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Cell Cycle And Cell Division Multiple Choice Question and Answers

Question 1. The cell cycle of a somatic cell usually consists of all the following except

1. The first part of the interphase is called as G₁ phase. During this phase, there is a maximum increase in cell size and there is active synthesis of RNA and proteins.
2. In the synthetic phase (S-phase), the DNA molecule of each chromosome replicates by the synthesis of a new DNA molecule.
3. During G₂-phase, a cell contains double the amount (4n) of DNA present in the original diploid cell (2n).
4. The cell cycle consists of a short interphase and a long M-phase.

Answer: 4. The cell cycle consists of a short interphase and a long M-phase.

Question 2. Which of the following is the most important point in the regulation of the cell cycle during which it must decide whether the cell will start a new cycle or will become arrested in G₀ phase?

1. S-phase
2. G₁ -phase
3. G₂ -phase
4. Interphase

Answer: 2. G₁ -phase

Question 3. Histone protein synthesis occurs during

1. G₁-phase
2. G₂-phase
3. S-phase
4. Prophase

Answer: 3. S-phase

Question 4. The sequence of cell cycle is

1. S, M, G₁ and G₂
2. G₁, G₂, S, and M
3. M, G₁, G₂, and S
4. G₁, S, G₂, and M

Answer: 4. G₁, S, G₂, and M

Question 5. During the cell cycle, DNA replicates

1. Once
2. Twice
3. Many times
4. Not at all

Answer: 1. Once

Question 6. The synthesis of spindle proteins called as tubulin occurs during

1. G₁-phase
2. S-phase
3. G₂-phase
4. M-phase

Answer: 3. G₂-phase

Question 7. If a mitotic division is restricted in the G-phase of the cell, the condition is known as

1. G₂-phase
2. S-phase
3. G₀-phase
4. M-phase

Answer: 3. G₀-phase

Question 8. The condensation of chromosomes with visible centromere occurs during

1. G₁-phase
2. S-phase
3. G₂-phase
4. M-phase

Answer: 4. M-phase

Question 9. The stage of cell cycle when cell has undergone differentiation is

1. G₀
2. G₁
3. G₂
4. S

Answer: 1. G₀

Question 10. The phase of cell cycle when DNA polymerase is active is

1. G₁
2. S
3. G₂
4. M

Answer: 2. S

Question 11. The G₀-phase of cell denotes

1. Exit of cell from cell cycle
2. Checkpoint before entering the next phase
3. Death of cell
4. Temporary pause

Answer: 1. Exit of cell from cell cycle

Question 12. During the cell cycle, two molecules of DNA are present in chromosomes during

1. G₁ -phase
2. Beginning of S-phase
3. G₂-phase
4. End of M-phase

Answer: 3. G₂-phase

Question 13. Antephase is the phase in which ATP is synthesized during cell division. It refers to

1. G₀-phase
2. G₁-phase
3. S-phase
4. G₂-phase

Answer: 2. G₁-phase

Question 14. Which of the following materials you will select to study mitosis?

1. Anthers
2. Onion root tips
3. Flower bud
4. Pollen

Answer: 2. Onion root tips

Question 15. Mitosis in animal cell is

1. Anastral
2. Amphiastral
3. Premitosis, acentric
4. Eumitosis acentric

Answer: 2. Amphiastral

Question 16. Mitosis is found in

1. Lower animals
2. Higher animals
3. All plants
4. All living organisms

Answer: 4. All living organisms

Question 17. Which of the following is the proper sequence in mitosis?

1. Metaphase, telophase, prophase, and anaphase
2. Prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase
3. Anaphase, metaphase, telophase, and prophase
4. Telophase, anaphase, metaphase, and prophase

Answer: 2. Prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase

Question 18. The chromosome morphology is best studied during

1. Prophase
2. Metaphase, as the chromosomes are most condensed
3. Anaphase, as the chromosomes are most condensed
4. Telophase

Answer: 2. Metaphase, as the chromosomes are most condensed

Question 19. The two daughter cells formed during mitosis contain

1. The same amount of DNA but a set of chromosomes different from those of parental cells.
2. The same amount of DNA and the same set of chromosomes as those of the parent cell.
3. Half the amount of DNA and the same set of chromosomes as those of the parent cell.
4. Double the amount of DNA and a set of chromosomes different from those of the parent cell.

Answer: 2. The same amount of DNA and the same set of chromosomes as those of the parent cell.

Question 20. Colchicine is a mitotic poison because it

1. Causes splitting up of chromosomes
2. Inhibits the formation of mitotic spindle
3. Stops the replication of chromosomes
4. Agglutinates the chromosomes

Answer: 2. Inhibits the formation of mitotic spindle

Question 21. Higher plants differ from animals in having

1. Spindle microtubule
2. Anastral mitosis
3. Kinetochores
4. Disappearance of nucleolus during prophase

Answer: 2. Anastral mitosis

Question 22. During which phase the centromere splits and chroma¬tids move toward the opposite poles by the shortening of spindle fibers attached to centromeres?

1. Prophase
2. Metaphase
3. Anaphase
4. Telophase

Answer: 3. Anaphase

Question 23. The region of the attachment of chromosomes to spindle fibers is called

1. Centromere
2. Centriole
3. Chromonemata
4. Centrosome

Answer: 1. Centromere

Question 24. Which of the following phases are the longest and shortest in mitosis?

1. Metaphase, anaphase
2. Prophase, anaphase
3. Telophase, anaphase
4. Prophase, telophase

Answer: 2. Prophase, anaphase

Question 25. The nuclear envelope disappears at

1. Metaphase
2. Anaphase
3. Early prophase
4. Late prophase

Answer: 4. Late prophase

Question 26. When nuclear division takes place without cytoplasmic division, it results in the formation of

1. Polyteny
2. Syncytium
3. Polyploidy
4. Amitosis

Answer: 2. Syncytium

Question 27. The cell would normally proceed to mitosis without interruption

1. When it has entered S-phase
2. Once it has entered G₂ phase
3. At any time during coil activity
4. Irrespective of any phase

Answer: 1. When it has entered S phase

Question 28. The term “meiosis” was coined by

1. Flemming
2. Farmer and Moore
3. Strasburger
4. Hofmeister

Answer: 2. Farmer and Moore

Question 29. Meiosis is significant because it results in

1. Recombinations
2. Eggs and sperms
3. Four daughter cells
4. Genetically similar daughter cells

Answer: 1. Recombinations

Question 30. All are the essential stages that take place during meiosis, except

1. Two successive divisions without any DNA replication occurring between them
2. Formation of chiasmata and crossing over
3. Segregation of homologous chromosomes
4. Number of chromosomes in daughter cells after meiosis 2 is reduced to half, but the amount of DNA remains the same

Answer: 4. Segregation of homologous chromosomes

Question 31. Stages in the proper sequence of prophase-1 are

1. Zygotene, leptotene, pachytene, diakinesis, and diplotene
2. Leptotene, zygotene, pachytene, diplotene, and diakinesis
3. Leptotene, zygotene, pachytene, diakinesis, and diplotene
4. Leptotene, pachytene, zygotene, diakinesis, and diplotene

Answer: 2. Leptotene, zygotene, pachytene, diplotene, and diakinesis

Question 32. The intimate pairing between the two members of each homologous chromosome pair is initiated by the process called as synapsis, leading to bivalent formation, which occurs in

1. Zygotene
2. Pachytene
3. Diplotene
4. Diakinesis

Answer: 1. Zygotene

Question 33. Mitosis differs from meiosis in not having

1. Duplication of DNA
2. Long prophase
3. Interphase
4. Synapsis and crossing over

Answer: 4. Synapsis and crossing over

Question 34. Recombination nodules which mediate for chromosome recombination occur during

1. Zygotene
2. Diplotene
3. Diakinesis
4. Pachytene

Answer: 4. Pachytene

Question 35. Crossing over occurs during

1. Pachytene
2. Diplotene
3. Diakinesis
4. Zygotene

Answer: 1. Pachytene

Question 36. In oocytes, which of the following phase can last for months or years, since it is at this stage the chromosomes decondense and engage in RNA synthesis?

1. Diakinesis
2. Diptotene
3. Pachytene
4. Leptolene

Answer: 2. Diptotene

Question 37. In nuclear membrane, nucleoli are distinctly seen in

1. Prophase
2. Metaphase
3. Anaphase
4. Interphase

Answer: 4. Interphase

Question 38. In the meiotic cell division, 56 daughter cells are produced by two successive divisions in which

1. The first division is equational, second is educational
2. The first division is reductional, and the second is equational
3. Both divisions are reductional
4. Both divisions are equational

Answer: 2. First division is reductional, and second is equational

Question 39. The number of chromosomes in the primary oocyte is

1. Same as that of the secondary oocyte
2. Half as that of the secondary oocyte
3. Double as that of the secondary oocyte
4. Same as that of the ovum

Answer: 3. Double as that of secondary oocyte

Question 40. Personalization is related to

1. Diakinesis
2. Meiosis
3. Mitosis
4. Diplotene

Answer: 1. Diakinesis

Question 41. Meiosis involves

1. One nuclear division and one chromosome division
2. Two nuclear divisions and one chromosome division
3. One nuclear division and two chromosome divisions
4. Two nuclear divisions and two chromosome divisions

Answer: 2. Two nuclear divisions and one chromosome division

Question 42. In meiosis, the daughter cells differ from the parent cell as well as amongst themselves due to

1. Segregation and crossing over
2. Independent assortment and crossing over
3. Independent assortment, segregation, and crossing over
4. Segregation and independent assortment

Answer: 2. Independent assortment and crossing over

Question 43. The movement of homologous chromosomes toward the opposite poles occur by the contraction of spindle fibers during

1. Anaphase
2. Anaphase-1
3. Anaphase-2
4. Metaphase

Answer: 2. Anaphase-1

Question 44. In plant cells, cytokinesis occurs by

1. Cell plate formation
2. Invagination
3. Cleavage
4. Furrowing

Answer: 1. Cell plate formation

Question 45. If the egg of an organism has 10 Pg of DNA in its nucleus, how much DNA would a diploid cell of same organism have in G₂-phase of meiosis?

1. 10 Pg
2. 5 Pg
3. 20 Pg
4. 40 Pg

Answer: 4. 40 Pg

Question 46. The minimum number of meiotic divisions required to produce 100 seeds in Cyperus are

1. 400
2. 125
3. 200
4. 25

Answer: 3. 200

Question 47. Amitosis includes

1. Division involving forming of chromosome bridges
2. Division involving spindle formation
3. Division in which the chromosomes arc unequally distributed
4. Cleavage of the nucleus without recognizable chromosome distribution

Answer: 4. Cleavage of the nucleus without recognizable chromosome distribution

Question 48. The nuclear membrane is formed around the groups of daughter chromosomes during telophase by

1. Endoplasmic reticulum
2. Golgi apparatus
3. Lysosomes
4. Microbodies

Answer: 1. Endoplasmic reticulum

Question 49. How many generations are required by a cell of meristem to produce 256 cells?

1. 255
2. 64
3. 128
4. 8

Answer: 4. 8

Question 50. To produce 102 pollen grains, how many meiotic divisions are required?

1. 25
2. 25.5
3. 26
4. 27

Answer: 1. 26

Question 51. Best material for the study of mitosis in the laboratory

1. Anther
2. Root tip
3. Leaf tip
4. Ovary

Answer: 2. Root tip

Question 52. Mitosis occurs in

1. Haploid individuals
2. Diploid individuals
3. Both 1 and 2
4. In bacteria only

Answer: 3. Both 1 and 2

Question 53. The number of DNA in chromosomes at G₂ state of cell cycle is

1. One
2. Two
3. Four
4. Eight

Answer: 2. Two

Question 54. Which is correct for meiotic metaphase-1?

1. Bivalents are arranged at the equator.
2. Univalents are arranged at the equator.
3. Non-homologous chromosomes form pairs.
4. Spindle fibers are attached at the chromomere.

Answer: 1. Bivalents are arranged at the equator.

Question 55. In which stage of meiosis, does the chromosome number reduce to half?

1. Anaphase-1
2. Anaphase-2
3. Telophase-1
4. Telophase-2

Answer: 1. Anaphase-1

Question 56. Chiasmata are formed as a result of

1. Exchange of parts of paired homologous chromosomes
2. Exchange to part of unpaired non-homologous chromosomes
3. Duplication of parts of paired homologous chromosomes
4. Loss of parts of unpaired non-homologous chromosomes

Answer: 3. Duplication of parts of paired homologous chromosomes

Question 57. If n = 16 in a plant cell, then how many bivalents in metaphase 1 of meiosis are possible?

1. 32 bivalents
2. 16 tetravalent
3. 16 bivalents
4. 32 bivalents

Answer: 3. 16 bivalents

Question 58. G₂ phase comes between

1. Satellite
2. Chromonema
3. S and D phase
4. G, and M phase

Answer: 4. G, and M phase

Question 59. Crossing over takes place between

1. Two sister chromatids
2. Two non-sister chromatids
3. Three homologous chromosomes
4. Four non-homologous chromosomes

Answer: 1. Two sister chromatids

Question 60. The significance of meiosis lies in

1. Maintaining constancy in the number of chromosomes in an organism
2. Production of genetic variability in the population of species
3. Reduction of diploid number of chromosomes to haploid
4. All of the above

Answer: 2. Production of genetic variability in the population of species

Question 61. Pairing of homologous chromosomes takes place in

1. Pachytene
2. Zygotene
3. Diplotene
4. None of these

Answer: 4. None of these

Question 62. How many meiotic divisions will be necessary to produce 200 pollen grains?

1. 100
2. 99
3. 50
4. 200

Answer: 2. 99

Question 63. What is the character of mitosis?

1. Leptotene
2. Zygotene
3. Pachytene
4. None of the above

Answer: 3. Pachytene

Question 64. Repulsion of homologous chromosomes takes place in

1. Zygotene
2. Leptotene
3. Diakinesis
4. Pachytene

Answer: 4. Pachytene

Question 65. Synthesis of DNA takes place in

1. G₁
2. G₂
3. S
4. None of these

Answer: 3. S

Question 66. Four daughter cells formed after meiosis are

1. Genetically similar
2. Genetically different
3. Anucleate
4. Multinucleate

Answer: 3. Anucleate

Question 67. During meiosis, the division of the centromere takes place in

1. First prophase
2. First anaphase
3. Second metaphase
4. Second anaphase

Answer: 2. First anaphase

Question 68. Bulk of histone proteins are synthesized in

1. G₁ phase
2. G₂ phase
3. S phase
4. G₀ phase

Answer: 4. G₀ phase

Question 69. The longest phase of meiosis (I) is

1. Metaphsel-1
2. Prophase-1
3. Anaphase-1
4. Telophase-1

Answer: 3. Anaphase-1

Question 70. Colchicine prevents the mitosis of cells at

1. Prophase stage
2. Anaphase stage
3. Telophase stage
4. Metaphase stage

Answer: 2. Anaphase stage

Question 71. The number of DNA in chromosomes at G₂ stage is

1. One
2. Two
3. Four
4. Eight

Answer: 4. Eight

Question 72. Synapsis occurs in the _______ phase of meiosis.

1. Zygotene
2. Diplotene
3. Pachytene
4. Leptotene

Answer: 2. Diplotene

Question 73. The significance of meiosis lies in

1. Reduction of chromosome number to one-half
2. Maintaining constancy of chromosome number during sexual reproduction
3. Production of genetic variability
4. All of the above

Answer: 1. Reduction of chromosome number to one half

Question 74. Chromosomes can be seen best during

1. Prophase
2. Metaphase
3. Anaphase
4. Telophase

Answer: 4. Telophase

Question 75. What will be the gametic chromosome number of a cell, if a somatic cell have 40 chromosomes?

1. 10
2. 20
3. 30
4. 40

Answer: 2. 20

Question 76. In which of the following stages, chromosomes are arranged at the equatorial plate?

1. Anaphase
2. Metaphase
3. Prophase
4. Telophase

Answer: 2. Metaphase

Question 77. During mitosis, the number of chromosomes gets

1. Changed
2. No change
3. May be changed if cell is mature
4. May be changed if cell is immature

Answer: 2. No change

Question 78. In meiosis, chromosome number becomes

1. Half of its parent chromosome
2. Same as that of the parent chromosome
3. One-fourth of its parent chromosome
4. None of the above

Answer: 2. Same as that of parent chromosome

Question 79. Which one of the following precedes the reformation of the nuclear envelope during the M phase of the cell cycle?

1. Transcription from chromosomes and reassembly of the nuclear lamina
2. Formation of the contractile ring and formation of the phragmoplast
3. Formation of the contractile ring and transcription from chromosome
4. Decondensation from chromosomes and reassembly of the nuclear lamina

Answer: 1. Transcription from chromosomes and reassembly of the nuclear lamina

Question 80. Crossing over that results in genetic recombination in higher organisms occurs between

1. Non-sister chromatids of a bivalent
2. Two daughter nuclei
3. Two different bivalents
4. Sister chromatids of a bivalent

Answer: 2. Two daughter nuclei

Question 81. In the somatic cell cycle

1. DNA replication takes place in S-phase
2. A short interphase is followed by a long mitotic phase
3. G₂ phase follows the mitotic phase
4. In G₁ phase, DNA content is double the amount of DNA present in the original cell

Answer: 1. DNA replication takes place in S-phase

Question 82. When synapsis is complete all along the chromosome, the cell is said to have entered a stage called

1. Zygotene
2. Pachytene
3. Diplotene
4. Diakinesis

Answer: 1. Zygotene

Question 83. Many cells function properly and divide mitotically though they do not have

1. Plasma membrane
2. Cytoskeleton
3. Mitochondria
4. Plastids

Answer: 2. Cytoskeleton

Question 84. At what stage of the cell cycle are histone proteins synthesized in a eukaryotic cell?

1. During telophase
2. During S phase
3. During G₂ stage of prophase
4. During entire prophase

Answer: 4. During the entire prophase

Question 85. Synapsis occurs between

1. Two homologous chromosomes
2. A male and a female gamete
3. mRNA and ribosomes
4. Spindle fibers and centromere

Answer: 2. A male and a female gamete

Question 86. Shows a schematic breakup of the phases/stages of the cell cycle.

Answer: 3

Question 87. Which one of the following is the correct indication of the state/phase in the cell cycle?

1. 1—Cytokinesis
2. 2—Metaphse
3. 3—Karyokinesis
4. 4—Synthetic phase

Answer: 4. 4—Synthetic phase

Question 88. During mitosis, ER and nucleolus begin to disappear at

1. Late prophase
2. Early metaphase
3. Late metaphase
4. Early prophase

Answer: 1. Late prophase

Question 89. Which stages of cell division represent, respectively?

1. Metaphase—Telophase
2. Telophase—Metaphase
3. Late anaphase—Prophase
4. Prophase—Anaphase

Answer: 3. Late anaphase—Prophase

Question 90. During gamete formation, the enzyme recombinase participates during

1. Anaphase-2
2. Prophase-1
3. Prophase-3
4. Metaphase-1

Answer: 4. Metaphase-1

Biomolecules Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. Both in cells and extracellular fluids, dibasic phosphate (HPO^2-₄) and monobasic phosphate (H₂PO^–₄) act as acid-base buffers to maintain

1. K⁺ concentration of extracellular fluid
2. Na⁺ concentration of extracellular fluid
3. Na⁺ concentration of cellular fluid
4. H⁺ concentration of cellular fluid

Answer: 4. H⁺ concentration of cellular fluid

Question 2. All the following statements are correct except

1. Mitochondria are rich in manganese.
2. Molybdenum is necessary for the fixation of nitrogen catalyzed by the enzyme nitrogenase.
3. Magnesium is essential for a large number of enzymes, particularly those utilizing ATP.
4. Calcium and magnesium have no effect on the excitability of nerves and muscles.

Answer: 4. Calcium and magnesium have no effect on the excitability of nerves and muscles.

Question 3. The most abundant element in cell living matter is

1. C
2. H
3. O
4. N

Answer: 3. O

Question 4. Which element is/are found in cytochromes?

1. Fe⁺⁺ and Cu⁺⁺
2. Fe⁺⁺⁺ and Mg⁺⁺
3. Mg⁺⁺
4. Cu⁺⁺

Answer: 1. Fe⁺⁺ and Cu⁺⁺

Question 5. The concentration of Na, K, Ca in a cell in decreasing order is

1. K-Na-Ca
2. K-Ca-Na
3. Na-K-Ca
4. Ca-K-Na

Answer: 1. K-Na-Ca

Question 6. All the macromolecules are the result of the process of polymerization, a process in which repeating subunits termed monomers are bound into chains of different lengths except

1. Nucleic acids
2. Carbohydrates
3. Lipids
4. Proteins

Answer: 3. Lipids

Question 7. Raffinose has three monosaccharide units. Those are

1. Glucose, pentose, and maltose
2. Glucose, levulose, and galactose
3. Glucose, fructose, and sucrose
4. Fructose, fructose, and galactose

Answer: 2. Glucose, levulose, and galactose

Question 8. A monosaccharide is a simple polyhydroxy aldehyde or ketone molecule, which cannot be further hydrolyzed into smaller units. The number of carbon atoms in mono-saccharides vary from

1. 2-8 carbons
2. 2-7 carbons
3. 3-6 carbons
4. 3-7 carbons

Answer: 4. 3-7 carbons

Question 9. The sweetest among all naturally occurring sugars is

1. Glucose
2. Fructose
3. Mannose
4. Galactose

Answer: 2. Fructose

Question 10. Glucose is

1. Aldose hexose sugar
2. Ketose hexose sugar
3. Pyranose pentose sugar
4. Furanose pentose sugar

Answer: 1. Aldose hexose sugar

Question 11. Glucose is also called

1. Dextrose
2. Com sugar
3. Grape sugar
4. All of these

Answer: 4. All of these

Question 12. Why sucrose and not glucose is used to preserve fruit products?

1. Glucose is reactive as it has a CHO group.
2. Sucrose is more common in nature.
3. Sucrose is easily available and has both glucose and fructose.
4. None of these

Answer: 1. Glucose is reactive as it has a CHO group.

Question 13. Honey has two sugars. They are

1. Glucose and mannose
2. Glucose and galactose
3. Dextrose and levulose
4. Dextrose and lactose

Answer: 3. Dextrose and levulose

Question 14. Which of the following is not a reducing sugar?

1. Glucose
2. Lactose
3. Maltose
4. Sucrose

Answer: 4. Sucrose

Question 15. Which of the following will yield only glucose on hydrolysis?

