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NEET Biology For Plant Kingdom Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. Seedless tracheophytes are

1. Bryophyta
2. Pteridophyta
3. Gymnosperms
4. Angiosperms

Answer: 2. Pteridophyta

Question 2. Algae were grouped into how many kingdoms according to Whittaker?

1. Two
2. Three
3. One
4. Four

Answer: 2. Three

Question 3. Hcterotrichous nature of thallus is found in

1. Fimaria
2. Fritschiella and Ectocarpous
3. Stigeoclonium and Coleochaete
4. All of these

Answer: 4. All of these

NEET Biology MCQ

Question 4. Thick-walled perennating sexual spore is

1. Zygote
2. Zoospore
3. Hypnospore
4. Zygospore

Answer: 4. Zygospore

Question 5. Gulf weed belongs to the class

1. Chlorophyceae
2. Dirlophyceae
3. Phaeophyceac
4. Rhodophvceae

Answer: 3. Phaeophyceac

Question 6. The thallus organization of Volvox is

1. Multicellular and coccoid
2. Colonial and non-flagellate
3. Unicellular
4. Colonial and motile

Answer: 4. Colonial and motile

Question 7. The hydroxyproline nature of the cell wall is found in

1. Chlamydomonas
2. Ulothrix
3. Spirogyra
4. Chlorella

Answer: 1. Chlamydomonas

Question 8. The gametophytic plant body is non-vascular in

1. Algae and liverworts
2. Mosses and ferns
3. Gymnosperms and angiosperms
4. All of these

Answer: 4. All of these

Question 9. Brown algae are quite common in

1. Freshwater habitats
2. Tropical seawater
3. Temperate seawater
4. Both (1) and (2)

Answer: 3. Temperate seawater

NEET Biology MCQ

Question 10. Chloroplast with many pyrenoids is the feature of

1. Chlamydomonas
2. Sargassum
3. Batrachospermum
4. Spirogyra

Answer: 4. Spirogyra

Question 11. Algae with Floridian starch as reserve food material are also characterized by

1. Presence of chlorophyll b
2. Stacked thylakoids
3. Nonsulphated hydrocolloids
4. Non-flagellate nature

Answer: 4. Non-flagellate nature

Question 12. In the haplontic life cycle of many algae,

1. Sporophytic generation is represented by one-celled zygote
2. The free-living sporophyte is present
3. Meiosis is involved in gamete formation
4. Diploid spore forms gametophyte

Answer: 1. Sporophytic generation is represented by one-celled zygote

Question 13. Red snow is caused by

1. Zoospores of Chlamydomonas
2. Hypnospores of C. brauni
3. Aplanospores of C. media
4. Hypnospores of C. nivalis

Answer: 4. Hypnospores of C. nivalis

Question 14. Thallus is flattened, leaf-like, and anchors to the rocks with the help of holdfast in

1. Laminaria
2. Polysiphonia
3. Batrachospermum
4. Ectocarpus

Answer: 1. Laminaria

Question 15. Hundred zygospores alternate with empty cells in Spirogyra in conjugation. The total number of daughter filaments formed will be

1. Scalariform, 400
2. Lateral, 100
3. Lateral, 400
4. Scalariform, 100

Answer: 2. Lateral, 100

NEET Biology MCQ

Question 16. Algin is a hydrocolloid, obtained from the cell wall of

1. Macrocystis and Porphyridium
2. Mastigocladus and Laminaria
3. Microcystis and Nereocystis
4. Macrocystis and Fucus

Answer: 4. Macrocystis and Fucus

Question 17. A parasitic algae is

1. Porphyra
2. Sargassum
3. Laminaria
4. Cephaleuros

Answer: 4. Cephaleuros

Question 18. An edible red algae is

1. Focus
2. Sargassum
3. Acetabularia
4. Porphyra

Answer: 4. Porphyra

” plant kingdom mcq for neet”

Question 19. A floating brown algae that covers thousands of hectares of sea in the Atlantic Ocean is

1. Focus
2. Nereocystis
3. Sargassum
4. Dictyota

Answer: 3. Sargassum

Question 20. Motile flagellated asexual spore is

1. Zygote
2. Zygospore
3. Aplanospore
4. Zoospore

Answer: 4. Zoospore

Question 21. Laminarin starch is a reserve product characteristic of

1. Green algae
2. Blue-green algae
3. Red algae
4. Brown algae

Answer: 4. Brown algae

Question 22. Which of the following is a red alga that is not red?

1. Nemalion
2. Polysiphonia
3. Gelidium
4. Batrachospermum

Answer: 4. Batrachospermum

NEET Biology MCQ

Question 23. The color of brown algae is due to

1. Carotene
2. Fucoxanthin
3. Phycoerythrin
4. Phycocyanin

Answer: 2. Fucoxanthin

Question 24. The alga Chara is called stonewort because its plant body is encrusted with

1. Calcium bicarbonate
2. Calcium carbonate
3. Calcium chloride
4. Calcium oxalate

Answer: 2. Calcium carbonate

Question 25. In Chlorophyceae, the flagella are

1. Tinsel type
2. Whiplash type
3. Whiplash and tinsel-type
4. Basal tinsel, apical whiplash type

Answer: 2. Whiplash type

Question 26. Irish moss belongs to

1. Mosses
2. Bryophytes
3. Red algae
4. Lichens

Answer: 3. Red algae

Question 27. Which of the following are useful for curing goiter?

1. Sea kelps
2. Diatoms
3. Red algae
4. Porphyra

Answer: 1. Sea kelps

Question 28. Which of the following statements is correct regarding spermatophyte?

1. Gymnosperms are homosporous.
2. Microspore which develops into male gametophytes is highly reduced.
3. The development of pollen grains occurs in megasporangia.
4. The male and female cones are borne on the same tree in Cycas.

Answer: 2. Microspore which develops into male gametophytes is highly reduced.

Question 29. Meiosis occurs in green algae inside

1. Gametangia
2. Zygote
3. Sporangia
4. Zygospore

Answer: 4. Zygospore

Question 30. Non-motile gametes are characteristically found in

1. Chrysophyta
2. Rhodophyta
3. Phaeophyta
4. Chlorophyta

Answer: 2. Rhodophyta

Question 31. Flagella are of equal length and smooth in Chlamydomonas. This condition can be referred to as

1. Isokont and pleuronematic
2. Heterokont and acronematic
3. Isokont and acronematic
4. Heterokont and pleuronematic

Answer: 3. Isokont and acronematic

Question 32. The female sex organ in red algae is flask-shaped and is known as

1. Trichogyne
2. Carpogonium
3. Spermatium
4. Archegonium

Answer: 2. Carpogonium

NEET Biology MCQ

Question 33. Non-vascular archegoniates are

1. Thallophyta
2. Pteridophyta
3. Bryophyta
4. Gymnosperms

Answer: 3. Bryophyta

Question 34. Antheridial branch and archegonial branch are found in the same plant body of

1. Hornworts
2. Seaweeds
3. Liverworts
4. Cotton moss

Answer: 4. Cotton moss

Question 35. What is the chromosome number in calyptra, perichaetial cells, columella, and protonema if the endothecium cell contains 20 chromosomes?

1. 10,10, 20, and 10. respectively
2. 10, 20, 20, and 10, respectively
3. 20, 10. 20, and 10, respectively
4. 10, 10, 20, and 10, respectively

Answer: 1. 10,10, 20, and 10. respectively

Question 36. Which one of the following is homosporous with exosmotic embryogeny?

1. All pteridophytes
2. Bryophytes and gymnosperms
3. Angiosperms
4. All bryophytes

Answer: 4. All bryophytes

Question 37. Algae, bryophytes, and pteridophytes resemble with each other in which one of the following features?

1. Gametophytic plant body
2. Dependence on water for fertilization
3. Heteromorphic alternation of generation
4. Presence of embryo

Answer: 2. Dependence on the water for fertilization

Question 38. Find the correct match.

1. (1) → (A), (2) → (B), (3) → (C), (4) → (D)
2. (1) → (C), (2) → (B), (3) → (D), (4) → (A)
3. (1) → (C), (2) → (A), (3) → (B), (4) →(D)
4. (1) →(C), (2) (A), (3) → (D), (4) → (B)

Answer: 4. (1) → (C), (2) → (A), (3) → (D), (4) → (B)

NEET Biology MCQ

Question 39. Bryophytes are not characterized by

1. Sporophyte parasitic over gametophyte
2. Independent gametophyte
3. Absence of vascular tissues
4. Independent sporophyte

Answer: 4. Independent sporophyte

Question 40. Which of the following is a heterotrophic bryophyte?

1. Cryptothallus
2. Riccia
3. Dawsonia
4. Sphaerocarpiis

Answer: 1. Cryptothallus

Question 41. In Funaria, the number of peristome teeth in the exostome is

1. 32
2. 64
3. 16
4. 8

Answer: 3. 16

Question 42. Rhizoids of mosses are

1. Unicellular and pigmented
2. Multicellular and pigmented
3. Unicellular and non-pigmented
4. Multicellular and non-pigmented

Answer: 4. Multicellular and non-pigmented

Question 43. In Funaria, calyptra is derived from

1. Antheridium
2. Columella
3. Capsule
4. Archegonium

Answer: 4. Archegonium

Question 44. In Funaria, the following is not connected with spore dispersal

1. Seta
2. Peristome
3. Annulus
4. Foot

Answer: 4. Foot

Biology MCQs with answers

Question 45. Cliloroplasts are present in the spores of

1. Rhizopus
2. Funaria
3. Yeast
4. Dryopteris

Answer: 2. Funaria

Question 46. Stomata having pores bounded by a single ring-shaped guard cell are found in

1. Capsule of Funaria
2. Leaf of fern
3. Pinnule of Cycas
4. All of these

Answer: 1. Capsule of Funaria

Question 47. Conducting tissue is not found in

1. Mosses
2. Liverworts
3. Cycas
4. Ferns

Answer: 2. Liverworts

Question 48. Stems and leaves of bryophytes are

1. Analogous to vascular plants
2. Homologous to vascular plants
3. Analogous to algae thallus
4. None of these

Answer: 1. Analogous to vascular plants

Question 49. Non-vascular embryophyte with leaves is

1. Riccia
2. Porella
3. Selaginella
4. Macrocystis

Answer: 2. Porella

plant kingdom mcq with answers

Question 50. Aquatic weed Salvinia also called the sorrow of Kashmir, is

1. Heterosporous water fern
2. Homosporous water fern
3. Member of bryophyte
4. Both (1) and (3)

Answer: 1. Heterosporous water fern

Question 51. Mitospores are totally absent in

1. Chlorophyceae
2. Phaeophyceae
3. Fungi
4. Bryophytes

Answer: 4. Bryophytes

Question 52. Which is a member of Bryopsida?

