Answer. 1. Chromosome 22

Question 89. Sequencing the whole set of genome that contains all coding and non-coding parts is

1. Expressed sequence tags
2. Sequence annotation
3. Microarray
4. Electrophoresis

Answer. 3. Microarray

bank of biology class 12 molecular basis of inheritance

Question 90. The father of DNA fingerprinting is

1. Alec Jeffreys
2. Lalji Singh
3. V.K. Kashyap
4. E.M. Southern

Answer. 2. Lalji Singh

Question 91. Find the incorrect match:

1. VNTR-11-60 bp
2. SSR-15-20 bp
3. Southern blotting-Nitrocellulose paper
4. Western blotting-Protein

Answer. 2. SSR-15-20 bp

Question 92. The separation of DNA fragments into bands by electrophoresis is done on

1. Agarose gel
2. Polyacrylamide gel
3. Aminobenzyloxymethyl gel
4. Both (1) and (2)

Answer. 4. Both (1) and (2)

Question 93. Blotting technique involves the transfer of DNA from

1. Membrane to gel
2. Gel to membrane
3. Sol to gel
4. Gel to sol

Answer. 2. Gel to membrane

Question 94. Western blot hybridization is used for

1. DNA analysis
2. RNA analysis
3. Protein analysis
4. Polysaccharide analysis

Answer. 3. Protein analysis

Question 95. In gel-electrophoresis, all DNA fragments move towards the base of the gel with variable velocities because

1. DNA is positively charged
2. DNA is slightly negatively charged
3. DNA fragments have different molecular weights
4. Both (2) and (3)

Answer. 4. Both (2) and (3)

Question 96. What are mini-satellites?

1. rDNA
2. VNTR
3. cDNA
4. SAT

Answer. 2. VNTR

Question 97. When the bands of RNA are transferred to a nitrocellulose membrane for identification, the blotting is called

1. Southern blotting
2. Northern blotting
3. Western blotting
4. Eastern blotting

Answer. 2. Northern blotting

Question 98. International Human Genome Project began in

1. 1990
2. 1996
3. 2000
4. 2001

Answer. 1. 1990

” class 12th biology molecular basis of inheritance”

Question 99. Complete genomes of which non-crop and crop plants have been sequenced?

1. Datura and wheat, respectively
2. Arabidopsis and maize, respectively
3. Oenothera and oat, respectively
4. Arabidopsis and rice, respectively

Answer. 4. Arabidopsis and rice, respectively

Question 100. According to the Human Genome Project, the percentage of introns in human genome is approximately

1. 10%
2. 24%
3. 75%
4. 99%

Answer. 2. 24%

Question 101. Find the incorrect statement:

1. N-glycosidic linkage between nitrogenous base and sugar forms a nucleotide.
2. 5-methyl uracil is present in DNA.
3. In RNA, every nucleotide residue has additional -OH group.
4. The ratio (A + T)/(G + C) is variable.

Answer. 1. N-glycosidic linkage between nitrogenous base and sugar forms a nucleotide.

Question 102. The packaging of DNA at higher level requires

1. Five types of histones
2. A histone octamer called nu-body
3. Non-histone chromosomal proteins
4. Lysine and arginine

Answer. 3. Non-histone chromosomal proteins

Question 103. Which of the following statement is not applicable for DNA replication?

1. Tension is released by topoisomerase.
2. In eukaryotes, DNA polymerases are of five types.
3. DNA polymerase 3 is the true replicase.
4. The 3′ 5′ exonuclease activity is not present in DNA polymerase 3.

Answer. 4. The 3′ 5′ exonuclease activity is not present in DNA polymerase 3.

Question 104. Match column I with column II.

Column I                          Column II

a. RNA                         (1) Translational efficiency

b. UTR                         (2) Smallest molecule

c. SD-sequence           (3) Learning and memory

d. tRNA                       (4) Purine rich

1. a (2), b (3), c (1), d (4)
2. a (3), b (2), c (4), d (1)
3. a (3), b (1), c (4), d (2)
4. a (3), b (4), c (1), d (2)

Answer. 3. a (3), b (1), c (4), d (2)

Question 105. Select the correct statement from the following:

1. Guanyl transferase catalyzes polyadenylation.
2. Polycistronic mRNA carries codons of single protein molecule.
3. In bacteria, translation begins much before mRNA is fully transcribed.
4. All exons have GU at the 5′ end and AG at the 3′ end.

Answer. 3. In bacteria, translation begins much before mRNA is fully transcribed.

Question 106. Wobbling helps to maintain economy in a number of tRNA molecules because

1. Genetic code is unambiguous and specific
2. tRNA contains anticodons
3. First two bases in the codon are specific
4. Genetic message is read in open frame

Answer. 3. First two bases in the codon are specific

Question 107. When apo-repressor binds with co-repressor in tryptophan operon,

1. Operator gene is “switched on”
2. A complete repressor is formed
3. Structural genes become functional to produce polycistronic mRNA
4. Luxury genes are switched on

Answer. 2. A complete repressor is formed

Question 108. Homeodomain proteins

1. Convert one body part into another
2. Have tumor-forming property
3. Are produced by non-coding genes
4. Control gene regulation in prokaryotes

Answer. 1. Convert one body part into another

“molecular inheritance class 12 ncert “

Question 109. Select the incorrect statement:

1. VNTRS are inherited from parents
2. VNTRS are also called short tandem repeats
3. Satellite DNA has repeating base patterns
4. RAPDS are used for DNA fingerprinting

Answer. 2. VNTRS are also called short tandem repeats

Question 110. In sequence annotation,

1. All expressed genes are identified
2. Sequence that occurs only once in genome is tagged
3. All coding and non-coding sequence are involved
4. Sequencing of genes with exact location and order of known bases is done

Answer. 3. All coding and non-coding sequence are involved

Question 111. Which of the following bond is not associated with a deoxyribonucleotide?

1. Phosphoester bond
2. Glycosidic bond
3. Phosphodiester bond
4. More than one option is correct

Answer. 3. Phosphodiester bond

Question 112. RNA possess additional group at which position at the sugar which is other than DNA?

1. ОН, 5′
2. H, 2′
3. OH, 2′
4. H, 5′

Answer. 3. OH, 2′

Question 113. Hallmark of the Watson and Crick three-dimensional DNA model was based on the findings of

1. Wilkins and Franklin
2. Erwin Chargaff
3. Hershey and Chase
4. Meselson and Stahl

Answer. 2. Erwin Chargaff

Question 114. Which of the following DNA form has the maximum number of base pairs per turn?

1. A-DNA
2. B-DNA
3. C-DNA
4. Z-DNA

Answer. 4. Z-DNA

Question 115. Which of the following is a part of nu-body?

1. Histone octamer
2. DNA + core of nucleosome
3. H, protein
4. 1 3/4 turn of DNA + H, protein

Answer. 1. Histone octamer

Question 116. Choose the correct steps in the organization of eukaryotic chromosome:

1. Nucleosome→ Solenoid→ Super-solenoid
2. Solenoid Nucleosome→→ Chromatid
3. DNA → Solenoid → Nucleosome
4. Chromatin Solenoid→ Nucleosome

Answer. 1. Nucleosome→ Solenoid→ Super-solenoid

Question 117. Heterochromatin

1. Is transcriptionally active
2. Is densely packed
3. Is replicated during early S-phase
4. Stains lightly

Answer. 2. Is densely packed

Question 118. Non-histone proteins

1. Are of five types
2. Are involved in nucleosome formation
3. Control gene expression
4. Are basic proteins

Answer. 3. Control gene expression

Question 119. The number of glycosidic bonds associated with the DNA of diploid human cell is

1. 6.6 × 109
2. 2 × 6.6 × 10°
3. 3.3 × 109
4. 3.3 × 109-2

Answer. 2. 2 × 6.6 × 10°

Question 120. Choose the correct option with respect to the chemical composition of chromosome:

1. DNA-40%, RNA-8.5%
2. DNA-50%, Histone-40%
3. RNA-1.2%, Histone-50%
4. RNA-1.2%, Histone-40%

Answer. 3. RNA-1.2%, Histone-50%

Question 121. Which of the following types of bacteria were used in Griffith’s transformation experiment?

1. Diplococcus, R-3, and S-2 type
2. Pneumococcus, T2 phage
3. Streptococcus, R-2, and S-3 type
4. Diplococcus, E. coli

Answer. 3. Streptococcus, R-2, and S-3 type

Question 122. The biochemical nature of transforming principle was defined by

1. Griffith
2. Avery, Macleod, McCarty
3. Watson and Crick
4. Taylor

Answer. 2. Avery, Macleod, McCarty

Question 123. In Hershey and Chase experiment, the protein of T2 phage was made radioactive by using

1. S32
2. p31
3. S35
4. p32

Answer. 3. S35

Question 124. Choose the correct option with respect to RNA.

1. Presence of thymine in place of uracil.
2. Absence of free 2’OH in sugar.
3. Mutates at faster rate.
4. Heavy using NH4Cl

Answer. 3. Mutates at faster rate.

Question 125. Semi-conservative DNA replication was proved by Messelson and Stahl, in which DNA was made

1. Radioactive using N15
2. Heavy using N14
3. Heavy using NH4Cl
4. Radioactive using 14NH,CI

Answer. 3. Heavy using NH4Cl

Question 126. During DNA replication, strand separation by breaking the H-bonds is performed by

1. Topoisomerase
2. Gyrase
3. Helicases
4. More than one option is correct

Answer. 4. More than one option is correct

Question 127. RNA primer is removed by

1. DNAP-1
2. DNAP-2
3. DNAP-3
4. Primase

Answer. 1. DNAP-1

Question 128. How many types of DNA polymerases are associated with eukaryotic cell?

1. Three
2. Four
3. Five
4. Two

Answer. 3. Five

Question 129. Which of the following acts as a substrate as well as provides energy for DNA polymerization?

1. Ribonucleoside
2. Deoxyribonucleoside
3. Ribonucleotide
4. Deoxyribonucleoside triphosphate

Answer. 4. Deoxyribonucleoside triphosphate

Question 130. DNA replication is

1. Semi-conservative, continuous
2. Conservative, continuous
3. Semi-conservative, semi-discontinuous
4. Semi-continuous, conservative

Answer. 3. Semi-conservative, semi-discontinuous

Question 131. Which of the following is a genetic RNA?

1. mRNA
2. rRNA
3. hnRNA
4. RNA present in plant viruses

Answer. 4. RNA present in plant viruses

Question 132. The mRNA of prokaryotes is

1. Polycistronic
2. Monocistronic
3. Formed by splicing of hnRNA
4. Carries genetic message to DNA

Answer. 1. Polycistronic

Question 133. Select the odd one out with respect to Shine Dalgarno sequence.

1. 5’AGGAGGU3′
2. Helps in binding of 30S ribosomal unit
3. Helps in binding of 50S ribosomal unit
4. Present near initiation codon

Answer. 3. Helps in binding of 50S ribosomal unit

Question 134. Which of the following type of ribosomal RNA is not present in eukaryotes?

1. 18S
2. 28S
3. 5.8S
4. 16S

Answer. 4. 16S

Question 135. Inverted L-shaped three-dimensional structure of tRNA was suggested by

1. Kim and Klug
2. Kuntz
3. Fraenkel-Conrat
4. Holley

Answer. 1. Kim and Klug

Question 136. Organisms that can complete their life cycle on minimal nutrient medium are called

1. Prototrophs
2. Auxotrophs
3. Arginine mutants
4. Citrulline mutants

Answer. 1. Prototrophs

Question 137. Find the incorrect match:

1. Central dogma – F. Crick
2. Reverse central dogma – Temin and Baltimore
3. Split genes – Kornberg
4. mRNA-Jacob and Monad

Answer. 3. Split genes – Kornberg

Question 138. Recognition sequence for transcription in prokaryotes is

1. TATATAT
2. TATMT
3. TATAAAT
4. CMT

Answer. 2. TATMT

Question 139. Transcription starts non-specifically in the absence of

1. Sigma factor
2. Rho factor
3. Core enzyme
4. DNA polymerase

Answer. 1. Sigma factor

Question 140. Tailoring of hnRNA is done by

1. Snurps
2. Introns
3. Exons
4. 18 srRNA

Answer. 1. Snurps

Question 141. Formylated methionine acts as translation initiation in

1. Prokaryotes
2. Eukaryotes
3. Viruses
4. Archaebacteria

Answer. 1. Prokaryotes

Question 142. Which of the following codons is known as ochre?

1. UAG
2. UGA
3. UAA
4. UUU

Answer. 3. UAA

Question 143. Which of the following is an ambiguous codon?

1. AUG
2. GUG
3. UAG
4. GAG

Answer. 2. GUG

Question 144. Which property of genetic code is utilized in wobble hypothesis?

1. Degeneracy
2. Non-overlapping
3. Non-ambiguous
4. Universal

Answer. 1. Degeneracy

Question 145. In the mitochondrial DNA, UGA codes for

1. Chain termination
2. Chain initiation
3. Tryptophan
4. Tyrosine

Answer. 3. Tryptophan

Question 146. The activation of amino acids during translation is done by

1. Peptidyl transferase
2. Aminoacyl tRNA synthetase
3. Methionine
4. Initiation factors

Answer. 2. Aminoacyl tRNA synthetase

Question 147. The movement of ribosome on mRNA is called

1. Transcription
2. Translation
3. Translocation
4. Protein synthesis

Answer. 3. Translocation

Question 148. The elongation factors required for prokaryotes are

1. EF-Tu and EF-Ts
2. eEF1
3. eIF2
4. eEF2

Answer. 1. EF-Tu and EF-Ts

Question 149. Which of the following inhibits the binding of aminoacyl tRNA to ribosomes?