1. Sucrose
2. Lactose
3. Maltose
4. Raffinose

Answer: 3. Maltose

Question 16. Storing carbohydrates in the form of polysaccharides has the following advantages:

1. During their formation, many molecules of water are removed from monosaccharides (dehydration synthesis), condensing the bulk to be stored.
2. When necessary, polysaccharides are broken down by enzymes for the release of energy.
3. Unlike small carbohydrates, polysaccharides are relatively easy to store.
4. All of these

Answer: 4. All of these

Question 17. The most abundant organic compound in the biosphere is

1. Lignin
2. Cellulose
3. Pectin
4. Hemi-cellulose

Answer: 2. Cellulose

Question 18. The largest amount (90%) of cellulose amongst the natural materials is present in

1. Wood
2. Cotton fibers
3. Rayon
4. Roughage

Answer: 2. Cotton fibers

Question 19. Carbohydrates, the most abundant biomolecules on earth, are produced by

1. Some bacteria, algae, and green plant cells
2. Fungi, algae, and green plant cells
3. All bacteria, fungi, and algae
4. Viruses, fungi, and algae

Answer: 1. Some bacteria, algae, and green plant cells

Question 20. Cellulose is

1. Heptopolysaccharidc
2. Heteropolysaccharide branched
3. Hexosan polysaccharide, unbranched
4. Pentosan polysaccharide, branched

Answer: 3. Hexosan polysaccharide, unbranched

Question 21. Which of the following is added to ice creams, cosmetics, and medicines to emulsify and give a smooth texture?

1. Cellulose acetate
2. Cellulose nitrate
3. Carboxymethyl cellulose
4. Cellulose

Answer: 3. Carboxymethyl cellulose

Question 22. Cliitin is the second most abundant organic substance present in the exoskeleton of insects and crustaceans. It is a

1. Protein
2. Polysaccharides and the basic unit is N-acetylglucosamine
3. Protein and CaCO₃ deposits in it
4. Lipid

Answer: 2. Polysaccharide and the basic unit is N-acetylglucosamine

Question 23. One of the following is the correct sequence of carbohydrates in the order of increasing complexity of chemical structure.

1. Sucrose, starch, oligosaccharide, maltose, triose
2. Triose, maltose, sucrose, oligosaccharide, starch
3. Triose, glucose, maltose, oligosaccharide, starch
4. Oligosaccharide, triose, starch, sucrose, maltose

Answer: 3. Triose, glucose, maltose, oligosaccharide, starch

Question 24. Which one is a carbohydrate?

1. Inulin
2. Raphide
3. Aleurone
4. Cystolith

Answer: 1. Inulin

Question 25. The center of starch grain is called hilum. It is made up of

1. Protein
2. Carbohydrate
3. Fat
4. Nitrogen

Answer: 1. Protein

Question 26. Which one is a fibrous polysaccharide?

1. Starch
2. Glycogen
3. Cellulose
4. Mucilage

Answer: 3. Cellulose

Question 27. Glucose is stored as glycogen in

1. Pancreas
2. Bone
3. Kidney
4. Liver

Answer: 4. Liver

Question 28. Which of the following yields purgative?

1. Hibiscus esculentus
2. Plantago ovata
3. Aloe barbadensis
4. Both (2) and (3)

Answer: 4. Both (2) and (3)

Question 29. Choose the odd one out.

1. Keratin phosphate
2. Hyaluronic acid
3. Chondroitin sulfate
4. Alginic acid

Answer: 4. Alginic acid

Question 30. A cellulose molecule is formed by the polymerization of glucose. The number of glucose molecules present in cellulose is

1. 600
2. 6000
3. 60,000
4. 60

Answer: 2. 6000

Question 31. Mucilages are polysaccharides formed from galactose and mannose. They are slimy substances. Which one of the following is not a mucilage?

1. Agar
2. Alginic acid
3. Rayon
4. Carrageenin

Answer: 3. Rayon

Question 32. Starch grains of rice are

1. Dumb-bell shaped
2. Simple eccentric
3. Simple concentric
4. Compound

Answer: 4. Compound

Question 33. Cellulose forms a major portion of the food of grazing cattle. It is

1. Digested by the gut bacteria
2. Digested by the animal itself
3. Digested partly by animals and partly by bacteria
4. Passed out undigested

Answer: 1. Digested by the gut bacteria

Question 34. The number of monosaccharide units in a polysaccharide is

1. 2
2. 7
3. 10
4. More than 10

Answer: 4. More than 10

Question 35. A bond that is formed between the aldehyde or ketone group of monosaccharide and the alcoholic group of another organic compound is known as

1. Peptide bond
2. Glycosidic bond
3. Phosphodiester bond
4. Ester bond

Answer: 2. Glycosidic bond

Question 36. Which one of the following is a saturated fatty acid?

1. Oleic acid
2. Linoleic acid
3. Linolenic acid
4. Stearic acid

Answer: 4. Stearic acid

Question 37. Which of the following is the most essential fatty acid?

1. Linoleic
2. Linolenic
3. Arachidonic
4. Stearic

Answer: 1. Linoleic

Question 38. Lecithin is a

1. Fatty acid
2. Phospholipid with choline attached to phosphate group
3. Cholesterol
4. Fat

Answer: 2. Phospholipid with choline attached to a phosphate group

Question 39. Bee wax is secreted by

1. Drones
2. Workers
3. Queen
4. Hooey

Answer: 2. Workers

Question 40. Which of the following is a phospholipid?

1. Lecithin
2. Glycerol
3. Oleic acid
4. Prostaglandin

Answer: 1. Lecithin

Question 41. Keratin is a protein that has larger amount of

1. Sulfur
2. Calcium
3. Magnesium
4. Phosphorous

Answer: 1. Sulfur

Question 42. Waxes are simple lipids formed by the combination of long-chain fatty acid with a long-chain monohydric alcohol. Bee wax is made up of

1. Palmitic and merieyl alcohol
2. Hexacosyl palmitate
3. Ergosterol
4. Both (1) and (2)

Answer: 4. Both (1) and (2)

Question 43. Which is not a lipid?

1. Lecithin
2. β-keratin
3. Sterol
4. Wax

Answer: 2. β-keratin

Question 44. An anti-fertility steroid is

1. Diosgenin
2. Cortisol
3. Estradiol
4. Progesterone

Answer: 1. Diosgenin

Question 45. In the brain, most common types of lipids are

1. Glycolipids
2. Lipoproteins
3. Phospholipids
4. Steroids

Answer: 1. Glycolipids

Question 46. Find the odd one out

1. Palmitic acid, stearic acid
2. Oleic acid, linoleic acid
3. Linoleic acid, oleic acid
4. Tripalmitin. linolenic acid

Answer: 4. Tripalmitin. linolenic acid

Question 47. Which of the following are basic amino acids?

1. Glycine and alanine
2. Lysine and arginine
3. Glutamic acid and aspartic acid
4. Histidine and proline

Answer: 2. Lysine and arginine

Question 48. Which of the following is the simplest amino acid?

1. Alanine
2. Asparagine
3. Glycine
4. Tyrosine

Answer: 3. Glycine

Question 49. The hormone adrenaline (epinephrine) is formed from which of the following amino acids?

1. Glycine
2. Tyrosine
3. Tryptophan
4. Alanine

Answer: 2. Tyrosine

Question 50. Which of the following amino acids is involved in the formation of heme?

1. Tryptophan
2. Tyrosine
3. Glycine
4. Histidine

Answer: 3. Glycine

Question 51. Vitamin nicotinamide as well as the plant hormone indole-3-acetic acid are fonned from

1. Tryptophan
2. Alanine
3. Glutamic acid
4. Serine

Answer: 1. Tryptophan

Question 52. On losing the carboxyl group as carbon dioxide, amino acids form biologically active

1. Glucose
2. Amine such as histamine
3. Alcohol
4. N-base

Answer: 2. Amine such as histamine

Question 53. The skin pigment melanin is formed from

1. Tyrosine
2. Adrenaline
3. Indole-3-acetic acid
4. Tryptophan

Answer: 1. Tyrosine

Question 54. Which one of the following is an alcoholic amino acid pair?

1. Tyrosine and serine
2. Threonine and serine
3. Phenylalanine and tyrosine
4. Tryptophan and phenylalanine

Answer: 2. Threonine and serine

Question 55. One of the following is not an essential amino acid?

1. Tryptophan and valine
2. Lysine and methionine
3. Leucine and isoleucine
4. None of these

Answer: 4. None of these

Question 56. One of the following amino acids does not contain sulfur.

1. Tryptophan
2. Methionine
3. Cystine
4. Cysteine

Answer: 1. Tryptophan

Question 57. One of the following is a heterocyclic amino acid.

1. Proline
2. Histidine
3. Hydroxyproline
4. All of these

Answer: 4. All of these

Question 58. One of the following is a neutral amino acid.

1. Arginine
2. Glycine
3. Glutamic acid
4. Aspartic acid

Answer: 2. Glycine

Question 59. Which of the following is a non-polar amino acid?

1. Alanine
2. Glutamic acid
3. Serine
4. None of these

Answer: 1. Alanine

Question 60. β-plated structure of protein is present in silk fibers, the protein is

1. Fibroin
2. Collagen
3. Rayon
4. Keratin

Answer: 1. Fibroin

Question 61. The keratin of hair has

1. Secondary structure
2. a-helical structure
3. β-plated structure
4. Primary structure

Answer: 2. a-helical structure

Question 62. Most of the blood proteins in our body are

1. Basic
2. Acidic
3. Neutral
4. Basic and Neutral

Answer: 2. Acidic

Question 63. The casein of milk is

1. Glycoprotein
2. Phosphoprotein
3. Chromoprotein
4. Metalloprotein

Answer: 2. Phosphoprotein

Question 64. Prolamines are

1. Associated with nucleic acids
2. Storage proteins
3. Enzymatic protein
4. Structural protein

Answer: 2. Storage proteins

Question 65. Which of the proteins is involved in the transport of organic compounds through phloem?

1. Protamine
2. P-Protein
3. Myosin
4. Glutelin

Answer: 2. P-Protein

Question 66. Cheese is a

1. Globular protein
2. Conjugated protein
3. Denatured protein
4. All of these

Answer: 3. Denatured protein

Question 67. The storage protein of wheat is

1. Glutelin
2. Oryzin
3. Hordein
4. Zein

Answer: 1. Glutelin

Question 68. The types of prolamines and glutelins found in wheat are

1. Zein and Gladin
2. Glutelin and hordein
3. Gliadin and glutenin
4. Hordein and zein

Answer: 3. Gliadin and glutenin

Question 69. Which of the following is a contractile protein?

1. P-protein
2. Myosin
3. Albumin
4. Penneases

Answer: 2. Myosin

Question 70. The storage protein found in castor oil seeds is

1. Legumin
2. Tuberin
3. Ricin
4. Leucosin

Answer: 3. Ricin

Question 71. Glycogen is stored in

1. Liver and muscles
2. Liver only
3. Muscles only
4. Pancreas

Answer: 1. Liver and muscles

Question 72. Cholesterol is synthesized in

1. Pancreas
2. Burnner’s gland
3. Spleen
4. Liver

Answer: 4. Liver

Question 73. Which is a disaccharide

1. Galactose
2. Fructose
3. Maltose
4. Dextrin

Answer: 3. Maltose

Question 74. Which element is normally absent in proteins

1. C
2. N
3. S
4. P

Answer: 4. P

Question 75. Which substance is not a carbohydrate

1. Starch
2. Glycogen
3. Wax
4. Glucose

Answer: 3. Wax

Question 76. To get quick energy, one should use

1. Carbohydrate
2. Fats
3. Vitamins
4. Proteins

Answer: 1. Carbohydrate

Question 77. The protein most abundant in the human body is

1. Collagen
2. Myosin
3. Actin
4. Albumin

Answer: 1. Collagen

Question 78. Which is not a polysaccharide?

1. Sucrose
2. Starch
3. Glycogen
4. Cellulose

Answer: 1. Sucrose

Question 79. Decreasing order of amount of organic compound in animal body

1. Carbohydrates, protein, fat, and nucleic acid
2. Protein, fats, nucleic acid, and carbohydrate
3. Protein, fats, carbohydrates, and nucleic acid
4. Carbohydrates, fats, proteins, and nucleic acid

Answer: 3. Protein, fats, carbohydrates, and nucleic acid

Question 80. Characteristic feature of hemoglobin

1. Reversible union with oxygen
2. Red color
3. Presence of Cu
4. Presence of Globulin protein

Answer: 1. Reversible union with oxygen

Question 81. External coat composed of cellulose-like material occurs in

1. Hemichordata
2. Urochordata
3. Cephalochordata
4. Cyclostomata

Answer: 2. Urochordata

Question 82. Common in feathers and silk is

1. Carbohydrate
2. Fats
3. Protein
4. Nucleic acid

Answer: 3. Protein

Question 83. Monosaccharide is

1. Pentose sugar
2. Hexose sugar
3. Only glucose
4. All the above

Answer: 4. All the above

Question 84. Sugar which is found in the hemolymph of insects is called

1. Maltose
2. Lactose
3. Trehalose
4. Galactose

Answer: 3. Trehalose

Question 85. Which substance is most abundant in cells?

1. Carbohydrates
2. Protein
3. Water
4. Fats

Answer: 3. Water

Question 86. Proteins which present in protoplasm are very important because

1. They provide definite shape to cell
2. They function as biocatalysts
3. They yield energy
4. They are stored food

Answer: 2. They function as biocatalysts

Question 87. Dipeptide is

1. Structure of two peptide bonds
2. Two amino acids linked by one peptide bond
3. The bond between one amino acid and one peptide
4. None

Answer: 2. Two amino acids linked by one peptide bond

Question 88. Which amino acid is non-essential for the human body?

1. Glycine
2. Phenylalanine
3. Arginine
4. Methionine

Answer: 1. Glycine

Question 89. In which form, the extra sugars is stored in the body?

1. Glucose monosaccharide
2. Sucrose disaccharide
3. Glycogen polysaccharide
4. Fatty acid and glycerol

Answer: 3. Glycogen polysaccharide

Question 90. Products of protein catabolism are

1. NH₃, CO₂, and urea
2. Urea, CO₂, and NH
3. Urea, NH₃, and uric acid
4. Urea, NH₃, alanine, and creatine

Answer: 1. NH₃, CO₂, and urea

Question 91. Galactosemia disease in children can be prevented if they are provided

1. Milkless food
2. Proteinaceous milk
3. More milk
4. Vitamin-less milk

Answer: 1. Milkless food

Question 92. Glycogen is

1. Polymer of amino acids
2. Polymer of fatty acids
3. Unsaturated fats
4. Polymer of glucose

Answer: 4. Polymer of glucose

Question 93. Carbohydrate is

1. Polymer of fatty acids
2. Polymer of amino acids
3. Polyhydroxy aldehyde or ketone
4. None

Answer: 3. Polyhydroxy aldehyde or ketone

Question 94. In which form, food is stored in the animal body?

1. Glucose
2. Glycogen
3. Cellulose
4. ATP

Answer: 2. Glycogen

Question 95. Which compound produces more than twice the amount of energy as compared to carbohydrates?

1. Protein
2. Fats
3. Vitamins
4. Glucose

Answer: 2. Fats

Question 96. What is the normal ratio of sugar in human blood?

1. 0.01%
2. 0.1%
3. 1%
4. 0.18%

Answer: 2. 0.1%

Question 97. Carbohydrates are stored in mammals as

1. Glucose in liver
2. Glycogen in muscles and spleen
3. Lactic acid in muscles
4. Glycogen in liver and muscles

Answer: 4. Glycogen in the liver and muscles

Question 98. Carbohydrate metabolism is controlled by

1. Parathormone
2. Insulin
3. Glucose
4. Vitamin B₁₂

Answer: 2. Insulin

Question 99. Fattiness is due to the excess of

1. Connective tissue
2. Blood
3. Muscular tissue
4. Adipose tissue

Answer: 4. Adipose tissue

Question 100. Which one of the following is polysaccharide?

1. Sucrose
2. Lactose
3. Glycogen
4. Glucose

Answer: 3. Glycogen

Question 101. A starving person will first use

1. Fats
2. Glycogen
3. Blood
4. Muscle protein

Answer: 2. Glycogen

Question 102. Units of proteins that unite in long chains to form proteins are called

1. Sugar
2. Purines
3. Pyrimidines
4. Amino acids

Answer: 4. Amino acids

Question 103. Milk protein is

1. Lactogen
2. Myosin
3. Casein
4. Pepsin

Answer: 3. Casein

Question 104. Chemically, enzymes are

1. Fats
2. Carbohydrates
3. Hydrocarbons
4. Proteins

Answer: 4. Proteins

Question 105. Long-chain molecules of fatty acids are formed by

1. Polymerization of two carbon compounds
2. Decomposition of fats
3. Polymerization of glycogen
4. Conversion of glycogen

Answer: 1. Polymerization of two carbon compounds

Question 106. Most simple amino acid is

1. Tyrosine
2. Lysine
3. Glycine
4. Aspartic acid

Answer: 3. Glycine

Question 107. Fats in the body are formed when

1. Glycogen is formed from glucose
2. Sugar level become stable in the blood
3. Extra glycogen storage in the liver and muscles is stopped
4. All of them

Answer: 3. Extra glycogen storage in liver and muscles is stopped

Question 108. For body growth and repair, one needs

1. Carbohydrates
2. Fats
3. Protein
4. Vitamins

Answer: 3. Protein

Question 109. In India, the best source for proteins in herbivorous persons is

1. Pulses
2. Potato
3. Egg
4. Meat

Answer: 1. Pulses

Question 110. Proteins are conducted in the body in the form of

1. Amino acids
2. Natural protein
3. Enzymes
4. Nucleic acids

Answer: 1. Amino acids

Question 111. Which is sweet in taste, but is not sugar?

1. Starch
2. Saccharine
3. Lactose
4. Protein

Answer: 2. Saccharine

Question 112. The formation of protein can be considered as

1. Dehydration synthesis
2. Dehydration analysis
3. Hydration synthesis
4. Hydration analysis

Answer: 1. Dehydration synthesis

Question 113. Translocation of sugars in flowering plants occurs in the form of

1. Glucose
2. Sucrose
3. Fructose
4. Maltose

Answer: 2. Sucrose

Question 114. Sucrose is composed of

1. Glucose and fructose
2. Glucose and glycogen
3. Two molecules of glucose
4. Glycogen and fructose

Answer: 1. Glucose and fructose

Question 115. Which of the following amino acid is essential?

1. Alanine
2. Glycine
3. Tryptophan
4. Tyrosine

Answer: 3. Tryptophan

Question 116. Which of the following disaccharides will give two molecules of glucose on hydrolysis?

1. Maltose
2. Sucrose
3. Lactose
4. None

Answer: 1. Maltose

Question 117. Which is the most structural part of the body?

1. Protein
2. Carbohydrates
3. Lipid
4. Nucleic acid

Answer: 1. Protein

Question 118. Which of the following sugar is found in ATP?

1. Deoxyribose
2. Ribose
3. Trehalose
4. Glucose

Answer: 2. Ribose

Question 119. Deficiency of protein leads to

1. Rickets
2. Scurvy
3. Kwashiorkor
4. Carotenemia

Answer: 3. Kwashiorkor

Question 120. Lactose is composed of

1. Glucose + Galactose
2. Glucose + Fructose
3. Glucose + Glucose
4. Glucose + mannose

Answer: 1. Glucose + Galactose

Question 121. The true statement for cellulose molecules is

1. β-1′-4″ linkage, unbranched
2. β-1′-4″ linkage, branched
3. β-1′-4″ linkage, branched
4. β-1′-6″ linkage, unbranched

Answer: 1. β-1′-4″ linkage, unbranched

Question 122. Contractile protein is

1. Actin
2. Myosin
3. Troponin
4. Tropomyosin

Answer: 1. Actin

Question 123. Variations in proteins are due to

1. Sequence of amino acids
2. Number of amino acids
3. R-group
4. None

Answer: 1. Sequence of amino acids

Question 124. The antibodies are

1. γ-globulins
2. Albumins
3. Vitamins
4. Sugar

Answer: 1. γ-globulins

Question 125. Which of the following does not contain metal?

1. Glycoproteins
2. Ferritin
3. Cytochromes
4. Chromoproteins

Answer: 1. Glycoproteins

Question 126. Which protein is found in the maximum amount?

1. Catalase
2. Zinc carbonic anhydrase
3. Transferase
4. RuBisCO

Answer: 4. RuBisCO

Question 127. Proteoglycan in cartilages, which is part of polysaccharide. is

1. Chondroitin
2. Ossein
3. Casein
4. Cartilage

Answer: 1. Chondroitin

Question 128. In the genetic code dictionary, how many codons are used to code for all the 20 essential amino acids?

1. 20
2. 64
3. 61
4. 60

Answer: 3. 61

Question 129. Enzyme concerned with the transfer of electrons is

1. Hydrolase
2. Dehydrogenase
3. Transaminase
4. Protease

Answer: 2. Dehydrogenase

Question 130. At which pH, enzymes of lysosomes are usually active?

1. 5
2. 7
3. 8
4. At any pH

Answer: 3. 8

Question 131. Enzymes are made up of

1. Edible proteins
2. Proteins
3. Nitrogen-containing carbohydrates
4. Carbohydrates

Answer: 4. Carbohydrates

Question 132. Hydrolytic enzymes, which act on low pH are called as

1. Protease
2. α-Amylase
3. Hydrolases
4. Peroxidase

Answer: 2. α-Amylase

Question 133. Enzymes, vitamins, and hormones can be classified into a single category of biological chemicals because all of these

1. Enhance oxidative metabolism
2. Are conjugated proteins
3. Are exclusively synthesized in the body of a living organism
4. Help in regulating metabolism

Answer: 1. Enhance oxidative metabolism

Question 134. Which of the following statements regarding enzyme inhibition is correct?

1. Non-competitive inhibition of an enzyme can be overcome by adding a large amount of substrate.
2. Competitive inhibition is seen when a substrate competes with an enzyme for binding to an inhibitor protein.
3. Competitive inhibition is seen when the substrate and the inhibitor compete for the active site on the enzyme.
4. Non-competitive inhibitors often bind to the enzyme irreversibly.

Answer: 2. Competitive inhibition is seen when a substrate competes with an enzyme for binding to an inhibitor protein.

Question 135. The catalytic efficiency of two different enzymes can be compared by

1. K_M value
2. pH optimum value
3. Formation of the product
4. The molecular size of the enzyme

Answer: 3. Formation of the product

Question 136. The graph given shows the effect of substrate concentration on the rate of reaction of the enzyme green-gram-phosphatase. What does the graph indicate?