1. Maidenhair moss
2. Irish moss
3. Reindeer moss
4. All of these

Answer: 1. Maiden hair moss

Biology MCQs with answers

Question 53. Which group of plantae represents gametophytic plant body with dependent sporophyte?

1. Algae and bryophytes
2. Bryophytes and pteridophytes
3. Liverworts and mosses
4. Ferns and cycades

Answer: 3. Liverworts and mosses

Question 54. The life cycle of cord moss is

1. Haplontic
2. Haplo-diplontic
3. Diplontic
4. Haplo-haplontic

Answer: 2. Haplo-diplontic

Question 55. Heterosporous pteridophyte with eusporangiate type of sporangium is

1. Pteris and Adiantum
2. Equisetum and Selaginella
3. Dryopteris and Azolla
4. Marsilea and Pteris

Answer: 2. Equisetum and Selaginella

Question 56. In Little Club Moss, the embryo develops from the part of the zygote, and the rest is used to form a suspensor. This mode of development is called

1. Exoscopic
2. Endoscopic
3. Meroblastic
4. Holoblastic

Answer: 3. Meroblastic

Question 57. The shedding of male gametophyte in Selaginella occurs at a 13-celled stage which consists of

1. 8 jacket cells, 1 generative cell, and 4 androgenic cells
2. 9 jacket cells and 4 androgenic cells
3. 12 jacket cells and 1 male gamete
4. 8 jacket cells, 1 urothelial cell, and 4 androgenic cells

Answer: 4. 8 jacket cells, 1 urothelial cell, and 4 androgenic cells

Question 58. Find the correct statement for the prothallus of fern.

1. Monoecious, protandrous with multicellular rhizoids
2. Monoecious, protandrous with unicellular rhizoids
3. Dioecious, with unicellular rhizoids
4. Monoecious, protandrous with apical antheridia, and basal archegonia on the ventral surface

Answer: 2. Monoecious, protandrous with unicellular rhizoids

Question 59. Pteridophytes are divided into how many classes?

1. Two
2. Three
3. Pour
4. Six

Answer: 3. Pour

Question 60. Rootless pteridophytes with rhizoids are included in

1. Sphenopsida
2. Psilopsida
3. Pteropsida
4. Lycopsida

Answer: 2. Psilopsida

Question 61. The dominant photosynthetic phase in the life cycle of Pteridophyta is equivalent to the

1. The gametophytic phase of Bryophyta
2. Sporophytic phase of bryophyta
3. The gametophytic phase of Pteridophyta
4. The gametophytic phase of gymnosperm

Answer: 1. Gametophytic phase of Bryophyta

Question 62. In pteridophytes, reduction division occurs when

1. Prothallus is formed
2. Sex organs are formed
3. Spores are formed
4. Gametes are formed

Answer: 3. Spores are formed

Biology MCQs with answers

Question 63. Fern sperms (antherozoids) are

1. Multiflagellated
2. Pentaflagellated
3. Biflagellated
4. Non-flagellated

Answer: 1. Multiflagellated

Question 64. The evolutionary advanced features of Selaginella are

1. Heterospory
2. Endosporic development of gametophyte
3. Reduced gametophyte
4. Localization of sporangium-bearing appendages in strobila
5. Unisexual gametophytes
6. Fertilization with the help of water

1. All are correct.
2. All except (6) are correct.
3. All except (5) and (6) are correct.
4. All except (3) are correct.

Answer: 2. Endosporic development of gametophyte

Question 65. When the gametophyte development occurs within spore, it is known as

1. Exosporic
2. Endospores
3. Episporic
4. None of these

Answer: 2. Endosporic

Question 66. In Selaginella’s life cycle, generative tissue of female gametophytes makes

1. Androgenic cells
2. Prothallial cell diaphragm
3. Diaphragm
4. Archegonia

Answer: 4. Archegonia

Question 67. Equisetum, commonly called horsetail or scouring rush and exceptional pteridophyte, i.e., xylem with vessels, possesses the character of

1. Heterosporous
2. Autotrophic gametophyte
3. Biflagellate spermatozoid
4. Unjointed stem

Answer: 2. Autotrophic gametophyte

Question 68. Venation in fern leaves is

1. Unicostate
2. Reticulate
3. Furcate
4. Parallel

Answer: 3. Furcate

Question 69. If the number of chromosomes in the foot of an embryo is 8, what should be the number in its spore?

1. 4
2. 8
3. 16
4. 23

Answer: 1. 4

Question 70. Type of stele without pith

1. Solenostele
2. Siphonostele
3. Protostele
4. Dictyostele

Answer: 3. Protostele

Question 71. The sporangia of eusporangiate ferns

1. Possess a single layer of wall cells
2. Produce very few spores
3. Originate from a group of initial cells
4. Dehisce at the region of a well-defined stomium

Answer: 3. Originate from a group of initial cells

Question 72. Spores with elaters are characteristic of

1. Lycopodium
2. Equisetum
3. Adiantum
4. Marchantia

Answer: 2. Equisetum

Biology MCQs with answers

Question 73. In the archegonium of Dryopteris, the number of neck canal cells is/are

1. 4
2. 2
3. 1
4. 6-10

Answer: 3. 1

Question 74. Vascular cryptogams are

1. Bryophyta
2. Pteridophyta
3. Gymnosperms
4. Angiospenns

Answer: 2. Pteridophyta

Question 75. Maidenhair fem is

1. Adiantum
2. Dryopteris
3. Cyathaea
4. Alsophila

Answer: 1. Adiantum

Question 76. The endosperm of gymnosperm is ontogenetically similar to angiosperms

1. Endosperm
2. Embryo sac
3. Archegonium
4. Megasporangia

Answer: 2. Embryo sac

Question 77. Which group of plantae represents the smallest group with perennial plants only?

1. Pteridophyta
2. Angiosperms
3. Bryophyta
4. Gymnosperms

Answer: 4. Gymnosperms

Question 78. Monkey’s puzzle is a common name for

1. Araucaria imbricate
2. Cycas revolute
3. Pinus longifolia
4. Gnetum anemone

Answer: 1. Araucaria embricata

Question 79. Living fossils of gymnosperms are

1. Cycas
2. Metasequoia
3. Ginkgo biloba
4. All of these

Answer: 4. All of these

Question 80. Endospermic, perispermic, polycotyledonous, and winged seeds having members of Plantae also show

1. Sulfur shower
2. Largest ovule
3. Double fertilization
4. Placentation

Answer: 1. Sulfur shower

Question 81. Which character is found in gymnosperms?

1. Annuals
2. Herbaceous
3. Climber and trailing shrub
4. Ovary

Answer: 3. Climber and trailing shrub

Biology MCQs with answers

Question 82. Pollination occurs in Pinus at

1. Two-celled stage
2. Three-celled stage
3. Four-celled stage
4. Five-celled stage

Answer: 3. Four-celled stage

Question 83. Polyxylic and mano xylic wood is present in

1. Pinus
2. Cycas
3. Ginkgo
4. Gnetum

Answer: 2. Cycas

Question 84. Which one of the following groups acts as the connecting link between gymnosperms and angiosperms?

1. Ginkgoales
2. Cycadales
3. Coniferales
4. Gnetales

Answer: 4. Gnetales

Question 85. Phanerogams without wombs are

1. Angiosperms
2. Bryophytes
3. Ferns
4. Gymnosperms

Answer: 4. Gymnosperms

Question 86. Fruits are not produced in gymnosperms because they are

1. Without pollination
2. Without fertilization
3. Seedless plants
4. Without any ovary

Answer: 4. Without any ovary

Question 87. Which one constitutes the dominant vegetation in colder regions?

1. Monocots
2. Dicots
3. Legumes
4. Gymnosperms

Answer: 4. Gymnosperms

Biology MCQs with answers

Question 88. In gymnosperms, pollination takes place through

1. Insects
2. Wind
3. Bats
4. Birds

Answer: 2. Wind

Question 89. Of the following, the false character with respect to Pinus is

1. Resin canals in needles
2. Tracheids with bordered pits
3. Bracts and ovuliferous scales
4. Embryo with two cotyledons

Answer: 4. Embryo with two cotyledons

Question 90. Maidenhair tree is

1. Ginkgo biloba
2. Gnetum
3. Ephedra
4. Welwitschia

Answer: 1. Ginkgo biloba

Question 91. Edible seeds are obtained from

1. Mangifera indica
2. Pinus gerardiana
3. P. roxburghii
4. Dalbergia sissoo

Answer: 1. Mangifera indica

NEET Biology practice mcq questions with solution

Question 92. Diploxylic vascular bundles are found in

1. Pteris
2. Selaginella
3. Funaria
4. Cycas

Answer: 4. Cycas

Question 93. Circinate ptyxis is found in

1. Pteris
2. Dryopteris
3. Cycas
4. All of these

Answer: 4. All of these

Question 94. Transfusion tissue replaces the veins in

1. Cycas
2. Ferns
3. Pinus
4. Both Pinus and Cycas

Answer: 4. Both Pinus and Cycas

” class 11 biology chapter 3 mcq”

Question 95. Find the correct match.

1. (1) → (A), (2) → (E), (3) → (B), (4) → (C)
2. (1) → (A), (2) → (E), (3) → (C), (4) → (B)
3. (1) → (C), (2) → (E), (3) → (A), (4) → (B)
4. (1) → (A), (2) → (E), (3) → (B), (4) → (D)

Answer: 1. (1) → (A), (2) → (E), (3) → (B), (4) → (C)

Question 96. Carpels are equivalent to

1. Microsporophylls
2. Megasporophylls
3. Megasporangia
4. Embryo sac

Answer: 2. Megasporophylls

Question 97. Vessels are present in the xylem of which tracheophytes?