1. Neomycin
2. Erythromycin
3. Streptomycin
4. Tetracycline

Answer. 4. Tetracycline

Question 150. The mechanism by which a gene is able to express itself in the phenotype of an organism is called

1. Gene expression
2. RNA synthesis
3. Translocation
4. Formylation

Answer. 1. Gene expression

Question 151. The genes that are constantly expressing themselves in a cell are called

1. Luxury genes
2. Constitutive genes
3. Non-constitutive genes
4. More than one option is correct

Answer. 2. Constitutive genes

Question 152. How many structural genes are present in the lac operon of E. coli?

1. 4
2. 3
3. 2
4. 1

Answer. 2. 3

Question 153. In lac operon, B-galactosidase enzyme is made by which lac operon of E. coli?

1. lac y
2. lac a
3. lac z
4. lac i

Answer. 3. lac z

Question 154. Inducer molecule in the lac operon of E. coli is chemically a/an

1. Disaccharide
2. Amino acid
3. Protein
4. RNA

Answer. 1. Disaccharide

Question 155. Tryptophan operon is

1. Catabolic system
2. Repressible system
3. Inducible system
4. Having three structural genes

Answer. 2. Repressible system

Question 156. Choose the correct option with respect to the chemical nature of apo-repressor and co-repressor, respectively, in trp operon?

1. Protein, amino acid
2. Amino acid, protein
3. Lipoidal, sugary
4. Sugary, lipoidal

Answer. 1. Protein, amino acid

Question 157. Gene battery model was proposed by

1. Jacob and Monad
2. Gamow
3. H.G. Khorana
4. Britten and Davidson

Answer. 4. Britten and Davidson

Question 158. An insect leg may change into antenna due to mutation in

1. c-oncogene
2. v-oncogene
3. Homeotic genes
4. Proto-oncogene

Answer. 3. Homeotic genes

Question 159. VNTRS consist of hypervariable repeat regions of DNA having a basic repeat sequence of _____ bp and flanked on both sides by ____.

1. 1-6 bp, GC rich sequences
2. 11-60 bp, restriction sites
3. 1-6 bp, restriction sites
4. 11-60 bp, ribonucleotides

Answer. 2. 11-60 bp, restriction sites

Question 160. Mark the correct match:

1. Intron-VNTR
2. SSR-11-60 bp
3. VNTR-Microsatellite
4. Minisatellite–Exon

Answer. 1. Intron-VNTR

Question 161. During DNA fingerprinting, the separation of DNA fragments is done by

1. Autoradiography
2. Hybridization
3. Denaturation
4. Electrophoresis

Answer. 4. Electrophoresis

Question 162. Sequencing the whole set of genome that contained all the coding and non-coding sequences and later assigning different regions in the sequence with functions is known as

1. Sequence annotation
2. PCR
3. Northern blot
4. Microarray

Answer. 1. Sequence annotation

Question 163. The last step of DNA fingerprinting is

1. Blotting
2. Autoradiography
3. Hybridization
4. Isolation of desired DNA

Answer. 2. Autoradiography

Question 164. DNA fingerprinting can be used

1. To solve cases of disputed paternity and maternity
2. For criminal identification and forensics
3. For personal identification
4. More than one option is correct

Answer. 4. More than one option is correct

Question 165. Human genome is said to have approximately

1. 3 × 10° bp
2. 3 × 106 bp
3. 6.6 × 106 bp
4. 3.3 × 10° bp

Answer. 1. 3 × 10° bp

Question 166. How many total number of genes are found in human genome?

1. 18,000
2. 30,000
3. 13,000
4. 4,000

Answer. 2. 30,000

Question 167. ___% of the genome codes for protein in human beings.

1. 98
2. 50
3. 24
4. <2

Answer. 4. <2

Question 168. In humans, the largest gene is present on

1. Chromosome-1
2. Y-chromosome
3. X-chromosome
4. Chromosome-7

Answer. 3. X-chromosome

Question 169. TDF gene is the smallest gene in humans with

1. 231 bp
2. 14 bp
3. 2968 bp
4. 3000 bp

Answer. 2. 14 bp

Question 170. SNP stands for

1. Single nucleoside polymorphism
2. Simple nucleotide polymorphism
3. Single nucleotide polymorphism
4. Simple nucleoside polymorphism

Answer. 3. Single nucleotide polymorphism

Question 171. Similarity in DNA and RNA is

1. Both are polymers of nucleotides
2. Both have similar pyrimidine
3. Both have similar sugar
4. Both are genetic material

Answer. 1. Both are polymers of nucleotides

Question 172. The length of one loop of B-DNA is

1. 3.4 nm
2. 0.34 nm
3. 20 nm
4. 10 nm

Answer. 1. 3.4 nm

Question 173. ATP is

1. Nucleotide
2. Nucleoside
3. Nucleic acid
4. Vitamin

Answer. 1. Nucleotide

Question 174. In three-dimensional view, the molecule of tRNA is

1. L-shaped
2. S-shaped
3. Y-shaped
4. E-shaped

Answer. 1. L-shaped

Question 175. Which of the following is initiation codon?

1. UAG
2. AUC
3. AUG
4. CCU

Answer. 3. AUG

Question 176. The method of DNA replication in which two strands of DNA separate and synthesize new strands is

1. Dispersive
2. Conservative
3. Semi-conservative
4. Non-conservative

Answer. 3. Semi-conservative

Question 177. DNA replication occurs in which stage of cell cycle?

1. G, phase
2. S phase
3. G2 phase
4. M phase

Answer. 2. S phase

Question 178. Extranuclear DNA is found in

1. Lysosome and chloroplast
2. Chloroplast and mitochondria
3. Mitochondria and lysosome
4. Golgi body and endoplasmic reticulum

Answer. 2. Chloroplast and mitochondria

Question 179. Which one of the following triplet codes is correctly matched with its specificity for an amino acid in protein synthesis or as a start or stop codon?

1. UCG-Start
2. UUU-Stop
3. UGU – Leusine
4. UAC – Tyrosine

Answer. 4. UAC – Tyrosine

Question 180. During translation initiation in prokaryotes, a GTP molecule is needed in

1. Formation of formyl-met-tRNA
2. Binding of 30S subunit of ribosome with mRNA
3. Association of 30S mRNA with formyl-met RNA
4. Association of 50S subunit of ribosome with initiation complex

Answer. 3. Association of 30S mRNA with formylmet RNA

Question 181. In recent years, DNA sequences (nucleotide sequence) of mtDNA and Y-chromosomes were considered for the study of human evolution because 

1. They are small and, therefore, easy to study
2. They are uniparental in origin and do not take part in recombination
3. Their structure is known in great detail
4. They can be studied from the samples of fossil remains

Answer. 2. They are uniparental in origin and do not take part in recombination

Question 182. Degeneration of a genetic code is attributed to the

1. First member of a codon
2. Second member of a codon
3. Entire codon
4. Third member of a condon

Answer. 4. Third member of a condon

Question 183. What would happen if in a gene encoding a polypeptide of 50 amino acids, the 25th codon (UAU) is mutated to UAA?

1. A polypeptide of 24 amino acids will be formed.
2. Two polypeptides of 24 and 25 amino acids will be formed.
3. A polypeptide of 49 amino acids will be formed.
4. A polypeptide of 25 amino acids will be formed.

Answer. 1. A polypeptide of 24 amino acids will be formed.

Question 184. During transcription, the DNA site at which RNA polymerase binds is called

1. Promoter
2. Regulator
3. Receptor
4. Enhancer

Answer. 1. Promoter

Question 185. Which one of the following is a chain growth polymer?

1. Starch
2. Nucleic acid
3. Polystyrene
4. Protein

Answer. 3. Polystyrene

Question 186. The correct statement in respect of protein hemoglobin is that it

1. Functions as a catalyst for biological reactions
2. Maintains blood sugar level
3. Acts as an oxygen carrier in the blood
4. Forms antibodies and offers resistance to diseases

Answer. 3. Acts as an oxygen carrier in the blood

Question 187. The number of chiral carbons in B-D-(+) glucose is

1. Five
2. Six
3. Three
4. Four

Answer. 1. Five

Question 188. The helical structure of proteins is stabilized by

1. Dipeptide bonds
2. Hydrogen bonds
3. Ether bonds
4. Peptide bonds

Answer. 2. Hydrogen bonds

Question 189. During transcription, if the nucleotide sequence of the DNA strand that is being coded is ATACG, then the nucleotide sequence in the mRNA would be

1. TATGC
2. TCTGG
3. UAUGC
4. UATGC

Answer. 3. UAUGC

Question 190. Which of the following ratio is generally constant for a given species?

1. (A+G)/(C+T)
2. (T+C)/(G+A)
3. (G+C)/(A+T)
4. (A+C)/(T+G)

Answer. 3. (G+C)/(A+T)

Question 191. Which form of RNA has a structure resembling cloverleaf?

1. rRNA
2. hnRNA
3. mRNA
4. tRNA

Answer. 4. tRNA

Question 192. After mutation at a genetic locus, the character of an organism changes due to the change in

1. protein structure
2. DNA replication
3. protein synthesis pattern
4. RNA transcription pattern

Answer. 1. protein structure

Question 193. During replication of a bacterial chromosome, DNA synthesis starts from a replication origin site and

1. RNA primers are involved
2. Is facilitated by telomerase
3. Moves in one direction of the site
4. Moves in bidirectional way

Answer. 4. Moves in bidirectional way

Question 194. A sequence of how many nucleotides in messenger RNA makes a codon for an amino acid?

1. Three
2. Four
3. One
4. Two

Answer. 1. Three

Question 195. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched with regard to the codon and the amino acid coded by it?

1. UUU-Valine
2. AAA-Lysine
3. AUG-Cysteine
4. CCC-Alanine

Answer. 2. AAA-Lysine

Question 196. DNA is present in

1. Chromosomes and dictyosome
2. Chloroplast and lysosomes
3. Mitochondria and chloroplasts
4. Mitochondria and endoplasmic reticulum

Answer. 3. Mitochondria and chloroplasts

Question 197. Which of the following is the simplest amino acid?

1. Alanine
2. Asparagine
3. Glycine
4. Tyrosine

Answer. 3. Glycine

Question 198. Enzymes, vitamins, and hormones can be classified into a single category of biological chemicals, because all of these 

1. Are exclusively synthesized in the body of a living organism as at present
2. Enhance oxidative metabolism
3. Are conjugated proteins
4. Help in regulating metabolism

Answer. 4. Help in regulating metabolism

Question 199. Which one of the following makes use of RNA as a template to synthesize DNA?

1. DNA dependant RNA polymerase
2. DNA polymerase
3. Reverse transcriptase
4. RNA polymerase

Answer. 3. Reverse transcriptase

Question 200. Nucleotides are building blocks of nucleic acids. Each nucleotide is a composite molecule formed by

1. Base-sugar-OH
2. Base-sugar-phosphate
3. Sugar-phosphate
4. Base-sugar-phosphate

Answer. 2. Base-sugar-phosphate

Question 201. Protein synthesis in an animal cell occurs

1. On ribosomes present in cytoplasm as well as in mitochondria
2. On ribosomes present in the nucleolus as well as in cytoplasm
3. Only on ribosomes attached to the nuclear envelope and endoplasmic reticulum
4. Only on the ribosomes present in cytosol

Answer. 1. On ribosomes present in cytoplasm as well as in mitochondria

Question 202. Which one of the following hydrolyzes internal phosphodiester bonds in a polynucleotide chain?

1. Lipase
2. Protease
3. Exonuclease
4. Endonuclease

Answer. 4. Endonuclease

Question 203. Carbohydrates, the most abundant biomolecules on earth, are produced by

1. Some bacteria, algae, and green plant cells
2. All bacteria, fungi, and algae
3. Fungi, algae, and green plants cells
4. Viruses, fungi, and bacteria

Answer. 1. Some bacteria, algae, and green plant cells

Question 204. The production of a human protein in bacteria by genetic engineering is possible because

1. Bacterial cell can carry out the RNA splicing reactions
2. The mechanism of gene regulation is identical in humans and bacteria
3. The human chromosome can replicate in bacterial cell
4. The genetic code is universal

Answer. 4. The genetic code is universal

Question 205. During transcription, holoenzyme RNA polymerase binds to a DNA sequence and the DNA assumes a saddle-like structure at that point. What is that sequence called?

1. CAAT box
2. GGTT box
3. AAAT box
4. TATA box

Answer. 4. TATA box

Question 206. Which functional group participates in disulfide bond formation in proteins?

1. Thioether
2. Thiol
3. Thioester
4. Thiolactone

Answer. 2. Thiol

Question 207. Bond between phosphate and sugar in a nucleotide is

1. H-bond
2. Covalent bond
3. Phosphodiester bond
4. Sulfide bond

Answer. 2. Covalent bond

Question 208. Which of the following is formed in nucleolus?

1. rRNA
2. tRNA
3. mRNA
4. DNA

Answer. 1. rRNA

Question 209. Ribosomes are composed of

1. DNA + Protein
2. DNA
3. RNA + Protein
4. RNA + DNA

Answer. 3. RNA + Protein

Question 210. DNA probes are copied from the messenger RNA molecules with the help of

1. Restriction enzymes
2. Reverse transcriptase
3. DNA polymerase
4. Adenosine deaminase

Answer. 2. Reverse transcriptase

Question 211. Which one of the following statement is true for protein synthesis (translation)?

1. Amino acids are directly recognized by mRNA.
2. The third base of the codon is less specific.
3. Only one codon codes for an amino acid.
4. Every tRNA molecule has more than one amino acid attachment site.

Answer. 2. The third base of the codon is less specific.

Question 212. Which antibiotic inhibits interaction between tRNA and mRNA during bacterial protein synthesis?