1. The rate of enzyme reaction is directly proportional to the substrate concentration.
2. Presence of an enzyme inhibitor in the reaction mixture.
3. Formation of an enzyme-substrate complex.
4. At higher substrate concentrations, the pH increases.

Answer: 4. At higher substrate concentrations, the pH increases.

Question 137. An organic substance bound to an enzyme and essential for its activity is called

1. Apoenzyme
2. Isoenzyme
3. Coenzyme
4. Holoenzyme

Answer: 3. Coenzyme

Question 138. Shows the conservation of a substrate into the product by an enzyme. In which one of the four options (1-4).

Answer: 1

Question 139. Three of the following statements about enzymes are correct which one is wrong?

1. Enzymes are denatured at high temperatures but in the c era in exceptional organisms they are effective even a: temperatures 80-90°C.
2. Enzymes are highly specific.
3. Most enzymes are proteins but some are lipids.
4. Enzymes require optimum pH for maximal activity.

Answer: 3. Most enzymes are proteins but some are lipids.

Question 140. DNA or RNA segment tagged with a radioactive molecule is called

1. Vector
2. Probe
3. Clone
4. Plasmid

Answer: 2. Probe

Question 141. The main area of various types of activities

1. Plasma membrane
2. Mitochondrion
3. Cytoplasm
4. Nucleus

Answer: 3. Cytoplasm

Question 142. Given it is the diagrammatic representation of one of the categories of small molecular weight organic compounds in the thing tissues. Identify the category shown and the one blank component “X“ in it.

Answer: 3

Question 143. Which one out of 1-4 given below correctly represents the structural formula of the basic amino acid?

1. 4
2. 1
3. 2
4. 3

Answer: 1. 4

Question 144. Which one of the following biomolecules is correctly characterized?

1. Lecithin—A phosphorylated glyceride found in the cell membrane
2. Palmitic acid—An unsaturated fatty acid with 18 carbon atoms
3. Adenylic acid—Adenosine with a glucose phosphate molecule
4. Alanine amino acid—Contains an amino group and an acidic group anywhere in the molecule

Answer: 1. Lecithin—A phosphorylated glyceride found in the cell membrane

Question 145. A phosphoglyceride is always made up of

1. Only an unsaturated fatty acid is esterified to a glycerol molecule to which a phosphate group is also attached.
2. A saturated or unsaturated fatty acid is esterified to a glycerol molecule to which a phosphate group is also attached.
3. A saturated or unsaturated fatty acid is esterified to a phosphate group which is also attached to a glycerol molecule.
4. Only a saturated fatty acid is esterified to a glycerol molecule to which a phosphate group is also attached.

Answer: 2. A saturated or unsaturated fatty acid esterified to a glycerol molecule to which a phosphate group is also attached.

Question 146. The essential chemical components of many enzymes are

1. Nucleic acids
2. Carbohydrates
3. Vitamins
4. Proteins

Answer: 3. Vitamins

Question 147. The transition state structure of the substrate formed during an enzymatic reaction is

1. Permanent but unstable
2. Transient and unstable
3. Permanent and stable
4. Transient but stable

Answer: 2. Transient and unstable

Question 148. The most abundant intracellular cation is

1. Ca⁺⁺
2. H⁺
3. K⁺
4. Na⁺

Answer: 3. K⁺

Question 149. Macromolecules chitin is a

1. Phosphorus-containing polysaccharide
2. Sulfur-containing polysaccharide
3. Simple polysaccharide
4. Nitrogen-containing polysaccharide

Answer: 4. Nitrogen-containing polysaccharide

Cell The Unit Of Life Multiple Choice Questions And Answers

Question 1. Which of the following cytoskeletal elements plays an important role in the movement of chromosomes?

1. Microfilamenls
2. Microtubules
3. Intermediate filaments
4. All of these

Answer: 2. Microtubules

Question 2. The bacterial genome or nucleoid is made up of

1. A single double-stranded chromosome with histone
2. UNA and histories
3. single double-stranded DNA, not complexed with histone proteins, nor packed in the chromosome
4. A single-stranded circular DNA

Answer: 3. single double-stranded DNA, not complexed with histone proteins, nor packed in the chromosome

Question 3. In bacterial cells. DNA is extensively looped and coiled with the help of

1. Acid proteins
2. Ilistories
3. Basic nucleoid proteins called as polyamines
4. Actin

Answer: 3. Basic nucleoid protein called as polyamines

Question 4. Two animal cells are interconnected by

1. Plasmodesmata
2. Cell wall
3. Desmosomc
4. Plasma membrane

Answer: 3. Desmosomc

Question 5. The type of growth shown by the primary cell wall is

1. Accretionary
2. Instussuceptionary
3. Protoplasmic
4. None, as it cannot expand or grow

Answer: 2. Instussuceptionary

Question 6. Plasmodesmata often has ER (endoplasmic reticulum) tubule called as

1. Symplasm
2. Desmotubulc
3. Apoplasm
4. Intermediate filaments

Answer: 2. Desmotubulc

Question 7. Which of the following is associated with the detoxification of drugs and muscle contraction by the release and uptake of Ca⁺² ions?

1. Golgi complex
2. RER
3. SER
4. Free ribosomes

Answer: 3. SER

Question 8. The main organelle involved in the modification and routing of newly synthesized proteins to their destination is

1. Chloroplast
2. Mitochondria
3. Lysosome
4. Endoplasmic reticulum

Answer: 4. Endoplasmic reticulum

Question 9. The term endoplasmic reticulum was used by

1. Keith Poter
2. Thompson
3. Robertson
4. Keith Peter and Thompson

Answer: 1. Keith Potcr

Question 10. Ribosomes, when associated with ER, attach with their

1. Smaller subunit
2. Larger subunit (60S)
3. BOS subunit
4. Either by smaller or by larger subunits

Answer: 1. Smaller subunit

Question 11. Ribosomes are attached to the endoplasmic reticulum through

1. Ribophorins
2. r-RNA
3. t-RNA
4. Hydrophobic interaction

Answer: 1. Ribophorins

Question 12. RER is well developed in cells engaged in the synthesis of

1. Nucleotides
2. Proteins
3. Lipids
4. Secretory products

Answer: 2. Proteins

Question 13. SER is mainly found in cells actively engaged in

1. Secretion activity
2. Protein metabolism
3. Lipid metabolism
4. Catabolic activity

Answer: 3. Lipid metabolism

Question 14. Golgi apparatus/apparato reticular is specialized for all except

1. Glycosidation and glycosylation of lipids and proteins
2. Recycling of the plasma membrane pinched off by pinocytosis and phagocytosis
3. Secretion
4. Intracellular digestion

Answer: 4. Intracellular digestion

Question 15. Which of the following statements is incorrect about the Golgi apparatus?

1. The sacs on the forming face (cis-face) are associated with ER.
2. Golgi apparatus was studied by Camillo Golgi in the nerve cells of owls by metallic impregnation technique.
3. Golgi apparatus in plants is called as dictyosome and secretes mucilage in the root cap cells.
4. Golgi apparatus has no role in the modification of proinsulin.

Answer: 4. Golgi apparatus has no role in the modification of proinsulin.

Question 16. Lysosomes are formed by budding off vesicles from Golgi apparatus and contain

1. Oxidizing enzymes
2. 40 different acid hydrolases
3. Respiratory enzymes
4. Basic hydrolases

Answer: 2. 40 different acid hydrolases

Question 17. Which of the following is likely to show the absence of lysosomes?

1. Cyanophyceae
2. Protozoa
3. Anther tapetum
4. Mammalian leucocytes

Answer: 2. Protozoa

Question 18. Lysosomes were first discovered by

1. Rohdin
2. Pemer
3. Christian de Duve
4. None of these

Answer: 3. Christian de Duve

Question 19. Which of the following organelles show polymorphism?

1. Golgi apparatus
2. Lysosome
3. Mitochondria
4. Chloroplast

Answer: 2. Lysosome

Question 20. Autolysis is associated with

1. Ribosome
2. Kinetosome
3. Lysosome
4. Golgi apparatus

Answer: 3. Lysosome

Question 21. Which of the following organelles possess oxidases and are associated with oxidation reactions other than those of respiration?

1. Spherosomcs
2. Peroxisomes
3. Lysosomes
4. Golgi

Answer: 2. Peroxisomes

Question 22. Which of the following organelles takes part in photorespiration?

1. Glyoxysome
2. Peroxisome
3. Dictyosome
4. ER

Answer: 2. Peroxisome

Question 23. Peroxisomes contain peroxide-producing enzymes. These are found in

1. Plant cells
2. Animal cells
3. Both (1) and (2)
4. Bacteria and blue-green algae

Answer: 3. Both (1) and (2)

Question 24. Which of the following is a peroxide-destroying enzyme present in peroxisome?

1. Urate oxidase
2. Catalase
3. Amino acid oxidase
4. Peroxidase

Answer: 2. Catalase

Question 25. Non-secretory proteins are synthesized by

1. ER-bound ribosomes
2. Free ribosomes
3. Polysomes
4. Endosomes

Answer: 2. Free ribosomes

Question 26. Find out the incorrect statement with respect to glyoxysomes.

1. It is reported from the endosperm of germinating seeds.
2. They usually occur in fat-rich plant cells.
3. They are associated with the glyoxylate cycle.
4. They develop from mitochondria.

Answer: 4. They develop from mitochondria.

Question 27. The proper folding of proteins following synthesis is assisted by

1. Polyribosomes
2. Specific proteins called chaperons
3. Polysomes
4. Free ribosomes

Answer: 2. Specific proteins called chaperons

Question 28. Protein synthesis in an animal cell occurs

1. Only on the ribosomes present in the cytosol
2. Only on ribosomes attached to the nuclear envelope and ER
3. On ribosomes present in the cytoplasm as well as in mitochondria
4. On ribosomes present in the nucleolus as well as in the cytoplasm

Answer: 3. On ribosomes present in the cytoplasm as well as in mitochondria

Question 29. When ATP concentration is low or the respiratory chain is inhibited, the mitochondria are seen in

1. Active state
2. Condensed state
3. Orthodox state
4. Both (1) and (2)

Answer: 3. Orthodox state

Question 30. Mitochondria and chloroplasts are semi-autonomous as they possess

1. DNA
2. DNA + RNA
3. DNA + RNA ribosomes
4. Proteins

Answer: 3. DNA + RNA ribosomes

Question 31. Which of the following organelles is concerned with the generation of ATP through electron transport and oxidative phosphorylation?

1. Chloroplast
2. Mitochondria
3. Glyoxysome
4. Both (1) and (2)

Answer: 2. Mitochondria

Question 32. F₀-F₁ particles are also called as

1. Quantasomes
2. Glyoxysome
3. Parade particles
4. Oxisomes

Answer: 4. Oxisomes

Question 33. Organelle rich in Manganese is

1. Ribosome
2. Mitochondria
3. Chloroplast
4. Nucleus

Answer: 2. Mitochondria

Question 34. The presence of DNA in mitochondria and chloroplast supports the hypothesis that

1. Glycolysis occurs in both mitochondria and chloroplast
2. Mitochondria and chloroplast both originated as independent free-living organisms
3. ATP is produced in mitochondria as well as in chloroplast
4. Mitochondria and chloroplast undergo meiosis and mitosis independent of the nucleus

Answer: 2. Mitochondria and chloroplast both originated as independent free-living organisms

Question 35. Synthesis of ATP in mitochondria takes place

1. In the matrix
2. In the Intracoastal space
3. At the cristae
4. At the outer membrane

Answer: 3. At the cristae

Question 36. Oxysomes are submicroscopic particles present on the

1. Surface of the inner membrane of the mitochondrion
2. Thylakoid membrane of chloroplasts
3. The outer membrane of the mitochondrion
4. Rough endoplasmic reticulum

Answer: 1. Surface of the inner membrane of the mitochondrion

Question 37. Mitochondria are not found in

1. Mature WBC
2. Mature RBC
3. Nerve cell
4. Sperm

Answer: 2. Mature RBC

Question 38. The mitochondrial DNA differs from the nuclear DNA in

1. Lacking association with histones
2. Being circular in nature
3. Having a higher C-G ratio
4. All of these

Answer: 4. All of these

Question 39. Genes for cytoplasmic male sterility in plants are generally located in

1. Mitochondrial genome
2. Chloroplast genome
3. Nuclear genome
4. Cytosol

Answer: 1. Mitochondrial genome

Question 40. Chlorophyll in chloroplasts is located in

1. Grana
2. Pyrenoid
3. Stroma
4. Both grana and stroma

Answer: 1. Grana

Question 41. Which of the following organelles stores proteins?’

1. Amyloplasts
2. Aleuroplasts
3. Plastids
4. Elaioplasts (oleosomes)

Answer: 2. Aleuroplasts

Question 42. Grana in chloroplast is formed by the piling of

1. Cristae
2. Thylakoids
3. Oxisomes
4. Dictyosomes

Answer: 2. Thylakoids

Question 43. The symbiont hypothesis suggests that there are similarities between prokaryotes, mitochondria, and chloroplasts like

1. Presence of circular DNA associated with histones and 70S ribosomes
2. The presence of circular DNA net associated with histones and 70S ribosomes present
3. 50S ribosomes and DNA
4. 30S ribosomes and DNA

Answer: 2. Presence of circular DNA net associated with histones and 70S ribosomes present

Question 44. Quantasomes are found in

1. Mitochondria
2. Chloroplast
3. Nucleus
4. Lysosome

Answer: 2. Chloroplast

Question 45. Each quantasome contains

1. 100 chlorophyll molecules
2. 200 chlorophyll molecules
3. 300 chlorophyll molecules
4. 230 chlorophyll molecules

Answer: 4. 230 chlorophyll molecules

Question 46. Hammerling’s experiment on Acetabularia proved the role of

1. Chromosomes in heredity
2. Nucleus in heredity
3. Nucleo-cytoplasmic ratio
4. Cytoplasm in controlling differentiation

Answer: 2. Nucleus in heredity

Question 47. At certain places, the nuclear envelope is interrupted by the presence of nuclear pores which are enclosed by circular structures called as

1. Perinuclear space
2. Annuli
3. Pore complex
4. Nucleolus

Answer: 2. Annuli

Question 48. The main site for ribosomal RNA synthesis is

1. Nucleus
2. Nucleolus
3. Endoplasmic reticulum
4. Nucleolus

Answer: 2. Nucleolus

Question 49. Telomeres

1. Initiate RNA synthesis
2. Seal ends of chromosomes
3. Have guanine-rich repeats
4. Both (2) and (3)

Answer: 4. Both (2) and (3)

Question 50. The term nucleolus was coined by

1. Bowman
2. Fontana
3. Flemming
4. Leeuwenhoek

Answer: 1. Bowman

Question 51. Telomerase is an enzyme that is a

1. Simple protein
2. RNA
3. Fibonucleoprotein
4. Repetitive DNA

Answer: 3. Fibonucleoprotein

Question 52. The nucleolus is produced from

1. 1° constriction
2. Nucleolus-organizing region of certain chromosomes
3. Nuclear envelope
4. ER

Answer: 2. Nucleolus-organizing region of certain chromosomes

Question 53. A cystolith is a deposit of

1. Calcium citrate
2. Calcium carbonate
3. Silica
4. Calcium oxalate

Answer: 2. Calcium carbonate

Question 54. Which of the following suggests advanced features of an organism?

1. The karyotype shows a large size difference between the smallest and the largest chromosome.
2. Karyotype has few metacentric chromosomes.
3. Asymmetric karyotype
4. All of these

Answer: 4. All of these

Question 55. Tolbert is associated with which one of the following cell structures?

1. Peroxisomes
2. Spherosomes
3. Quantasomes
4. Glyoxysomes

Answer: 1. Peroxisomes

Question 56. A single mitochondrion is found in

1. Flight muscles of insects
2. Human sperm
3. Micrasterias
4. Chaos chaos

Answer: 3. Micrasterias

Question 57. The smallest cell organelle is

1. Peroxisome
2. Spherosome
3. Ribosome
4. Lysosome

Answer: 3. Spherosome

Question 58. The complex formed of centriole and kinoplasm called as

1. Diplosome
2. Centrosphere
3. Centrosome
4. Kinetosome

Answer: 3. Centrosome

Question 59. Man and mouse cells are treated with red am green fluorescent dyes separately and are made to fuse. The resultant cells when kept at 37°C, the distribution of dye on the surface of cell will be

Answer: 4

Question 60. Adenosine triphosphate (ATP) powers the movement of cilia and flagella. Adenosine triphosphatase activity is present in

1. Nexin protein
2. Dynein protein
3. Massule
4. Both (1) and (2)

Answer: 2. Dynein protein

Question 61 The r-RNAs of BOS ribosomes of larger subunits are

1. 18S
2. 23S + 5S
3. 28S + 5.8S + 5S
4. 16S

Answer: 3. 28S + 5.8S + 5S

Question 62. A component of the cytoskeleton is

1. Microtubule
2. Bone
3. Chitin
4. Cartilage

Answer: 1. Microtubule

Question 63. Kinetochore is the

1. Fibrous granular structure within the centromere
2. Surface of centromere
3. Constriction near chromosome end
4. End of chromosome

Answer: 2. Surface of centromere

Question 64. Who amongst the following scientists is credited with the discovery of cell and published Micrographia?

1. Robert Brown
2. Robert Hooke
3. Schleiden
4. Schwann

Answer: 2. Robert Hooke

Question 65. Who was the first to observe living substances in the cells?

1. Anton van Leeuwenhoek
2. Alfonso Corti
3. Robert Brown
4. Johannes Purkinje

Answer: 1. Anton van Leeuwenhoek

Question 66. The nucleus was first observed in the cells of orchid roots in 1831 by

1. Robert Brown
2. Hugo von Mohl
3. Schleiden
4. Schwann

Answer: 2. Hugo von Mohl

Question 67. “Protoplasm is the physical basis of life” was stated by

1. Purkinje
2. Huxley
3. Rudolf Virchow
4. Schwann

Answer: 2. Huxley

Question 68. Which of the following does not show a circular DNA?

1. Bacterial cell
2. Nucleus
3. Mitochondria
4. Chloroplast

Answer: 2. Nucleus

Question 69. The saccules and utricles were names used for the cells by which of the following?

1. Robert Brown
2. Malpighii
3. Purkinje
4. Swanson

Answer: 4. Swanson

Question 70. The cells discovered in the thin section of cork by Robert Hooke were actually

1. Cellulose
2. Living cell
3. Cell coat
4. Cell wall

Answer: 3. Cell coat

Question 71. Most of the water found in the cell occurs in

1. Cell wall
2. Nucleus
3. Cytoplasm
4. Nucleolus

Answer: 3. Cytoplasm

Question 72. Which of the following is described as the “energy currency of the cell”?

1. DNA
2. RNA
3. ATP
4. Vitamins

Answer: 1. DNA

Question 73. Cell theory was put forward by

1. Schleiden and Schwann in 1838-39
2. Sutton and Boveri
3. Watson and Crick
4. Darwin and Wallace

Answer: 4. Darwin and Wallace

Question 74. Cell theory is applicable to all except

1. Animals
2. Plants
3. Fungi
4. Viruses

Answer: 2. Plants

Question 75. Who was the first to explain that the cells divide and new cells are formed from the pre-existing cells (Omnis cellu-la-e-celluld) in 1855?

1. Louis Pasteur
2. Rudolf Virchow
3. Nagaii
4. Robert Brown

Answer: 4. Robert Brown

Question 76. The longest cell in the human body is

1. Liver cell
2. Muscle cell
3. Neuroglia cell
4. Nerve cell

Answer: 4. Nerve cell

Question 77. What is absent in mammalian erythrocytes?

1. Aerobic respiration
2. Nucleus
3. DNA
4. All of these

Answer: 4. All of these

Question 78. One of the following is an exception to the cell theory.

1. Bacteria
2. Prokaryotes
3. Blue-green algae
4. Bacteriophage

Answer: 2. Prokaryotes

Question 79. The membrane covering the vacuole is known as

1. Desmosomes
2. Tonoplast
3. Plasmodesmata
4. Tyloses

Answer: 1. Desmosomes

Question 80. Which is a non-membranous (not covered by a membrane) organelle? 

1. Ribosome
2. Lysosome
3. Mitochondria
4. Chloroplast

Answer: 3. Mitochondria

Question 81. Which one of the following is absent in plant cell?

1. Vacuole
2. Cell wall
3. Centrosome
4. Plastids

Answer: 1. Vacuole

Question 82. Which one of the following does not have the ability to divide?

1. Nerve cells
2. Liver cells
3. Muscle cells
4. Bone marrow cells

Answer: 3. Muscle cells

Question 83. The prokaryotic cells are characterized by

1. Distinct chromosome
2. Absence of chromatin material
3. Absence of nuclear membrane
4. Distinct nuclear membrane

Answer: 1. Distinct chromosome

Question 84. Cells originate

1. From pre-existing cells
2. From abiotic materials
3. By bacterial fermentation
4. By regeneration of old cells

Answer: 1. From pre-existing cells

Question 85. Which of the following is present in both plant and animal cells?

1. Primary wall
2. Secondary wall
3. Plasma membrane
4. Plastids

Answer: 1. Primary wall

Question 86. Which of the following has a one-envelope system?

1. Prokaryotic cell
2. Eukaryotic cell
3. Both (1) and (2)
4. None of these

Answer: 4. None of these

Question 87. Small cells are metabolically active as they have

1. Higher surface-area-to-volume ratio
2. Higher nucleo-cytoplasmic ratio
3. Glycoproteins and glycolipids
4. Lower nucleo-cytoplasmic ratio
5. Both (1) and (2)

Answer: 4. Both (1) and (2)

Question 88. Which of the following cells do not show DNA duplication or RNA synthesis?

1. Liver cells
2. Muscle cells
3. Nerve cells
4. Mature RBCs

Answer: 1. Liver cells

Question 89. Who proposed that the cells are totipotent?

1. Haberlandt
2. Maheshwari
3. Steward
4. White

Answer: 2. Maheshwari

Question 90. The surface-to-volume ratio of a cell

1. Remains constant
2. Decreases with increasing size
3. Increases with increasing size
4. Both (2) and (3)

Answer: 4. Both (2) and (3)

Question 91. The cells which are capable of undergoing division and development are

1. Meristematic cells
2. Stem cells
3. Differentiated cells
4. Both (1) and (2)

Answer: 2. Stem cells

Question 92. The tri-lamellar model was proposed by

1. J.D. Robertson
2. Danielli and Davson
3. Goiter and Grindell
4. Singer and Nicolson

Answer: 4. Singer and Nicolson

Question 93. An animal cell differs from plant cells in not having

1. Plastids
2. Cell wall
3. Glyoxysome
4. All of these

Answer: 4. All of these

Question 94. The genetic material of a bacterial cell is localized within a discrete region called as

1. Nucleus
2. Nucleolus
3. Plasmid
4. Nucleoid

Answer: 4. Nucleoid

Question 95. Which of the following is present in the prokaryotes?