1. Angiosperms
2. Gymnosperms
3. Pteridophytes
4. Both (1) and (2)

Answer: 1. Angiosperms

Question 98. A marine angiosperm is

1. Hydrilla
2. Utricularia
3. Potamogeton
4. Zostera

Answer: 4. Zostera

Question 99. Biennials are characterized by

1. Bearing flowers for two seasons
2. Forming aerial stem and flowering in the second year
3. Flowering in the first year and forming fruits in the second year
4. Forming storage organs in the first year and reproductive organs or flowers in the second year

Answer: 4. Forming storage organs in the first year and reproductive organs or flowers in the second year

Question 100. Flowering plants are more successful than other members of the plant world because

1. They are large and have a good vascular tissue system
2. They carry out a variety of pollination mechanism
3. The protected plant embryo can survive in the period of unfavorable conditions
4. All of these

Answer: 4. All of these

Question 101. The father of taxonomy described plants in his book

1. 480, Historia Plantarum
2. 340, Historia Naturalis
3. 18000, Historia Generalis Plantarum
4. 5900, Species Plantarum

Answer: 4. 5900, Species Plantarum

Question 102. The basis of a dendrogram is

1. Phenetics
2. Taximetrics
3. Numerical taxonomy
4. All of these

Answer: 4. All of these

Question 103. Huxley is considered to be the founder of

1. Classical systematic
2. New systematic
3. Phylogenetic system of classification
4. Artificial system of classification

Answer: 2. New systematic

NEET Biology practice mcq questions with solution

Question 104. The classification of plants and animals on the basis of chromosome number is called

1. Cytotaxonomy
2. Biochemical systematics
3. Taxonomy
4. Numerical taxonomy

Answer: 1. Cytotaxonomy

Question 105. The sequencing in DNA and the chemical nature of proteins have been used as the basis of classification by

1. Cytotaxonomist
2. Karyotaxonomist
3. Chemotaxonomist
4. α-taxonomist

Answer: 3. Chemotaxonomist

Question 106. The term α-taxonomy was introduced by

1. John Ray
2. Hutchinson
3. Bassey
4. Turril

Answer: 4. Turril

Question 107. The sexual system of classification is

1. Artificial system
2. Based on stamens characters
3. Based on corolla and carpels characters
4. Both (1) and (2)

Answer: 4. Both (1) and (2)

Question 108. The Linnaeus system of classification contains

1. 4 classes of plants
2. 8 classes of plants
3. 16 classes of plants
4. 24 classes of plants

Answer: 4. 24 classes of plants

Question 109. Classification based on several characters is

1. Natural
2. Artificial
3. Classical
4. Phylogenetic

Answer: 1. Natural

Question 110. The natural system of classification was proposed by

1. Engler and Prantl
2. Bentham and Hooker
3. Carolus Linnaeus
4. Julian Huxley

Answer: 2. Bentham and Hooker

Question 111. Bentham and Hooker’s classification is

1. Classification of taxa based on actual examination
2. Artificial system of classification
3. Phylogenetic system of classification
4. Based on evolution

Answer: 1. Classification of taxa based on actual examination

Question 112. In Bentham and Hooker’s system, the term “cohort” has been used. It is similar to which rank in today’s classification.

1. Class
2. Family
3. Order
4. Sub-family

Answer: 3. Order

Question 113. Which one of the following classifications is best suited for the identification of seed plants?

1. Bentham and Hooker’s classification
2. Engler and Prantl’s classification
3. Hutchinson’s classification
4. Takhtajan’s classification

Answer: 1. Bentham and Hooker’s classification

” class 11 biology chapter 3 mcqs”

Question 114. Which is the most advanced among the following?

1. Cycadaceae
2. Gnetaceae
3. Coniferae
4. Cryptogamae

Answer: 2. Gnetaceae

NEET Biology practice mcq questions with solution

Question 115. Which is not true about the series Heteromerae in Bentham and Hooker’s system?

1. Always carpellary condition
2. Ovary usually superior
3. Stamens are as many as corolla lobe
4. It includes three cohorts

Answer: 1. Always carpellary condition

Question 116. Who is not associated with the artificial system of classification?

1. Pliny
2. Theophrastus
3. Hutchinson
4. Linnaeus

Answer: 3. Hutchinson

Question 117. The evolutionary history of an organism is known as

1. Phylogeny
2. Ontogeny
3. Phycology
4. Mycology

Answer: 1. Phylogeny

Question 118. Angiosperms (dicotyledons) were distinguished into Ar- chichlamydeae and Metachlamydeae by

1. Candolle
2. Cronquist
3. Hutchinson
4. Engler and Prantl

Answer: 4. Engler and Prantl

Question 119. “Taxonomy without phylogeny may be likened to bones without flesh” is a statement supported by

1. Oswald Tippo
2. Bentham and Hooker
3. Takhtajan
4. John Hutchinson

Answer: 3. Takhtajan

Question 120. Select the cladistic system of classification in which di¬cots are more primitive than monocots

1. Horizontal system
2. Hutchinson system
3. Bentham and Hooker’s system
4. Engler and Prantl’s system

Answer: 2. Hutchinson system

Question 121. Trabeculae are present in the

1. Capsule of Funaria
2. Ovule of gymnosperm
3. Sporangia of a fern
4. Ovule of angiosperm

Answer: 1. Capsule of Funaria

Question 122. Engler and Prantl published a phylogenetic system in the monograph

1. Die Naturlichen Pflanzen
2. Historia Plantarum
3. Species Plantarum
4. Genera Plantarum
5. Origin of Species

Answer: 1. Die Naturlichen Pflanzen

Question 123. Dominant generation in bryophytes is

1. Capsule
2. Sporophyte
3. Gametophyte
4. Seta

Answer: 3. Gametophyte

NEET Biology practice mcq questions with solution

Question 124. Which of the following plants has high water reten¬tion capacity and is used to provide moisture to plants?

1. Sphagnum
2. Botrychilum
3. Mars ilea
4. March Antia

Answer: 1. Sphagnum

Question 125. If in Funaria, the leaf has eight chromosomes, the structure with 16 chromosomes will be

1. Protonema
2. Rhizoids
3. Capsule and seta
4. All above

Answer: 3. Capsule and seta

Question 126. Leptoids and hydroids are the vascular supply of

1. Hornworts
2. Irish mosses
3. Liverworts
4. Pteridophytes

Answer: 3. Liverworts

Question 127. Moss peat is used as a packing material for sending flowers and live plants to distant places because

1. It serves as a disinfectant
2. It is easily available
3. It is hygroscopic
4. It reduces transpiration

Answer: 3. It is hygroscopic

Question 128. In a moss, the sporophyte

1. Manufactures food for itself as well as for the gametophyte
2. Is partially parasitic on the gametophyte
3. Produces gametes that give rise to the gametophyte
4. Arises from a spore produced from the gametophyte

Answer: 2. Is partially parasitic on the gametophyte

Question 129. Bryophytes are exceptional, as

1. They produce spores
2. Their sporophytic stage grows on gametophyte
3. They do not require water for fertilization
4. Their gametophyte stage grows on sporophyte

Answer: 2. Their sporophytic stage grows on gametophyte

Question 130. Which of the following is the amphibian of the plant kingdom?

1. Pteridophyte
2. Bryophyte
3. Cycas
4. All of the above

Answer: 4. All of the above

Question 131. Flagellated male gametes are present in all three of which one of the following sets?

1. Zygnema, Saprolegnia, and Hydrilla
2. Fucus, Marsilea, and Calotropis
3. Riccia, Dry op ter is, and Cycas
4. Anthoceros, Funaria, and Spirogyra

Answer: 3. Riccia, Dry op ter is, and Cycas

Question 132. The plant classification proposed by C. Linnaeus was artificial because it was based on

1. Few morphological characters
2. Diverse evolutionary tendencies
3. Adaptive anatomical characters
4. Physiological traits together with morphological characters

Answer: 1. Few morphological characters

NEET Biology practice mcq questions with solution

Question 133. In which of the following, gametes are produced by mitrotic division?

1. Pteridophytes
2. Algae
3. Gymnosperms
4. Angiosperms

Answer: 2. Algae

Question 134. Which one of the following is heterosporous?

1. Dryopteris
2. Salvinia
3. Adiantum
4. Equisetum

Answer: 2. Salvinia

Question 135. Four rows and six rows of NCC are found, respectively, in

1. Bryophytes and Pteridophytes
2. Pteridophytes and gymnosperms
3. Gymnosperms and angiosperms
4. Pteridophytes and bryophytes

Answer: 4. Pteridophytes and bryophytes

Question 136. Peat is formed from

1. Funaria
2. Sphagnum
3. Mosses
4. Liverworts

Answer: 2. Sphagnum

Question 137. Liverworts, hornworts, and mosses together constitute

1. Pteridophytes
2. Lichens and Plantae
3. Bryophyta
4. Bryopsida

Answer: 2. Lichens and Plantae

Question 138. Protonemma is a characteristic feature of

1. Fern
2. Marchantia
3. Moss
4. Cycas

Answer: 3. Moss

Question 139. Bryophytes resemble algae in the following aspects.

1. Filamentous body, pressure of vascular tissues, and autotrophic nutrition
2. Differentiation of plant body into root, stem, and autotrophic nutrition
3. Thallus-like plant body, pressure of roots, and autotrophic nutrition
4. Thallus-like plant body, lack of vascular tissues, and autotrophic nutrition

Answer: 4. Thallus-like plant body, lack of vascular tissues, and autotrophic nutrition

Question 140. Sphagnum is commonly used as packing material for the trans-shipment of living material due to its

1. Capacity to hold water
2. Easy availability
3. Nature as it can grow anywhere
4. All the above

Answer: 1. Capacity to hold water

Question 141. A dominant gametophytic phase alternated by multicellular dependent sporophytic phase material for transshipment of living occurs in

1. Chlamydomonas
2. Politrichum
3. Asian
4. All of the above

Answer: 2. Politrichum

Question 142. Which of the following plants do not produce seeds?

1. Ficus and Funaria
2. Fern and Funaria
3. Chlamydomonas and Ficus
4. Punica and Pinus

Answer: 2. Fern and Funaria

Question 143. Algae that form motile colonies are

1. Volvox
2. Nostoc
3. Spirogyra
4. Chlamydomonas

Answer: 1. Volvox

NEET Biology MCQ With Solutions

Question 144. Auxospore formation is seen in

1. Nostoc
2. Yeast
3. Diatoms
4. Agaricus

Answer: 3. Diatoms

Question 145. Which of the following is a flagellated algae?

1. Chlamydomonas
2. Ulothrix
3. Saccharomyces
4. Agaricus

Answer: 1. Chlamydomonas

Question 146. Which of the following is coenocytic?