1. Erthromycin
2. Neomycin
3. Streptomysin
4. Tetracycline

Answer. 2. Tetracycline

Question 213. Amino acid sequence in protein synthesis is decided by the sequence of

1. tRNA
2. mRNA
3. cDNA
4. rRNA

Answer. 2. mRNA

Question 214. “One gene one enzyme” hypothesis was postulated by

1. R. Franklin
2. Hershay and Chase
3. A. Garrod
4. Beadle and Tatum

Answer. 4. Beadle and Tatum

Question 215. One turn of the helix in a B-form DNA is approximately

1. 20 nm
2. 0.34 nm
3. 3.4 nm
4. 2 nm

Answer. 3. 3.4 nm

Question 216. “Antiparallel strands of a DNA molecule” means that 

1. One strand turns anticlockwise
2. The phosphate groups of two DNA strands, at their ends, share the same position
3. The phosphate groups at the start of two DNA strands are in opposite positions (pole)
4. One strand turns clockwise

Answer. 3. The phosphate groups at the start of two DNA strands are in opposite positions (pole)

Question 217. During protein synthesis in an organism, at one point, the process comes to a halt. Select the group of three codons from the following from which any one of the three can bring about this halt.

1. UUU, UCC, UAU
2. UUC, UUA, UAC
3. UAG, UGA, UAA
4. UUG, UCA, UCG

Answer. 3. UAG, UGA, UAA

Question 218. Thymine is

1. 5-Methyluracil
2. 4-Methyluracil
3. 3-Methyluracil
4. 1-Methyluracil

Answer. 1. 5-Methyluracil

Question 219. The molecular basis of organ differentiation depends on modulation in transcription by

1. RNA polymerase
2. Ribosome
3. Transcription factor
4. Anticodon

Answer. 3. Transcription factor

Question 220. The Okazaki fragments in DNA chain growth

1. Result in transcription
2. Polymerize in the 3′ to 5′ direction and from replication fork
3. Prove semi-conservative nature of DNA replication
4. Polymerize in the 5′ to 3′ direction and explain 3′ to 5′ DNA replication

Answer. 4. Polymerize in the 5′ to 3′ direction and explain 3′ to 5′ DNA replication

Question 221. The two polynucleotide chains in DNA are

1. Parallel
2. Discontinuous
3. Antiparallel
4. Semi-conservative

Answer. 3. Antiparallel

Question 222. About 98% mass of every living organism is composed of just six elements including carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, oxygen, and

1. Phosphorous and sulfur
2. Sulfur and magnesium
3. Magnesium and sodium
4. Calcium and phosphorus

Answer. 1. Phosphorous and sulfur

Question 223. A plant requires magnesium for

1. Holding cells together
2. Protein synthesis
3. Chlorophyll synthesis
4. Cell wall development

Answer. 3. Chlorophyll synthesis

Question 224. Polysome is formed by

1. A ribosome with several subunits
2. Ribosomes attached to each other in a linear arrangement
3. Several ribosomes attached to a single mRNA
4. Many ribosomes attached to a strand of endoplasmic reticulum

Answer. 3. Several ribosomes attached to a single mRNA

Question 225. Which one of the following pairs of nitrogenous bases of nucleic acids is wrongly matched with the category mentioned against it?

1. Guanine, adenine—Purines
2. Adenine, thymine—Purines
3. Thymine, uracil—Pyrimidines
4. Uracil, cytosine—Pyrimidines

Answer. 2. Adenine, thymine Purines

Question 226. In the DNA molecule,

1. The proportion of adenine in relation to thymine varies with the organism
2. There are two strands which run antiparallel one in 5′, 3′ direction and the other in 3′, 5′ direction
3. The total amount of purine and pyrimidine nucleotides is not always equal
4. There are two strands which run parallel in the 5′, 3′ direction

Answer. 2. There are two strands which run antiparallel one in 5′, 3′ direction and the other in 3′, 5′ direction

Question 227. Which one of the following pairs of codons is correctly matched with their function or the signal for the particular amino acid?

1. AUG, ACG-Start/methionine
2. UUA, UCA-Leucine
3. GUU, GCU-Alanine
4. UAG, UGA-Stop

Answer. 4. UAG, UGA-Stop

Question 228. What is not true for genetic code?

1. It is unambiguous.
2. A codon in mRNA is read in a non-contiguous fashion.
3. It is nearly universal.
4. It is degenerate.

Answer. 2. A codon in mRNA is read in a non-contiguous fashion.

Question 229. The removal of introns and joining the exons in a defined order in a transcription unit is called

1. Capping
2. Splicing
3. Tailing
4. Transformation

Answer. 2. Splicing

Question 230. Semi-conservative replication of DNA was first demonstrated in

1. Salmonella typhimurium
2. Drosophila melanogaster
3. Escherichia coli
4. Streptococcus pneumoniae

Answer. 3. Escherichia coli

Question 231. Whose experiments cracked the DNA and discovered unequivocally that a genetic code is a “triplet”?

1. Beadle and Tatum
2. Nirenberg and Mathaei
3. Hershey and Chase
4. Morgan and Strutevant

Answer. 2. Nirenberg and Mathaei

Question 232. If one strand of DNA has nitrogenous base sequence as ATCTG, what would be the complementary RNA strand sequence?

1. UAGAC
2. AACTG
3. ATCGU
4. TTAGU

Answer. 1. UAGAC

Question 233. The removal of RNA polymerase III from nucleoplasm will affect the synthesis of

1. hnRNA
2. mRNA
3. rRNA
4. tRNA

Answer. 4. tRNA

Question 234. Which one of the following is not a part of a transcription unit in DNA?

1. A terminator
2. A promoter
3. The structural gene
4. The inducer

Answer. 4. The inducer

Question 235. A certain road accident patient with unknown blood group needs immediate blood transfusion. His one doctor friend at once offers his blood. What was the blood group of the donor?

1. Blood group AB
2. Blood group O
3. Blood group A
4. Blood group B

Answer. 2. Blood group O

Question 236. The removal of introns and the joining of exons in a de- fined order during transcription is called

1. Inducing
2. Slicing
3. Splicing
4. Looping

Answer. 3. Splicing

Question 237. The diagram shows an important concept in the genetic implication of DNA. Fill in the blanks A to C.

1. A-translation; B-transcription; C-Erevin Chargaff
2. A transcription; B-translation; C-Francis Crick
3. A-translation; B-extension C; -Rosalind Franklin
4. A-transcription; B-replication; C-James Watson

Answer. 2. A transcription; B-translation; C-Francis Crick

Question 238. Which enzyme/s will be produced in a cell in which there is a nonsense mutation in the lac Y gene?

1. Lactose permease
2. Transacetylase
3. Lactose permease and transacetylase
4. β-Galactosidase

Answer. 4. β-Galactosidase

NEET Biology For Principles Of Inheritance And Variation Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. The phrase “like begets like” is best analyzed in the context of

1. Forward genetics
2. Reverse genetics
3. Classical genetics
4. Both (1) and (2)

Answer. 4. Both (1) and (2)

Question 2. The term genetics was coined by

1. Bateson
2. Mendel
3. Morgan
4. Johanssen

Answer. 1. Bateson

Question 3. Which one of the following inheritance or theory is based on the blending concept and explains gemmule as the basis of inheritance?

1. Preformation theory
2. Pangenesis theory
3. Reproductive blood theory
4. Mendelian inheritance

Answer. 2. Pangenesis theory

Question 4. Mendel’s experimental plant was Pisum sativum, but he also worked and failed to find similar results on

1. Tobacco and sweet pea
2. Hieracium and Lablab
3. Hieracium and sweet pea
4. Lablab and sweet pea

Answer. 2. Hieracium and Lablab

Question 5. Predecessor/s of Mendel was/were

1. Goss
2. Kolreuter
3. Naudin
4. All of these

Answer. 4. All of these

Question 6. Mendel read out and presented his paper in the seminar of Natural History Society of Brunn in

1. 1857
2. 1859
3. 1865
4. 1866

Answer. 3. 1865

” pedigree analysis questions”

Question 7. Who amongst the following found out the original paper of Mendel and got it published in Flora?

1. De Vries
2. Correns
3. Tschermak
4. Kolreuter

Answer. 1. De Vries

Question 8. Find odd one out (with respect to pea traits).

1. Yellow cotyledon
2. Yellow pod
3. Terminal flower
4. Constricted pod

Answer. 1. Yellow cotyledon

Question 9. Which one of the following Mendelian traits is present on the fifth chromosome?

1. Pod shape
2. Pod color
3. Flowers color
4. Pod position

Answer. 2. Pod color

Question 10. The recombinant phenotypic ratio in F2 obtained from pa- rental cross having genotypes TTRR x ttrr will be

1. 9:3:3:1
2. 3:1
3. 1:2:1
4. 3:3

Answer. 4. 3:3

Question 11. Heterozygous tall and red flowered pea plants are selfed and total 2000 seeds are collected. What is the total number of seeds for both heterozygous traits?

1. 250
2. 500
3. 1250
4. 750

Answer. 2. 500

Question 12. Types of gametes formed by the plant with genotype *AABbccDD will be

1. 4
2. 16
3. 8
4. 2

Answer. 4. 2

Question 13. In monohybrid cross, pure homozygous plants will be

1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four

Answer. 2. Two

Question 14. Total 512 seeds are collected from the cross WwYy x WwYy. Find the number of plants produced with first dominant and second recessive trait.

1. 288
2. 96
3. 32
4. 320

Answer. 2. 96

Question 15. Which Mendelian cross can produce two genotypes and two phenotypes?

1. Monohybrid cross
2. Monohybrid test cross
3. Incomplete dominance
4. Co-dominance

Answer. 2. Monohybrid test cross

Question 16. A trihybrid cross is made between two yeasts, both with genotypes AaBbCc. What proportion of offsprings will be of genotype aabbcc?

1. 0
2. 1/4
3. 1/16
4. 1/64

Answer. 4. 1/64

Question 17. From the cross AABb x aaBb, genotypes AaBB: AaBb: Aabb: aabb are obtained in the ratio of

1. 1:1:1:1
2. 1:2:1:0
3. 0:3:1:0
4. 1:1:1:0

Answer. 2. 1:2:1:0

Question 18. In a cross between a pure tall pea plant with green pod and a pure short plant with yellow pod, how many short plants out of 16 would you expect in F2 generation?

1. 9
2. 4
3. 3
4. 1

Answer. 2. 4

Question 19. Find the correct match.

Column 1                              Column 2

a. Phenotype                          (1) G. Shull

b. Heterosis                           (2) Johanssen

c. Heterozygous                    (3) Correns

d. Incomplete dominance    (4) Bateson

1. a (2), b (1), c (4), d (3)
2. a (2), b (1), c (3), d (4)
3. a (4), b (1), c (3), d (2)
4. a (1), b (2), c (3), d (4)

Answer. 1. a (2), b (1), c (4), d (3)

Question 20. An allele is the

1. Total number of genes for a trait
2. Total number of genes on chromosome
3. Alternative form of a gene
4. Alternative form of a character

Answer. 3. Alternative form of a gene

Question 21. How many phenotypes are produced in a test cross of AaBBCC?

1. Two
2. Four
3. Eight
4. Twelve

Answer. 1. Two

Question 22. Which parental combination represents outcross?

1. AA × BB
2. Aa x aa
3. аа х АА
4. Aa x AA

Answer. 4. Aa x AA

Question 23. Which one of the following crosses would have ratio 1:1:1:1?

1. TtRR x ttrr
2. TTRR × ttrr
3. TtRrx ttrr
4. TURR × TTrr

Answer. 3. TtRrx ttrr

Question 24. When red and white flowered Mirabilis plants are crossed, all pink flowers are produced in F, generation. When F, progeny is selfed, the expected phenotypic and genotypic ratios are, respectively,

1. 1:2:1 and 3:1
2. 3:1 and 1:2:1
3. 1:21 and 1:2:1
4. 1:1 and 1:1:1

Answer. 3. 1:21 and 1:2:1

Question 25. If a character is controlled by six alleles of a gene, then the possible genotypes would be

1. 21
2. 729
3. 64
4. 42

Answer. 1. 21

Question 26. The ratio of children with blood groups A: B: AB: 0, born to a set of parents in which the mother is with blood group A and the father is with blood group B, will be

1. 1:1:1:1
2. 2:0:2:0
3. 0:0:4:0
4. All of these

Answer. 4. All of these

Question 27. Possible blood groups in children from the parents with blood groups B and O are

1. All B
2. All O
3. Both B and O
4. A and B

Answer. 3. Both B and O

Question 28. Which one of the following genes influences the viability of the organisms when present in homozygous condition?

1. Curly wings gene in Drosophila
2. Plum eyes gene in Drosophila
3. Sickle-cell gene
4. All of these

Answer. 4. All of these

inheritance and variation mcq

Question 29. Pleiotropic genes show

1. One gene one character
2. One gene regulates many phenotypic characters
3. Polygenic inheritance
4. Multiple allelism

Answer. 2. One gene regulates many phenotypic characters

Question 30. Emasculation of flower is done when

1. Stamens are mature
2. Stamens are immature
3. Stigma is mature
4. Stigma is immature

Answer. 2. Stamens are immature

Question 31. Consider the cross AaBbCcDdEe x aaBbccddee. What proportion of the progeny will genotypically resemble the first parent?

1. 1/64
2. 2/64
3. 4/16
4. 4/46

Answer. 1. 1/64

Question 32. When only one allele of a pair is present, the condition is called

1. Homozygous
2. Hemizygous
3. Heterozygous
4. Incomplete dominance

Answer. 2. Hemizygous

Question 33. Both the alleles are independently expressed in

1. Eye color in Drosophila
2. Fruit color in Cucurbita
3. Sickle-cell hemoglobin
4. Height in tobacco

Answer. 3. Sickle-cell hemoglobin

Question 34. Reciprocal cross is

1. Intraspecific hybridization
2. Back cross
3. Pollen grains from one variety deposited on the stigma of the contrasting variety and vice versa, in hybridization experiments
4. Test cross

Answer. 3. Pollen grains from one variety deposited on the stigma of the contrasting variety and vice versa, in hybridization experiments

Question 35. Bridge between two generations which contributes equally in the heredity of the offsprings is

1. Chromosome
2. Somatic cells
3. Sperm and egg
4. Factor

Answer. 3. Sperm and egg

Question 36. Sum total of genes with all these alleles at any time in a unit of evolution is called

1. Genotype
2. Genome
3. Gene pool
4. Gene library

Answer. 3. Gene pool

Question 37. Both chromosomes as well as genes do not occur in pairs in

1. Somatic cells
2. Fertilized egg
3. Megaspore mother cell
4. Microspore

Answer. 4. Microspore

Question 38. Parallelism between factors and chromosome led to the formation of

1. Cell theory
2. Chromosomal theory of inheritance
3. Pangenesis theory
4. Pre-formation theory

Answer. 2. Chromosomal theory of inheritance

Question 39. Who observed that the behavior of chromosomes at meiosis can serve as the cellular basis of both segregation and independent assortment?