1. Nuclear envelope
2. Golgi apparatus
3. Mitochondria
4. Ribosomes

Answer: 2. Ribosomes

Question 96. A Gram-negative bacteria differs from a Gram-positive bacteria in having

1. Thick cell wall and is primarily made up of peptidoglycan
2. A complex cell envelope made up of three layers
3. The cell wall of 20-80 nm in thickness and also contains tightly bound technoid acids
4. Absence of cell wall lipids

Answer: 4. Absence of cell wall lipids

Question 97. Which of the following antibiotics inhibits the cross-linking of peptidoglycan strands, thus causing the lysis of the bacterial cell?

1. Penicillin
2. Cephalosporin
3. Chloromycetin
4. Both (1) and (2)

Answer: 2. Cephalosporin

Question 98. The pentacyclic sterol like molecules that stabilize the bacterial cell membrane are called as

1. Cholesterol
2. Hopanoids
3. Spectrin
4. Glycophorins

Answer: 4. Glycophorins

Question 99. Glycocalyx or cell coat which functions as the cell recognition center is made up of

1. Proteins
2. Lipids
3. Proteins and lipids
4. Glycoproteins and glycolipids

Answer: 4. Glycoproteins and glycolipids

Question 100. The plasma membrane is asymmetric because

1. Lipids present in the outer and inner sides of the bilayer are different.
2. Extrinsic proteins are more abundant on the inner surface than on the outer surface.
3. Oligosaccharides are attached only to the external surface of lipids and proteins of a biomembrane.
4. All of these

Answer: 3. Oligosaccharides are attached only to the external surface of lipids and proteins of a biomembrane

Question 101. Components of the eukaryotic plasma membrane are

1. Proteins and lipids
2. Proteins and carbohydrates
3. Lipids (20-79%), proteins (20-70%), oligosaccharides (1-5%), and water (20%)
4. Lipids (20-70%), proteins (20-79%), carbohydrates (1-5%), and DNA

Answer: 3. Lipids (20-79%), proteins (20-70%), oligosaccharides (1-5%), and water (20%)

Question 102. The unit membrane concept was proposed by

1. Danielli
2. Davson
3. Robertson
4. Both (1) and (2)

Answer: 3. Robertson

Question 103. The universally accepted model of the plasma membrane is

1. Lamellar model
2. Unit membrane model
3. Fluid mosaic model
4. Overton model

Answer: 2. Unit membrane model

Question 104. According to the fluid mosaic model of the plasma membrane, extrinsic proteins are

1. Superficially arranged and cannot be separated easily
2. Peripheral proteins are loosely connected to membranes and, therefore, can be easily removed in an aqueous medium
3. Integral proteins which project beyond the lipid layer on both sides of the membrane and are considered as channel proteins
4. Tightly attached to lipids and cannot be separated

Answer: 2. Peripheral proteins and are loosely connected to membranes and, therefore, can be easily removed in aqueous medium

Question 105. According to the widely accepted “fluid mosaic model,” cell membranes are semi-fluid, where lipids and integral proteins can diffuse randomly. In recent years, this model has been modified in several respects. In this regard, which of the following statements is incorrect?

1. Proteins in cell membranes can travel within the lipid bilayer.
2. Proteins can also undergo flip-flop movements in the lipid bilayer.
3. Proteins can remain confined within certain domains of the membranes.
4. Many proteins remain completely embedded within the lipid bilayer.

Answer: 4. Many proteins remain completely embedded within the lipid bilayer.

Question 106. Fluid mosaic model of cell membrane proposes

1. A lipid bilayer with embedded proteins only
2. A lipid bilayer with proteins on the outer surface only
3. A lipid bilayer coated with proteins on both surfaces
4. A lipid bilayer with proteins of two types, embedded (intrinsic) and superficial (extrinsic)

Answer: 1. A lipid bilayer with embedded proteins only

Question 107. Out of proteins, lipids, and carbohydrates present in a “cell membrane,’

1. Carbohydrates are minimum
2. Carbohydrates are maximum
3. Lipids are minimum
4. All three are in equal proportion

Answer: 1. Carbohydrates are minimum

Question 108. Carrier molecules facilitating transport across cell mem-brane are

1. Proteinaceous
2. Fatty acids
3. Starch
4. Alkaloids

Answer: 3. Starch

Question 109. “Protein icebergs in a sea of lipids” means

1. Unit membrane concept
2. Sandwich model
3. Fluid mosaic model
4. None of these

Answer: 2. Sandwich model

Question 110. Extrinsic and intrinsic proteins found in the plasma membrane are in the ratio

1. 70:30
2. 30:70
3. 40:60
4. 60:40

Answer: 4. 60:40

Question 111. The main function of the plasma membrane is to

1. Store cell material
2. Control all cellular activities
3. Maintain cell shape and size
4. Regulate the inflow and outflow of material through the cell wall

Answer: 4. Regulate the inflow and outflow of material through the cell wall

Question 112. The plasma membrane is more permeable to

1. Polysaccharides
2. Proteins
3. Glycoproteins
4. Phospholipids

Answer: 1. Polysaccharides

Question 113. Plasma membrane, particularly in animal cells, is elastic due to

1. Lipids
2. Proteins
3. Carbohydrates
4. None of these

Answer: 4. None of these

Question 114. In the ultrastructure of cell membrane and its functions,

1. Phospholipids are more than carbohydrates for signal.
2. Proteins are less than carbohydrates for fluidity.
3. The amount of phospholipids is highly variable for the transport of hydrophilic molecules.
4. The amount of protein is unequally distributed in the membrane for better transport.

Answer: 4. The amount of protein is unequally distributed in the membrane for better transport.

Question 115. Two basic components of the cytoskeleton are

1. Actin and myosin
2. Tubulin and myosin
3. Tubulin and actin
4. All of these

Answer: 1. Actin and myosin

Question 116. Hydrolytic enzymes are abundantly found in which cell organelles?

1. Ribosome
2. Lysosome
3. Oxysome
4. Endoplasmic reticulum

Answer: 2. Lysosome

Question 117. Which of the following is the site of lipid synthesis

1. Rough ER
2. Smooth ER
3. Golgi bodies
4. Ribosome

Answer: 2. Smooth ER

Question 118. Ribosomes are produced in

1. Nucleolus
2. Cytoplasm
3. Mitochondria
4. Golgi body

Answer: 1. Nucleolus

Question 119. Which of the following pairs lack the unit membrane

1. Nucleus and ER
2. Mitochondria and Chloroplast
3. Ribosome and nucleolus
4. Golgi body and lysosome

Answer: 3. Ribosome and nucleolus

Question 120. Golgi body is concerned with

1. Respiration
2. Secretion
3. Excretion
4. Degradation

Answer: 2. Secretion

Question 121. Which of the following occurs more than one and less than five in a chromosome?

1. Chromatid
2. Chromomere
3. Centromere
4. Telomere

Answer: 4. Telomere

Question 122. The cells without nuclei arc present in

1. Vascular cambium
2. Root hair
3. Companion cell
4. Members of the sieve tube

Answer: 4. Members of sieve tube

Question 123. A plant with a minimum number of chromosomes is

1. Haplopappus gracilis
2. Salix te/rasperma
3. Poa
4. Cynodon

Answer: 1. Haplopappus gracilis

Question 124. Heteropycnosis is exhibited by

1. Autosome
2. Chromatid body
3. Nucleolus
4. Sex chromosome

Answer: 4. Sex chromosome

Question 125. The main function of the lysosome is

1. Sexual reproduction
2. Extracellular digestion
3. Intracellular digestion
4. Both (2) and (3)

Answer: 4. Both (2) and (3)

Question 126. Which of the following maintains continuity between the water and lipid phases inside and outside the cells?

1. Cell wall
2. Lecithin
3. Cell vacuole
4. Cell membrane of woody plants

Answer: 2. Lecithin

Question 127. The membrane surrounding cell vacuole is called

1. Tonoplast
2. Cell wall
3. Plasma membrane
4. Cell membrane

Answer: 1. Tonoplast

Question 128. The diagrammatic representation of chromosomes is known as

1. Idiogram
2. Karyotype
3. Holotype
4. Homotype

Answer: 1. Idiogram

Question 129. Thread-like structures that are composed of nuclear DNA of eukaryotic cells and are carriers of genetic information are known as chromosomes. The tenn “chromosome” was given by

1. Waldeyer
2. Balbiani
3. Purkinje
4. Sutton

Answer: 1. Waldeyer

Question 130. Chromosomes present in prolonged prophase in the salivary glands of Drosophila are

1. Polytene chromosomes
2. b-chromosomes
3. Lampbrush chromosomes
4. Supernumerary chromosomes

Answer: 1. Polytene chromosomes

Question 131. Chromosomes at anaphase are of various shapes due to the position of

1. S and M phase
2. G₁ and S phase
3. Centromere
4. DNA

Answer: 3. Centromere

Question 132. The term “nucleosome” was given by Oudet. Olins and olins called these particles as “nu” particles. Which histone is absent in nucleosome?

1. H₁
2. H₂
3. H₃a
4. H₄

Answer: 3. H₃a

Question 133. Nucleosome gives a beaded appearance to chromosomes. They help in the packing of DNA in chromosomes. A nucleosome has

1. About 2 turns of DNA
2. 8 histone molecules of 4 types (2 mols each of H₂a, H₂b, H₃, and H₄)
3. 200 nitrogen base pairs
4. All of the above

Answer: 4. All of the above

Question 134. Salivary gland chromosomes were discovered by Balbiani (1881) from the salivary glands of larva of

1. Chironomus
2. Drosophila
3. Silkworm
4. Lac worm

Answer: 1. Chironomus

Question 135. In SAT chromosomes, SAT (satellite) is the terminal part of chromosomes beyond secondary constriction. It contains

1. DNA
2. RNA
3. Repetitive DNA
4. None of these

Answer: 3. Repetitive DNA

Question 136. Material exchange through nucleopores is facilitated by

1. Lamina propria
2. lipid layer
3. Nucleoplasmin
4. Nucleolus

Answer: 3. Nucleoplasmin

Question 137. Centriole is

1. Microtubular and membranes
2. Absent in Amoeba, red algae, blue-green algae, conifers, and angiosperms and is made up of peripheral triplet microtubules
3. Basically locomotory and their role in spindle formation is secondary
4. All of the above

Answer: 4. All of the above

Question 138. The association of m-RNA with several ribosomes is called

1. Polysome
2. Informosome
3. Both (1) and (2)
4. None of these

Answer: 1. Polysome

Question 139. The Lampbrush chromosome is found in

1. Oocyte of amphibians
2. The salivary gland of a mosquito
3. Silk gland of silkworm
4. None of the above

Answer: 1. Oocyte of amphibians

Question 140. Prokaryotic ribosomes me

1. 50S
2. 60s
3. 70S
4. 80S

Answer: 3. 70S

Question 141. Mesosomes of prokaryotes perform functions similar to

1. Mitochondria
2. Peroxysomes
3. Lysosomes
4. Ribosomes

Answer: 1. Mitochondria

Question 142. RLR is rough because of the presence of

1. Volutin granules on its surface
2. Ribosomes on its surface
3. Lysosomes on its surface
4. Mitochondria on its surface

Answer: 2. Ribosomes on its surface

Question 143. Cellular recognition is facilitated by the components of the plasma membrane. These components are generally

1. Protein molecules alone
2. Lipid molecules alone
3. Both lipid and protein molecules
4. Glycolipids and glycoproteins

Answer: 4. Glycolipids and glycoproteins

Question 144. Which among the following can be seen only under electron microscope?

1. Chloroplast
2. Ribosome
3. Leucoplast
4. Nucleus

Answer: 2. Ribosome

Question 145. A mature plant cell has

1. Cell wall and protoplasm
2. Protoplasm and vacuole
3. Vacuole and cell wall
4. Protoplasm cell wall and vacuole

Answer: 4. Protoplasm cell wall and vacuole

Question 146. The larger sub-unit in 80S ribosome is

1. 50S
2. 60S
3. 40S
4. 0S

Answer: 2. 60S

Question 147. Golgi bodies are absent in

1. Plants
2. Bacteria
3. Animals
4. Eukaryotic cells

Answer: 2. Bacteria

Question 148. The endoplasmic reticulum is more developed in

1. Green cells
2. Young cells
3. Mature cells
4. Bacteriophages

Answer: 2. Young cells

Question 149. Mitochondria are related to

1. Prokaryotic cells
2. Plasmids
3. Prion
4. Virus

Answer: 1. Prokaryotic cells

Question 150. The main function of lysosomes is

1. Digestion
2. Replication
3. Translation
4. Translocation

Answer: 1. Digestion

Question 151. Which of the following has a single membrane?

1. Ribosome
2. Peroxisome
3. Nucleus
4. Centrosome

Answer: 2. Peroxisome

Question 152. L-shaped chromosomes are called

1. Sex-chromosomes
2. Acrocentric chromosomes
3. Telocentric chromosomes
4. Sub-metacentric chromosomes

Answer: 4. Sub-metacentric chromosomes

Question 153. Who coined the term chromosome?

1. Balbiani
2. Waldeyer
3. Sutton
4. Purkinje

Answer: 2. Waldeyer

Question 154. A chromosome having a sub-terminal centromere is called

1. Telocentric chromosome
2. Acrocentric chromosome
3. Metacentric chromosome
4. Sub-metacentric chromosome

Answer: 2. Acrocentric chromosome

Question 155. How many types of cells are known?

1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four

Answer: 2. Two

Question 156. In which of the following microorganisms, mitosis does not occur?

1. Green algae
2. Fungi
3. Bacteria
4. Higher plants

Answer: 3. Bacteria

Question 157. A mature plant cell has

1. Cell wall
2. Vacuole
3. Protoplasm
4. All of the above

Answer: 4. All of the above

Question 158. In eukaryotic cells, the type of ribosomes is

1. Only 70S
2. Only 80S
3. 70S and 80S both
4. Only 50S

Answer: 3. 70S and 80S both

Question 159. The genetic material of prokaryotic cells is called

1. Nucleus
2. Nucleolus
3. Nucleoid
4. Centrosome

Answer: 3. Nucleoid

Question 160. Which organelle of plant cells secret polysaccharide to make cell walls?

1. Golgi-bodies
2. Lysosome
3. Mitochondria
4. Chloroplast

Answer: 1. Golgi-bodies

Question 161. RNA contains which of the following bases in place of thymine of DNA?

1. Thymine
2. Uracil
3. Adenine
4. None of these

Answer: 2. Uracil

Question 162. The main function of lysosomes is

1. Only intracellular digestion
2. Only extracellular digestion
3. Both intracellular and extracellular digestions
4. None

Answer: 3. Both intracellular and extracellular digestions

Question 163. A eukaryotic cell has

1. Single chromatin fiber
2. Definite nucleus
3. Incipient nucleus
4. None of these

Answer: 2. Definite nucleus

Question 164. The synthesis of lipids and proteins is associated with

1. Endoplasmic reticulum
2. Mitochondria
3. Chloroplast
4. Lysosomes

Answer: 1. Endoplasmic reticulum

Question 165. Cell theory was proposed by

1. Schleiden and Schwann
2. Watson and Crick
3. Darwin and Wallace
4. Mendel and Morgan

Answer: 1. Schleiden and Schwann

Question 166. Which one of the following is not found in animal cell?

1. Nucleus
2. Golgi bodies
3. Chloroplast
4. Mitochondria

Answer: 3. Chloroplast

Question 167. Unit membrane consists of

1. Lipid + Sugar + Lipid
2. Protein + Lipid + Protein
3. Lipid + Protein + Lipid
4. Protein

Answer: 2. Protein + Lipid + Protein

Question 168. The principal constituents of chromosomes are

1. DNA +Protein
2. DNA
3. RNA
4. RNA

Answer: 1. DNA +Protein

Question 169. The shape of the chromosome is determined by

1. Telomere
2. Centromere
3. Chromomere
4. Centrosome

Answer: 2. Centromere

Question 170. In a bacterial cell, the respiratory enzymes are found in

1. Mitochondria
2. Chondriosome
3. Mesosome
4. Centrosome

Answer: 3. Mesosome

Question 171. The cell wall of Spirogyra is made up of

1. Cellulose
2. Suberin
3. Lignin
4. Chitin

Answer: 1. Cellulose

Question 172. The main function of the Golgi complex is

1. Translocation
2. Phosphorylation
3. Glyco-oxidation
4. Fermentation

Answer: 1. Translocation

Question 173. In cell division, spindle fibers are made up of protein

1. Myoglobin
2. Tubulin
3. Albumin
4. Myosin

Answer: 2. Tubulin

Question 174. Choose the incorrect match.

1. Nucleus—RNA
2. Lysosome—Protein synthesis
3. Mitochondria—Respiration
4. Cytoskeleton—Microtubules

Answer: 2. Lysosome—Protein synthesis

Question 175. Rough endoplasmic reticulum is associated with

1. Fat synthesis
2. Steroid synthesis
3. Protein synthesis
4. All of these

Answer: 3. Protein synthesis

Question 176. The resolving power of an electron microscope is

1. 10
2. 10⁵
3. 100⁵
4. 1000⁵

Answer: 2. 10⁵

Question 177. The number of barr bodies in XXXXY is

1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4

Answer: 3. 3

Question 178. The study related to the structure and function of a cell is called as

1. Physiology
2. Cell Biology
3. Histology
4. Cytology

Answer: 2. Cell biology

Question 179. The fluid mosaic model was given by

1. Knoll and Ruska
2. Singer and Ruska
3. Singer and Nicolson
4. Bateson and Punnet

Answer: 3. Singer and Nicolson

Question 180. The characteristic of blue-green algae is

1. DNA without histone
2. Nucleus absent
3. Nuclear membrane absent
4. All of the above

Answer: 4. All of the above

Question 181. The cell wall of a cell is removed. The remaining is called

1. Etioplast
2. Aleuroplast
3. Amyloplast
4. Protoplast

Answer: 4. Protoplast

Question 182. The movement against the concentration gradient is called

1. Osmosis
2. Active transport
3. Diffusion
4. Passive transport

Answer: 2. Active transport

Question 183. Which one is present in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?

1. Ribosome
2. Mitochondria
3. ER
4. Nucleus

Answer: 1. Ribosome

Question 184. Centromere is also called

1. Chromomere
2. Secondary constriction
3. Primary constriction
4. Chromonema

Answer: 3. Primary constriction

Question 185. In Singer and Nicolson’s model of the plasma membrane, the extrinsic proteins are

1. Tightly associated with intrinsic protein and can be easily separated
2. Loosely associated with intrinsic protein
3. Loosely associated with intrinsic protein and can be easily separated
4. Loosely associated with intrinsic protein and cannot be easily separated

Answer: 3. Loosely associated with intrinsic protein and can be easily separated

Question 186. Ribosomes are associated with

1. RNA synthesis
2. Protein synthesis
3. Enzyme mobilization
4. DNA synthesis

Answer: 2. Protein synthesis

Question 187.  Which organelle is not found in an animal cell?

1. Peroxisome
2. Ribosome
3. Lysosome
4. None of these

Answer: 4. None of these

Question 188. Actin fiber is present in

1. Cilia
2. Flagella
3. Carbohydrate
4. Microfilaments

Answer: 4. Microfilaments

Question 189. Meiosis can be observed in

1. Tapetal cells
2. Megaspores
3. Micropores
4. Spore mother cells

Answer: 4. Spore mother cells

Question 190. Carrier proteins are involved in

1. Transport of enzymes
2. Water transport
3. Active transport of ions
4. Passive transport of gases

Answer: 3. Active transport of ions

Question 191. The recent model for plasma membrane proposed by Singer and Nicolson is

1. Molecular lipid model
2. Lamellar model
3. Unit membrane model
4. Fluid mosaic model

Answer: 4. Fluid mosaic model

Question 192. The function of mitochondria is

1. Excretion
2. Respiration
3. Digestion
4. Excretion and respiration

Answer: 2. Respiration

Question 193. The term basal body is associated with the development of

1. Cilia and flagella
2. Cell plate
3. Phragmoplast
4. Kinetochore

Answer: 1. Cilia and flagella

Question 194. The Golgi body originates form

1. Lysosome
2. Endoplasmic reticulum
3. Mitochondria
4. Cell membrane

Answer: 2. Endoplasmic reticulum

Question 195. Lipid molecules in the plasma membrane are arranged in which manner?

1. Scattered
2. Series
3. Alternate
4. Head parallel

Answer: 4. Head parallel

Question 196. The structure of the nuclear membrane helps in

1. Organization of the spindle
2. Synapsis of homologous chromosome
3. Nucleo-cytoplasmic exchange of material
4. Anaphasic separation of daughter chromosome

Answer: 3. Nucleo-cytoplasmic exchange of material

Question 197. Hydrolytic enzymes are stored in

1. Golgi bodies
2. Lysosomes
3. Endoplasmic reticulum
4. Mitochondria

Answer: 2. Lysosomes

Question 198. Ribosomes may be also called

1. Microsome
2. Dictyosomes
3. Ribonucleoprotein
4. Oxysomes

Answer: 3. Ribonucleoprotein

Question 199. Genes are present in

1. Chromosomes
2. Lamellae
3. Plasma membrane
4. Mesosomes

Answer: 1. Chromosomes

Question 200. The chromosome showing an L-shaped structure by the presence of a centromere is termed as

1. Acentric
2. Metacentric
3. Sub-metacentric
4. Telocentric

Answer: 3. Sub-metacentric

Question 201. Who coined the term “cell”?

1. Purkinje
2. Robert Brown
3. Robert Hooke
4. Hugo von Mold

Answer: 3. Robert Hooke

Question 202. Chromosome having centromere in its middle is called

1. Acrocentric
2. Telocentric
3. Metacentric
4. Submetacentric

Answer: 3. Metacentric

Question 203. Single membrane-bound organelle is

1. Lysosome
2. Plastid
3. Nucleus
4. Mitochondria

Answer: 1. Lysosome

Question 204. Which of the following does not possess a lipoproteinaceous membrane?

1. Lysosomes
2. Lomasomes
3. Ribosomes
4. Sphaerosomes

Answer: 3. Ribosomes

Question 205. Centrosome is not present in

1. Cells of higher plants
2. Cells of lower plants
3. Cells of higher animals
4. Cells of lower animals

Answer: 1. Cells of higher plants

Question 206. The site of protein synthesis is

1. Ribosome
2. SER
3. Golgi bodies
4. Lysosomc

Answer: 1. Ribosome

Question 207. To study the living cells without staining, which of the following microscopes can be used?