1. Vaucheria
2. Centuria
3. Chlamydomonas
4. Pseudomonas

Answer: 1. Vaucheria

Question 147. Auxospores and oocysts are formed, respectively, by

1. Several diatoms and few cyanobacteria
2. Several cyanobacteria and several diatoms
3. Some diatoms and several cyanobacteria
4. Some cyanobacteria and many diatoms

Answer: 3. Some diatoms and several cyanobacteria

Question 148. Alga which is a parasite of the tea plant is

1. Cephaleuros
2. Ulva
3. Oedogonium
4. Vaucheria

Answer: 1. Cephaleuros

Question 149. The largest alga is

1. Microcystis
2. Macrocytis
3. Red alga
4. Blue-green algae

Answer: 2. Macrocytis

Question 150. A triphasic life cycle is present

1. Red algae
2. Brown algae
3. Diatoms
4. Dinoflagellates

Answer: 2. Brown algae

Question 151. Alginic acid is obtained from

1. Blue-green algae
2. Red algae
3. Green algae
4. Brown algae

Answer: 2. Green algae

Question 152. In Chlamydomonas, meiosis occurs in

1. Gamete
2. Zygote
3. Sporogonium
4. Zoospore

Answer: 2. Zygote

NEET Biology MCQ With Solutions

Question 153. The zoospores of Ulothrix are

1. Quadriflagellated
2. Biflagellated
3. Monoflagellated
4. Alagellated

Answer: 1. Quadriflagellated

Question 154. Kelps are

1. Freshwater algae
2. Marine algae
3. Terrestrial
4. Amphibious

Answer: 2. Marine algae

Question 155. Which of the following is not correctly matched?

1. Chlamydomonas—Unicellular flagellated alga
2. Laminaria—Flattened leaf-like thallus
3. Chlorella—Filamentous non flagellated
4. Spirogyra—Filamentous structure
5. Volvox—Colonial non-flagellated

Answer: 5. Volvox—Colonial non-flagellated

Question 156. Agar-agar which is commonly used in micro-biological studies and culture media is obtained from

1. Gelidium
2. Laminaria
3. Polysiphonia
4. Batrachospremum

Answer: 1. Gelidium

Question 157. From which of the following algae, agar is commercially extracted?

1. Gracilaria
2. Focus
3. Sargassum
4. Gelidium
5. Turk inari

1. (3) and (5)
2. (2) and (3)
3. (4) and (5)
4. (1) and (2)
5. (1) and (4)

Answer: 5. (1) and (4)

Question 158. Match column 1 with column 2 option.

1. (1) → (B), (2) → (D), (3) → (C), (4) → (A)
2. (1) → (C), (2) → (A), (3) → (D), (4) → (B)
3. (1) → (B), (2) → (D), (3) → (B), (4) → (A)
4. (1) → (D), (2) → (C), (3) → (A), (4) → (B)
5. (1) → (D), (2) → (C), (3) → (A), (4) → (B)

Answer: 2. (1) → (C), (2) → (A), (3) → (D), (4) → (B)

Question 159. If you are asked to classify various algae into distinct groups, which of the following characters you should choose?

1. Nature of stored food materials in the cell
2. Structural organization of thallus
3. Chemical composition of cell wall
4. Types of pigments present in the cell

Answer: 4. Types of pigments present in the cell

NEET Biology MCQ With Solutions

Question 160. All algae have

1. Chlorophyll-a and chlorophyll-b
2. Chlorophyll-b and carotenes
3. Chlorophyll-a and carotenes
4. Phycobilins and carotenes
5. Chlorophyll-a, chlorophyll-b, carotenes

Answer: 3. Chlorophyll-a and carotenes

Question 161. The edible green alga rich in protein is

1. Porphyra
2. Chlorella
3. Laminaria
4. Chondrus crispus

Answer: 2. Chlorella

Question 162. Consider the following statements regarding the major pigments and stored food in the different groups of algae and select the correct options given.

1. In Chlorophyceae, the stored food material in starch, and the major pigments are chlorophyll-a and chlorophyll-b.
2. In Phaeophyceae, laminarin is the stored food and major pigments are chlorophyll-a and chlorophyll-b.
3. In Rhodophyceae, floridean starch is the stored food and the major pigments are chlorophyll-a, chloro-phyll-d, and phycoerythrin.

1. (1) is correct, but (2) and (3) are wrong.
2. (1) and (2) are correct, but (3) is wrong.
3. (1) and (3) are correct, but (2) is wrong.
4. (2) is correct, but (1) and (3) are wrong
5. (3) is correct, but (1) and (2) are wrong.

Answer: 5. (3) is correct, but (1) and (2) are wrong

Question 163. Sex organs of algae and fungi are

1. Antheridium oogonia
2. Carpogonia and ascogonia
3. Zygospore and akinetes
4. Heterocyst and archegonia

Answer: 1. Antheridium oogonia

Question 164. Pyerenoids are commonly found in

1. Red algae
2. Green algae
3. Brown algae
4. Blue-green algae

Answer: 2. Green algae

Question 165. Which pigments is not found in red algae?

1. Chlorophyll-a
2. Phycocyanin
3. Chlorophyll-b
4. Phycoerythrin

Answer: 2. Phycocyanin

Question 166. The nutrition of Protista is

1. Phagotrophic
2. Saprotrophic
3. Autotrophic
4. All above

Answer: 4. All above

Question 167. Match the following and choose the correct combination from the options given.

1. (1) → (A), (2) → (C), (3) → (B), (4) → (D)
2. (1) → (A), (2) → (D), (3) → (C), (4) → (B)
3. (1) → (D), (2) → (B), (3) → (C), (4) → (A)
4. (1) → (B), (2) → (D), (3) → (A), (4) → (B)
5. (1) → (D), (2) → (C), (3) →(B), (4) → (A)

Answer: 1. (1) → (A), (2) → (C), (3) → (B), (4) → (D)

Question 168. Which of the following correctly represents the type of life cycle patterns from the options given?

1. Diplontic, Haplodiplontic, Haplontic
2. Haplodiplontic, Haplontic, Diplontic
3. Haplontic, Diplontic, Haplodiplontic
4. Diplontic, Haplontic, Haplodiplontic
5. Haplontic, Haplodiplontic, Diplontic

Answer: 4. Diplontic, Haplontic, Haplodiplontic

Question 169. Gracilaria and Gelidium are important sources of

1. Carrageenan jelly
2. Iodine
3. Agar
4. Vitamin B

Answer: 3. Agar

Question 170. Laminaria and Fucus belong to

1. Chlorophyceae
2. Rhodophyceae
3. Paeophyceae
4. Cyanophyceae

Answer: 3. Paeophyceae

Question 171. Monascus purpura is a yeast used commercially in the production of

1. Streptokinase for removing clots from the blood ves¬sels.
2. Citric acid
3. Blood cholesterol-lowering statins
4. Ethanol

Answer: 3. Blood cholesterol-lowering statins

NEET Biology MCQ With Solutions

Question 172. Which one of the following is correctly matched?

1. Ginger—Sucker
2. Chlamydomonas—Conidia
3. Yeast—Zoospores
4. Onion—Bulb

Answer: 4. Onion—Bulb

Question 173. Which of the following is characteristic of ferns?

1. Leafy gametophyte
2. Circinate vernation
3. Mycorrhizal roots
4. Coralloid roots

Answer: 2. Circinate vernation

Question 174. Vascular cryptogams are

1. Pteridophytes
2. Angiosperms
3. Mosses
4. Algae

Answer: 1. Pteridophytes

Question 175. Microspores of massulae in Azolla are found in

1. Indicium
2. Sporangium
3. Antheridium
4. Archcgonoum

Answer: 2. Sporangium

Question 176. First vascular plant is

1. Thallophyta
2. Bryophyta
3. Pteridophyta
4. Spermatophyta

Answer: 3. Pteridophyta

Question 177. Fronds are

1. Leaves of ferns
2. Leaves of Cycas
3. Moss roots
4. The reproductive structure of ferns

Answer: 1. Leaves of ferns

Question 178. In pteridophytes, phloem is without

1. Sieve cells
2. Sieve tubes
3. Companion cells
4. Bast fibers

Answer: 3. Companion cells

Question 179. Independent alternation of generation is found in

1. Fern
2. Cycas
3. Onion
4. Lotus

Answer: 1. Fern

Question 180. Which of the following is called the resurrection plant?

1. Selaginella lipidophyla
2. Gingko aloha
3. Cedrus deodara
4. Sequoia sempervivums

Answer: 1. Selaginclla lipidophyla

Question 181. Female gametophyte in heterosporous ferns is

1. Archegonium
2. Prothallus
3. Gymnosperm
4. Angiosperm

Answer: 4. Angiosperm

Question 182. In which group will you place a plant that reproduces by means of spores, has vascular supply, and diploid sporophytic phase as a dominant phase?

1. Bryophyte
2. Pteridophyta
3. Gymnosperm
4. Angiosperm

Answer: 2. Pteridophyta

Question 183. Which pteridophyta is called as horse tail?

1. Equisetum
2. Lycopodium
3. Mars ilea
4. Selaginella

Answer: 1. Equisetum

Question 184. Which of the following is present in association with Azolla?

1. Anabaena
2. Nostoc
3. Clostridium
4. Azotobacter

Answer: 1. Anabaena

Question 185. The dehiscence of sporangia of fern occurs through

1. Annulus
2. Stomium
3. Elaters
4. Sori

Answer: 1. Annulus

Question 186. In a fern prothallus, the following occurs.

1. Self-fertilization
2. Cross-fertilization
3. Conjugation
4. Isogamv

Answer: 2. Cross-fertilization

Question 187. The Sporophytes in Ncphrolepis is _____ and the spores are

1. Diploid, haploid
2. Haploid, haploid
3. Haploid, diploid
4. Diploid, diploid

Answer: 1. Diploid, haploid

Question 188. One of the following is a pteridophyte.

1. Cycas
2. Sphagnum
3. Nephrolepis
4. All above

Answer: 3. Nephrolepis

Question 189. Which one has the maximum number of chromosomes?

1. Marsilea
2. Equisetum
3. Ophioglossum
4. Lycopodium

Answer: 3. Ophioglossum

Question 190. Indusium is found in

1. Algae
2. Fronds
3. Moss
4. Cycas

Answer: 2. Fronds

Question 191. One of the following differentiates pteridophytes from mosses.