1. Sutton and Boveri
2. Banden and Boveri
3. W. Flemming
4. Boveri and Brauer

Answer. 1. Sutton and Boveri

Question 40. In a dihybrid test cross, if the parental types exceed the recombination types among the resultant progeny, it is due to

1. Linkage
2. Complete linkage
3. Independent assortment
4. Crossing-over

Answer. 1. Linkage

Question 41. In the cross involving “linked genes,” who discovered that the assortment of genes during germ cell formation is non-random in the violation of Mendel’s second law?

1. Bateson and Punnet
2. Morgan
3. Sutton and Boveri
4. Sutton

Answer. 1. Bateson and Punnet

Question 42. Test cross ratio 1:7:7:1 in sweet pea when two pairs of alleles do not show independent assortment can be obtained from parental cross which is

1. BBll x bbll
2. BbL1 x BBll
3. BBll x bbll
4. bbll x Bbll

Answer. 3. BBll x bbll

pedigree questions

Question 43. Dihybrid test cross ratio with 82% parental type and 18% recombinants type shows that genes have

1. Incomplete linkage
2. Complete linkage
3. Independent assortment
4. Double crossing-over

Answer. 4. Double crossing-over

Question 44. A dihybrid test cross ratio for two completely linked genes will be

1. 1:1:1:1
2. 1:1
3. 1:7:7:1
4. 7:1:1:7

Answer. 2. 1:1

Question 45. In a cross in Drosophila, the heterozygous member with gray body (b+) and long wings (vg+) was crossed with the one with black body and vestigial wings. The progeny had the following ratio: grey vestigial – 24; grey long- 126; black long-26; black vestigial – 124. What is the frequency of recombinants in the population?

1. 15.8%
2. 16.7%
3. 17.5%
4. 14.5%

Answer. 2. 16.7%

Question 46. An individual homozygous for genes cd is crossed with wild type and F, is crossed back with the double recessive. The appearance of the offsprings is as follows:

++ →    903

cd →     897

+d  →    98

c+  →   102

The distance between genes c and d d is

1. 20 map units
2. 9.8 map units
3. 10.2 map units
4. 10 map units

Answer. 4. 10 map units

Question 47. A test cross of F, flies ++ / ab produced the following offsprings:

++/ab (R)           9

ab/ab (R)            9

+b/ab (R)           41

a+/ab (R)           41

This cross represents

1. Trans configuration
2. Cis configuration
3. Complete linkage
4. No crossing-over

Answer. 1. Trans configuration

Question 48. In rabbits, two recessive genes produce solid body color and long hair, respectively, in contrast to spotted body color and short hair, which result from dominant alleles. The results from a cross between heterozygous spotted, short-haired rabbits and solid, long-haired rabbits are as follows:

Spotted, short           48

Spotted, long           5

Solid, short              7

Solid, long              40

In terms of cross-over units, how far apart are these two genes on the chromosome?

1. 48 units
2. 12 units
3. 40 units
4. 7 units

Answer. 2. 12 units

Question 49. Assume that genes a and b are linked and show 40% re- combination. If++/++ individual is crossed with ab/ab, then types and proportions of gametes in F, will be

1. ++ 20% ab 20%: +b 20%: a+ 40%
2. ++ 50% ab 50%
3. ++25%: ab 25%: +b 25%: a+ 25%
4. ++30% ab 30% +b 20%: a+ 20%

Answer. 4. ++30% ab 30% +b 20%: a+ 20%

Question 50. Neurospora is normally pink, though an albino strain is known. If a pink (+) strain is crossed with an albino (a) strain, what would be the genotype(s) of the resulting zygote?

1. ++
2. aa
3. +a
4. +a

Answer. 3. +a

Question 51. Complete linkage is found in

1. Male Drosophila
2. Female silkworm
3. Both (1) and (2)
4. Aspergillus flavus

Answer. 3. Both (1) and (2)

Question 52. Number of linkage groups in an individual is equal to

1. Number of genes
2. n-number of chromosomes
3. 2n number of chromosomes
4. Number of autosomes

Answer. 2. n-number of chromosomes

Question 53. The bacterial and blue green algal cells contain

1. Large number of linkage groups
2. Only one linkage group
3. Four linkage groups
4. No linkage group

Answer. 2. Only one linkage group

Question 54. Find the incorrect match with respect to linkage group.

1. Neurospora – 2
2. Zea mays – 10
3. Pisum sativum-7
4. Drosophila-4

Answer. 1. Neurospora – 2

Question 55. Coupling and repulsion phenomena are concerned with

1. Mutation
2. Pleiotropism
3. Linkage
4. Crossing-over

Answer. 3. Linkage

Question 56. The exchange of chromosome segments between maternal and paternal chromatids after synapsis in meiosis is called

1. Interference
2. Crossing-over
3. Chiasma
4. Terminalization

Answer. 2. Crossing-over

Question 57. Crossing-over occurs in ______ stage.

1. Leptotene
2. Zygotene
3. Pachytene
4. Diakinesis

Answer. 3. Pachytene

Question 58. Crossing-over occurring at two-strand stage will show which one of the following types of ascospores arrangement?

1. 2:4:2
2. 4:4
3. 2:2:2:2
4. 4:2:2

Answer. 2. 4:4

Question 59. The cross-over frequencies between the genes A and B, A and C, and B and C are 6%, 15%, and 21%, respectively. What is the possible sequence of genes on chromosome?

1. A, B, C
2. B, A, C
3. A, C, B
4. Either B, A, C or C, A, B

Answer. 4. Either B, A, C or C, A, B

” monohybrid test cross ratio”

Question 60. In a linear chromosome, map distances between four loci are as follows: a-b-10, b-c-4, a-d-3, a-c-6. The expected cross-over frequency between c and d is

1. 3%
2. 9%
3. Either 3% or 9%
4. 4% to 12%

Answer. 3. Either 3% or 9%

Question 61. Mendel did not recognize the linkage phenomenon in his experiments, because

1. He did not have powerful microscope
2. He studied only pure plants
3. There were many chromosomes to handle
4. Characters he studied were located on different chromosomes

Answer. 4. Characters he studied were located on different chromosomes

Question 62. Sex-linked characters are generally

1. Dominant
2. Recessive
3. Lethal
4. Not inherited

Answer. 2. Recessive

Question 63. Which one of the following defects in man is due to sex- linked inheritance?

1. Albinism
2. Colorblindness
3. Beri-beri
4. Polydactyly

Answer. 2. Colorblindness

Question 64. A colorblind boy has 2 sisters-one colorblind and one normal. What can be the possible nature of their parents?

1. Colorblind father and colorblind mother
2. Normal father and colorblind mother
3. Colorblind father and carrier mother
4. Colorblind father and normal mother

Answer. 3. Colorblind father and carrier mother

Question 65. A normal woman, whose father had hemophilia, married a normal man. What is the chance of occurrence of hemophilia in their children?

1. 25% children will be hemophilic
2. 50% children will be hemophilic
3. 75% children will be hemophilic
4. None hemophilic but 75% will be carriers

Answer. 1. 25% children will be hemophilic

Question 66. A holandric gene is known for hypertrichosis (long hairs on ears). When a man with hairy ears marries a normal woman, what percentage of their daughters would be expected to have hairy ears?

1. 100%
2. 0%
3. 50%
4. 25%

Answer. 2. 0%

Question 67. Which one of the following trait is X-Y linked?

1. Hypertrichosis
2. Porcupine skin
3. Cystic fibrosis
4. Epidermolysis bullosa

Answer. 4. Epidermolysis bullosa

Question 68. When sex determination occurs after fertilization it is called

1. Progamic
2. Syngamic
3. Epigamic
4. Apogamic

Answer. 3. Epigamic

Question 69. XX-XY type sex determination in plants was first discovered in

1. Melandrium
2. Coccinia
3. Sphacrocarpos
4. Fragaria elatior

Answer. 3. Sphacrocarpos

Question 70. In birds, the females are

1. ZZ
2. Zw
3. ZO
4. YY

Answer. 2. Zw

Question 71. Genic balance theory was given by

1. Bridges
2. Morgan
3. Boveri
4. Muller

Answer. 1. Boveri

Question 72. According to the genic balance theory of Bridges, which is correct for AAA+ XXY condition of Drosophila?

1. Supermale
2. Superfemale
3. Intersex
4. Normal male but sterile

Answer. 3. Intersex

Question 73. Gynandromorph or sex mosaic is produced by

1. Loss of X-chromosome
2. Non-disjunction of Y-chromosome
3. Disjunction of X-chromosome
4. Disjunction of autosomes

Answer. 1. Loss of X-chromosome

Question 74. The concept of sudden genetic change which breeds true in an organism is visualized in the principle of

1. Natural selection
2. Heredity
3. Variations
4. Mutation

Answer. 4. Mutation

Question 75. Gene mutation is caused by

1. Reproduction
2. Linkage
3. Change in the sequence of nitrogenous base
4. Change in the sequence of genes in DNA

Answer. 3. Change in the sequence of nitrogenous base

Question 76. Which radiations induce the formation of thymine dimers in DNA that interfere with its replication?

1. UV radiations
2. X rays
3. Gamma rays
4. Infrared light

Answer. 1. UV radiations

Question 77. Which of the following radiations do not result in any mutational change?

1. X rays
2. Gamma rays
3. Ultraviolet rays
4. Infrared rays

Answer. 4. Infrared rays

Question 78. “Mutations can be induced by X rays” was revealed by

1. Stanley Miller
2. Bridges
3. Muller
4. Darlington

Answer. 3. Muller

Question 79. Which chemical mutagen results in deamination of bases?

1. HNO2
2. Base analogs
3. Acridine dyes
4. PEG

Answer. 1. HNO2

Question 80. “Burkitt lymphoma” in humans is due to

1. Deletion
2. Translocation
3. Transition
4. Tautomeric shift

Answer. 2. Translocation

Question 81. Bar eye character in Drosophila is due to

1. Deletion
2. Multiple alleles
3. Duplication
4. Inversion

Answer. 3. Duplication

Question 82. Find the incorrect match:

1. 44+ XYY-Jacob’s syndrome
2. 44+ XO – Turner’s syndrome
3. 44+ XXXY — Huntington’s chorea
4. 2N + 1 – Down’s syndrome

Answer. 3. 44+ XXXY — Huntington’s chorea

Question 83. Find the correct match:

Column 1                         Column 2

a. 2N-1-1                         (1) Trisomy

b. 2N + 1                        (2) Monosomy

c. 2N + 1 + 1                  (3) Nullisomy

d. 2N-2                          (4) Double trisomy

(5) Double monosomy

1. a (5), b (1), e (4), d (3)
2. a (2), b (1), e (4), d (3)
3. a (5), b (1), e (4), d (2)
4. a (2), b (1), e (4), d (5)

Answer. 1. a (5), b (1), e (4), d (3)

Question 84. Syndrome due to extra 18th autosomal chromosome is known as

1. Patau’s syndrome
2. Edward’s syndrome
3. Cri-du-chat syndrome
4. Down’s syndrome

Answer. 2. Edward’s syndrome

Question 85. If gene frequency for PTC non-taster is 0.4, then what will be the number of heterozygote tasters in a population of 3000?

1. 1080
2. 1440
3. 480
4. 2520

Answer. 2. 1440

Question 86. In the given pedigree, indicate whether the shaded symbols indicate dominant or recessive allele..

1. Dominant
2. Recessive
3. Co-dominant
4. It can be recessive or dominant both

Answer. 4. It can be recessive or dominant both

Question 87. Cystic fibrosis is due to recessive gene mutation of

1. Chromosome 4
2. Chromosome 7
3. Chromosome 11
4. X-chromosome

Answer. 2. Chromosome 7

dihybrid cross questions

Question 88. Albinism in man is caused by the absence of one enzyme necessary for the synthesis of melanin. It is

1. Tyrosinase
2. Lysine
3. Melanase
4. Luciferase

Answer. 1. Tyrosinase

Question 89. A normal woman whose father was albino marries a man who is albino. What proportion of normal and albino can be expected among the offspring?

1. All albino
2. 1 normal: 1 albino
3. All normal
4. 2 normal: 1 albino

Answer. 2. 1 normal: 1 albino

Question 90. Mark the correct statement (with respect to the Mendelian dihybrid cross where the two parents differed in two pairs of contrasting traits: seed color and seed shape).

1. 3/4th of F2 plants have green seeds and 1/4th have yellow.
2. Mendel cross-hybridized F, plants and got 9:3:3 : 1 phenotypic ratio.
3. In F2 generation, round and wrinkled seed shape segregates just like in a monohybrid cross.
4. Parental phenotypic ratio is 1:1 in F2 generation.

Answer. 3. In F2 generation, round and wrinkled seed shape segregates just like in a monohybrid cross.