1. SEM
2. Florescent
3. Phase contrast
4. TEM

Answer: 3. Phase contrast

Question 208. Molecular biology is the study of

1. Structure, function, and cell reproduction
2. Physicochemical studies of biomolecules
3. Studying tissues under a microscope
4. Metabolic activity of life

Answer: 2. Physicochemical studies of biomolecules

Question 209. The sub-cellular components can be separated by

1. Paper chromatography
2. Autoradiography
3. Gel electrophoresis
4. Differential and density gradient centrifugation

Answer: 4. Differential and density gradient centrifugation

Question 210. The chromosome separation during metaphase can be best studied by

1. Phase contrast microscope
2. TEM
3. X-ray technique
4. Scanning electron microscope

Answer: 1. Phase contrast microscope

Question 211. The technique of chromatography was developed by

1. Wilkins
2. George Gey
3. Tswett
4. Zemicks

Answer: 3. Tswett

Question 212. Which of the following dye is used for staining cell organelle, and mitochondria?

1. Janus Green
2. Safranin
3. Azure B
4. Crystal violet

Answer: 1. Janus Green

Question 213. In the fluid mosaic model of the plasma membrane,

1. Upper layer is non-polar and hydrophilic
2. Polar layer is hydrophobic
3. Phospholipids form a bimolecular layer in the middle part
4. Proteins form a middle layer

Answer: 3. Phospholipids form a bimolecular layer in the middle part

Question 214. According to the widely accepted “fluid mosaic model,” cell membranes are semi-fluid, where lipids and integral proteins can diffuse randomly. In recent years, this model has been modified in several respects. In this regard, which of the following statements is incorrect?

1. Proteins can also undergo flip-flop movements in the lipid bilayer.
2. Many proteins remain completely embedded within the lipid bilayer.
3. Proteins in cell membranes can travel within the lipid bilayer.
4. Proteins can remain confined within certain domains of the membranes.

Answer: 1. Proteins can also undergo flip-flop movements in the lipid bilayer.

Question 215. Which one of the following is not a constituent of cell membrane?

1. Cholesterol
2. Glycolipids
3. Proline
4. Phospholipids

Answer: 3. Proline

Question 216. The main organelle involved in the modification and rout¬ing of newly synthesized proteins to their destination is

1. Endoplasmic reticulum
2. Lysosomc
3. Mitochondria
4. Chloroplast

Answer: 1. Endoplasmic reticulum

Question 217. Chlorophyll in chloroplasts is located in

1. Grana
2. Pyrcnoid
3. Stroma
4. Both grana and stroma

Answer: 1. Grana

Question 218. Which of the following statements regarding mitochondrial membrane is not correct?

1. The outer membrane resembles a sieve.
2. The outer membrane is permeable to all kinds of molecules.
3. The enzymes of the electron transfer chain are embedded in the outer membrane.
4. The inner membrane is highly convoluted forming a series of infoldings.

Answer: 3. The enzymes of the electron transfer chain are embedded in the outer membrane

Question 219. Polysome is formed by

1. A ribosome with several subunits
2. Ribosomes attached to each other in a linear arrangement
3. Several ribosomes attached to a single mRNA
4. Many ribosomes attached to a strand of endoplasmic reticulum

Answer: 3. Several ribosomes attached to a single mRNA

Question 220. Vacuole in a plant cell

1. Lacks membrane and contains air
2. Lacks membrane and contains water and excretory substances
3. Is membrane-bound and contains storage proteins and lipids
4. Is membrane-bound and contains water and excretory substances

Answer: 4. Is membrane-bound and contains water and excretory substances

Question 221. In germinating seeds, fatty acids are degraded exclusively in the

1. Peroxisomes
2. Mitochondria
3. Proplastids
4. Glyoxysomes

Answer: 4. Glyoxysomes

Question 222. Keeping in view the fluid mosaic model for the structure of cell membrane, which one of the following statements is correct with respect to the movement of lipids and proteins from one lipid monolayer to the other (described as -flip-flop movement)?

1. While proteins can flip-flop, lipids cannot.
2. Neither lipids nor proteins can flip-flop.
3. Both lipids and proteins can flip-flop.
4. While lipids can rarely flip-flop, proteins cannot.

Answer: 4. While lipids can rarely flip-flop, proteins cannot.

Question 223. Three of the following statements regarding cell organelles are correct while one is wrong. Which one is wrong?

1. Lysosomes are double-membraned vesicles budded off from the Golgi apparatus and contain digestive enzymes.
2. The endoplasmic reticulum consists of a network of membranous tubules and helps in transport, synthesis, and secretion.
3. Leucoplasts are bound by two membranes that lack pigment but contain their own DNA and protein-synthesizing machinery.
4. Spharosomes are single membrane bonds and are associated with the synthesis and storage of lipids.

Answer: 1. Lysomes are double-membraned vesicles budded off from the Golgi apparatus and contain digestive enzymes.

Question 224. In which one of the following would you expect to find glyoxysomes?

1. Endosperm of wheat
2. Endosperm of castor
3. Palisade cells in leaf
4. Root hairs

Answer: 2. Endosperm of castor

Question 225. Which of the following statements regarding cilia is not correct?

1. Cilia contain an outer layer of nine doublet microtubules surrounding two single microtubules.
2. The organized beating of cilia is controlled by fluxes of Ca²⁺ across the membrane.
3. Cilia are hair-like cellular appendages.
4. Microtubules of cilia are composed of tubulin.

Answer: 2. The organized beating of cilia is controlled by fluxes of Ca²⁺ across the membrane.

Question 226. The contractile protein of skeletal muscle involving ATPase activity is

1. Actinin
2. Toponin
3. Tropomyosin
4. Myosin

Answer: 4. Myosin

Question 227. Select the wrong statement from the following:

1. Both chloroplasts and mitochondria contain an inner and outer membrane.
2. Both chloroplast and mitochondria have an internal compartment, the thylakoid space bounded by the thylakoid membrane.
3. Both chloroplasts and mitochondria contain DNA.
4. The chloroplasts are generally much larger than mitochondria.

Answer: 2. Both chloroplast and mitochondria have an internal compartment, the thylakoid space bounded by the thylakoid membrane.

Question 228. The telomeres of eukaryotic chromosomes consist of short sequences of

1. Cytosine-rich repeats
2. Adenine-rich repeats
3. Guanine-rich repeats
4. Thymine-rich repeats

Answer: 3. Guanine-rich repeats

Question 229. If you are provided with root tips of onion in your class and are asked to count the chromosomes, which of the following stages can your most conveniently look into

1. Telophase
2. Anaphase
3. Prophase
4. Metaphase

Answer: 4. Metaphase

Question 230. Protein synthesis in an animal cell occurs

1. On ribosomes present in the cytoplasm as well as in mitochondria
2. On ribosomes present in the nucleolus as well as in the cytoplasm
3. Only on ribosomes attached to the nuclear envelope and endoplasmic reticulum
4. Only on the ribosomes present in cytosol

Answer: 1. On ribosomes present in the cytoplasm as well as in mitochondria

Question 231. Telomerase is an enzyme that is a

1. RNA
2. Ribonucleoprotein
3. Repetitive DNA
4. Simple protein

Answer: 1. RNA

Question 232. The length of DNA molecule greatly exceeds the dimensions of the nucleus in eukaryotic cells. How is the DNA accommodated?

1. Deletion of non-essential genes
2. Supper-coiling in nucleosomes
3. DNase digestion
4. Through the elimination of repetitive DNA

Answer: 2. Supper-coiling in nucleosomes

Question 233. Centromere is required for

1. Movement of chromosomes towards poles
2. Cytoplasmic cleavage
3. Crossing over
4. Transcription
5. During entire prophase

Answer: 1. Movement of chromosomes toward poles

Question 234. Plasmodesmata are

1. Connections between adjacent cells
2. Lignified cemented layers between cells
3. Locomotory structures
4. Membranes connecting the nucleus with plasmalemma

Answer: 1. Connections between adjacent cells

Question 235. Middle lamella is composed mainly of

1. Phosphoglycerides
2. Hemicellulose
3. Muramic acid
4. Calcium pectate

Answer: 4. Calcium pectate

Question 236. Cytoskeleton is made up of

1. Proteinaceous filaments
2. Calcium carbonate granules
3. Callose deposits
4. Cellulosic microfibrils

Answer: 1. Proteinaceous filaments

Question 237. The cell junctions called tight, adhering, and gap junctions are found in

1. Neural tissue
2. Muscular tissue
3. Connective tissue
4. Epithelial tissue

Answer: 4. Epithelial tissue

Question 238. There is no DNA in

1. Hair root
2. An enucleated ovum
3. Mature RBCs
4. A mature spermatozoa

Answer: 3. Mature RBCs

Question 239. A student wishes to study the cell structure under a light microscope having 10X eyepiece and 45X objective. He should illuminate the object which one of the following colors of light so as to get the best possible resolution.

1. Yellow
2. Green
3. Red
4. Blue

Answer: 3. Red

Question 240. A major breakthrough in the studies of cells came with the development of the electron microscope. This is because

1. Electron beams can pass through thick materials, whereas light microscopy requires thin section.
2. The electron microscope is more powerful than the light microscope as it uses a beam of electrons that have wavelengths much longer than that of photons.
3. The resolution power of the electron microscope is much higher than that of the light microscope.
4. The resolving power of the electron microscope is 200-350 nm as compared to 0.1-0.2 nm for the light microscope.

Answer: 3. The resolving power of the electron microscope is 200-350 nm as compared to 0.1-0.2 nm for the light microscope.

Question 241. The main area of various types of activities of a cell is

1. Plasma membrane
2. Mitochondrion
3. Cytoplasm
4. Nucleus

Answer: 3. Cytoplasm

Question 242. Carrier ions such as Na⁺ facilitate the absorption of substances such as

1. Amino acids and glucose
2. Glucose and fatty acids
3. Fatty acids and glycerol
4. Fructose and some amino acids

Answer: 4. Fructose and some amino acids

Question 243. The plasma membrane consists mainly of

1. Phospholipids embedded in a protein bilayer
2. Proteins embedded in a phospholipid bilayer
3. Proteins embedded in a polymer of glucose molecules
4. Proteins embedded in a carbohydrate bilayer

Answer: 2. Proteins embedded in a phospholipid bilayer

Question 244. An elaborate network of filamentous proteinaceous structures present in the cytoplasm which helps in the maintenance of cell shape is called

Endoplasmic reticulum

1. Plasmalemma
2. Cytoskeleton
3. Thylakoid

Answer: 3. Cytoskeleton

Question 245. Identify the components labeled A, B, C, and D from the list (1) to (8) given along with.

Components:

1. Cristae of mitochondria
2. Inner membrane of mitochondria
3. Cytoplasm
4. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
5. Rough endoplasmic reticulum
6. Mitochondrial matrix
7. Cell vacuole
8. Nucleus

The correct components are:

Answer: 4

Question 246. What is true about ribosomes?

1. These are composed of ribonucleic acid and proteins.
2. These are found only in eukaryotic cells.
3. These are self-splicing introns of some RNAs.
4. The prokaryotic ribosomes are 80 S, where “S” stands for sedimentation coefficient.

Answer: 1. These are composed of ribonucleic acid and proteins.

Question 247. Select the correct statement from the following regarding cell membranes.

1. Proteins make up 60 to 70% of the cell membrane.
2. Lipids are arranged in a bilayer with polar heads toward the inner part.
3. Fluid mosaic model of cell membrane was proposed by Singer and Nicolson.
4. Na⁺ and K ions move across cell

Answer: 3. Fluid mosaic model of cell membrane was proposed by Singer and Nicolson.

Question 248. The correct sequence of cell organelles during photorespiration is

1. Chloroplast—Rough endoplasmic reticulum—Dictyosomes
2. Chloroplast—Mitochondria—Peroxisome
3. Chloroplast—Vacuole—Peroxisome
4. Chloroplast—Golgi bodies—Mitochondria

Answer: 2. Chloroplast—Mitochondria—Peroxisome

Structural Organization In Animals Multiple Choice Questions And Answers

Question 1. Epithelial tissues lie on the basement membrane. It is made up of

1. Basal lamina composed of mucopolysaccharides and glycoproteins secreted by epithelial cells
2. Fibrous lamina composed of collagen and reticular fibers of underlying connective tissue
3. Both (1) and (2)
4. Cellular layer

Answer: 3. Cellular layer

Question 2. Simple epithelium is not effective in

1. Nutrition
2. Excretion
3. Secretion
4. Protecting the underlying tissues

Answer: 4. Protecting the underlying tissues

Question 3. Which of the following epithelial forms the inner lining of the lung alveoli, blood vessels, and peritoneum of the body cavity?

1. Cuboidal
2. Squamous
3. Columnar
4. Ciliated columnar

Answer: 2. Squamous

Question 4. Which of the following mammalian tissues is associated with filtration and diffusion?

1. Simple columnar
2. Simple squamous
3. Stratified squamous
4. Stratified columnar

Answer: 2. Simple squamous

Question 5. Simple squamous epithelium lining the blood vessels is called

1. Mesothelium
2. Endothelium
3. Pavement epithelium
4. Tessellated epithelium

Answer: 2. Endothelium

Question 6. Ciliated columnar epithelium called ependyma is present in the lining of

1. Fallopian tubes
2. Ventricles of brain
3. Nasal passage
4. Bronchioles

Answer: 2. Ventricles of brain

Question 7. Brush-bordered cuboidal epithelium is present in

1. Intestine
2. Proximal convoluted tubule
3. Stomach
4. Gall bladder

Answer: 2. Proximal convoluted tubule

Question 8. Ciliated epithelium occurs in

1. Stomach
2. Trachea and bronchi
3. Duodenum
4. Ileum

Answer: 2. Trachea and bronchi

Question 9. The germinal epithelium of the testis and ovary is made up of

1. Columnar epithelium
2. Squamous epithelium
3. Cuboidal epithelium
4. Stratified epithelium

Answer: 3. Cuboidal epithelium

Question 10. All the statements about stereocilia are correct except

1. They are non-motile
2. These are found in epididymis and vas deferens
3. It has 9 + 2 ultrastructure
4. The basal granule is absent

Answer: 3. It has 9 + 2 ultrastructure

Question 11. Which of the following epithelia covers the inner linings of the trachea, and large bronchi, and helps to remove mucus?

1. Ciliated columnar
2. Pseudo-stratified epithelium
3. Compound epithelium
4. Cuboidal epithelium

Answer: 2. Pseudo-stratified epithelium

Question 12. The epithelium found in the inner lining of the stomach and intestine is

1. Columnar
2. Squamous
3. Stratified
4. Pseudostratified

Answer: 1. Columnar

Question 13. The adjacent epithelial cells are held together by means of

1. Liposomes
2. Glyoxysomes
3. Desmosomes
4. Microsomes

Answer: 3. Desmosomes

Question 14. Pavement epithelium is the name of

1. Cuboidal epithelium
2. Squamous epithelium
3. Columnar epithelium
4. Ciliated epithelium

Answer: 2. Squamous epithelium

Question 15. Pseudostratified non-ciliated columnar epithelial tissue is found in the

1. Urethra of male and parotid salivary gland
2. Trachea and large bronchi
3. Vas deferens and epididymis
4. Buccopharyngeal cavity and oviduct

Answer: 1. Urethra of male and parotid salivary gland

Question 16. Stratified squamous non-keratinized epithelium is present in the lining of

1. Buccal cavity, esophagus, cornea of the eye
2. Skin, hair, horn, nail
3. Small pancreatic ducts, thyroid follicles, ovary
4. Intestine, stomach, gall bladder

Answer: 1. Buccal cavity, esophagus, cornea of the eye

Question 17. Which of the following epithelia is much thinner and more stretchable than the stratified epithelium and covers the inner surface of the urinary bladder and ureter?

1. Transitional
2. Compound
3. Simple
4. Stratified

Answer: 1. Transitional

Question 18. Which of the following cells are specialized for sensory functions, as cells of taste bud?

1. Myoepithelial
2. Neuroepithelial
3. Cuboidal
4. Codified

Answer: 2. Neuroepithelial

Question 19. Cells of the peritoneum comprise

1. Ciliated epithelium
2. Columnar epithelium
3. Glandular epithelium
4. Squamous epithelium

Answer: 4. Squamous epithelium

Question 20. Which of the following matches is incorrect?

1. Holocrine—Sebaceous
2. Merocrine—Pancreas
3. Apocrine—Mammary glands
4. Eccrine (merocrine)—Mammary gland

Answer: 4. Eccrine (merocrine)—Mammary gland

Question 21. Human mammary glands belong to which one of the following types of glands?

1. Simple alveolar
2. Coiled tubular
3. Compound tubule-alveolar
4. Simple tubular

Answer: 3. Compound tubule-alveolar

Question 22. Apocrine secretion of the gland means

1. When the product is released but cell remains intact
2. When the entire contents of the cell are discharged with the destruction of the cell
3. When a part of the apical cytoplasm is lost
4. None of these

Answer: 3. When a part of apical cytoplasm is lost

Question 23. Which of the following tissues is present in the maximum amount, joins different tissues, forms the packing between them and helps to keep the organs in place and normal shape?

1. Areolar
2. Adipose
3. Tendon
4. Ligament

Answer: 1. Areolar

Question 24. The epithelium covering the tongue is

1. Pseudostratified
2. Squamous keratinized
3. Squamous non-keratinized
4. Simple cuboidal

Answer: 3. Squamous non-keratinized

Question 25. Which of the following are principal cells of areolar connective tissue and secrete the maximum amount of matrix?

1. Macrophage
2. Mast
3. Fibroblast
4. Histiocyte

Answer: 3. Fibroblast

Question 26. Which one of the following contains the largest quantity of extra-cellular material?

1. Striated muscle
2. Areolar tissue
3. Stratified epithelium
4. Myelinated nerve fibers

Answer: 2. Areolar tissue

Question 27. Where would you find mast cells?

1. Adipose tissue
2. Yellow fibrous tissue
3. Areolar tissue
4. White fibrous tissue

Answer: 3. Areolar tissue

Question 28. Areolar tissue connects

1. Muscles with muscles
2. Bone with muscle
3. Skin with muscles
4. Bone with bone

Answer: 3. Skin with muscles

Question 29. Heparin, histamine, and serotonin are secreted by

1. Lymphoid cells
2. Mast cells
3. Fibroblasts
4. Macrophages

Answer: 2. Mast cells

Question 30. Colloidal protein gelatin is obtained by boiling

1. Collagen
2. Elastin
3. Both (1) and (2)
4. None of these

Answer: 1. Collagen

Question 31. Fibers present in connective tissue are

1. Reticular
2. Elastic
3. Collagen
4. All of these

Answer: 4. All of these

Question 32. A newborn baby has a cold-resisting device due to

1. Brown fat
2. Adipose fat
3. Fat rich in reticular tissue
4. None of these

Answer: 1. Brown fat

Question 33. Which of the following tissues is present at the joints between skull bones and makes them immovable?

1. Cartilage
2. White fibrous connective tissue
3. Ligament
4. Areolar

Answer: 2. White fibrous connective tissue

Question 34. The nucleus pulposus is present in

1. Intervertebral disc
2. Kidney
3. Testis
4. Cartilage

Answer: 1. Intervertebral disc

Question 35. Which of the following tissues connects bones at joints and enables us to move and rotate our neck, limbs, and fingers comfortably?

1. Tendon
2. Cartilage
3. Ligament
4. White fibrous cartilage

Answer: 3. Ligament

Question 36. A sprain is caused by

1. Excessive pulling of tendons
2. Excessive pulling of muscles
3. Excessive pulling of ligaments in which some fibers of supporting ligaments are ruptured
4. Too much stretching and tearing of all ligaments

Answer: 3. Excessive pulling of ligaments in which some fibers of supporting ligaments are ruptured

Question 37. The connective tissue which mainly consists of yellow clastic fibers and binds the bones together is known as

1. Ligament
2. Tendon
3. Reticular fibers
4. None of these

Answer: 1. Ligament

Question 38. All the following statements are correct, except

1. Hyaline cartilage lacks fibers and is present in the sternum, hyoid, and ribs.
2. White fibrous cartilage is the strongest and is present in intervertebral discs.
3. Elastic cartilage is present in the tip of the nose and ear pinna.
4. Calcified cartilage is not present in the pubis of the pelvic girdle of the frog.

Answer: 4. Calcified cartilage is not present in the pubis of the pelvic girdle of the frog.

Question 39. Hyaline cartilage is found in

1. Eustachian tube, epiglottis, and pinna
2. Larynx, nasal septum, tracheal rings, and ribs
3. Joints between vertebrae
4. Between the rows of chondrocytes in lacunae

Answer: 2. Larynx, nasal septum, tracheal rings, and ribs

Question 40. Bone-forming cells that secrete ossein protein are called

1. Chondroblasts
2. Chondrocytes
3. Osteoblasts
4. Osteocytes

Answer: 3. Osteoblasts

Question 41. The bone matrix consists of

1. 65% inorganic matter and 35% organic matter
2. 30% inorganic matter and 70% organic matter
3. 60% inorganic matter and 40% organic matter
4. 40% inorganic matter and 60% organic matter

Answer: 1. 65% inorganic matter and 35% organic matter

Question 42. Protein found in cartilage is

1. Ossein
2. Chondrin
3. Myosin
4. Elastin

Answer: 2. Chondrin

Question 43. One of the following salts predominates in the bone matrix.

1. Sodium chloride
2. Magnesium phosphate
3. Calcium carbonate
4. Calcium phosphate

Answer: 4. Calcium phosphate

Question 44. If a clean dry bone is kept in diluted HCl for about three days, it

1. Breaks into pieces
2. Becomes soft and elastic
3. Dissolves
4. Remains unchanged

Answer: 2. Becomes soft and elastic

Question 45. The transverse canal that joins longitudinal Haversian canals is known as Volkmann’s canal. It is a characteristic feature of the bone of

1. Frog
2. Fish
3. Toad
4. Rabbit

Answer: 4. Rabbit

Question 46. The bone of a mammal contains Haversian canals which are interconnected by transverse canals known as

1. Canaliculi
2. Volkmann’s canal
3. Trabeculae
4. Bidder’s canal

Answer: 2. Volkmann’s canal

Question 47. Spongy or chancellors bone is present in vertebrae, ribs, skull, and epiphysis of long bones. They have

1. Haversian canals
2. Trabeculae
3. Red bone marrow
4. Both (2) and (3)

Answer: 4. Both (2) and (3)

Question 48. RBCs of mammals are

1. Non-nucleated, biconcave, and circular
2. Nucleated, biconvex, oval
3. Non-nucleated, biconvex, oval
4. Non-nucleated, biconvex, circular

Answer: 1. Non-nucleated, biconcave, and circular

Question 49. Which of the following is incorrect?