1. Prothallus
2. Homosporous spores
3. Haplontic life cycle
4. All above

Answer: 1. Prothallus

Question 192. Which one of the following is called maiden hair fern?

1. Dryopteris
2. Pteris
3. Adiantum
4. Lycopodium
5. Selaginella

Answer: 3. Dryopteris

Question 193. Walking fern belongs to the genus

1. Adiantum
2. Dryopteris
3. Peter is
4. Mars ilea

Answer: 1. Adiantum

Question 194. In the prothallus of a vascular cryptogam, the antherozoids and egg mature at different times. At a result,

1. There is a high degree of sterility.
2. One can conclude that the plant is apomictic.
3. Self-fertilization is prevented.
4. There is no change in the success rate of fertilization.

Answer: 3. Self-fertilization is prevented.

Question 195. Pick up the wrongly matched pair

1. Equisetum—Horsetail
2. Psilotum—Whisk fern
3. Selaginella—Peat moss
4. Dryopteris—Male shield fern

Answer: 3. Selaginella—Peat moss

Question 196. Match the following with the correct combination.

1. (1) → (F), (2) → (E), (3) → (A), (4) → (C), (5) → (D)
2. (1) → (E), (2) → (D), (3) → (C), (4) → (B), (5) → (A)
3. (1) → (E), (2) → (A), (3) → (B), (4) → (D), (5)→ (C)
4. (1) → (C), (2) → (B), (3) → (A), (4) → (E), (5) → (D)

Answer: 3. (1) → (E), (2) → (A), (3) → (B), (4) → (D), (5) → (C)

Question 197. Which of the following has medicinal value and is a pteridophyte?

1. Lycopodium
2. Adiantum
3. Gnetum
4. Dryopteris

Answer: 1. Lycopodium

Question 198. Seed habit originated in certain

1. Bryophytes
2. Ferns
3. Angiosperms
4. Gymnosperm

Answer: 4. Gymnosperm

Question 199. Circinafe vernation is seen in

1. Equisteum, Nephrolepis, Psilotum
2. Nephrolepis, Adiantum, Pteris
3. Lycopodium, Nephrolepis
4. Psilotum, Nephrolepis, Adiantum

Answer: 2. Nephrolepis, Adiantum, Pteris

Question 200. Petiole and reacts in ferns are covered with small hairs called

1. Spurs
2. Ramenta
3. Fronds
4. Ligule
5. Rhizoids

Answer: 4. Rhizoids

Question 201. Which one of the following is a vascular cryptogam?

1. Marchantia
2. Cedras
3. Equisetum
4. Ginkgo

Answer: 3. Equisetum

Question 202. Fertile leaves of ferns are called

1. Sporophylls
2. Posophylls
3. Mesophylls
4. Cataphylls

Answer: 1. Sporophylls

Question 203. Top-shaped multifoliate male gametes and the mature seed which bears only one embryo with two cotyledons are characteristic features of

1. Polypetalous angiosperms
2. Gamopetalous angiosperms
3. Conifers
4. Cycads

Answer: 4. Cycads

Question 204. Match items in Column A with those in Column B.

1. (1) → (B), (2) → (A), (3) → (C), (4) → (D), (5) → (E)
2. (1) → (E), (2) → (C), (3) → (B), (4) → (E). (5) → (A)
3. (1) → (A), (2) → (B), (3) → (E), (4) → (C), (5) → (B)
4. (1) → (C), (2) → (A), (3) → (D), (4) → (E), (5) → (B)

Answer: 4. (1) → (C), (2) → (A), (3) → (D), (4) → (E), (5) → (B)

Question 205. Angiosperms and gymnosperms resemble in having

1. Vessel in wood
2. Mode of fertilization
3. Sessile and oblong leaflets
4. Sessile endosperm

Answer: 3. Sessile and oblong leaflets

Question 206. Leaflet in Cycas is

1. Sessile and linear
2. Sessile and lanceolate
3. Sessile and oblong
4. Sessile anti obturate

Answer: 2. Sessile and lanceolate

Question 207. Ephedra and Gnetum are similar in having

1. Pollination mechanism
2. Double fertilization
3. Winged pollen
4. Heteromorph genes

Answer: 1. Pollination mechanism

Question 208. Which of the following statements is wrong about gymnosperms?

1. They have naked seeds.
2. They are perennial,
3. Their xylem consists of vessels.
4. They are xerophytic.

Answer: 3. Their xylem consists of vessels.

Question 209. Coralloid roots of Cycas has

1. Anabaena
2. Nostoc
3. Mycorrhizae
4. Rhizopus

Answer: 1. Anabaena

Question 210. The integument of the Cycas ovule is hard on account of

1. Testa
2. Tegmen
3. Sclerotesta
4. Sarcotesta

Answer: 3. Sclerotesta

Question 211. Cycas is dicotyledonous, yet not placed under a doctor’s lens because

1. It looks like a palm tree.
2. It has compound leaves.
3. Its ovules are naked.
4. It bears megasporophylls.

Answer: 3. Its ovules are naked.

Question 212. From which of the following plants is a medicine for respiratory disorders obtained?

1. Bambusa
2. Sesamutn
3. Ephedra
4. Pinns

Answer: 3. Ephedra

Question 213. Cholgoza pinus is

1. Pinus girardiana
2. Pinus rox Burgi
3. Pinus wallichiana
4. Pinus mercuric

Answer: 1. Pinus girardiana

Question 214. In gymnosperms, the pollen chamber represents

1. A cavity in the ovule in which pollen grains are stored after pollination.
2. An opening in the megagametophyte through which the pollen tube approaches the egg.
3. The microsporangium in which pollen grain develops.
4. A cell in the pollen grain in which the sperms are formed.

Answer: 1. A cavity in the ovule in which pollen grains are stored after pollination.

Question 215. Which of the following gymnosperm is a bushy trailing shrub?

1. Ephedra
2. Cycas
3. Pinus
4. Aurocaria
5. Cednis

Answer: 1. Ephedra

Question 216. Conifers differ from grasses in the

1. Formation of endosperm before fertilization
2. Production of seeds from ovules
3. Lack of xylem tracheids
4. Absence of pollen tubes

Answer: 4. Absence of pollen tubes

Question 217. In Pinus, many embryos are formed from a single zygote, which is known as

1. Simple polyembryony
2. Cleavage polyembryony
3. Polyspermy
4. Apogamy

Answer: 2. Simple polyembryony

Question 218. In Pinus, the male cone bears a large number of

1. Ligules
2. Anthers
3. Microsporophylls
4. Megasporophylls

Answer: 3. Microsporophylls

Question 219. Which among the following is a living fossil gymnosperm?

1. Pinus roxburghii
2. Medullosa noei
3. Ginkgo biloba
4. Abiespindrow

Answer: 3. Ginkgo biloba

Question 220. Cycas has an embryo with two cotyledons yet it is not classified in dicots because

1. It looks like a palm.
2. Its ovules are naked,
3. It has compound leaves.
4. It bears megasporophyll.

Answer: 2. Its ovules are naked,

Question 221. In which one of the following, male and female gametophytes do not have free-living independent existence?

1. Pten’s
2. Funaria
3. Polytrichurn
4. Cairns

Answer: 4. Cairns

Question 222. Turpentine oil is extracted from

1. Angiosperms
2. Pinus
3. Oak
4. Citrus plants

Answer: 2. Pinus

Question 223. The largest ovule is present in

1. Cycas
2. Pinus
3. Wolffia
4. Rafflesia

Answer: 1. Cycas

Question 224. Resin and turpentine are products of

1. Teak
2. Oak
3. Eucalyptus
4. Pine

Answer: 4. Pine

Question 225. Pinus seeds are

1. Naked and campylotropus
2. Naked and anatropous
3. Naked and orthotropus
4. Covered and orthotropous

Answer: 3. Naked and orthotropous

Question 226. Which of the following statements are true or false?

1. The trimerous condition of floral whorl is characteristic of dicotyledons.
2. Adiant Inn is also called a walking fern.
3. In gymnosperms. the vascular system consists of a xylem without vessels and a phloem without companion cells.
4. Riccia and Marchantia are liver worts.

1. (1) and (2) are true and (3) and (4) are false.
2. (1) and (3) are true and (2) and (4) are false.
3. (1) and (4) are true and (2) and (3) are false.
4. (2), (3), and (4) are true and (1) is false.

Answer: 4. (2), (3), and (4) are true and (1) is false.

Question 227. The sieve tubes and companion cells are exceptional features of

1. Gymnospenns
2. Angiosperms
3. Ferns
4. Pteridophytes

Answer: 2. Angiosperms

Question 228. In angiosperms double fertilization means

1. Fusion of egg cell with male gamete
2. Fusion of secondary nucleus with male gamete
3. Both above
4. None above

Answer: 3. Both above

Question 229. Typical embryosac of angiosperms is

1. Tetranucleated
2. Eight-nucleated and seven celled
3. Tetranucleated and seven celled
4. Tetranucleated and tetra celled

Answer: 2. Eight-nucleated and seven celled

Question 230. Male gametes in angiosperms are formed by the division of

1. Generative cell
2. Vegetative cell
3. Microspore mother cell
4. Microspore

Answer: 1. Generative cell

Question 231. Which of the following is a rootless aquatic plant in which a portion of the leaf forms a tiny sac for trapping insects?

1. Nepenthes
2. Drosera
3. Utricularia
4. Dionaea
5. Answer: 3. Utricularia

Question 232. Which one of the following contains xylem vessels?

1. Bryophyta
2. Pteridophyta
3. Gymnosperms
4. Angiosperms

Answer: 4. Angiosperms

Question 233. Gymnosperms are also called softwood spermatophytes because they lack

1. Phloem fibers
2. Thick-walled tracheids
3. Xylem fibers
4. Cambium

Answer: 3. Xylem fibers

Question 234. Which one of the following is a correct statement?

1. In gymnosperms, female gametophytes is free-living.
2. Antheridiophores and archegoniophores are present in pteridophytes.
3. The origin of seed habit can be traced in pteridophytes.
4. Pteridophyte gametophyte has a protonemal and leafy stage.

Answer: 3. The origin of seed habit can be traced in pteridophytes.

NEET Biology For Biological Classification Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. Two kingdom system classification was given by

1. Linnaeus
2. John Ray
3. Copeland
4. Whittaker

Answer: 1. Linnaeus

Question 2. Which kingdom was introduced in four kingdom classifications and who proposed it?