Question 91. ABO blood groups in human beings are controlled by gene I. Gene I has three alleles in which

1. 1A, 1B, and i produce a slightly different form of sugar
2. 1B and i produce identical sugars
3. 1A and 1B produce a slightly different form of sugar
4. Only allele i produces sugar

Answer. 3. 1A and 1B produce a slightly different form of sugar

Question 92. Starch grain size in garden pea, flower color in 4’O clock plant, and heterozygous individual for sickle-cell anemia are examples of

1. Incomplete dominance
2. Non-allelic interaction
3. Co-dominance
4. Inter-allelic interaction

Answer. 4. Inter-allelic interaction

Question 93. Morgan carried out several dihybrid crosses in fruit fly and found that

1. Loosely linked genes show low recombination
2. The strength of linkage between genes of white eye and miniature wing is lower than the genes of yellow body and white eye
3. Tightly linked genes show equal amount of parental and recombinant types in F2 generation
4. All genes segregate independently of each other and the F2 ratio deviates very significantly from the 9:3 :3:1 ratio

Answer. 2. The strength of linkage between genes of white eye and miniature wing is lower than the genes of yellow body and white eye

Question 94. Consider the following four statements (A, B, C, and D) and select the right option for incorrect statements.

A. Mendelian experiments had large sampling size, which gave greater credibility to the data that he collected.

B. Recessive allele influences the appearance of pheno- type even in the presence of an alternative allele.

C. Multiple alleles can be found only when population studies are made.

D. In F2 generation of Mendelian monohybrid cross, the tall and dwarf traits were identical to their parental types and showed blending.

The incorrect statements are

1. (A) and (C)
2. (C) and (D)
3. (B) and (D)
4. (B) and (C)

Answer. 3. (B) and (D)

Question 95. Mr. Wilson is suffering from hypertrichosis and phenylketonuria. His father is heterozygous for phenylke- tonuria. The probability of Wilson’s sperm having one recessive autosomal allele and holandric gene is

1. 1/8
2. 1/16
3. 1/4
4. 1/2

Answer. 4. 1/2

Question 96. Select the incorrect match with respect to human genetic disorders.

Disorders                           Chromosome number              Dominant/recessive

(1) Cystic fibrosis                                7                                      Recessive

(2) Sickle-cell anemia                       15                                      Recessive

(3) Phenylketonuria                          12                                      Recessive

(4) Huntington’s chorea                    4                                      Dominant

Answer. 2. Sickle-cell anemia 15 Recessive

Question 97. Consider the following statements (A)-(D) each with one or two blanks:

A. _______ are commonly observed in cancer cells.

B. During ________, purine is replaced by another purine.

C. Failure of ___________ after telophase stage of cell division results in an increase in whole set of chromosomes in an organism and this phenomenon is known as __________

D. In Down’s syndrome, the affected individual is short- statured with ______ round head and partially open mouth.

Which one of the following options gives the correct fill ups for the respective blank numbers from (1) to (5) in the statements?

1. (3) Karyokinesis, (4) polyploidy, (5) large
2. (2) Transversion, (3) cytokinesis, (4) chromosomal aberration
3. (1) Chromosomal aberration, (4) polyploidy, (5) small
4. (2) Transition, (3) karyokinesis, (5) large

Answer. 3. (1) Chromosomal aberration, (4) polyploidy, (5) small

Question 98. Study the given pedigree chart of a certain family and select the correct conclusion which can be drawn for the character.

1. The trait under study could be hemophilic.
2. Only female parent is homozygous recessive.
3. Both the parents are homozygous dominant.
4. Inheritance of a condition like sickle-cell anemia as an autosomal recessive trait.

Answer. 4. Inheritance of a condition like sickle-cell anemia as an autosomal recessive trait.

” monohybrid cross ratio “

Question 99. The frequency of an autosomal dominant allele is 0.6. Calculate the frequency of recessive phenotype in a population of 10,000.

1. 1200
2. 4000
3. 1600
4. 1000

Answer. 1. 1200

Question 100. With increasing age, the linkage

1. Becomes strong
2. Becomes weak
3. Terminates
4. Remains unchanged

Answer. 1. Becomes strong

Question 101. If there were only parental combinations in F2 of a dihybrid cross, then Mendel might have discovered

1. Independent assortment
2. Atavism
3. Linkage
4. Repulsion

Answer. 3. Linkage

Question 102. Mendelian dihybrid and dihybrid with linkage are, respectively, related with how many chromosomes?

1. 1 pair and 2 pair
2. 2 pair and 1 pair
3. 2 pair and 2 pair
4. 1 pair and 1 pair

Answer. 2. 2 pair and 1 pair

Question 103. A dihybrid plant with incomplete linkage on test cross may produce how many types of plants?

1. 2
2. 4
3. 8
4. 1

Answer. 2. 4

Question 104. The number of linkage groups in a cell having 10 pairs of chromosomes are

1. 5
2. 10
3. 15
4. 20

Answer. 2. 10

Question 105. The two eukaryotic organelles responsible for cytoplasmic inheritance are

1. Lysosome and mitochondria
2. Chloroplasts and lysosomes
3. Mitochondria and chloroplasts
4. Mitochondria and Golgi complex

Answer. 3. Mitochondria and chloroplasts

Question 106. Cross-over value (COV) of genes A and B is 5% while COV of genes B and C is 15%. The possible sequence of three genes on chromosome is

1. A-B-C
2. C-A-B
3. B-C-A
4. Both (1) and (2)

Answer. 4. Both (1) and (2)

Question 107. Which of the following conditions represent a case of co-dominant genes?

1. A gene expresses itself, suppressing the phenotypic effect of its alleles.
2. Genes those are similar in phenotypic effect when present separately, but when together interact to produce a different trait.
3. Alleles, both of which interact to product a trait, which may resemble either of the parental type.
4. Alleles, each of which produces an independent effect in heterozygous condition.

Answer. 4. Alleles, each of which produces an independent effect in heterozygous condition.

Question 108. A sinistral shelled female snail has Dd genotype cross with dextral shelled male having dd genotype. What type of shell will be present in the progeny?

1. All dextral
2. All sinistral
3. 50% dextral, 50% sinistral
4. None

Answer. 2. All sinistral

Question 109. In female Drosophila, the linked gene exhibits recombination during the meiosis of gamete formation, but such a recombination does not occur during the formation of sperm in male Drosophila because

1. Male Drosophila is sterile
2. Male Drosophila is parthenogenetic male
3. No crossing-over occurs in male Drosophila
4. Male Drosophila is haploid

Answer. 3. No crossing-over occurs in male Drosophila

Question 110. The condition in which only one allele of a pair is present is known as

1. Homozygous
2. Heterozygous
3. Hemizygous
4. Incomplete dominance

Answer. 3. Hemizygous

Question 111. A colorblind man marries a daughter of a colorblind father. Then in the offspring,

1. All sons are colorblind
2. All daughters are colorblind
3. Half sons are colorblind
4. No daughter is colorblind

Answer. 3. Half sons are colorblind

Question 112. A woman with normal vision marries a man with normal vision and gives birth to a colorblind son. Her husband dies and she marries a colorblind man. What is the probability of her children having the abnormality

1. 50% colorblind sons + 50% colorblind daughters
2. All sons colorblind and daughters carrier
3. All daughters colorblind and sons normal
4. 50% sons colorblind and all daughters normal

Answer. 1. 50% colorblind sons + 50% colorblind daughters

Question 113. Albinism is determined by a recessive gene in man. The presence of albinism in 50% children born to a couple proves that

1. Both parents are heterozygous for albinism
2. Father is homozygous normal and mother is heterozygous
3. Father is homozygous for albinism but mother is heterozygous
4. Both are homozygous

Answer. 3. Father is homozygous for albinism but mother is heterozygous

Question 114. A gene that shows its effect on more than one character is

1. Polygene
2. Pleotropic gene
3. Multifactor gene
4. Multiple gene

Answer. 2. Pleotropic gene

Question 115. In Drosophila, crossing-over occurs in females but not in males. Genes A and B are 10 map unit apart on chro- mosome. A female Drosophila has genotype AB/ab and a male Drosophila has genotype AB/ab. How many types of gametes are produced by female and male Drosophila, respectively?

1. 4 types: 2 types
2. 2 types: 2 types
3. 4 types: 4 types
4. 4 types: 1 type

Answer. 1. 4 types: 2 types

Question 116. In polygenic inheritance trait, which is controlled by three pairs of genes, two individuals that are heterozygous for three alleles crossed each other. Such type of cross produced phenotypic ratio

1. 1:2:1
2. 9:3:3:1
3. 1:4:6:4:1
4. 16:15 20:15:6:1

Answer. 4. 16:15 20:15:6:1

Question 117. In a cross between individuals homozygous for (a, b) and wild type (++), 700 out of 1000 individuals were of parental type. Then the distance between a and b is

1. 70 map units
2. 35 map units
3. 30 map units
4. 15 map units

Answer. 3. 30 map units

Question 118. Which of the following show linkage group in coupling phase?

Answer. 1.

Question 119. In Drosophila, several alleles exhibit the same phenotype, e.g., W+s, W+c, W+g exhibit eye color. These alleles are called

1. Pseudoalleles
2. Isoalleles
3. Multiple alleles
4. All of the above

Answer. 2. Isoalleles

Question 120. Which statement is incorrect about linkage?

1. It helps in maintaining the valuable traits of new varieties.
2. It helps in forming new recombinants.
3. Knowledge of linkage helps the breeder to combine all desirable traits in a single variety.
4. It helps in locating genes on chromosome.

Answer. 2. It helps in maintaining the valuable traits of new varieties.

Question 121. The first mutant reported by Morgan on Drosophila was

1. Red eyed male
2. Red eyed female
3. White eyed male
4. White eyed female

Answer. 3. White eyed male

Question 122. Non-ionizing radiations commonly used for inducing mutations in organisms are

1. UV rays
2. Beta rays
3. X rays
4. Gamma rays

Answer. 1. UV rays

principles of inheritance and variation class 12

Question 123. The smallest unit of genetic material which upon mutation produces a phenotypic effect is

1. Sexual reproduction
2. Meiosis
3. Mutation
4. Independent assortment

Answer. 3. Mutation

Question 124. Chemical mutagens are far more hazardous than radiations because

1. Exposure to chemicals is more prevalent
2. Organisms possess protection from radiation but no protection from chemicals
3. Chemically induced mutations are more deleterious
4. Chemicals are synthetic

Answer. 2. Organisms possess protection from radiation but no protection from chemicals

Question 125. Mutagens that are effective on DNA replication only are

1. Base analogs and acridines
2. Alkylating agents
3. HNO2
4. α and B rays

Answer. 1. Base analogs and acridines

Question 126. Haploids are preferred over diploids for mutation studies because

1. Recessive mutation is expressed in F1
2. Recessive mutation is expressed in F2
3. Dominant phenotype is expressed
4. Dominant phenotype is suppressed

Answer. 1. Recessive mutation is expressed in F1

Question 127. The type of gene mutation that involves the replacement of purine with pyrimidine or vice versa (Or) The substitution of one type of base with another type of base is

1. Transduction
2. Transversion
3. Translocation
4. Transcription

Answer. 2. Transversion

Question 128. Mutations induced by 5-bromo uracil are

1. Transversional mutations
2. Transitional mutations
3. Frame shift mutations
4. Backward mutations

Answer. 2. Transitional mutations

Question 129. Deamination of adenine and guanine by HNO, and UV rays produces

1. Cytosine and uracil
2. Xanthine and hypoxanthine
3. Hypoxanthine and xanthine
4. Xanthine and uracil

Answer. 3. Hypoxanthine and xanthine

Question 130. In a random mating population in equilibrium, which of the following brings about a change in gene frequency in a non-directional manner?

1. Mutation
2. Random drift
3. Selection
4. Migration

Answer. 2. Random drift

Question 131. Given below is the representation of a kind of chromosomal mutation:

Identify the kind of mutation.

1. Deletion
2. Duplication
3. Inversion
4. Reciprocal translocation

Answer. 3. Inversion

Question 132. The “cri-du-chat” syndrome is caused by change in chromosome structure involving

1. Deletion
2. Duplication
3. Inversion
4. Translocation

Answer. 1. Deletion

Question 133. Chromosome with genes abcdefg becoming abedcfg is

1. Duplication
2. Deletion
3. Translocation
4. Inversion

Answer. 4. Inversion

Question 134. Which one of the following scientists’ names is correctly matched with the theory put forth by him?

1. de Vries Natural selection
2. Mendel – Theory of pangenesis
3. Weismann Theory of continuity of germplasm
4. Pasteur – Inheritance of acquired characters

Answer. 3. Weismann Theory of continuity of germplasm

Question 135. Which of the following is an example of substantive dis- continuous variation?

1. Hairless cat
2. Short legged ancon sheep
3. Polydactyly in humans
4. More than one option is correct.

Answer. 4. More than one option is correct.

Question 136. Find the incorrect match.

1. Moist vapor theory proposed by-Pythagoras
2. Theory of epigenesis-Homunculus
3. Theory of pangenesis-Gemmules
4. Theory of germplasm proposed by-Weismann

Answer. 2. Theory of epigenesis-Homunculus

Question 137. Which of the following genotype represents heterozygous condition?

1. TT
2. tt
3. Tt
4. RR

Answer. 3. Tt

Question 138. In garden pea plant, S. Blixt led to locate Mendel’s seven characters on chromosomes numbers

1. 1, 4, 5, 7
2. 1,4, 5, 6
3. 4, 5, 6, 7
4. 2, 3, 4, 7

Answer. 1. 1, 4, 5, 7

Question 139. Mendel selected Pisum sativum for hybridization experiments because of

1. Clear contrasting characters and short life span
2. Long life span and non-fertile hybrids
3. Presence of unisexual flowers
4. Infertile hybrids and production of large number of seeds by each plant

Answer. 1. Clear contrasting characters and short life span

Question 140. Mark the odd one (with respect to dominant trait in garden pea).

1. Yellow pod
2. Inflated pod
3. Axial flower
4. Yellow seed

Answer. 1. Yellow pod

Question 141. The transmission of genetic characters from parents to offsprings is

1. Variation
2. Heredity
3. Blending
4. Somatoplasm

Answer. 2. Heredity

Question 142. Who coined the term “allele”?