1. An increase in RBC count is polycythemia.
2. A decrease in leukocyte count is called leukopenia.
3. A decrease in thrombocyte count is called thrombocytopenia.
4. Purpura (a group of bleeding disorders) is due to an increase in platelet count.

Answer: 4. Purpura (a group of bleeding disorders) is due to increase in platelet count.

Question 50. Which of the following precipitates Ca²⁺ ions and consequently prevents coagulation?

1. Heparin
2. Thrombin
3. Potassium oxalate/Sodium citrate
4. Antithrombin

Answer: 3. Potassium oxalate/Sodium citrate

Question 51. Erythropoiesis in the fetus occurs in

1. Spleen
2. Liver
3. Both (1) and (2)
4. Bone marrow

Answer: 3. Both (1) and (2)

Question 52. Anemia is caused due to the deficiency of

1. Folic acid
2. Vitamin B₁₂
3. Hemoglobin
4. All of these

Answer: 4. All of these

Question 53. An abnormal rise in RBC count can be found during exercise and at high altitude to cope with the oxygen demand is known as

1. Polycythemia
2. Thrombosis
3. Leukemia
4. Angina pectoris

Answer: 1. Polycythemia

Question 54. Which of the following is not an anticoagulant?

1. Histamine
2. Hirudin
3. Heparin
4. Citrate

Answer: 1. Histamine

Question 55. Old RBCs are destroyed in the “tissue macrophage system.” In the breakdown of hemoglobin, bilirubin is formed from

1. Glob in part
2. Porphyrin
3. Mainly from Globin and a part from Heme
4. Iron part

Answer: 2. Porphyrin

Question 56. Which of the following has a kidney-shaped nucleus?

1. Neutrophils
2. Monocytes
3. Lymphocytes
4. Eosinophils

Answer: 2. Monocytes

Question 57. Which one of the following act as a soldier in the human body?

1. Monocytes
2. Lymphocytes
3. Erythrocytes
4. All of these

Answer: 1. Monocytes

Question 58. The maximum number of WBCs in the body is

1. Eosinophils
2. Basophils
3. Monocytes
4. Neutrophils

Answer: 4. Neutrophils

Question 59. Cardiac muscles are

1. Striated, voluntary with syncytial condition
2. Unstriated, involuntary, uninucleated
3. Striated, involuntary with intercalated disc
4. Involuntary and unstriated

Answer: 3. Striated, involuntary with intercalated disc

Question 60. Where would you find oblique cross-connections forming a contractile network of fibers and intercalated discs?

1. Voluntary muscles
2. Cardiac muscles
3. Involuntary muscles
4. None of these

Answer: 2. Cardiac muscles

Question 61. Covering membrane around muscle fiber is known as

1. Neurilemma
2. Plasmalemma
3. Sarcolemma
4. Myolemma

Answer: 3. Sarcolemma

Question 62. A long refractory period is present in

1. Smooth muscles
2. Cardiac muscles
3. Striated muscles
4. None of these

Answer: 2. Cardiac muscles

Question 63. Erector pili muscles are

1. Voluntary, multiunit
2. Involuntary, multiunit
3. Involuntary, single-unit
4. Voluntary, single unit

Answer: 2. Involuntary, multiunit

Question 64. Diapedesis means

1. Movement of the food in the gut
2. Formation of WBCs
3. The process by which monocytes and neutrophils squeeze through thin capillary wall
4. Formation of RBCs

Answer: 3. The process by which monocytes and neutrophils squeeze through the thin capillary wall

Question 65. The membrane of Krause or Z line is a dark membrane that bisects

1. A band or anisotropic band
2. Henson’s line
3. I band or isotropic band
4. Sarcomere

Answer: 1. A band or anisotropic band

Question 66. Nissl granules are made up of

1. Ribosomes and RNA
2. DNA and proteins
3. Ribosomes and DNA
4. RNA, DNA, and proteins

Answer: 3. Ribosomes and DNA

Question 67. In the central nervous system, the myelin sheath around the nerve fiber is formed by the spiral wrapping of

1. Neurilemma
2. Schwann cells
3. Oligodendrocytes
4. Neurolemmocytes

Answer: 3. Oligodendrocytes

Question 68. The brain barrier is formed by

1. Astrocytes
2. Oligodendrocytes
3. Glial cells
4. Microglial cells

Answer: 1. Astrocytes

Question 69. Neuroglia cells consist of packing cells and occur in

1. Brain
2. Spinal cord
3. Ganglia
4. All of these

Answer: 4. All of these

Question 70. A nerve is a bundle of

1. Ganglia
2. Dendrites
3. Synapse
4. Axons

Answer: 4. Axons

Questions Related To Earthworm, Cockroach, And Frog

Question 71. Which of the following statements is not correct about earthworms?

1. It shows metamerism and the number of segments varies from 100-120.
2. The first segment at the anterior end of the body is called as the buccal segment or
3. The first segment is prostomium.
4. The skin of earthworms is brown due to the presence of porphyrin.

Answer: 3. The first segment is prostomium.

Question 72. The earthworms move with the help of

1. Setae, muscles, and hydrostatic skeleton
2. Setae alone
3. Muscles alone
4. Parapodia

Answer: 1. Setae, muscles, and hydrostatic skeleton

Question 73. In earthworms, there is a ring of S-shaped setae, embedded in the epidermal pit at the middle of each segment except

1. First
2. Last
3. Clitellar
4. First, last, and clitellar segments

Answer: 4. First, last, and clitellar segments

Question 74. There are four pairs of spermathecal pores in Pheretima which are located in intersegmental grooves between segments

1. 5/6, 6/7, 7/8, 8/9
2. 6/7, 7/8, 8/9, 9/10
3. 14/15, 15/16, 16/17, 17/18
4. 1/2, 2/3, 3/4, 4/5

Answer: 1. 5/6, 6/7, 7/8, 8/9

Question 75. Tick mark the wrong match (in earthworm).

1. Female genital aperture—Midventral line of 14th segment
2. A pair of male genital apertures—Ventrolateral sides of the 18th segment
3. Genital papillae—Ventral surface of 17th and 19th segments
4. Clitellum or Cingulum—9th to 14th segment

Answer: 4. Clitellum or Cingulum—9th to 14th segment

Question 76. Which of the following are analogous to vertebrate liver cells?

1. Chromophil cells
2. Chloragogen cells
3. Calciferous gland cells
4. Albumen cells

Answer: 2. Chloragogen cells

Question 77. In earthworms, typhlosole extends between 27th and 95th segments. Its function is

1. Excretion
2. Enhances effective area of absorption after digestion
3. Respiration
4. Locomotion

Answer: 2. Enhances effective area of absorption after digestion

Question 78. Which of the following statements is incorrect about the circulatory system of earthworms?

1. Pheretima represents a closed type of blood vascular system.
2. Blood glands are present in 4th, 5th. and 6th segments; they produce blood cells and hemoglobin dissolved in plasma.
3. There are four pairs of hearts in earthworms present in the 7th, 9th, 12th, and 13th segments.
4. In the dorsal vessel, blood flows in the forward direction and is without valves.

Answer: 4. In the dorsal vessel, blood flows in the forward direction and is without valves.

Question 79. Testes in earthworms are present in the segments

1. 11 and 12
2. 12 and 13
3. 14 and 15
4. 10 and 11

Answer: 4. 10 and 11

Question 80. During copulation in earthworms, sperms are transferred between copulating individuals from

1. Female genital pore to spermathecae
2. Male genital pores to spermathecae
3. Spermathecae to cocoon
4. Male genital pores to outside

Answer: 2. Male genital pores to spermathecae

Question 81. All the following statements are correct about the reproductive system of earthworms except

1. Fertilization is external and cross-fertilization
2. There are two pairs of testes in the 10th and 11th segments and one pair of ovaries attached at the intersegmental septum of the 12th and 13th segments.
3. Accessory glands are present on the ventral surface of 17th and 19th segments.
4. Earthworms is unisexual.

Answer: 4. Fertilization is external and cross-fertilization

Question 82. The dorsal blood vessel in Pheretima is

1. Distributing in whole body
2. Collecting in whole body
3. Distributing in first 13 segments
4. Collecting in first 13 segments

Answer: 3. Distributing in first 13 segments

Question 83. In Pheretima, clitellum is primarily meant for

1. Burrowing
2. Fertilization
3. Producing cocoons
4. Locomotion

Answer: 3. Producing cocoons

Question 84. Lateral oesophageal hearts in earthworms connect

1. Supra-oesophageal and dorsal vessel to ventral vessel
2. Dorsal vessel to sub-oesophageal vessel
3. Lateral oesophageal vessel to sub-neural vessel
4. Dorsal vessel to sub-neural vessel

Answer: 1. Supra-oesophageal and dorsal vessel to ventral vessel

Question 85. The flow of blood in the ventral vessel of earthworms is

1. Forwards
2. Backwards
3. Backwards in half of it and forwards in another halt
4. None of these

Answer: 2. Backwards

Question 86. The ventral surface of a mature earthworm can be distinguished from the dorsal surface by

1. Absence of middorsal line
2. Presence of clitellum
3. Presence of genital papillae
4. None of these

Answer: 3. Presence of genital papillae

Question 87. Which of the following parts of the gut occupies most part of the 8th segment?

1. Oesophagus
2. Gizzard
3. Stomach
4. Intestine

Answer: 2. Gizzard

Question 88. Photoreceptors (phagosomes) in earthworms occur in

1. Epidermis of dorsal body wall and prostomium
2. Epidermis of ventral body wall
3. Both (1) and (2)
4. Epidermis of prostomium only

Answer: 1. Epidermis of dorsal body wall and prostomium

Question 89. By which of the following nephridia excretion is exonephric?

1. Pharyngeal nephridia
2. Septal nephridia
3. Integumentary nephridia
4. Integumentary and pharyngeal nephridia

Answer: 3. Integumentary nephridia

Question 90. Earthworm is

1. Ammonotelic
2. Ureotelic
3. Uricotelic
4. Ureotelic and ammonotetic

Answer: 4. Ureotelic and ammonotetic

Question 91. In Pheretima. pharyngeal nephridia occur in the segments

1. 3, 4, 5
2. 4, 5, 6
3. 5, 6, 7
4. 6, 7, 8

Answer: 2. 4, 5, 6

Question 92. Periplaneta americana and Blatta orientalis differ mainly from each other in

1. Body size
2. Wing length
3. Length of antenna
4. Life history

Answer: 2. Life history

Question 93. In cockroaches, the body in spite of being covered by an exoskeleton of strong chitinous cuticle remains flexible due to

1. Tergites
2. Stemites
3. Pleurites
4. Arthrodial membranes

Answer: 4. Arthrodial membranes

Question 94. Vestigial wings are found in

1. Male Blatta
2. Female Blatta
3. Maiz Periplaneta
4. Female Periplaneta

Answer: 2. Female Blatta

Question 95. Structures which help in distinguishing a male cockroach from a female cockroach are

1. Anal styles
2. Anal cerci
3. Colleterial glands
4. Ocelli

Answer: 1. Anal styles

Question 96. In cockroaches, elytra are articulated to the trails of

1. Prothorax
2. Mesothorax
3. Metathorax
4. Abdomen

Answer: 2. Mesothorax

Question 97. Which mouth part of the cockroach acts as the upper lip?

1. Labium
2. Labrum
3. First maxilla
4. Hypopharynx

Answer: 2. Labrum

Question 98. The position of the head in relation to the body axis of the cockroach is known as

1. Epignathous
2. Hypognathous
3. Prognathous
4. None of these

Answer: 2. Hypognathous

Question 99. Endoskeletal structure present in the head is

1. Apodeme
2. Tentorium
3. Fenestra
4. Clypeus

Answer: 2. Tentorium

Question 110. Periplaneta has a mosaic vision. Each ommatidium is composed of the following parts except

1. Corneal lens
2. Refractive crystalline cone
3. Rhabdome
4. Phagosome

Answer: 4. Phaosome

Question 111. Which of the following is a wrong match in a cockroach?

1. Head—Hypognathous
2. Heart—13-chambered
3. Anal styles—Female cockroach
4. Excretion—Malpighian tubules

Answer: 3. Excretion—Malpighian tubules

Question 112. Movement of which muscles can alter the pericardial space in cockroaches?

1. Circular
2. Longitudinal
3. Alary
4. Ciliary

Answer: 3. Alary

Question 113. The number of segments in the leg of a cockroach is

1. Five
2. Three
3. Six
4. Nine

Answer: 1. Five

Question 114. The main function of the blood vascular system in cockroaches is

1. Distribution of oxygen
2. Distribution of absorbed nutrients
3. Distribution of heat
4. All of these

Answer: 2. Distribution of absorbed nutrients

Question 115. In Periplaneta, each walking leg consists of five segments. Which of the following is a correct sequence?

1. Trochanter, coxa, femur, tibia, tarsus
2. Coxa, trochanter, femur, tibia, tarsus
3. Coxa, femur, trochanter, tibia, tarsus
4. Trochanter, femur, coxa, tibia, tarsus

Answer: 3. Coxa, femur, trochanter, tibia, tarsus

Question 116. In cockroaches, malpighian tubules are the main organs of

1. Respiration
2. Digestion
3. Excretion
4. Reproduction

Answer: 3. Excretion

Question 117. The structure that helps the cockroach to walk on smooth surfaces is

1. Trochanter
2. Plantulae
3. Cardo
4. Scape

Answer: 2. Plantulae

Question 118. An open blood vascular system without any respiratory pigment is found in

1. Earthworm
2. Cockroach
3. Nereis
4. Hydro

Answer: 2. Cockroach

Question 119. The number of spiracles in Periplaneta Americana is

1. 10
2. 20
3. 8
4. 6

Answer: 2. 20

Question 120. The function of the stomodaeal valve in the gut of the cock-roach is to prevent the regurgitation of partially digested food from

1. Midgut into crop
2. Pre-oral cavity
3. Midgut into hindgut
4. None of these

Answer: 1. Midgut into crop

Question 121. A unit of photoreception in the compound eye of a cockroach is

1. Crystalline cone
2. Rhabdome
3. Ommatidium
4. Facet

Answer: 3. Ommatidium

Question 122. Which of the two parts in a cockroach are fundamentally similar in structure?

1. Anal styles and labrum
2. Wings and anal cerci
3. Maxillae and legs
4. Mandibles and antennae

Answer: 3. Maxillae and legs

Question 123. The number of chambers in the heart of a cockroach is

1. 3
2. 4
3. 13
4. 23

Answer: 3. 13

Question 124. Ootheca in Periplcinata Americana is secreted by

1. Colleterial glands
2. Conglobate gland
3. Mushroom glands
4. Gynatrium

Answer: 1. Colleterial glands

Question 125. The number of eggs contained in an ootheca of cockroach is

1. 8
2. 16
3. 32
4. 4

Answer: 2. 16

Question 126. The conglobate organ is a part of male reproductive system of

1. Prawn
2. Cockroach
3. Earthworm
4. Frog

Answer: 2. Cockroach

Question 127. The number of ganglia in the abdominal nerve cord of a cockroach is

1. 6
2. 9
3. 10
4. 12

Answer: 1. 6

Question 128. The frog’s body is divisible into

1. Head, neck, abdomen
2. Head, neck, trunk
3. Head, trunk
4. None of these

Answer: 3. Head, trunk

Question 129. Which of the following statements is not true?

1. The body color of frog offers it protective coloration.
2. The summer sleep of frog is called aestivation.
3. Tail is present in the lifecycle of a frog.
4. A frog’s mouth is bounded by a pair of lips.

Answer: 4. A frog’s mouth is bounded by a pair of lips.

Question 130. In a frog, a shank or crus is associated with

1. Forelimb
2. Hind limb
3. Head
4. Trunk

Answer: 2. Hind limb

Question 131. Which of the following is present in the skin of a frog?

1. Serous gland
2. Mucus gland
3. Chromatophore cells
4. All of these

Answer: 4. All of these

Question 132. The total number of bones in frog is

1. 145
2. 153
3. 352
4. 178

Answer: 2. 153

Question 133. Which of the following vertebra is an amphicoelous type in a frog?

1. 3rd
2. 9th
3. 8th
4. 10th

Answer: 2. 9th

Question 134. The digital formula for the hind limbs of frog is

1. 0, 2, 2, 3, 3
2. 2,2, 3,3.3
3. 2, 2, 3, 4, 3
4. 0,2, 1,2,3

Answer: 3. 2, 2, 3, 4, 3

Question 135. Poison glands are usually present in the skin of

1. Frogs
2. Toads
3. Newts
4. None of these

Answer: 2. Toads

Question 136. Frog is

1. Homoeothermic
2. Poikilothermic
3. Homeostatic
4. Warm-blooded

Answer: 2. Poikilothermic

Question 137. The most common Indian toad is

1. Bufo melanostictus
2. Rana grinch
3. Alytes
4. Helociermo

Answer: 1. Bufo melanostictus

Question 138. The capacity of amphibians to change color is called

1. Synchronous
2. Metachronous
3. Metachrosis
4. None of these

Answer: 3. Metachrosis

Question 139. Which is not true about frogs?

1. Salivary glands are absent.
2. Maxillary teeth are arranged along the margin of the upper jaw and the lower jaw is toothless.
3. The muscular tongue is bilobed at tip and free from behind.
4. The tadpole larva of frog has a short alimentary canal.

Answer: 4. The tadpole larva of frog has a short alimentary canal.

Question 140. Bidder’s canal in frogs is present in

1. Testes
2. Kidney
3. Ovary
4. Brain

Answer: 2. Kidney

Question 141. During the active period, maximum respiratory activity is through

1. Cutaneous respiration
2. Branchial respiration
3. Pulmonary respiration
4. Buccopharyngeal respiration

Answer: 3. Pulmonary respiration

Question 142. How many lymph hearts are present in frog?

1. Single
2. One pair
3. Two pairs
4. Three pairs

Answer: 3. Two pairs

Question 143. Which of the following parts of frog’s heart has spiral valve?

1. Conus arteriosus
2. Synangium
3. Pylangium
4. Both (1) and (2)

Answer: 3. Pylangium

Question 144. The middle ear of Rana Tigrina has

1. Three ear ossicles, i.e., malleus, incus, and stapes
2. One ear ossicle columella auris
3. Two ear ossicles columella auris and stapedial plate
4. No ear ossicle

Answer: 2. One ear ossicle columella auris

Question 145. Cerebrum is the part of

1. Forebrain
2. Midbrain
3. Hindbrain
4. Rhombencephalon

Answer: 1. Forebrain

Question 146. The number of cranial nerves and spinal nerves in frogs is

1. 10 and 20
2. 10 and 10
3. 20 and 10
4. 20 and 20

Answer: 4. 20 and 20

Question 147. Which of the following is true?

1. Frog has monocular vision.
2. Frog has membranes present on all the body surfaces.
3. Frog is myopic (short-sighted) on land.
4. All of these are true.

Answer: 4. All of these are true.

Question 148. Spawning is termed as

1. Release of sperm in male
2. Release of the ovum in female
3. Another term for fertilization
4. None of these

Answer: 2. Release of ovum in female

Question 149. Which of the following systems undergoes maximum changes in frog during metamorphosis?

1. Digestive system
2. Circulatory system
3. Reproductive system
4. Nervous system

Answer: 2. Circulatory system

Question 150. Respiration in the tadpole of frog takes place by

1. Lungs
2. Gills
3. Buccal cavity
4. Skin

Answer: 2. Gills

Question 151. Frog is

1. Fully aquatic
2. Terrestrial
3. Both aquatic and terrestrial
4. Arboreal

Answer: 3. Both aquatic and terrestrial

Question 152. Fertilization in frogs takes place in

1. Mud
2. Land
3. Water
4. Air

Answer: 3. Water

Question 153. Frog skull is

1. Non-conflict
2. Dicondylic
3. Monocondylic
4. None of these

Answer: 2. Dicondylic

Question 154. On removing the thyroid from the tadpole of a frog

1. Metamorphosis will stop
2. ft grows into a giant frog
3. It grows into a dwarf frog
4. Normal metamorphosis occurs

Answer: 1. Metamorphosis will stop

Question 155. At a time, a mature female frog can lay

1. 2500-3000 fertilized eggs
2. 2500-3000 unfertilized egg
3. 200-300 fertilized eggs
4. 200-300 unfertilized eggs

Answer: 2. 2500-3000 unfertilized egg

Question 156. The body of nephridia is V-shaped in

1. Septal nephridia
2. Integumentary nephridia
3. Pharyngeal nephridia
4. All the above

Answer: 2. Integumentary nephridia

Question 157. Which of the following is not correctly matched?

1. Lumbricus—Europe
2. Megascolex and Drawida—South India
3. Pheretima—Sri Lanka. North India
4. Eutyphaeus-—N. America

Answer: 4. Eutyphaeus-—N. America

Question 158. Clitellum of Pheretima is

1. Permanent
2. Multilayered
3. Single layered
4. (1) and (2) both

Answer: 4. (1) and (2) both

Question 159. Which structure secretes hormones in earthworms?

1. Nerve cord
2. Lymph gland
3. Cerebral ganglia
4. Chloragogen cells

Answer: 3. Cerebral ganglia

Question 160. Calciferous glands are present in earthworms in

1. Pharynx and gizzard
2. Stomach and buccal cavity
3. Pharynx and stomach
4. Only in stomach

Answer: 4. Only in the stomach

Question 161. In earthworms, skeleton-like function is performed by

1. Coclomic fluid
2. The alimentary canal filled with food
3. Typhlosole
4. Clitellum

Answer: 1. Coclomic fluid

Question 162. Appendages in earthworms are

1. Monoramus
2. Biramus
3. Polyramus
4. Absent

Answer: 4. Absent

Question 163. The normal speed of locomotion in earthworms is

1. 25 m/s
2. 75 cm/min
3. 25 cm/min
4. 25 km/h

Answer: 3. 25 cm/min

Question 164. One of the following is unpaired in earthworms.

1. Male genital pore
2. Female genital pore
3. Genital papillae
4. Spermathecae

Answer: 2. Female genital pore

Question 165. Which of the following is incorrectly matched?