1. Protista and Copeland
2. Plantae and Linnaeus
3. Monera and Whittaker
4. Monera and Copeland

Answer: 4. Monera and Copeland

Question 3. The kingdom system of classification is mainly based on

1. Complexity of cell structure
2. Mode of nutrition
3. Complexity of body organization
4. Ecological role

Answer: 2. Mode of nutrition

Biology MCQs with answers

Question 4. Which of the following is the major group in Monera?

1. Eubacteria
2. Cyanobacteria
3. Archaebacteria
4. All Of these

Answer: 1. Eubacteria

Question 5. Bacteria are considered primitive organisms because they

1. Possess incipient nucleus
2. Are small, microscopic plants, which are not seen by the naked eyes
3. Cause serious diseases to human beings, domesticated animals, and crop plants
4. Produce endospores which are very resistant to adverse conditions

Answer: 1. Possess incipient nucleus

biological classification

Question 6. The term “bacteria” was given by

1. Koch
2. Pasteur
3. Ehrenberg
4. Stanley

Answer: 3. Ehrenberg

Question 7. 70S ribosomes, chromatophores, circular DNA. mesosomes are found in

1. All eukaryotes
2. All prokaryotes
3. Some prokaryotes
4. Some eukaryotes and some prokaryotes

Answer: 3. Some prokaryotes

Biology MCQs with answers

Question 8. A bacterium that bears flagella all over the surface is called

1. Lophotrichous
2. Cephalotrichous
3. Peritrichous
4. Amphitrichous

Answer: 3. Peritrichous

Question 9. A distinct lipopolysaccharide wall layer is found in

1. Gram-positive bacteria
2. Gram-negative bacteria
3. All bacteria
4. Mycoplasma

Answer: 2. Gram-negative bacteria

Question 10. In bacteria, the respiratory enzymes are situated in the

1. Cytoplasm
2. Cell membrane
3. Ribosomes
4. Mitochondria

Answer: 2. Cell membrane

Question 11. The cell wall in Gram-positive bacteria is composed of

1. Lipid and protein
2. Murein
3. Proteins only
4. Cellulose and pectin

Answer: 2. Murein

Biology MCQs with answers

Question 12. Cellulose is generally absent in the cell wall of bacteria except in a few such as Acetobacter xylene and Zymosarcina. In most bacteria, it is composed of

1. Chitin
2. A-acetyl muramic acid
3. Alternating units of A-acetyl muramic acid and N- N-acetyl glucosamine joined by 1,4 linkages.
4. 1,3-linked glucose molecule

Answer: 3. Alternating units of A-acetyl muramic acid and N- N-acetyl glucosamine joined by 1,4 linkages.

Question 13. Pili represent

1. Extrachromosomal genetic elements
2. Protoplasmic outgrowths of donor cells
3. Small flagella
4. Special bacterial cilia

Answer: 2. Protoplasmic outgrowths of donor cells

Question 14. Plasmids represent

1. A group of monerans
2. Small parasitic organisms
3. Genetic elements
4. Extrachromosomal genetic elements

Answer: 4. Extrachromosomal genetic elements

Question 15. The resting spores produced by bacteria in unfavorable conditions are called

1. Oldie
2. Endospores
3. Exospores
4. Chlamydosporcs

Answer: 2. Endospores

Question 16. Conjugation in bacteria was discovered by

1. Beadle and Tatum
2. Zinder and Lederberg
3. Griffith
4. Lederberg and Tatum

Answer: 4. Lederberg and Tatum

Question 17. Genophore is the name of

1. DNA of eukaryotes
2. DNA of bacteria
3. Genes of Drosophila
4. Genes of Neurospora

Answer: 2. DNA of bacteria

Question 18. There is no alternation of generation in Rttcberirhia colt because of there is no

1. Syngamy
2. Reduction division
3. Conjugation
4. Both 1 and 2

Answer: 4. Both 1 and 2

Question 19. The part of the bacterial chromosome that is homologous to a genome fragment transferred from donor to recipient cell in the formation of a merozygote is known as

1. Exogcnotc
2. Endogcnote
3. Dysgenic
4. Eugenio

Answer: 2. Endogcnote

Question 20. Which of the following bacterium is associated with de-nitrification?

1. Azotobacter
2. Rhodospirillum
3. Pseudomonas
4. Rhizohium

Answer: 3. Pseudomonas

Question 21. Broad-spectrum antibiotics is those which

1. Acts on both pathogens and hosts
2. Acts on all bacteria and viruses
3. Acts on a variety of pathogenic microorganisms
4. Is effective in very small amounts

Answer: 3. Acts on a variety of pathogenic microorganisms

Question 22. Bacteria that can survive in the absence of oxygen are known as

1. Obligate anaerobes
2. Facultative anaerobes
3. Obligate aerobes
4. Facultative aerobes

Answer: 2. Facultative anaerobes

Question 23. Streptomycin is produced by

1. Streptomyces venezuelae
2. Streptomyces griseus
3. Stivptomyces cry tit re us
4. Streptomyces atireofaciens

Answer: 2. Streptomyces griseus

Question 24. Food poisoning is caused by

1. Clostridium tetani
2. Clostridium botulinum
3. Salmonella typhoid
4. Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Answer: 2. Clostridium botulinum

Question 25. Rhizohium is a

1. Symbiotic and Gram-negative bacterium
2. Symbiotic and Gram-positive bacterium
3. Free-living nitrogen-fixing bacterium
4. Parasitic and nitrogen-fixing bacterium

Answer: 1. Symbiotic and Gram-negative bacterium

” infectious proteins are present in”

Question 26. Syphilis is caused by

1. Neisseria gonorrhoeac
2. Treponema pallidum
3. Haemophilia pertussis
4. Pasteurella pestis

Answer: 2. Treponema pallidum

Question 27. Jacob and Wollman coined the term

1. Plasmid
2. Episomc
3. Circular DNA
4. Chromosome

Answer: 2. Episomc

Biology MCQs with answers

Question 28. Branched-chain lipids occur in the cell membranes of

1. Archaebacteria
2. Mycoplasma
3. Actinomycetes
4. Streptomyces

Answer: 1. Archaebacteria

Question 29. Monerans producing conidia for reproduction belong to

1. Eubacteria
2. Archaebacteria
3. Actinomycetes
4. Mycoplasma

Answer: 3. Actinomycetes

Question 30. The smallest known monerans lacking cell wall are

1. Spirochaetes
2. Mycoplasmas
3. Cyanobacteria
4. Archaebacteria

Answer: 2. Mycoplasmas

Question 31. Cyanobacteria do not possess

1. Gene recombinations
2. Flagella
3. Plasmids
4. Lamellasomes

Answer: 2. Flagella

Question 32. Hcterocyst present in Nostoc is specialized for

1. Fragmentation
2. Nitrogen fixation
3. Storage
4. Photosynthesis

Answer: 2. Nitrogen fixation

Question 33. A cyanelle is

1. A BGA associated with the human intestine
2. A BGA associated with protists
3. A tree-living BOA
4. Any symbiotic BOA

Answer: 2. A BGA associated with protists

Question 34. “Contagium vivum fluidum” (i.e., living fluid infester) term has been given by

1. Mayer
2. Ivanowsky
3. Beijerinck
4. Bawden and Pine

Answer: 3. Beijerinck

NEET Biology MCQ

Question 35. The bacterial cell divides every one minute. It takes 15 min a cup to be one-fourth full. How much time will it take to fill the cup?

1. 30 min
2. 45 min
3. 60 min
4. 17 min

Answer: 4. 17 min

Question 36. Anaerobic monerans which are endosymbiotically associated with castles’ rumen are

1. Bacillus
2. Methanobacterium
3. Halococcus
4. Thermoacidophiles

Answer: 2. Methanobacterium

Question 37. The highly resistant nature of endospores is due to the presence of

1. Dipicolinic acid and peptidoglycan in spore coat
2. Peptidoglycan in exosporium
3. Dipicolinic acid and Ca in cortex
4. Dipicolinic acid and Ca in cell membrane

Answer: 3. Dipicolinic acid and Ca in the cortex

Question 38. Gange’s water purity is maintained by

1. Bdellovibrio
2. Clostridium
3. Ferrobacillus
4. Tolypothrix

Answer: 1. Bdellovibrio

Question 39. Find the correct match.

1. (1) – (A), (2) – (C), (3) – (B), (4) – (D)
2. (1) – (A), (2) – (B), (3) – (C), (4) – (D)
3. (1) – (C), (2) – (B), (3) – (A), (4) – (D)
4. (1) – (A), (2) – (B), (3) – (C), (4) – (D)

Answer: 1. (1) – (A), (2) – (C), (3) – (B), (4) – (D)

Question 40. The photosynthetic protists are

1. Diatoms, euglenoids, and slime molds
2. Sacrodines, dinoflagellates, and diatoms
3. Euglenoids, diatoms, and dinoflagellates
4. Ciliates, zooflagellates, and dinoflagellates

Answer: 3. Euglenoids, diatoms, and dinoflagellates

Question 41. Sea water glows during the night mainly due to the occurrence of

1. Gonyaulax
2. Noctiluca
3. Euglena
4. Cyclotella

Answer: 2. Noctiluca

NEET Biology MCQ

Question 42. Bivalved siliceous shells or frustules occur in

1. Diatoms
2. Radiolarians
3. Zooflagellates
4. Archaebacteria

Answer: 1. Diatoms

Question 43. Rejuvenescent spore of diatom is

1. Haploid and exospores
2. Diploid and statospore
3. Haploid and stratosphere
4. Diploid and auxospore

Answer: 4. Diploid and auxospore

Question 44. Choose the incorrect pair.