1. Saunders
2. Bateson
3. Johannsen
4. Mendel

Answer. 2. Bateson

Question 143. Which of the following trait of garden pea is present on the seventh chromosome?

1. Pod shape
2. Pod color
3. Seed shape
4. Stem height

Answer. 3. Seed shape

Question 144. Who amongst the following raised the status of Mendel’s generalizations to laws?

1. Correns
2. de Vries
3. Tschermak
4. Goss

Answer. 1. Correns

Question 145. The phenotype of F, hybrid resembles either of the two parents in

1. Dominance
2. Incomplete dominance
3. Co-dominance
4. Intermediate inheritance

Answer. 1. Dominance

Question 146. Mendel proposed the law of dominance and the law of segregation based on his observations on

1. Monohybrid crosses
2. Dihybrid crosses
3. Test crosses
4. Outcrosses

Answer. 1. Monohybrid crosses

Question 147. Which of the following phenotypic ratio was found by Mendel in the F2 generation of a dihybrid cross?

1. 3:1
2. 1:2:1:2:4:2:1:2:1
3. 9:3:3:1
4. 12:4

Answer. 3. 9:3:3:1

Question 148. Both phenotypic and genotypic ratios of F2 are the same in

1. Co-dominance
2. Incomplete dominance
3. Outcross
4. More than one option is correct

Answer. 4. More than one option is correct

Question 149. The ability of a gene to have multiple phenotypic effects is known as

1. Pleiotropy
2. Co-dominance
3. Incomplete dominance
4. Complete dominance

Answer. 1. Pleiotropy

Question 150. How many types of gametes can be produced by a dip- loid organism, if it is heterozygous for three loci?

1. 6
2. 4
3. 9
4. 3

Answer. 3. 8

Question 151. What will be the genotypic ratio in the F2 generation of a monohybrid outcross?

1. 9:3:3:1
2. 1:2:1
3. 1:1
4. 3:1

Answer. 3. 1:1

Question 152. A cross between F, hybrid and its homozygous recessive parent is called

1. Outcross
2. Test cross
3. Monohybrid cross
4. Dihybrid cross

Answer. 2. Test cross

Question 153. Select the correct option with respect to the law of independent assortment:

1. It can be explained by using monohybrid cross.
2. The inheritance of one character is dependent on another character.
3. This law is not applicable universally.
4. It was proposed by Bateson.

Answer. 3. This law is not applicable universally.

Question 154. Find the incorrect match:

1. Gamete-Pure for a trait
2. Co-dominance-Flower color in snapdragon
3. Lethal gene-Body color in mice
4. Incomplete dominance-Carl Correns

Answer. 2. Co-dominance-Flower color in snapdragon

Question 155. Select the odd one out with respect to non-allelic gene interactions:

1. Epistasis
2. Duplicate genes
3. Incomplete dominance
4. Complementary genes

Answer. 3. Incomplete dominance

Question 156. Fruit color in Cucurbita pepo is an example of

1. Complementary genes
2. Duplicate genes
3. Dominant epistasis
4. Polymeric genes demonstrated by Bateson

Answer. 3. Dominant epistasis

Question 157. Complementary genes were demonstrated by Bateson and Punnet in

1. Capsella
2. Lathyrus odoratus
3. Antirrhinum
4. Mirabilis

Answer. 2. Lathyrus odoratus

Question 158. If dominant alleles of two gene loci produce the same phenotype, whether both genes inherited separately or together, this inheritance will be

1. Recessive epistasis
2. Dominant epistasis
3. Duplicate genes interaction
4. Inhibitory genes interaction

Answer. 3. Duplicate genes interaction

Question 159. A gene which hides the action of another gene is termed as

1. Co-dominant gene
2. Epistatic gene
3. Hypostatic gene
4. Lethal gene

Answer. 2. Epistatic gene

Question 160. In polymeric gene action, the modified dihybrid phenotypic ratio in the F2 generation is

1. 9:3:3:1
2. 13:3
3. 9:6:1
4. 12:3:4

Answer. 3. 9:6:1

Question 161. Which of the following genotype of sweet pea plant is related with the production of purple colored flowers?

1. CcPp
2. CCpp
3. ccPP
4. Ccpp

Answer. 1. CcPp

Question 162. Select the odd one out with respect to polygenic inheritance:

1. Bell-shaped curve is obtained.
2. Also called quantitative inheritance.
3. Recessive alleles show cumulative effect.
4. Intermediate phenotypes are more frequent.

Answer. 3. Recessive alleles show cumulative effect.

Question 163. Select the correct match (with respect to dihybrid phenotypic ratio in F2 generation):

1. Recessive epistasis – 12:3:1
2. Dominant epistasis-9: 3:4
3. Collaborative gene-9:3:3:1
4. Duplicate genes – 9:7

Answer. 3. Collaborative gene-9:3:3:1

Question 164. Skin color in man is controlled by

1. Three pairs of polygenes
2. Duplicate genes
3. Six pairs of polygenes
4. Supplementary genes

Answer. 1. Three pairs of polygenes

Question 165. Select the odd one out with respect to the chromosomal theory of inheritance.

1. It was proposed by Sutton and Boveri.
2. The behavior of chromosomes is parallel to the behavior of genes.
3. Chromosomes and genes occur in pairs in diploid and haploid cells, respectively.
4. The paired condition of both, chromosomes as well as Mendelian factors, is restored during fertilization.

Answer. 3. Chromosomes and genes occur in pairs in diploid and haploid cells, respectively.

Question 166. The term gene for Mendelian factor was coined by

1. Sutton and Boveri
2. Morgan
3. Bateson
4. Johannsen

Answer. 4. Johannsen

Question 167. Morgan used Drosophila as experimental material because

1. It cannot be reared and bred under lab conditions
2. A single mating produces very few offsprings
3. It has large number of morphologically similar chromosomes
4. It has a short life span

Answer. 4. It has a short life span

Question 168. Who carried out several dihybrid crosses in Drosophila to study genes that were sex-linked?

1. Morgan
2. Sutton
3. Bateson
4. Punnet

Answer. 1. Morgan

Question 169. Coupling and repulsion hypothesis in sweet pea plant was explained by

1. Mendel
2. Bateson and Punnet
3. T.H. Morgan
4. Sutton and Boveri

Answer. 2. Bateson and Punnet

Question 170. Find the odd one out with respect to complete linkage:

1. 100% parental combinations in F2 generation.
2. F2 phenotypic ratio is 3: 1 in dihybrid cross.
3. Dihybrid test cross ratio is 1 : 1 in F2 generation.
4. Linked genes tend to separate frequently.

Answer. 4. Linked genes tend to separate frequently.

Question 171. The condition where an individual heterozygous for two pairs of linked genes (AaBb) possesses two dominant genes on one homologous chromosome pair and two recessive on the other is said to be

1. Cis-arrangement
2. Trans-arrangement
3. Partly cis partly trans
4. More than one option is correct

Answer. 1. Cis-arrangement

Question 172. How many linkage groups are present in human male?

1. 24
2. 23
3. 46
4. 22

Answer. 1. 24

Question 173. Linkage ratio of 7:1:1:7 in case of dihybrid test cross means that there are

1. 2 parental and 14 recombinant plants
2. 14 parental and 2 recombinant plants
3. 9 parental and 7 recombinant plants
4. 8 parental and 8 recombinant plants

Answer. 2. 14 parental and 2 recombinant plants

Question 174. Find the incorrect statement with respect to chromosomal mapping:

1. Crossing-over is important in locating genes on chromosome.
2. Recombination frequency depends on the distance between the genes.
3. Recombination frequency is inversely proportional to the distance between the genes.
4. The sequences and the relative distances between various genes are graphically represented in terms of recombination frequencies.

Answer. 3. Recombination frequency is inversely proportional to the distance between the genes.

Question 175. Individuals having homomorphic sex chromosomes produce

1. One type of gametes
2. Two types of gametes
3. No gametes
4. Only one gamete in complete life span

Answer. 1. One type of gametes

Question 176. Holandric genes are present on

1. X-chromosomes
2. Y-chromosomes
3. Sex chromosomes as well as autosomes
4. Autosomes

Answer. 2. Y-chromosomes

Question 177. Mark the incorrect pair (with respect to sex determination):

1. ZW-ZZ type-Fishes
2. ZO-ZZ type-Birds
3. XX-XO type-Dioscorea
4. XX-XY type-Melandrium

Answer. 2. ZO-ZZ type-Birds

Question 178. Which of the following statement about a Barr body is incorrect?

1. Observed by Barr and Bertram.
2. Can be seen in neutrophils of females as drumstick.
3. The number of Barr bodies is one less than the number of autosomes.
4. Normal male has no Barr body.

Answer. 3. The number of Barr bodies is one less than the number of autosomes.

Question 179. In the XX-XO type of sex determination,

1. Females produce only one type of eggs
2. Females have only one X-chromosome
3. Males have two X-chromosomes
4. Males are homogametic

Answer. 1. Females produce only one type of eggs

Question 180. Select the odd one out with respect to the genic balance theory of sex determination in Drosophila:

1. Y-chromosome plays no role in sex-determination.
2. Given by C.B. Bridges.
3. If X/A ratio is 1, super-females are produced.
4. If N/A ratio is less than 0.5, super-males are produced.

Answer. 3. If X/A ratio is 1, super-females are produced.

Question 181. Environmental mechanism of sex determination is seen in

1. Bonnelia
2. Crepidula
3. Grasshopper
4. More than one option is correct

Answer. 4. More than one option is correct

Question 182. Select the odd one out with respect to hemophilia:

1. X-linked dominant disorder
2. Bleeder’s disease
3. Criss-cross inheritance
4. X-linked recessive disorder

Answer. 4. X-linked recessive disorder

Question 183. Select the correct match:

1. Sex-limited trait-Colorblindness
2. Sex-limited trait-Expressed in both sexes
3. Sex-influenced trait-More frequent in one sex than in the other
4. Sex-influenced trait-Porcupine skin

Answer. 3. Sex-influenced trait-More frequent in one sex than in the other

Question 184. If a normal man marries a girl who is a carrier of hemophilia, then

1. All sons will be hemophilic
2. All daughters will be hemophilic
3. 75% of offsprings will be hemophilic
4. 50% of sons will be hemophilic

Answer. 4. 50% of sons will be hemophilic

Question 185. Mark the odd one (with respect to genomatic mutation):

1. Hypoploidy
2. Tetrasomy
3. Duplication
4. Allopolyploidy

Answer. 3. Duplication

Question 186. Find the incorrect match:

1. Somatic mutation – No evolutionary importance
2. Germinal mutation – Gametic mutation
3. Frame shift mutation – Gibberish mutation
4. Chromosomal mutation – Transversion

Answer. 4. Chromosomal mutation – Transversion

Question 187. The substitution of a purine with another type of purine is called

1. Transversion
2. Transition
3. Inversion
4. Translocation

Answer. 2. Transition

Question 188. Inversion without involving the centromere is called

1. Paracentric
2. Monosomy
3. Pericentric
4. Tautomerization

Answer. 1. Paracentric

Question 189. Aneuploidy which results in the loss of a complete homologous pair of chromosomes is

1. Trisomy
2. Tetrasomy
3. Nullisomy
4. Euploidy

Answer. 3. Nullisomy

Question 190. Which of the following chemical is a base analog?

1. 5-Bromouracil
2. Acridines
3. Nitrous acid
4. Hypoxanthine

Answer. 1. 5-Bromouracil

Question 191. Cytoplasmic male sterility in maize is due to defective

1. Mitochondria
2. Lysosome
3. Golgi body
4. Leucoplast

Answer. 1. Mitochondria

Question 192. Select the incorrect statement with respect to pedigree analysis:

1. Solid symbol shows the unaffected individual.
2. It is useful for genetic counselors.
3. Proband is the person from which case history starts.
4. It is an analysis of traits in several generations of a family.

Answer. 1. Solid symbol shows the unaffected individual.

Question 193. Which of the following abnormalities is due to X-linked recessive mutation?

1. Cystic fibrosis
2. Thalassaemia
3. Klinefelter’s syndrome
4. Lesch-Nyhan syndrome

Answer. 4. Lesch-Nyhan syndrome

Question 194. If the frequency of recessive allele is 0.3, then find out the frequency of heterozygous individuals in population?

1. 42%
2. 21%
3. 10%
4. 49%

Answer. 1. 42%

Question 195. According to Mendelism, which character is showing dominance?

1. Terminal position of flower
2. Green color in seed coat
3. Wrinkled seeds
4. Green pod color

Answer. 4. Green pod color

Question 196. Irregularity is found in Drosophila during the organ differentiation, e.g., in place of wing, long legs are formed. The gene responsible for this is

1. Double dominant gene
2. Homeotic gene
3. Complimentary gene
4. Plastid

Answer. 2. Homeotic gene

Question 197. Mendel obtained wrinkled seeds in pea due to the deposition of sugars instead of starch. It was due to which enzyme?

1. Amylase
2. Invertase
3. Diastase
4. Absence of starch branching enzyme

Answer. 4. Absence of starch branching enzyme

Question 198. A gene is said to be dominant if

1. It expresses its effect only in homozygous stage
2. It expresses its effect only in heterozygous condition
3. It expresses its effect both in homozygous and heterozygous conditions
4. It never expresses in any condition

Answer. 3. It expresses its effect both in homozygous and heterozygous conditions

Question 199. A plant of F, generation has genotype AABbCC. On selfing of this plant, what is the phenotypic ratio in F2 generation?