1. Male genital pore—18th segment
2. Female genital pore—14th segment
3. Lateral oesophageal hearts—7th and 9th segments
4. Seminal vesicles-11th and 12th segments

Answer: 3. Lateral oesophageal hearts—7th and 9th segments

Question 166. Compound squamous epithelium occurs in

1. Stomach
2. Pharynx
3. Intestine
4. Trachea

Answer: 2. Pharynx

Question 167. Epithelial tissue is found in

1. Protective covering
2. Reproductive structure
3. Nerve cells
4. Corpuscles

Answer: 1. Protective covering

Question 168. Epithelium of bronchioles is

1. Simple cuboidal
2. Pseudostratified columnar
3. Simple squamous
4. Pseudostratified sensory

Answer: 3. Simple squamous

Question 169. Stratified and non-keratinized squamous epithelium occurs in

1. Epidermis of skin
2. Vagina and cervix
3. Buccal cavity
4. Both (2) and (3)

Answer: 4. Both (2) and (3)

Question 170. The basement membrane is formed of

1. Epidermal cells
2. Endodermal cells
3. Both (1) and (2)
4. None of the above but present below epithelial cells

Answer: 4. None of the above but present below epithelial cells

Question 171. The inner lining of the gut, stomach, and liver is made of

1. Simple squamous epithelium
2. Simple columnar epithelium
3. Simple cuboidal epithelium
4. All the above

Answer: 2. Simple columnar epithelium

Question 172. Gastric glands are

1. Simple tubular
2. Simple coiled tubular
3. Branched tubular
4. Compound tubular

Answer: 3. Branched tubular

Question 173. Regeneration after injury is absent in

1. Nervous tissue
2. Skin epidermis
3. Tendon
4. Smooth muscles

Answer: 1. Nervous tissue

Question 174. Brush border epithelium occurs in

1. Trachea
2. Stomach
3. Small intestine
4. Fallopian tube

Answer: 3. Small intestine

Question 175. Adjacent epithelial cells are held together by means of

1. Liposomes
2. Glyoxisomes
3. Desmosomes
4. Microsoft

Answer: 3. Desmosomes

Question 176. Vertebrate salivary glands and the exocrine part of the pancreas are

1. Apocrine
2. Holocrine
3. Epicrine
4. Merocrine

Answer: 4. Merocrine

Question 177. Simple epithelium is made of

1. Non-cellular layer of hyaluronic acid
2. Actively dividing cells
3. Loosely arranged cells
4. A compactly packed single layer of cells.

Answer: 4. Compactly packed single layer of cells

Question 178. Goblet cells are

1. Unicellular glands
2. Multicellular glands
3. Loosely arranged cells
4. Dead keratinized cells

Answer: 1. Unicellular glands

Question 179. Sebaceous glands are

1. Apocrine
2. Holocrine
3. Medicine
4. Epicrine

Answer: 2. Holocrine

Question 180. Squamous epithelium occurs in the inner lining of

1. Kidney
2. Pancreatic duct
3. Lung alveoli
4. Liver

Answer: 3. Lung alveoli

Question 181. The branched tubular gland is

1. Salivary
2. Gastric
3. Sebaceous
4. Sweat

Answer: 2. Gastric

Question 182. Characteristic of epithelial tissues is

1. Never produce glands
2. Cells can undergo rapid divisions
3. Abundant vascularization
4. Large intercellular spaces

Answer: 2. Cells can undergo rapid divisions

Question 183. Blood platelets are found only in the blood of

1. Birds
2. Reptiles
3. Mammals
4. Amphibians

Answer: 3. Mammals

Question 184. Ligament connects

1. Bone to bone
2. Bone to muscle
3. Muscle to muscle
4. Both (2) and (3)

Answer: 1. Bone to bone

Question 185. Mammary glands are modified

1. Sweat gland
2. Sebaceous gland
3. Laciymal gland
4. Endocrine gland

Answer: 1. Sweat gland

Question 186. The term hematocrit means

1. The percentage of blood having red blood cells
2. The ratio of blood volume to extracellular space
3. The percentage of new blood cells formed every 120 days
4. The percentage of blood having white blood cells

Answer: 1. The percentage of blood having red blood cells

Question 187. What is the main difference in human and frog RBCs?

1. Human RBCs are non-nucleated.
2. Hemoglobin is found only in human RBCs.
3. Human RBCs have a nucleus.
4. Human RBCs are multinucleated.

Answer: 1. Human RBCs are non-nucleated.

Question 188. Prothrombin is found in

1. Intestine and helps in cellulose digestion
2. Liver helps in the production of bile
3. Blood and gives a red color
4. Blood helps in blood clotting

Answer: 4. Blood and helps in blood clotting

Question 189. Which type of WBCs are most abundant in the blood of rabbits and other vertebrates?

1. Acidophils
2. Basophils
3. Lymphocytes
4. Neutrophils

Answer: 4. Neutrophils

Question 190. Blood clotting in a test tube can be prevented by adding a little of

1. Sodium oxalate
2. Sodium chloride
3. Sodium hydroxide
4. Ammonium chloride

Answer: 1. Sodium oxalate

Question 191. Oval, biconvex, and nucleated RBCs are found in

1. Camel
2. Rabbit
3. Man
4. Rat

Answer: 1. Camel

Question 192. Which of the following is an anticoagulant and checks blood coagulation in blood vessels?

1. Prothrombin
2. Globulin
3. Thromboplastin
4. Heparin

Answer: 4. Heparin

Question 193. In a normal healthy female, the number of RBCs/mm³ of blood is

1. 6.5-7.0 million
2. 5.5-6.0 million
3. 4.5-5.0 million
4. 3.5-4.0 million

Answer: 3. 4.5-5.0 million

Question 194. The tissue which forms the basic structure of lymphoid organs, spleen, etc., is

1. Lymphoid tissue
2. Cartilage tissue
3. Elastic tissue
4. Areolar tissue

Answer: 1. Lymphoid tissue

Question 195. Which of the following should be avoided in biological marriage?

1. A+ boy and A+ girl
2. A+ boy and A- girl
3. 0+ boy and 0+ girl
4. O- boy and O- girl

Answer: 2. A+ boy and A+ girl

Question 196. After examining the blood group of husband and wife, the doctor advised them not to have more than one child. The blood groups of the couple are likely to be

1. Male Rh- and male Rh+
2. Female Rh- and male Rh+
3. Male Rh+ and female Rh+
4. Male Rh- and female Rh-

Answer: 2. Female Rh- and male Rh+

Question 197. Blood colloidal osmotic pressure is maintained by

1. Albumin
2. Globulin
3. Fibrinogen
4. Thrombin

Answer: 1. Albumin

Question 198. Haversian canal is situated in

1. Glandular connective tissue
2. Skeletal connective tissue
3. Fibrous connective tissue
4. Nervous tissue

Answer: 2. Skeletal connective tissue

Question 199. Histamine is secreted by

1. Neutrophils
2. Basophils
3. Leukocytes
4. Monocytes

Answer: 2. Basophils

Question 200. Which one of the following is an agranulocyte?

1. Neutrophil
2. Eosinophil
3. Basophil
4. Monocyte

Answer: 4. Monocyte

Question 201. Stratified squamous epithelium is found in

1. Pharynx
2. Trachea
3. Ileums
4. Bowman’s capsule

Answer: 1. Pharynx

Question 202. During the process of blood coagulation, vitamin K helps in the

1. Formation of thromboplastin
2. Formation of prothrombin
3. Conversion of prothrombin to thrombin
4. Conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin

Answer: 2. Formation of prothrombin

Question 203. In mature RBC, the nucleus is present in

1. Frog
2. Rabbit
3. Both (1) and (2)
4. Neither in frog nor in rabbit

Answer: 1. Frog

Question 204. ABO blood group system was given by

1. Landsteiner
2. Wallace
3. de Vries
4. Lamarck

Answer: 1. Landsteiner

Question 205. Which of the following does not help in the clotting of blood?

1. Heparin
2. Prothrombin
3. Ca2+
4. Exposure to O₂

Answer: 1. Heparin

Question 206. Collagen fibers are secreted by

1. Mast cells
2. Macrophage
3. Histiocytes
4. Fibroblasts

Answer: 4. Fibroblasts

Question 207. The haversian canal is found in the bone of

1. Mammals
2. Reptiles
3. Aves
4. Pisces

Answer: 1. Mammals

Question 208. The hematocrit value gives the

1. Amount of RBC in blood
2. Number of WBC in blood
3. Amount of plasma in blood
4. Hemoglobin concentration in blood

Answer: 1. Amount of RBC in blood

Question 209. Tendons and ligaments are specialized types of

1. Nervous tissue
2. Epithelial tissue
3. Muscular tissue
4. Fibrous connective tissue

Answer: 4. Fibrous connective tissue

Question 210. Which one of the following is a transparent tissue?

1. Tendon
2. Ligament
3. Fibrous cartilage
4. Hyaline cartilage

Answer: 4. Hyaline cartilage

Question 211. Ciliated epithelium is present in

1. Trachea
2. Ureter
3. Intestine
4. Nasal chamber

Answer: 1. Trachea

Question 212. The difference between bone and cartilage is

1. Haversian canal
2. Bloodvessel
3. Lymph vessel
4. None of these

Answer: 1. Haversian canal

Question 213. Minimum regeneration power is present in

1. Nervous tissue
2. Connective tissue
3. Epithelial tissue
4. None of these

Answer: 1. Nervous tissue

Question 214. Which one of the following couples was suggested by doctors to not have more than one child?

1. Rh+ male and Rh- female
2. Rh- male and Rh+ female
3. Rh+ male and Rh+ female
4. Rh- male and Rh- female

Answer: 1. Rh+ male and Rh- female

Question 215. The pH of blood is

1. Between 7 and 8
2. Between 2 and 4
3. Between 12 and 14
4. Between 2 and 5

Answer: 1. Between 7 and 8

Question 216. Histamine is secreted by

1. Goblet cell
2. Nerve cell
3. Kupffer cell
4. Mast cell

Answer: 4. Mast cell

Question 217. Universal blood recipient is

1. Blood group O
2. Blood group AB
3. Blood group A
4. Blood group B

Answer: 2. Blood group AB

Question 218. The lifespan of RBC is

1. 50 days
2. 70 days
3. 120 days
4. 220 days

Answer: 3. 120 days

Question 219. During blood clotting, which of the following is used?

1. Co
2. Ca⁺⁺
3. Na²
4. Cl^–

Answer: 2. Ca⁺⁺

Question 220. Hemoglobin contains

1. Fe⁺⁺
2. Mg⁺⁺
3. Na⁺⁺
4. Ca++

Answer: 1. Fe⁺⁺

Question 221. Which of the following does not play a role in blood coagulation?

1. Vitamin K
2. Vitamin D
3. Calcium ions
4. Fibrinogen

Answer: 2. Vitamin D

Question 222. Which of the following cells of connective tissue secrete antibodies?

1. Mast cells
2. Reticular cells
3. Adipose cells
4. Plasma cells

Answer: 4. Plasma cells

Question 223. The cavities of the brain are lined by

1. Cuboidal cells
2. Polygonal cells
3. Ependymal cells
4. Simple squamous cells

Answer: 3. Ependymal cells

Question 224. Ligament is mainly made up of

1. Reticulin
2. Elastin
3. Myosin
4. Collagen

Answer: 2. Elastin

Question 225. Which is a sesamoid bone?

1. Patella
2. Femur
3. Ulna
4. Pterygoid

Answer: 1. Patella

Question 226. Mammary glands are modified

1. Sweat glands
2. Sebaceous glands
3. Cutaneous glands
4. Scent glands

Answer: 1. Sweat glands

Question 227. Anemia disease is caused by

1. Deficiency of Fe
2. Deficiency of Na
3. Deficiency of Ca
4. Deficiency of Mg

Answer: 1. Deficiency of Fe

Question 228. The main function of the ligament is

1. Joining of two bones
2. Joining of muscles
3. Joining of muscle to bone
4. Joining of muscle to nerves

Answer: 1. Joining of two bones

Question 229. The following are needed for blood clotting.

1. Ca⁺⁺ and vitamin E
2. Ca⁺⁺ and vitamin K
3. Ca⁺⁺ and vitamin A
4. K⁺ and vitamin K

Answer: 2. Ca⁺⁺ and vitamin K

Question 230. The type of epithelium found in the conjunctiva of eye is

1. Stratified cuboidal
2. Stratified columnar
3. Stratified squamous
4. Transitional epithelium

Answer: 1. Stratified cuboidal

Question 231. Haversian canals are found in the

1. Bones of birds
2. Bones of mammals
3. Bones of frog
4. Cartilage

Answer: 2. Bones of mammals

Question 232. One of the following is not found in the red blood corpuscles of human being.

1. Hemoglobin
2. Plasmalemma
3. Nucleus
4. Cytoplasm

Answer: 3. Nucleus

Question 233. The lifespan of human RBC is

1. 120 days
2. 90 days
3. 2-3days
4. 20 days

Answer: 1. 120 days

Question 234. Volkmann canals are found in

1. Bones of birds
2. Bones of amphibians
3. Bones of mammals
4. Cartilage of mammals

Answer: 3. Bones of mammals

Question 235. An example of a merocrine gland is

1. Sebaceous gland
2. Pineal gland
3. Salivary gland
4. Mammary gland

Answer: 3. Salivary gland

Question 236. Bone formed by the ossification of a tendon is called

1. Membrane bone
2. Sesamoid bone
3. Dermal bone
4. Cartilage

Answer: 2. Sesamoid bone

Question 237. Epithelial tissues arise from

1. Ectoderm
2. Endoderm
3. Mesoderm
4. All the above

Answer: 4. All the above

Question 238. The percentage of Hb in RBC is

1. 48%
2. 34%
3. 10%
4. 20%

Answer: 2. 34%

Question 239. White adipose tissue contains

1. Multilocular fat cells
2. Bilocular fat cells
3. Unilocular fat cells
4. Alocular fat cells

Answer: 3. Unilocular fat cells

Question 240. In humans, fibrous cartilage is found abundantly

1. Hyaline cartilage of joints
2. Nostrils
3. Intervertebral discs
4. External ear

Answer: 3. Intervertebral discs

Question 241. Which of the following is enucleate?

1. Squamous epithelial cell
2. Mature human erythrocyte
3. Mature human leukocyte
4. Mature frog erythrocyte

Answer: 2. Mature human erythrocyte

Question 242. Which one of the following is blood during storage?

1. Sodium carbonate
2. Sodium oxalate
3. Sodium chloride
4. Sodium hydroxide

Answer: 2. Sodium oxalate

Question 243. Blood clotting requires

1. Na⁺ and K⁺
2. Na⁺ and prothrombin
3. Na⁺⁺ and thromboplastin
4. Ca²⁺ and thromboplastin

Answer: 4. Ca²⁺ and thromboplastin

Question 244. Mammalian pinna is supported by

1. Hyaline cartilage
2. Calcified cartilage
3. Elastic cartilage
4. White fibrous connective tissue

Answer: 3. Elastic cartilage

Question 245. Bone marrow takes part in

1. Controlling blood pressure
2. As hemopoietic tissue
3. Assisting kidneys
4. Assisting liver

Answer: 2. As hemopoietic tissue

Question 246. Agranulocytes are

1. Eosinophils and neutrophils
2. Monocytes and lymphocytes
3. Eosinophils and lymphocytes
4. Lymphocytes and basophils

Answer: 2. Monocytes and lymphocytes

Question 247. Platelets are a source of

1. Fibrinogen
2. Calcium
3. Thromboplastin
4. Hemoglobin

Answer: 2. Calcium

Question 248. Which is unrelated to blood plasma?

1. Fibrinogen
2. Fibrin
3. Bilirubin
4. Calcium

Answer: 3. Bilirubin

Question 249. A major component of blood plasma is

1. Water
2. Inorganic Substances
3. Organic substances
4. Blood cells

Answer: 1. Water

Question 250. Connective tissue belongs to

1. Ectoderm
2. Mesoderm
3. Endoderm
4. Any of the above

Answer: 2. Mesoderm

Question 251. Which one is unrelated?

1. Keratin
2. Elastin
3. Dextrin
4. Collagen

Answer: 3. Dextrin

Question 252. Thromboplastin required for by blood clotting is produced

1. Platelets
2. Erythrocytes
3. Monocytes
4. Lymphocytes

Answer: 1. Platelets

Question 253. The maximum number of white blood corpuscles is that of

1. Basophils
2. Neutrophils
3. Monocytes
4. Eosinophils

Answer: 2. Neutrophils

Question 254. Protein present in cartilage is

1. Cartilage
2. Chondrin
3. Ossein
4. Ossein

Answer: 2. Chondrin

Question 255. The lifespan of human white blood corpuscles is

1. 24 h
2. Less than 10 days
3. 120 days
4. 100h

Answer: 2. Less than 10 days

Question 256. Which of the following is not a granulocyte?

1. Lymphocyte
2. Basophil
3. Neutrophil
4. Eosinophil

Answer: 1. Lymphocyte

Question 257. Which of the following are involved in body defense?

1. Neutrophils
2. Lymphocytes
3. Macrophages
4. All the above

Answer: 4. All the above

Question 258. Ends of two long bones are connected by

1. Cartilage
2. Muscles
3. Ligaments
4. Tendons

Answer: 3. Ligaments

Question 259. Largest corpuscles in human blood are

1. Erythrocytes
2. Monocytes
3. Lymphocytes
4. Basophils

Answer: 2. Monocytes

Question 260. Heparin is formed by

1. Liver cells
2. Plasma cells
3. Blood cells
4. Spleen cells

Answer: 1. Liver cells

Question 261. Prothrombin, albumin, and fibrinogen are synthesized by

1. Pancreas
2. Bone marrow
3. Spleen
4. Liver

Answer: 4. Liver

Question 262. Regeneration of cartilage can occur from its

1. Matrix
2. Plasma
3. Perichondrium
4. A piece without perichondrium

Answer: 3. Perichondrium

Question 263. Mast cells occur in

1. Connective tissue
2. Epithelial tissue
3. Skeletal tissue
4. Nervous tissue

Answer: 1. Connective tissue

Question 264. The ground substance of connective tissue is formed of

1. Phospholipids
2. Lipids
3. Monosaccharides
4. Mucopolysaccharides

Answer: 4. Mucopolysaccharides

Question 265. The matrix of hyaline cartilage contains

1. Collagen
2. Chondrin
3. Ossein
4. All the above

Answer: 2. Chondrin

Question 266. The ends of long bones are covered by

1. Blood cells
2. Ligaments
3. Muscles
4. Cartilage

Answer: 4. Cartilage

Question 267. Erythrocytes of adult mammals are formed in

1. Spleen
2. Liver
3. Bone marrow
4. Kidney

Answer: 3. Bone marrow

Question 268. Histamine is secreted by

1. Mast cells
2. Histiocytes
3. Lymphocytes
4. Fibroblasts

Answer: 1. Mast cells

Question 269. Blood leukocytes are

1. Epithelial
2. Endothelial
3. Glandular
4. Connective

Answer: 4. Connective

Question 270. Which one is a factor for the maturation of erythrocytes?

1. Vitamin B₁₂
2. Vitamin A
3. Vitamin D
4. Vitamin C

Answer: 1. Vitamin B₁₂

Question 271. Antibodies are

1. Albumins
2. Gamma-globulins
3. Sucrose
4. Vitamin C

Answer: 2. Gamma-globulins

Question 272. In which state iron is present in hemoglobin?

1. Anionic
2. Fe²⁺
3. Fe³⁺
4. None of these

Answer: 2. Fe²⁺

Question 273. White fibrous tissue is

1. Nervous
2. Muscular
3. Ligaments
4. Tendons

Answer: 4. Tendons

Question 274. Loose connective tissue is

1. Areolar
2. Adipose
3. Blood
4. Cartilage

Answer: 1. Areolar

Question 275. Ligament is

1. Modified white fibrous tissue
2. Inelastic white fibrous tissue
3. Modified elastic connective tissue
4. None of these

Answer: 3. Modified elastic connective tissue

Question 276. The percentage of hemoglobin in RBCs is

1. 10%
2. 20%
3. 34%
4. 48%

Answer: 3. 34%

Question 277. Immature RBCs of mammals have

1. No nucleus
2. Single beaded nucleus
3. Many nuclei
4. Single nucleus

Answer: 1. No nucleus

Question 278. Megakaryocytes

1. Produce leukocytes
2. Forms blood platelets
3. Are carriers of oxygen
4. Are carriers of oxygen

Answer: 2. Forms blood platelets

Question 279. During blood clotting, fibrin is produced by

1. Thrombokinase
2. Prothrombin
3. Liver
4. Proteolysis

Answer: 2. Prothrombin

Question 280. Cartilage present in trachea, larynx, and bronchi is

1. Fibrous
2. Biotic
3. Hyaline
4. Calcified

Answer: 3. Hyaline

Question 281. The number of erythrocytes per mm³ of human blood is

1. 4 million
2. 5 million
3. 6 million
4. 0.5 million

Answer: 2. 5 million

Question 282. The number of WBCs per mm of human blood is

1. 8000
2. 7000
3. 6500
4. 6000

Answer: 1. 8000

Question 283. RBCs are nucleated in

1. Man
2. Rabbit
3. Rat
4. Frog

Answer: 4. Frog

Question 284. Cartilage is

1. Non-vascular
2. Poorly vascular
3. Highly vascular
4. Irregular vascular

Answer: 1. Non-vascular

Question 285. An anticoagulant is

1. Heparin
2. Hirudin
3. EDTA
4. All the above

Answer: 4. All the above

Question 286. Collagen and elastin are formed by

1. Macrophages
2. Fibroblasts
3. Mast cells
4. Chondrocytes

Answer: 2. Fibroblasts

Question 287. The rarest leukocyte of human blood is

1. Basophil
2. Monocyte
3. Neutrophil
4. Eosinophil

Answer: 1. Basophil

Question 288. Blood plasma has a pH of

1. 7.4
2. 7.8
3. 6.9
4. 6.3

Answer: 1. 7.4

Question 289. In camel, the RBCs are

1. Oval and nucleated
2. Circular, biconcave and nucleated
3. Circular, biconcave and non-nucleated
4. Oval and non-nucleated

Answer: 1. Oval and nucleated

Question 290. Bilirubin and biliverdin are derived from

1. Globulin
2. Heme
3. Iron
4. Fat

Answer: 1. Globulin

Question 291. The protein required for the coagulation of blood is

1. Hemoglobin
2. Globulin
3. Fibrinogen
4. Albumin

Answer: 3. Fibrinogen

Question 292. Globulin is

1. Plasma protein
2. Antigen
3. Serum
4. Found in lymphatic tissue

Answer: 1. Plasma protein

Question 293. Which is not a component of areolar tissue?