1. Gonyaulax-red side
2. Melos ira-golden algae
3. Mycoplasma-cellulosic cell wall
4. Nostoc-heterocyst

Answer: 3. Mycoplasma-cellulosic cell wall

Question 45. Leucosin (chrysolaminarin) is a carbohydrate that is stored as reserve food in case of

1. Diatom
2. Euglena
3. Dinoflagellates
4. Paramecium

Answer: 1. Diatom

Question 46. The reserved food in Euglena is

1. Paramylum
2. Starch
3. Glycogen
4. Mannitol

Answer: 1. Paramylum

Question 47. Flagellation in Euglena is

1. Uniflagellation and stichonematic
2. Isokont and whiplash-type
3. Heterokont and whiplash-type
4. Heterokont and stichonematic

Answer: 4. Heterokont and stichonematic

“euglenoids class 11 “

Question 48. A special type of red pigment present in the eyespot of Euglena and Crustacea is called

1. Phycoerythrin
2. Astaxanthin
3. Carotene
4. Xanthophyll

Answer: 2. Astaxanthin

NEET Biology MCQ

Question 49. Mixotrophic nutrition occurs in

1. Paramecium
2. Euglena
3. Plasmodium
4. Amoeba

Answer: 2. Euglena

Question 50. The paraflagellar body of Euglena helps in

1. Locomotion
2. Photoreception
3. Reproduction
4. Osmoregulation

Answer: 2. Photoreception

Question 51. The structure formed in the life cycle of cellular slime mold due to chemotactic movement is

1. Pseudoplasmodium
2. Swarm cells
3. Macrocyst
4. Capillitia

Answer: 1. Pseudoplasmodium

Question 52. Myxamoeba are formed in the life cycle of

1. Physarum
2. Amoeba
3. Entamoeba
4. Diatoms

Answer: 1. Physarum

Question 53. de Bary considered slime molds to be closely related to animals and called them

1. Protozoa
2. Metazoa
3. Mycetozoa
4. Mycotina

Answer: 3. Mycetozoa

Question 54. The difference between a red sea and red tide is that

1. Red tide takes place in red sea
2. Associated with cyanobacteria and protists, respectively
3. One occurs by virus and the other by bacteria
4. Associated with Rhodophyceae and diatoms, respectively

Answer: 2. Associated with cyanobacteria and protist, respectively

Question 55. de Bary was a leading

1. Phycologist
2. Mycologist
3. Bryologist
4. Pteridologist

Answer: 2. Mycologist

Question 56. Asexual spores of fungi (thallophytes) are commonly known as

1. Oospores
2. Motorsports
3. Melceprcn
4. Zygospores

Answer: 2. Mitosporcs

Question 57. Which one is not related to viroids?

1. PSTD
2. Diener
3. ssRNA
4. C-Jakob

Answer: 4. C-Jakob

Question 58. Which one of the following shows a haplodiplontic life cycle with four ascospores in the ascus?

1. Budding yeast
2. Fission yeast
3. Helobial yeast
4. False yeast

Answer: 1. Budding yeast

NEET Biology MCQ

Question 59. Gametangial copulation (conjugation) is common in

1. Ascomycetes
2. Zygomycetes
3. Basidiomycetes
4. Deuteromycetes

Answer: 2. Zygomycetes

Question 60. The causal agent of smallpox is

1. Variola virus
2. Rubella virus
3. Rhino vims
4. Arbo vims

Answer: 1. Variola virus

Question 61. If the thallus of an organism, for example, a fungus, is entirely converted into one or more reproductive structures, it is called as

1. Eucarpic
2. Holocarpic
3. Holozoic
4. Homothallic

Answer: 2. Holocarpic

“classification questions “

Question 62. Subterranean masses of hyphae that pass the unfavorable periods in the dormant stage are known as

1. Sclerotia
2. Mycelium
3. Rliizomorph
4. Puffballs

Answer: 3. Rliizomorph

Question 63. Asexual reproduction by aplanospore formation is the feature of

1. ac fung
2. Fungi imperfecti
3. Conjugating fungi
4. Club fungi

Answer: 3. Conjugating fungi

Question 64. Find the correct match.

1. (1) – (B), (2) – (C), (3) – (A), (4) – (E)
2. (1) – (B), (2) – (E), (3) – (D), (4) – (A)
3. (1) – (B), (2) – (E), (3) – (D), (4) – (C)
4. (1) – (C), (2) – (C), (3) – (A), (4) – (D)

Answer: 3. (1) – (B), (2) – (E), (3) – (D), (4) – (C)

Question 65. Haploid sexual spore produced exogenously is

1. Ascospore
2. Oospore
3. Basidiospore
4. Zygospore

Answer: 3. Basidiospore

Question 66. Select the incorrectly matched pair

1. Mucor mucedo-Coprophilous
2. Albugo candida-Facultative parasite
3. Agaricus bisporus-Edible basidiocarp
4. Puccinia grafninis-Heteroecious fungi

Answer: 2. Albugo candida-Facultative parasite

Question 67. Wheat rust of crucifer is caused by

1. Albugo Candida
2. Sclerospora
3. Phytophthora infestans
4. Pythium debaryanum

Answer: 1. Albugo Candida

NEET Biology MCQ

Question 68. Coenocytic mycelium does not occur in

1. Zygomycetes
2. Phycomycetes
3. Oomycetes
4. Deuteromycetes

Answer: 4. Deuteromycetes

Question 69. Members are found in aquatic habitats and on decaying wood in moist and damp places or as obligate parasites on plants; mycelium is aseptate and coenocytic.

1. Phycomycetes
2. Ascomycetes
3. Basidiomycetes
4. Deuteromycetes

Answer: 1. Phycomycetes

Question 70. One of the following is a global yeast.

1. Saccharomyces
2. Schizosaccharomyces
3. Saccharomyces
4. Schizomycetes

Answer: 3. Saccharomycodes

Question 71. One of the following is a true yeast.

1. Candida
2. Mycoderma
3. Cryptococcus
4. Saccharomyces

Answer: 4. Saccharomyces

Question 72. Fungi differ from bacteria in

1. Mode of nutrition
2. Having NAG in cell wall
3. Flagella structure
4. Reserve food material as glycogen

Answer: 3. Flagella structure

Question 73. Penicillin is obtained from

1. Penicillium griseofulvum
2. Penicillium chrysogenum
3. Penicillium camembert
4. Penicillium roqueforti

Answer: 2. Penicillium chrysogenum

Question 74. Branched conidiophores are found in

1. Penicillium
2. Rhizopus
3. Ustilago
4. Saccharomyces

Answer: 1. Penicillium

Question 75. The fruiting body in Aspergillus (or Penicillium) is known as

1. Cleistothecium
2. Apothecium
3. Perithecium
4. Hysterothecium

Answer: 1. Cleistothecium

“chemosynthetic autotrophic bacteria “

Question 76. A mushroom having hallucinating properties similar to LSD is

1. Morchella
2. Psalliota
3. Psilocybe
4. Armillaria

Answer: 3. Psilocybe

Question 77. Powdery mildew of cereals is due to

1. Puccinia graminis
2. Claviceps purpurea
3. Ustilago tritici
4. Erysiphe graminicola

Answer: 4. Erysiphe graminicola

NEET Biology MCQ With Solutions

Question 78. Ergot is a product of

1. Rhizopus
2. Claviceps purpurea
3. Aspergillus
4. Sclerospora

Answer: 2. Claviceps purpurea

Question 79. The famous Irish famine is related to a disease of potatoes known as

1. Late blight of potato
2. Early blight of potato
3. Dry rot of potato
4. Potato scab

Answer: 1. Late blight of potato

Question 80. A fungus which is known as Guinea pig of the plant kingdom is

1. Rhizopus
2. Pythium
3. Peziza
4. Aspergillus

Answer: 4. Aspergillus

Question 81. A dolipore septum is a characteristic feature of

1. Phycomycetes
2. Ascomycetes
3. Basidiomycetes
4. Zygomycetes

Answer: 3. Basidiomycetes

Question 82. The fertile layer of gills is known as

1. Hymenium
2. Trama
3. Paraphyses
4. Basidia

Answer: 1. Hymenium

Question 83. An edible part of a mushroom is

1. Primary mycelium
2. Secondary mycelium
3. Rhizomorph
4. Basidiocarp

Answer: 4. Basidiocarp

Question 84. When two host species are required for the completion of a parasitic fungus life cycle, this condition is described as

1. Autoecious
2. Heteroecious
3. Autotrophic
4. Heterokaryotic

Answer: 2. Heteroecious

Question 85. Pioneer work on wheat rust was done by

1. Mundkur
2. Tulane
3. K.C. Mehta
4. Subramaniam

Answer: 3. K.C. Mehta

NEET Biology MCQ With Solutions

Question 86. The soredium is a reproductive structure of

1. Ascomycetes
2. Zygomycetes
3. Basidiomycetes
4. Lichens

Answer: 4. Lichens

Question 87. The most common chlorophycobiont in a lichen is

1. Chlorella
2. Trebouxia
3. Gonium
4. Chlamydomonas

Answer: 2. Trebouxia

Question 88. Indicators of water pollution

1. E. coli
2. Chlorella
3. Beggiatoa
4. Ulothrix

Answer: 1. E. coli

Question 89. DNA of E. coli

1. ds circular
2. ss circular
3. ds linear
4. ss linear

Answer: 1. ds circular

Question 90. Species separated by geographical barriers are called

1. Allopatric
2. Sympatric
3. Sibling
4. Endemic

Answer: 1. Allopatric

Question 91. Typhoid is caused by

1. Rickettsiae
2. Chlamydia
3. Salmonella typhi
4. Mycobacterium

Answer: 3. Salmonella typhi

Question 92. Non-symbiotic nitrogen-fixing bacteria is

1. Rhizobium
2. Azospirilium
3. Azotobacter
4. Nitrosomonas

Answer: 3. Azotobacter

“biological questions “

Question 93. The difference between eukaryotes and prokaryotes is

1. ss circular DNA in prokaryotes
2. Histone with prokaryotic DNA
3. Operon in eukaryotes
4. Membrane-bound organelles in eukaryotes

Answer: 4. Membrane-bound organelles in eukaryotes

Question 94. According to the kingdom system, blue-green algae belongs to

1. Metaphyta
2. Monera
3. Protista
4. Algae

Answer: 2. Monera

Question 95. Bacteria are essential in the carbon cycle as

1. Decomposer
2. Synthesizer
3. Consumer
4. Primary producer

Answer: 1. Decomposer

Question 96. Transduction in bacteria is can be out by

1. Bacteriophage
2. BGA
3. Mycoplasma
4. Rickettsiae

Answer: 1. BGA

NEET Biology MCQ With Solutions

Question 97. Which of the following is most used in genetic engineering?