1. 3:1
2. 1:1
3. 9:3:3:1
4. 27:9:9:9:3:3:3:1

Answer. 1. 3:1

Question 200. In a plant, red fruit (R) is dominant over yellow fruit (r) and tallness (T) is dominant over shortness (t). If a plant with genotype RRTt is crossed with a plant with genotype rrtt, then

1. All the offsprings will be tall with red fruit
2. 25% will be tall with red fruit
3. 50% will be tall with red fruit
4. 75% will be tall with red fruit

Answer. 3. 50% will be tall with red fruit

Question 201. How many different types of gametes can be formed by F progeny resulting from the following cross: AA BB CC x aa bb cc?

1. 3
2. 8
3. 27
4. 64

Answer. 2. 8

Question 202. In order to find out the different types of gametes produced by a pea plant having genotype AaBb, it should be crossed with a plant with genotype

1. AaBb
2. aabb
3. ААВВ
4. aaBB

Answer. 2. aabb

Question 203. When a certain character is inherited only through the female parent, it probably represents the case of

1. Mendelian nuclear inheritance
2. Multiple plastid inheritance
3. Cytoplasmic inheritance
4. Incomplete dominance

Answer. 3. Cytoplasmic inheritance

Question 204. Which law would have been violated if Mendel had chosen eight characters in garden pea?

1. Law of dominance
2. Law of segregation
3. Principle of independent assortment
4. Law of purity of gametes

Answer. 3. Principle of independent assortment

Question 205. If Mendel would have studied 7 pairs of characters in a plant with 12 chromosomes instead of 14, then

1. He might have not discovered independent assortment
2. He might have not discovered linkage
3. He might have discovered crossing-over
4. He might have not observed dominance

Answer. 1. He might have not discovered independent assortment

Question 206. Plant that does not obey Mendel’s laws is

1. Mirabilis jalapa
2. Pisum sativum
3. Cicer aeritinum
4. Lberis amara

Answer. 1. Mirabilis jalapa

Question 207. In case of incomplete dominance, F2 generation has

1. Genotypic ratio equal to phenotypic ratio
2. Genotypic ratio 3:1
3. Phenotypic ratio 3:1
4. None

Answer. 1. Genotypic ratio equal to phenotypic ratio

Question 208. Genes controlling seven traits in pea studied by Mendel were actually located on

1. Seven chromosomes
2. Six chromosomes
3. Four chromosomes
4. Five chromosomes

Answer. 3. Four chromosomes

Question 209. When dominant and recessive alleles express themselves together, it is called

1. Co-dominance
2. Dominance
3. Amphidominance
4. Pseudo dominance

Answer. 1. Co-Dominance

Question 210. The nucleus of a donor embryonal cell/somatic cell is transferred to an enucleated egg cell. Then after the for- mation of organism, what shall be true?

1. Organism will have extra-nuclear genes of the donor cell.
2. Organism will have extra-nuclear genes of the recipient cell.
3. Organism will have extra-nuclear genes of both donor and recipient cells.
4. Organism will have nuclear genes of recipient cell.

Answer. 2. Organism will have extra-nuclear genes of the recipient cell.

Question 211. Genes for cytoplasmic male sterility in plants are generally located in

1. Chloroplast genome
2. Mitochondrial genome
3. Nuclear genome
4. Cytosol

Answer. 2. Mitochondrial genome

Question 212. Two crosses between the same pair of genotypes or phenotypes in which the source of the gametes is reversed in one cross is known as

1. Test cross
2. Reciprocal cross
3. Dihybrid cross
4. Reverse cross

Answer. 2. Reciprocal cross

Question 213. The genes controlling the seven pea characters studied by Mendel are known to be located on how many different chromosomes?

1. Seven
2. Six
3. Five
4. Four

Answer. 4. Four

Question 214. Extra-nuclear inheritance is a consequence of the presence of genes in

1. Lysosomes and ribosomes
2. Mitochondria and chloroplast
3. Endoplasmic reticulum and mitochondria
4. Ribosomes and chloroplast

Answer. 2. Mitochondria and chloroplast

Question 215. Genes for cytoplasmic male sterility in plants are generally located in

1. Nuclear genome
2. Chloroplast genome
3. Cytosol
4. Mitochondrial genome

Answer. 4. Mitochondrial genome

Question 216. Sickle-cell anemia is

1. Characterized by elongated sickle-like RBCs with a nucleus
2. An autosomal linked dominant trait
3. Caused by substitution of valine by glutamic acid in the beta globin chain of hemoglobin
4. Caused by a change in a single base pair of DNA

Answer. 4. Caused by a change in a single base pair of DNA

Question 217. Study the pedigree chart given.

What does it show?

1. Inheritance of a recessive sex-linked disease like hemophilia.
2. Inheritance of a sex-linked inborn error of metabo- lism like phenylketonuria.
3. Inheritance of a condition like phenylketonuria as an autosomal recessive trait.
4. The pedigree chart is wrong as this is not possible.

Answer. 3. Inheritance of a condition like phenylketonuria as an autosomal recessive trait.

Question 218. The most popularly known blood grouping is the ABO grouping. It is named ABO and not ABC, because “O” in it refers to having

1. No antigens A and B on RBCs
2. Other antigens besides A and B on RBCs
3. Over-dominance of this type on the genes for A and B types
4. One antibody only-either anti-A or anti-B-on the RBCs

Answer. 1. No antigens A and B on RBCs

Question 219. Select the incorrect statement from the following:

1. Baldness is a sex-limited trait.
2. Linkage is an exception to the principle of independent assortment in heredity.
3. Galactosemia is an inborn error of metabolism.
4. Small population size results in random genetic drift in a population.

Answer. 1. Baldness is a sex-limited trait.

Question 220. If selfing occurs in the plant having genotype RrYy, then the ratio of genotypes RRYY, RrYY, RRYY, RrYy will be

1. 1:2:2:4
2. 1:2:2:1
3. 1:1:1:1
4. 2:2:2:1

Answer. 1. 1:2:2:4

Question 221. What ratio is expected in offsprings if father is colorblind and mother’s father was colorblind?

1. 50% daughters are colorblind.
2. All sons are colorblind.
3. All daughters colorblind.
4. All sons are normal.

Answer. 1. 50% daughters are colorblind.

Question 222. Independent assortment of genes does not take place when

1. Genes are located on homologous chromosomes
2. Genes are linked and located on the same chromosome
3. Genes are located on non-homologous chromosomes
4. All the above

Answer. 2. Genes are linked and located on the same chromosome

Question 223. What is true for monoclonal antibodies?

1. These antibodies are obtained from one parent and for one antigen.
2. These are obtained from different parents and for one antigen.
3. These are obtained from one parent and for many antigens.
4. These are obtained from many parents and for many antigens.

Answer. 2. These are obtained from different parents and for one antigen.

Question 224. Ratio of complementary genes is

1. 9:3:4
2. 12:3:1
3. 9:3:3:4
4. 9:7

Answer. 4. 9:7

Question 225. Genes A and B are linked. What shall be the genotype of progeny in a cross bet: AB/ab and ab/ab?

1. AAbb and aabb
2. AaBb and aabb
3. AABB and aabb
4. None

Answer. 2. AaBb and aabb

Question 226. Two non-allelic genes produce new phenotype when present together but fail to do so independently. Then it is called

1. Epistasis
2. Polygene
3. Non-complimentary gene
4. Complimentary gene

Answer. 4. Complimentary gene

Question 227. Male XX and female XY sometimes occur due to

1. Deletion
2. Transfer of segments in X and Y chromosomes
3. Aneuploidy
4. Hormonal imbalance.

Answer. 2. Transfer of segments in X and Y chromosomes

Question 228. Which of the following is the example of pleiotropic gene?

1. Hemophilia
2. Thalassemia
3. Sickle-cell anemia
4. Colorblindness

Answer. 3. Sickle-cell anemia

Question 229. Pattern baldness, moustaches, and beard in human males are examples of

1. Sex-linked traits
2. Sex-limited traits
3. Sex-differentiating traits
4. Sex-determining traits

Answer. 2. Sex-limited traits

Question 230. When a cluster of genes show linkage behavior they

1. Do not show a chromosome map
2. Show recombination during meiosis
3. Do not show independent assortment
4. Induce cell division

Answer. 3. Do not show independent assortment

Question 231. Genetic map is one that

1. Establishes sites of genes on a chromosome
2. Establishes various stages in gene evolution
3. Shows the stage during cell division
4. Shows the distribution of various species in a region

Answer. 1. Establishes sites of genes on a chromosome

Question 232. One of the genes present exclusively on the X-chromo- some in humans is concerned with 

1. Baldness
2. Red green colorblindness
3. Facial hair/moustaches in males
4. Night blindness

Answer. 2. Red green colorblindness

Question 233. The recessive genes located on the X-chromosome in humans are always

1. Expressed in females
2. Lethal
3. Sub-lethal
4. Expressed in males

Answer. 4. Expressed in males

Question 234. Lack of independent assortment of two genes A and B in fruit fly Drosophila is due to

1. Crossing-over
2. Repulsion
3. Recombination
4. Linkage

Answer. 4. Linkage

Question 235. A normal woman whose father was colorblind is married to a normal man. The sons would be

1. All colorblind
2. 75% colorblind
3. 50% colorblind
4. All normal

Answer. 3. 50% colorblind

Question 236. If father shows normal genotype and mother shows a carrier trait for hemophilia,

1. All female children will be carrier
2. A male child has 50% chances of active disease
3. A female child has 50% chances of active disease
4. All female children will be colorblind

Answer. 2. A male child has 50% chances of active disease

Question 237. Which of the following is not a hereditary disease?

1. Hemophilia
2. Cretinism
3. Cystic fibrosis
4. Thalassemia

Answer. 2. Cretinism

Question 238. A woman with normal vision, but whose father was colorblind, marries a colorblind man. Suppose that the fourth child of this couple was a boy. This boy

1. Must have normal color vision
2. May be colorblind or may have normal vision
3. Will be partially colorblind since he is heterozygous for the colorblind mutant allele
4. Must be colorblind

Answer. 2. May be colorblind or may have normal vision

Question 239. Hemophilia is more commonly seen in human males than in human females because

1. This disease is due to a Y-linked recessive mutation
2. This disease is due to an X-linked recessive mutation
3. This disease is due to an X-linked dominant mutation
4. A greater proportion of girls die in infancy

Answer. 2. This disease is due to an X-linked recessive mutation

Question 240. A man and a woman, who do not show any apparent signs of a certain inherited disease, have seven children (2 daughters and 5 sons). Three of the sons suffer from the given disease but none of the daughters are affected. Which of the following mode of inheritance do you sug- gest for this disease?

1. Sex-limited recessive
2. Autosomal dominant
3. Sex-linked recessive
4. Sex-linked dominant

Answer. 3. Sex-linked recessive

Question 241. Grain color in wheat is determined by three pairs of polygenes. Following cross AABBCC (dark color) * aabbcc (light color), in F2 generation, what proportion of the progeny is likely to resemble either parent?

1. None
2. Less than 5%
3. One-third
4. Half

Answer. 2. Less than 5%

Question 242. The genotype of a plant showing dominant phenotype can be determined by

1. Test cross
2. Dihybrid cross
3. Pedigree analysis
4. Back cross

Answer. 1. Test cross

Question 243. ABO blood groups in humans are controlled by gene I. It has three alleles-IA, IB, and i. Since there are three different alleles, six different genotypes are possible. How many phenotypes can occur?

1. Three
2. One
3. Four
4. Two

Answer. 3. Four

Question 244. Select the correct statement from the ones given with respect to dihybrid cross?

1. Tightly linked genes on the same chromosome show higher recombinations.
2. Genes far apart on the same chromosome show very few recombinations.
3. Genes loosely linked on the same chromosome show similar recombinations as the tightly linked ones.
4. Tightly linked genes on the same chromosome show very few recombinations.

Answer. 4. Tightly linked genes on the same chromosome show very few recombinations.

Question 245. Hexaploid wheat developed through

1. Hybridomas
2. Chromosome doubling
3. Hybridization
4. Hybridization and chromosome doubling

Answer. 4. Hybridization and chromosome doubling

Question 246. Breeding is possible between two members of

1. Genus
2. Family
3. Order
4. Species

Answer. 4. Species

Question 247. In which one of the following combinations, (1)-(4), of the number of chromosomes is the present day hexaploid wheat correctly represented?

Answer. 4. Trisomic 41 21 40 43

Question 248. In a mutational event, when adenine is replaced by guanine, it is a case of

1. Frameshift mutation
2. Transcription
3. Transition
4. Transversion

Answer. 4. Transversion

Question 249. A normal-visioned man whose father was colorblind marries a woman whose father was also colorblind. They have their first child as a daughter. What are the chances that this child would be colorblind?

1. Zero percent
2. 25%
3. 50%
4. 100%

Answer. 1. Zero percent

Question 250. F2 generation in a Mendelian cross showed that both genotypic and phenotypic ratios are same as 1:21. It represents a case of

1. Dihybrid cross
2. Monohybrid cross with complete dominance
3. Monohybrid cross with incomplete dominance
4. Co-dominance

Answer. 3. Monohybrid cross with incomplete dominance 4. Co-dominance

Question 251. A certain road accident patient with unknown blood group needs immediate blood transfusion. His one doctor friend at once offers his blood. What was the blood group of the donor?

1. Blood group AB
2. Blood group O
3. Blood group A
4. Blood group B

Answer. 2. Blood group O

NEET Biology For Reproductive Health Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. Which of the following cannot be considered as an ad- vantage of amniocentesis?

1. Prenatal diagnostics
2. Detection of biochemical abnormalities
3. Detection of congenital defects
4. Determination of sex to abort female fetus

Answer. 4. Determination of sex to abort female fetus

Question 2. Population growth rate depends upon

1. Birth rate
2. Death rate
3. Age-sex ratio
4. All of these

Answer. 4. All of these

Question 3. Replacement level is the number of children a couple must produce to replace themselves so as to maintain population at zero growth level. The value of replacement level for developed countries is

1. 2.7
2. 2.1
3. 1.9
4. 1.2

Answer. 2. 2.1

Question 4. Which of the following defines the stage of demographic transition?