1. Macrophage
2. Plasma cell
3. Schwann cell
4. Adipose cell

Answer: 3. Schwann cell

Question 294. The structure absent from fresh frozen blood plasma is

1. Immunoglobulin
2. Plasma
3. Albumin
4. Platelets

Answer: 4. Platelets

Question 295. To prevent clotting, the donor’s blood is treated with

1. Sodium glycocholate
2. Sodium citrate
3. Heparin
4. Sodium taurocholate

Answer: 2. Sodium citrate

Question 296. Bones are mainly formed of

1. Calcium and magnesium
2. Calcium and phosphorus
3. Calcium and sulfur
4. Calcium and iron

Answer: 2. Calcium and phosphorus

Question 297. The nasal septum gets damaged. Its recovery requires cartilage called

1. Fibrous cartilage
2. Elastic cartilage
3. Hyaline cartilage
4. Calcified cartilage

Answer: 3. Hyaline cartilage

Question 298. Which cartilage is present at the end of long bones?

1. Calcified cartilage
2. Hyaline cartilage
3. Elastic cartilage
4. Fibrous cartilage

Answer: 2. Hyaline cartilage

Question 299. Continuous bleeding from an injured part of body is due to the deficiency of

1. Vitamin A
2. Vitamin B
3. Vitamin K
4. Vitamin E

Answer: 3. Vitamin K

Question 330. What will happen if ligaments are cut or broken?

1. Bones will move freely at joints
2. No movement at joint
3. Bone will become unfix
4. Bone will become fixed

Answer: 3. Bone will become unfix

Question 331. An abnormal increase in the number of RBC in the blood is called

1. Anemia
2. Polycythemia
3. Leukemia
4. Sarcoma

Answer: 2. Polycythemia

Question 332. Which one of the following contains the largest quantity of extracellular material?

1. Striated muscle
2. Areolar tissue
3. Stratified epithelium
4. Myelinated nerve fibers

Answer: 2. Areolar tissue

Question 333. Liquid that remains after clotting of blood is called as

1. Serum
2. Plasma
3. Lymph
4. Blood

Answer: 1. Serum

Question 334. Four healthy people in their twenties got involved in injuries resulting in the damage and death of a few cells of the following. Which of the cells are least likely to be replaced by new cells?

1. Osteocytes
2. Liver cells
3. Neurons
4. Malpighian layer of the skin

Answer: 3. Neurons

Question 335. Which of the following substances, if introduced into the bloodstream, would cause coagulation of blood at the site of its introduction?

1. Thromboplastin
2. Fibrinogen
3. Heparin
4. Prothrombin

Answer: 1. Thromboplastin

Question 336. Examination of the blood of a person suspected of having anemia shows large, immature, nucleated erythrocytes without hemoglobin. Supplementing his diet with which of the following is likely to alleviate his symptoms?

1. Thiamine
2. Folic acid and cobalamine
3. Riboflavin
4. Iron compounds

Answer: 2. Folic acid and cobalamine

Question 337. Areolar connective tissue joins

1. Fat body with muscles
2. Integument with muscles
3. Bones with muscles
4. Bones with bones

Answer: 2. Integument with muscles

Question 338. Mast cells secrete

1. Hippurin
2. Myoglobin
3. Histamine
4. Hemoglobin

Answer: 3. Histamine

Question 339. Which one of the following mammalian, cells is not capable of metabolizing glucose to carbon dioxide aerobically?

1. Red blood cells
2. White blood cells
3. Unstriated muscle cells
4. White blood cells

Answer: 1. Red blood cells

Question 340. In which one of the following preparations are you likely to come across cell junctions most frequently?

1. Hyaline cartilage
2. Ciliated epithelium
3. Thrombocytes
4. Tendon

Answer: 2. Ciliated epithelium

Question 341. A drop of each of the following is placed separately on four slides. Which of them will not coagulate?

1. Whole blood from the pulmonary vein
2. Blood plasma
3. Blood serum
4. Sample from the thoracic duct of the lymphatic system

Answer: 3. Blood serum

Question 342. Which one is the most abundant protein in the animal world?

1. Hemoglobin
2. Collagen
3. Insulin
4. Trypsin

Answer: 2. Collagen

Question 343. Compared to those of humans, the erythrocytes in frogs are

1. Nucleated and with hemoglobin.
2. Very much smaller and fewer.
3. Nucleated and without hemoglobin.
4. Without nucleus but with hemoglobin.

Answer: 1. Nucleated and with hemoglobin.

Question 344. Select the correct statement regarding the specific disorder of a muscular or skeletal system.

1. Osteoporosis: Decrease in bone mass and higher chances of fractures with advancing age.
2. Myasthenia gravis: Autoimmune disorder that inhibits sliding of myosin filaments
3. Gout: Inflammation of joints due to extra deposition of calcium.
4. Muscular dystrophy: Age-related shortening of muscles.

Answer: 1. Osteoporosis: Decrease in bone mass and higher chances of fractures with advancing age.

Question 345. The diagrammatic sketch of a certain type of connective tissue. Identify the parts labeled 1, 2, 3, and 4 and select the right option for them.

Answer: 3

Question 346. Which one of the following pairs of chemical substances is correctly categorized?

Answer: 3

Question 347. The supportive skeletal structures in the human external ears and in the nose tip are examples of

1. Ligament
2. Areolar tissue
3. Bone
4. Cartilage

Answer: 4. Cartilage

Question 348. The four sketches (1, 2, 3, and 4) given below represent four different types of animal tissues. Which one of these is correctly identified in the options given, along with its correct location and function?

Answer: 1

Question 349. The H-zone in the skeletal muscle fiber is due to

1. The central gap between myosin filaments in the A band.
2. The central gap between actin filaments extending through myosin filaments in the A band.
3. The extension of myosin filaments in the central portion of the A band.
4. The absence of myofibrils in the central portion of A band.

Answer: 2. The central gap between actin filaments extending through myosin filaments in the A band

Questions Related to Earthworm, Cockroach, and Frog

Question 350. What is common between earthworms, leeches, and centipedes

1. Absence of legs
2. Presence of ventral nerve cord
3. Presence of malpighian tubules
4. They are hermaphrodite

Answer: 2. Presence of ventral nerve cord

Question 351. Photoreceptors in Pheretima are present

1. On the ventral side of skin
2. On the dorsal side of skin
3. On both sides
4. In clitellum

Answer: 2. On the dorsal side of skin

Question 352. In earthworms, the arrangement of blood vessels is

1. Different in last 15 segments
2. Different in first 13 segments
3. Same throughout
4. Different in the middle 13 segments

Answer: 2. Different in first 13 segments

Question 353. In a copulatory pair of earthworms, there occur

1. Reciprocal fertilization and internal fertilization
2. Cross-fertilization and external fertilization
3. External fertilization and internal fertilization
4. Cross-fertilization and reciprocal fertilization

Answer: 4. Cross-fertilization and reciprocal fertilization

Question 354. In earthworms, setae are absent from

1. Clitellum
2. First segment
3. Clitellum and last segment
4. Clitellum, first and last segment

Answer: 4. Clitellum, first and last segment

Question 355. The excretory organs of earthworms are

1. Nephridia
2. Solenocytes
3. Green glands
4. Kidneys

Answer: 1. Nephridia

Question 356. Just as there are nephridia in earthworms, so are

1. Myotomes in fish
2. StatOcysts in prawn
3. Parotid glands in toad
4. Flame cells in the liver fluke

Answer: 4. Flame cells in liver fluke

Question 357. Spermathecal pores in Pheretima are present in segments

1. 1/2, 2/3, 3/4,4/5
2. 6/7, 7/8, 8/9, 9/10
3. 5/6, 6/7, 7/8, 8/9
4. 14/15, 15/16, 16/17, 17/18

Answer: 3. 5/6, 6/7, 7/8, 8/9

Question 358. The lifespan of an earthworm is

1. 1-3 years
2. 2-8 years
3. 3.5-10.5 years
4. 6-8 years

Answer: 3. 3.5-10.5 years

Question 359. The copulation period of earthworms is

1. One hour
2. Two hours
3. Four hours
4. About one week

Answer: 1. One hour

Question 360. The dorsal vessel of an earthworm is

1. Distributing
2. Collecting
3. Collecting in the first 13 segments and distributing in the rest
4. Distribution in the first 13 segments and collection in the rest

Answer: 4. Distribution in the first 13 segments and collecting in the rest

Question 361. Who wrote the memoirs on Pheretima and described its anatomy?

1. M.L. Bhatia
2. B.I. Sunderraj
3. K.N. Bahl
4. Beni Prasad

Answer: 3. K.N. Bahl

Question 362. Spermatheceae of earthworms take part in

1. Collection of sperms of other worm
2. Collection of sperms of the same worm
3. Sperm maturation
4. Fertilization

Answer: 1. Collection of sperms of other worm

Question 363. Hemoglobin is dissolved in the blood plasma of

1. Rabbit
2. Cockroach
3. Earthworm
4. Frog

Answer: 3. Earthworm

Question 364. The role of typhlosole of earthworms is to

1. Emulsify
2. Control blood flow
3. Increase absorption area of digested food
4. Produce digestive enzymes

Answer: 3. Increase absorption area of digested food

Question 365. The closed circulatory system occurs in

1. Earthworm
2. Cockroach
3. Grasshopper
4. Housefly

Answer: 1. Earthworm

Question 366. In earthworms, the mouth is situated on

1. Prostomium
2. Peristomium
3. Stomium
4. Protostomium

Answer: 2. Peristomium

Question 367. Annelida is advanced over Nematoda in having

1. Closed circulation
2. Metameric segmentation
3. True coelom
4. All the above

Answer: 4. All the above

Question 368. Segments of earthworms are called

1. Metainere
2. Sarcomere
3. Prostomium
4. Podomercs

Answer: 1. Metainere

Question 369. In Earthworm, the dorsal blood vessel is collecting channel

1. Behind 13th segment
2. Anterior 13 segment
3. Throughout
4. In typhlosolar region

Answer: 1. Behind 13th segment

Question 370. Blood vessel in Pheretima having valves is

1. Dorsal
2. Ventral
3. Lateral
4. Integumentary

Answer: 1. Dorsal

Question 371. The male genital apertures of earthworms are located in the segments

1. 14
2. 18
3. 13
4. 19

Answer: 2. 18

Question 372. The chloragogen cells of earthworms are similar to an organ of vertebrates

1. Liver
2. Lung
3. Kidney
4. Spleen

Answer: 1. Liver

Question 373. In Pheretima, which nephridia are present?

1. Protonephridia
2. Coelom duct
3. Micro-metanephridia
4. Solenocytes

Answer: 3. Micro-metanephridia

Question 374. Septum is lacking in Pheretima in segments

1. 7/8,6/7
2. 3/4,9/10
3. 4/5, 8/9
4. 6/7, 8/9

Answer: 3. 4/5, 8/9

Question 375. The blood vessels in earthworms are

1. Different in last 15 segments
2. Different in first 13 segments
3. Same throughout
4. Differences in middle segments

Answer: 2. Different in the first 13 segments

Question 376. Which one is not true about earthworms?

1. It can live in the deficiency of O2 for 3-10 h.
2. It has a life span of 3.5-10 years.
3. Pineal setae are dissolved in KOH.
4. It is omnivorous.

Answer: 3. Pineal setae are dissolved in KOH.

Question 377. The enteronephric nephridia of earthworms also perform the function of

1. Respiration
2. Excretion
3. Osmoregulation
4. Thermoregulation

Answer: 3. Osmoregulation

Question 378. In Pheretima, locomotion occurs with the help of

1. Circular muscles
2. Longitudinal muscles and setae
3. Circular, longitudinal muscles and setae
4. Parapodia

Answer: 2. Longitudinal muscles and setae

Question 379. Earthworm takes food by which method?

1. Ciliary feeding
2. Detritus feeding
3. Liquid feeding
4. None of these

Answer: 2. Detritus feeding

Question 380. Cocoon is formed in earthworms in

1. Chitinous setae
2. Cuticle
3. Clitellum
4. Epidermal muscles

Answer: 3. Clitellum

Question 381. The total number of ganglia present oh the nerve cord of a cockroach is

1. 6
2. 9
3. 10
4. 12

Answer: 2. 9

Question 382. A: Periplaneta americana is a nocturnal omnivorous, household pest.

R: It is because it acts as a scavenger.

1. (A) is true but (R) is false.
2. (A) is false but (R) is true.
3. (A) and (R) is true and (R) is the right explanation of (A).
4. (A) and (R) is true but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).

Answer: 1. (A) is true but (R) is false.

Question 383. Alary muscles in cockroaches occur in the

1. Heart wall and help in blood circulation
2. Dorsal septum and connect the septum with heart and tergite
3. Wall of gizzard and help in its contraction
4. Intestinal wall and help in digestion

Answer: 1. Heart wall and help in blood circulation

Question 384. Young cockroach is called

1. Maggot
2. Ephyra
3. Nymph
4. Pupa

Answer: 3. Heart wall and help in blood circulation

Question 385. Periplaneta americana differs from Blatta orientals in having

1. No wings
2. Only first pair of wings
3. Well-developed wings
4. Only second pair of wings

Answer: 2. Only the first pair of wings

Question 386. In Arthropoda, the body cavity is called

1. Interon
2. Pseudocoel
3. Hemocoel
4. Coelom

Answer: 3. Hemocoel

Question 387. Thirteen-chambered tubular heart is present in

1. Cockroach
2. Earthworm
3. Frog
4. Rabbit

Answer: 1. Cockroach

Question 388. Open blood vascular system without hemoglobin or any other respiratory pigment is found in

1. Cockroach
2. Earthworm
3. Hydra
4. Nereis

Answer: 1. Cockroach

Question 389. Colleterial gland is found in

1. Male cockroach
2. Female cockroach
3. None
4. Both male and female cockroach

Answer: 2. Female cockroach

Question 390. If corpora allata are removed from the first instar of a nymph, then

1. It will remain nymph forever
2. It will enter into the secondary stage of juvenile
3. It will become adult immediately
4. None

Answer: 3. It will become adult immediately

Question 391. An insect which undergoes complete metamorphosis is called

1. Ametabola
2. Hemimetabola
3. Holometabola
4. None of these

Answer: 3. Holometabola

Question 392. Pericardial space in cockroaches is regularly altered by muscles

1. Ciliary
2. Alary
3. Circular
4. Longitudinal

Answer: 2. Alary

Question 393. The function of ecdysone hormone in insects is

1. The growth and development of larva
2. The maturation into an adult and laying eggs
3. To carry molting in the larval stage to form pupa
4. The secretion of cuticle in adult

Answer: 3. To carry molting in larval stage to form a pupa

Question 394. Oxygen-carrying respiratory pigment of cockroaches and other insects is

1. Hemoglobin
2. Hemocyanin
3. Hemoerythrin
4. None

Answer: 4. None

Question 395. The body of an insect is divisible into

1. Head, thorax, and abdomen
2. Head, trunk, and abdomen
3. Cephalothorax, head, and abdomen
4. Trunk, thorax, and abdomen

Answer: 2. Head, trunk, and abdomen

Question 396. What is the similarity between fly, mosquitoes, and cockroaches?

1. Thirteen-chambered heart
2. Three pairs of legs
3. Open excretory system
4. Housefly

Answer: 2. Three pairs of legs

Question 397. The respiration pigment of blood in cockroaches is

1. Hemozoin
2. Hemocyanin
3. Hemoglobin
4. Absent

Answer: 4. Absent

Question 398. Which type of image is found in the eye of a cockroach?

1. Mosaic
2. Superposition
3. Overlapping
4. None of these

Answer: 1. Mosaic

Question 399. Mandibles are present in the mouth parts of

1. Locust
2. Cockroach
3. Bedbug
4. Housefly

Answer: 2. Cockroach

Question 400. In Periplaneta, the cuticular lipid is secreted by

1. Hypodennal cells
2. Oenocyte cell
3. Dermal gland cells
4. Basal cell

Answer: 2. Oenocyte cell

Question 401. The mouth parts of cockroaches is

1. Piercing and sucking type
2. Biting and sucking type
3. Biting and chewing type
4. Sponging type

Answer: 3. Biting and chewing type

Question 402. In cockroaches, vision is due to

1. One compound eye
2. Only two compound eyes
3. Two simple eyes
4. Two compounds and two simple eyes

Answer: 2. Only two compound eyes

Question 403. Hemocoel is present in

1. Pheretima
2. Periplaneta
3. Sponge
4. Ascaris

Answer: 2. Periplaneta

Question 404. The chitinous exoskeleton is found in

1. Periplaneta
2. Ascaris
3. Pheretima
4. Hydra

Answer: 1. Periplaneta

Question 405. The common Indian bullfrog is

1. Rana tigrina
2. Rana esculenta
3. Rana limnocharis
4. Rana cyanophlyctis

Answer: 1. Rana tigrina

Question 406. Male frogs can croak louder than females because of being

1. Vocal sacs
2. Stronger
3. Larger in size
4. Larger sound box

Answer: 1. Vocal sacs

Question 407. Crocking of frog is

1. Hunger call
2. Danger call
3. Musical tone
4. Sex call for female

Answer: 4. Sex call for female

Question 408. The opening of the rectum in frogs is called

1. Vestibule
2. Cloaca
3. Coccyx
4. None of the above

Answer: 2. Cloaca

Question 409. The number of fingers in the hindlimb of a frog is

1. 4
2. 5
3. 6
4. 7

Answer: 2. 5

Question 410. Mucus helps frogs in making

1. Dry skin
2. Moist skin
3. Rough skin
4. Thick skin

Answer: 2. Moist skin

Question 411. Chromatophores in the skin of frogs found in the stratum are

1. Chromium
2. Compactum
3. Germination
4. Mostly spongiosum

Answer: 4. Mostly spongiosum

Question 412. One of the main functions of a frog’s skin is

1. Diffusion of respiratory gases
2. Absorption of ultraviolet rays to produce vitamin D
3. Storage of excess food in the form of subcutaneous fat
4. Excretion of nitrogenous waste in the form of uric acid

Answer: 1. Diffusion of respiratory gases

Question 413. In frogs, the surface of the attachment of the tongue is

1. Palatine
2. Sphenoid
3. Pterygoid
4. Hyoid apparatus

Answer: 4. Hyoid apparatus

Question 414. In frogs, the digestion of fats occurs mostly in

1. Rectum
2. Stomach
3. Duodenum
4. Small intestine

Answer: 4. Small intestine

Question 415. A fully grown tadpole larva of frog respires through

1. Gills
2. Skin
3. Lungs
4. Tail fin

Answer: 2. Skin

Question 416. During hibernation, frog respires with

1. Lung only
2. Moist skin only
3. Buccal cavity only
4. External gills and lungs

Answer: 3. Buccal cavity only

Question 417. The oxygen carrier or respiratory pigment in the blood of frog and other vertebrates is

1. Myoglobin
2. Cytochrome
3. Hemoglobin
4. Hemocyanin

Answer: 2. Cytochrome

Question 418. In frog, cutaneous respiration takes place

1. Always
2. Only on land
3. Only in water with pulmonary respiration
4. Only in water pulmonary respiration is not occurring

Answer: 1. Always

Question 419. The epithelial lining of the respiratory system in frogs is denied by

1. Ectoderm
2. Endoderm
3. Mesoderm
4. Mesoderm and endoderm

Answer: 2. Endoderm

Question 420. Amphibian heart is

1. One-chambered
2. Three chambered
3. Two-chambered
4. Four chambered

Answer: 2. Three chambered

Question 421. The sciatic vein of the frog opens in

1. Heart
2. Kidney
3. Pelvic region
4. Liver

Answer: 3. Pelvic region

Question 422. The functional kidney of a frog tadpole is

1. Pronephros
2. Archinephros
3. Metanephros
4. Metanephros

Answer: 1. Pronephros

Question 423. Frog is

1. Ureotelic
2. Uricotelic
3. Ammonotelic
4. None of the above

Answer: 1. Ureotelic

Question 424. The nitrogenous excretory product of tadpoles of frog is

1. Urea
2. Guanine
3. Uric acid
4. Ammonia

Answer: 4. Ammonia

Question 425. In frog,

1. Acetylcholine is the only neurotransmitter
2. Noradrenaline is the only neurotransmitter
3. Both acetylcholine and noradrenaline act as neurotransmitters
4. Neither acetylcholine nor noradrenaline acts as a neurotransmitter

Answer: 3. Both acetylcholine and noradrenaline act as neurotransmitters

Question 426. What will happen if the eyes of a frog are covered by paper?

1. Frog will soon die
2. Frog will not move
3. Frog will not do anything
4. Frog will move to one side only

Answer: 3. Frog will not do anything

Question 427. A frog has

1. Eyes but no lids
2. Jaws but no teeth
3. Hands but not fingers
4. Ears but not pinnae

Answer: 4. Ears but not pinnae

Question 428. Which of these is an ear ossicle in frog?

1. Incus
2. Auricle
3. Malleus
4. Columella auris

Answer: 4. Columella auris

Question 429. Columella auris is a modified

1. Quadrate
2. Article
3. Hyomandibular
4. Sphenethmoid

Answer: 3. Hyomandibular

Question 430. Fenestra, ovalis in frog is the

1. The air-filled cavity of the middle ear
2. Communication between the pharynx and tympanic cavity
3. The external opening of tympanic cavity is covered by the tympanic membrane
4. Opening of the auditory capsule which separates the middle ear from the internal ear

Answer: 4. Opening of the auditory capsule which separates the middle ear from the internal ear

Question 431. Chromatophores in frog’s skin arc controlled by

1. Hormones
2. Environment
3. Nervous activity
4. Nervous and hormonal activities

Answer: 1. Hormones

Question 432. Mesotvhium in frogs refers to

1. Fold of peritoneum between a kidney and a testis
2. Internal tissue of testes
3. Capsules of testes
4. None of these

Answer: 1. Fold of peritoneum between a kidney and a testis

Question 433. In frogs, the ureter is a urinogenital duct in

1. Male
2. Female
3. Male and female
4. Male or female

Answer: 1. Male

Question 434. In frogs, jelly around the eggs is deposited in

1. Ovary
2. Oviduct
3. Water after fertilization
4. Water during fertilization

Answer: 2. Oviduct

Question 435. The acrosome of the sperm of a frog helps in fertilization by

1. Activating the oocyte to engulf the sperm
2. Inducing the formation of cone of reception in oocyte
3. Stimulating oocyte to undergo second maturation division
4. Secreting sperm Iysin to dissolve covering the membrane of the oocyte

Answer: 4. Secreting sperm Iysin to dissolve and covering the membrane of the oocyte

Question 436. An enzyme secreted from the acrosome of a frog’s sperm is

1. Sperm lysin
2. Testosterone
3. Sperm trypsin
4. Sperm gastrin

Answer: 1. Sperm lysin