1. Birth rate is higher than death rate.
2. Death rate is higher than birth rate.
3. Birth rate and death rate are equal.
4. Both (1) and (2).

Answer. 3. Birth rate and death rate are equal.

mcq reproductive health

Question 5. The average number of children that would be borne by a female during her lifetime is called

1. Natality
2. Birth rate
3. Population growth rate
4. Total fertility rate

Answer. 4. Total fertility rate

Question 6. Which of the following can be included under natural methods of birth control?

1. Rhythm method
2. Coitus interruptus
3. Lactational amenorrhoea
4. All of these

Answer. 4. All of these

Question 7. Which of the following contraceptive devices also protect against sexually transmitted diseases?

1. Fem shield
2. Sponge
3. IUDs
4. LNG-20

Answer. 1. Fem shield

Question 8. Which of the following chemicals can be used under chemical methods for contraception?

1. Lactic acid
2. Boric acid
3. Citric acid
4. All of these

Answer. 4. All of these

Question 9. Which of the following is/are hormone-releasing IUDs?

1. Progestasert
2. Levonorgestrel
3. Both (1) and (2)
4. Lippe’s loop

Answer. 3. Both (1) and (2)

Question 10. Which of the following can be included under emergency contraception?

1. An antiprogesterone pill
2. Insertion of IUD within 72 h of unprotected sexual contact
3. Both (1) and (2)
4. Vasectomy

Answer. 3. Both (1) and (2)

Question 11. “Norplant” is the new form of birth control and it

1. Allows ovulation but does not allow fertilization
2. Makes the cervical mucus thin making sperm entry into the uterus difficult
3. Has progestin as the active ingredient
4. Is effective for a maximum of 1 year

Answer. 3. Has progestin as the active ingredient

Question 12. Which of the following is not included under barrier methods of birth control?

1. Vaginal pouch
2. Diaphragm
3. Cervical cap
4. Implant

Answer. 4. Implant

Question 13. Sexually transmitted diseases can get transmitted easily during the use of

1. Diaphragm
2. Cervical cap
3. Birth control pills
4. All of these

Answer. 4. All of these

Question 14. The diaphragm is rubber-dome-shaped structure that stops the sperms from entering into

1. Vestibule
2. Vagina
3. Cervix
4. Both (1) and (2)

Answer. 3. Cervix

Question 15. Among the following methods, which one has the highest failure rate?

1. Diaphragm with spermicide
2. Condom
3. Intra-uterine device
4. Rhythm method

Answer. 4. Rhythm method

Question 16. In case of a person suffering from syphilis, chancre formation occurs during

1. Primary stage
2. Secondary stage
3. Tertiary stage
4. Neurosyphilis stage

Answer. 1. Primary stage

Question 17. The “symptomless” period or latent period in case of syphilis may last for

1. 1-5 weeks
2. 6-24 weeks
3. 4-12 weeks
4. 20 years

Answer. 4. 20 years

Question 18. Which of the following STD and its causative agent is not correctly matched?

1. Genital warts: Haemophilus ducrei
2. Syphilis: Treponema pallidum
3. Genital herpes: Type 2 Herpes simplex virus (HSV-2)
4. Trichomoniasis: Trichomonas vaginalis

Answer. 1. Genital warts: Haemophilus ducrei

Question 19. India was amongst the first countries in the world to initiate action plans and programs at a national level to attain reproductive health. These programs called “family planning” were initiated in _____ in India.

1. 1951
2. 1976
3. 1901
4. 1987

Answer. 1. 1951

Question 20. All the following are uses of amniocentesis, but one is a misuse. Which one is it?

1. The centers for genetic counseling offer amniocentesis on request to women for chromosome analysis.
2. This technique has been developed for detecting fetal abnormalities by analyzing chromosomal defects.
3. It is used to study the metabolic defects of fetus, e.g., PKU (phenyl ketonuria).
4. It is done to examine the sex of the fetus leading to increasing female feticides.

Answer. 4. It is done to examine the sex of the fetus leading to increasing female feticides.

Question 21. Which of the following is world’s first non-hormonal oral contraceptive pill for females, developed by scientists at Central Drug Research Institute (CDRI) in Lucknow, India?

1. Mala-D
2. Saheli
3. MORNING
4. Pop

Answer. 2. Saheli

Question 22. Which of the following is hormone-releasing IUD?

1. Cu-T
2. LNG-20
3. Multiload 375
4. Implant

Answer. 2. LNG-20

Question 23. Contraceptive pills are very effective with lesser sideeffects and are well accepted by the females. They work by

1. Inhibiting ovulation
2. Inhibiting implantation
3. Altering the quality of cervical mucus to prevent/ retard the entry of sperms
4. All of these

Answer. 4. All of these

Question 24. Which of the following is a once-a-week pill with very few side-effects and high contraceptive value?

1. Mala-D
2. Saheli
3. Depo-Provera
4. Norplant

Answer. 2. Saheli

Question 25. A sterilization technique in females which blocks gamete transport and thereby prevents conception is

1. Vasectomy
2. Copper-T
3. Condom
4. Tubectomy

Answer. 4. Tubectomy

Question 26. Surrogate mother is

1. Mother without lactation
2. Future mother with embryo implanted from another
3. Carrying several embryos
4. Artificially inseminated female

Answer. 2. Future mother with embryo implanted from another

Question 27. The latest technique to produce a child is “GIFT.” The full form is

1. Gametic internal fertilization and transfer
2. Gametic intra-fallopian transfer
3. Gametic inter-fallopian transfer
4. General internal fallopian transfer

Answer. 2. Gametic intra-fallopian transfer

Question 28. Test-tube baby is the one

1. Who is reared on artificial medium outside the womb
2. In which growth of human baby takes place inside the fallopian tube instead of uterus
3. In which the ova from wife/donor (female) and sperms from husband/donor (male) are induced to form zygote by IVF and then implanted in female
4. In which baby is born after artificial insemination

Answer. 3. In which the ova from wife/donor (female) and sperms from husband/donor (male) are induced to form zygote by IVF and then implanted in female

Question 29. Which of the following is the most appropriate statement of infertility?

1. Couple is unable to produce children in spite of unprotected sexual cohabitation.
2. Infertility is defined as the inability to produce a viable offspring and is always due to defects/abnormalities in the female partner.
3. Infertility is due to immature sex organs.
4. Infertility cannot be helped by ART.

Answer. 1. Couple is unable to produce children in spite of unprotected sexual cohabitation.

Question 30. Which of the following STDs cannot be treated with antibiotics?

A. Gonorrhoea

B. Syphilis

C. Chlamydia

D. Genital herpes

1. (D) only
2. (B) and (D)
3. (C) and (D)
4. (C) only

Answer. 1. (D) only

” questions about reproductive health”

Question 31. At which stage of the ovarian cycle are mammalian eggs most likely to become fertilized?

1. At the beginning of proliferative phase.
2. Immediately after ovulation.
3. During the middle of the secretory phase.
4. During the menstrual phase.

Answer. 2. Immediately after ovulation.

Question 32. World Population Day is

1. 11th July
2. 21st September
3. 7th April
4. 1st July

Answer. 1. 11th July

Question 33. MTPs are considered relatively safe up to of pregnancy.

1. 12 weeks
2. 20 weeks
3. 25 weeks
4. 18 weeks

Answer. 1. 12 weeks

Question 34. Most of the sexually transmitted diseases are completely curable if detected early and treated properly, except

1. Hepatitis-B
2. Genital herpes
3. HIV infections
4. All of these

Answer. 4. All of these

Question 35. Which of the following causative agents of STDs can cross the placenta?

1. Hepatitis-B
2. HIV
3. Syphilis
4. All of these

Answer. 4. All of these

Question 36. Which of the following methods of birth control can cause excessive menstrual bleeding and pain?

1. Condom
2. Cervical cap
3. Oral contraceptive
4. Intra-uterine device

Answer. 4. Intra-uterine device

Question 37. Which of the following is one of the safest method of birth control?

1. The rhythm method
2. Sterilization techniques
3. Use of physical barriers
4. Termination of unwanted pregnancy

Answer. 2. Sterilization techniques

Question 38. Tubectomy is to prevent

1. Coitus
2. Fertilization
3. Egg formation
4. Embryonic development

Answer. 2. Fertilization

Question 39. Preventive birth control measure is

1. MTP
2. Test-tube babies
3. Preventing union of sperm and ovum
4. Preventing sperms from entering uterus

Answer. 3. Preventing union of sperm and ovum

Question 40. Which of the following method of birth control is effective, easy to use, and less-expensive?

1. IUD
2. Condom
3. Implant
4. Diaphragm

Answer. 2. Condom

Question 41. Which of the following method of contraception is effective only up to a maximum period of 6 months following parturition?

1. Cortus interruptus
2. Lactational amenorrhea
3. Periodic abstinance
4. Condoms

Answer. 2. Lactational amenorrhea

Question 42. Which of the following are included in barrier method?

1. Condoms
2. Diaphrams
3. Cervical caps and vault
4. All of these

Answer. 4. All of these

Question 43. In oogenesis, haploid egg is fertilized by sperm at which stage?

1. Ovum
2. Oogonium
3. Primary oocyte
4. Secondary oocyte

Answer. 4. Secondary oocyte

Question 44. The first polar body is formed at which stage of oogenesis?

1. 1st meiosis
2. 2nd mitosis
3. 1st mitosis
4. Differentiation

Answer. 1. 1st meiosis

Question 45. Vitallogenesis occurs during the formation of

1. Ootid in the fallopian tube
2. Oogonial cell in the Graafian follicle
3. Secondary oocyte in the fallopian tube
4. Primary oocyte in the Graafian follicle

Answer. 4. Primary oocyte in the Graafian follicle

Question 46. Fetal ejection reflex in human females is induced by

1. Release of oxytocin from pituitary
2. Fully developed fetus and placenta
3. Differentiation of mammary glands
4. Pressure exerted by amniotic fluid

Answer. 2. Fully developed fetus and placenta

Question 47. Which of the following statements is correct?

1. Hormone releasing IUD make uterus unsuitable for implantation.
2. IUDs are ideal contraceptives for females who want to delay pregnancy.
3. IUD is the most widely accepted method of contraception in India.
4. All the above.

Answer. 4. All the above.

Question 48. Which of the following can be used as an emergency contraceptive to avoid possible pregnancy?

1. Progestogens
2. IUD, within 72 h
3. Diaphrams
4. (1) and (2)

Answer. 4. (1) and (2)

Question 49. Which of the following statements is correct?

1. MTP has a significant role in decreasing the population.
2. Government of India legalized MTP in 1977 with some strict conditions.
3. MTP is relatively safe during the first trimester.
4. All the above.

Answer. 4. All the above.

Question 50. Infertility cases due to the inability of male partner to inseminate the female are corrected by

1. ZIFT
2. GIFT
3. Artificial insemination
4. ICSI

Answer. 3. Artificial insemination

Question 51. In vitro fertilization is a technique that involves the transfer of which one of the following into the fallopian tube?

1. Either zygote or early embryo up to 8 cell stage
2. Embryo only, up to 8 cell stage
3. Embryo of 32 cell stage
4. Zygote only

Answer. 1. Either zygote or early embryo up to 8 cell stage

Question 52. Which of the following statement is not true with respect to tubectomy or tubal ligation?

1. It is more difficult than vasectomy and is even more difficult to reverse.
2. No ovulation occurs; hence, no fertilization is possible.
3. It involves ligation of both fallopian tubes.
4. The failure rate of this approach is almost zero percent.

Answer. 2. No ovulation occurs; hence, no fertilization is possible.

Question 53. Which of the following hormone/s is/are maintained at high level during hormonal method of birth control?

1. FSH
2. LH
3. Progesterone
4. Both (1) and (2)

Answer. 3. Progesterone

Question 54. Injectable form of hormone-based contraceptive is

1. Norplant
2. Depo-Provera
3. Mala-D
4. Saheli

Answer. 2. Depo-Provera

Question 55. In the rhythm method of birth control, the couple refrains from intercourse

1. One day before and after ovulation
2. Two days before and after ovulation
3. Three days before and after ovulation
4. One week before and after ovulation

Answer. 3. Three days before and after ovulation

Question 56. Which of the following method is used during abortion?

1. Vacuum aspiration
2. Infusion of a saline solution
3. Scraping
4. All of these

Answer. 4. All of these

Question 57. The action of which of the following hormone is blocked during the use of RU 486 (mifepristone)?

1. FSH
2. LH
3. Progesterone
4. hCG

Answer. 3. Progesterone

Question 58. Which of the following STD is not caused by a bacterium?

1. Chlamydia
2. Gonorrhea
3. Syphilis
4. Genital herpes

Answer. 4. Genital herpes

Question 59. Which of the following cannot be taken as the symptom of a female suffering from gonorrhea?

1. Inflammation of urethra with painful urination
2. Discharge of pus from vagina
3. Inflammation of uterine tubes
4. Peritonitis or inflammation of the peritoneum

Answer. 1. Inflammation of urethra with painful urination

Question 60. Which of the following stage of syphilis is characterized by skin rash, fever, and aches in joints and muscles?

1. Primary stage
2. Secondary stage
3. Tertiary stage
4. Neurosyphilis stage

Answer. 2. Secondary stage

Question 61. The use of which of the following contraceptive device has increased in recent years due to its additional benefit of protecting the user from contracting STDs and AIDS?

1. Coitus interruptus
2. IUDs (intra-uterine-devices)
3. Condoms
4. Vasectomy

Answer. 3. Condoms

Question 62. Which of the following have been found to be very effective as emergency contraceptives as they can be used to avoid possible pregnancy due to rape if given within 72 h?

A. Administration of progestogens

B. Progestogen-estrogen combination

C. IUDs

D. Condoms

1. (D) only
2. (A) and (B)
3. (A), (B), and (C)
4. (A), (B), (C), and (D)