1. E. coli and Agrobacterium
2. Mycobacteria and Salmonella
3. Aspergillus
4. Penicillium

Answer: 1. E. coli and Agrobacterium

Question 98. Modem fanners can increase the yield of paddy up to 50% by the use of

1. Cyanobacteria
2. Rhizobium
3. Cyanobacteria in Azolla pinnata
4. Fann yard manure

Answer: 3. Cyanobacteria in Azolla pinnata

Question 99. Koch’s postulates are not applicable to

1. Mycobacterium leprae
2. Tuberculosis
3. Pneumonia
4. Cholera

Answer: 1. Mycobacterium leprae

Question 100. Plant-pathogenic bacteria are mostly

1. Gram-positive, non-spore-forming
2. Gram-negative non-spore-forming
3. Gram negative spore fonning
4. Gram negative spore fonning

Answer: 2. Gram-negative non-spore-forming

Question 101. Anabaena is associated with Azolla’s

1. Stem
2. Leaves
3. Roots
4. Flowers

Answer: 2. Leaves

Question 102. Nitrogen-fixing bacteria convert

1. N₂ → NH₃
2. NH⁺₄+ → Nitrates
3. NO₂ →NO₃
4. NO₃ →N₂

Answer: 1. N₂ → NH₃

Question 103. The main reason of water blooms in rivers, lakes, sea, etc., is

1. Brown algae and green algae
2. Cyanobacteria and dinoflagellates
3. Eichornia
4. Fishes

Answer: 2. Cyanobacteria and dinoflagellates

Question 104. Azolla is used in the cultivation of

1. Maize
2. Sorghum
3. Wheat
4. Rice

Answer: 4. Rice

Question 105. Which one produces gas by decomposing the gobar (dung) in gobar gas?

1. Fungus
2. Virus
3. Methanogenic
4. Algae

Answer: 3. Methanogenic

Question 106. Maximum photosynthesis takes place by

1. Phytoplankton
2. Zooplankton
3. Marsh plants
4. Woody plants

Answer: 1. Phytoplankton

NEET Biology MCQ With Solutions

Question 107. The genetic material of prokaryotic cells is

1. Non-historic double-stranded DNA
2. Historic double-stranded DNA
3. Histone and DNA both arc absent
4. Histone without DNA

Answer: 1. Non-historic double-stranded DNA

Question 108. Diatomaceous earth is used as a heat insulator in boilers and steam pipes because the cell wall of diatom is

1. Composed of Iron
2. Composed of Silicon dioxide
3. Conductor of heat
4. Bad conductor of heat

Answer: 4. Bad conductor of heat

Question 109. One of the free-living anaerobic nitrogen-fixer is

1. Beijernickia
2. Rhodospirillum
3. Rhizobiitm
4. Azotobacter

Answer: 2. Rhodospirillum

Question 110. Some hyperthermophilic organisms that grow in highly acidic (pH = 2) habitats belong to the two groups

1. Eubacteria and archaea
2. Cyanobacteria and diatoms
3. Protists and mosses
4. Liverworts and yeasts

Answer: 1. Eubacteria and archaea

Question 111. Bacteria can be considered to be a plant because

1. Some of the bacteria are photosynthetic
2. Some of the bacteria have chlorophyll
3. Some of the bacteria can make their own food
4. Bacteria have cell wall

Answer: 4. Bacteria have cell wall

Question 112. The major component of the bacterial cell wall is a polymer called

1. Chitin
2. Xytan
3. Cellulose
4. Peptidoglycan

Answer: 4. Peptidoglycan

Question 113. Oxytetracycline is produced by

1. Mycoplasma
2. Actinomycetes
3. Cyanobacteria
4. Eubacteria

Answer: 2. Actinomycetes

Question 114. Cyanobacteria existed years ago.

1. 2.9 billion
2. 3.4 billion
3. 1 million
4. 44 thousand

Answer: 2. 3.4 billion

Question 115. Which of the following is non-symbiotic, anaerobic, non-photosynthetic nitrogen-fixing bacteria?

1. Clostridium
2. Nos toe
3. Anabaena
4. Azotobacter

Answer: 1. Clostridium

NEET Biology MCQ With Solutions

Question 116. Bacterial cells include all except

1. Nuclear material without membrane
2. Cell wall of murein
3. DNA compounds with histones
4. Ribosomes

Answer: 3. DNA compound with histones

Question 117. The pigment phycocyanin and phycoerythrin are present in

1. Bacillariophyceae
2. Archaebacteria
3. Eubacteria
4. Cyanobacteria

Answer: 4. Cyanobacteria

Question 118. Barophilic prokaryotes

1. Grow slowly in highly alkaline frozen lakes at high altitudes.
2. Occur in water containing high concentrations of barium hydroxide.
3. Grow and multiply in deep marine sediments.
4. Readily grow and divide in seawater enriched in any soluble salt of barium.

Answer: 3. Grow and multiply in deep marine sediments.

Question 119. Teichoic acid is present in

1. Gram-positive bacteria
2. Gram-negative bacteria
3. Spirochaete
4. Actinomycetes

Answer: 2. Gram-negative bacteria

Question 120. For the retting of jute, the fermenting microbe used is

1. Helicobacter pylori
2. Mesophilic bacteria
3. Streptococcus lactic
4. Butyric acid bacteria

Answer: 4. Butyric acid bacteria

Question 121. The free-living aerobic nitrogen-fixing bacterium is

1. Azotobacter
2. Rhizobium
3. Clostridium
4. Anabaena

Answer: 1. Azotobacter

Question 122. Cyanobacteria is

1. Nitrogen-fixing free-living photosynthetic organism.
2. Symbiotic mycorrhizae
3. Photosynthetic algae
4. Saprophytic fungus

Answer: 1. Nitrogen-fixing free-living photosynthetic organism.

Question 123. Genetic elements that may be present inside as well as extrachromosomal entities are

1. Episomes
2. Mesosomes
3. Oxysomes
4. Autosomes

Answer: 1. Episomes

Question 124. The bacterial cell wall is made up of

1. Cellulose
2. Hemicellulose
3. Both (1) and (2)
4. Peptidoglycan
5. Glycogen

Answer: 4. Glycogen

Question 125. The most widely used bioweapon is

1. Bacillus subtilis
2. Pseudomonas putida
3. Bacillus anthracis
4. None above

Answer: 3. Bacillus anthracis

NEET MCQ

Question 126. A bacterial cell divides once every minute and it takes one hour to fill a cup. How much time will it take to fill half the cup?

1. 30 minutes
2. 60 minutes
3. 29 minutes
4. 59 minutes

Answer: 4. 59 minutes

“chlamydomonas belongs to which kingdom “

Question 127. Bacteria is pathogenic due to

1. Mitochondria
2. Cell membrane
3. Cell wall
4. Nucleic acid

Answer: 4. Nucleic acid

Question 128. Which of the following is a non-pathogenic bacteria of the colon?

1. Escherichia coli
2. Balantidium coli
3. Entamoeba coli
4. Enterohius vermicularis

Answer: 2. Balantidium coli

Question 129. Treponema pallidum is

1. The causative agent of syphilis
2. The example of the spirochaete bacterium
3. The causative agent of sexually transmitted disease
4. All are correct

Answer: 4. All are correct

Question 130. Which of the following is correct?

1. Bacteria are only autotrophic.
2. Bacteria are only heterotrophic.
3. Most are heterotrophic but few are autotrophic.
4. Most bacteria are autotrophic but few are heterotrophic.

Answer: 3. Most are heterotrophic but few are autotrophic.

Question 131. WIDAL test is performed as the diagnostic value in

1. Tuberculosis
2. Typhoid
3. Cholera
4. Tetanus

Answer: 2. Typhoid

Question 132. The two bacteria found to be very useful in genetic engineering experiments are

1. Nitrosomonas and Klebsiella
2. Escherichia and Agrobacterium
3. Nitrobacter and Azotobacter
4. Rhizobium and Diplococcus

Answer: 2. Escherichia and Agrobacterium

Question 133. Pili of bacteria are useful for

1. Locomotion
2. Sexual contacts
3. Asexual reproduction
4. Transformation
5. Feeding

Answer: 2. Sexual contacts

Question 134. The bacterium (Clostridium botulinum) that causes botulism is

1. An obligate aerobe
2. A facultative anaerobe
3. An obligate anaerobe
4. A facultative aerobe

Answer: 3. An obligate anaerobe

Question 135. In prokaryotes, what helps in anaerobic respiration?

1. Mitochondria
2. Folds of plasma membrane
3. Ribosomes
4. Cell wall

Answer: 2. Folds of plasma membrane

Question 136. Blue-green algae such as Nostoc and Anabaena can photosynthesize due to the presence of

1. Heterocysts
2. Akinetes
3. Chromatophores
4. Leghemoglobin

Answer: 3. Chromatophores

NEET MCQ

Question 137. The exceptional feature of blue-green algae which is the basis of their studies is

1. Aplanospores
2. Sclcrodia
3. Heterocysts
4. Haplospores

Answer: 3. Heterocysts

Question 138. Crown galls are caused in plants due to the infection of

1. Insects
2. Virus
3. Bacteria
4. Fungi

Answer: 3. Bacteria

Question 139. Curing often leaves is brought about by the activity of

1. Fungi
2. Bacteria
3. Mycorrhizae
4. Viruses

Answer: 2. Bacteria

Question 140. In prokaryotes, chromatophores are

1. Specialized granules are responsible for the coloration of cells.
2. Structures are responsible for organizing the shape of the organism.
3. Inclusion bodies lie free inside the cells for carrying out various metabolic activities.
4. Internal membrane systems may become extensive and complex in phtosythesis bacteria.

Answer: 4. Internal membrane systems that may become extensive and complex in photosynthesis bacteria.

Question 141. Which one of the following pathogens causes canker disease?

1. Meloidogyne incognita
2. Anguina tritici
3. Xanthornonas citri
4. Pseudomonas rubilineans
5. Phytophthora infestans

Answer: 3. Pseudomonas rubilineans

Question 142. Find out the pairs that are correctly matched.

1. (1) and (B)
2. (2) and (C)
3. (3) and (C)
4. (4) and (C)
5. (2) and (D)

Answer: 3. (3) and (C)

Question 143. Which one of the following statements about mycoplasma is wrong?

1. They are pleomophic
2. They are sensitive to penicillin
3. They cause diseases in plants
4. They are called PPLO

Answer: 2. They are sensitive to penicillin.

Question 144. The presence of a cluster of polar flagella is termed as

1. Monotrichous
2. Amphitriehous
3. Lophotrichous
4. Peritrichous

Answer: 3. Lophotrichous

Question 145. Some bacteria can also live in the absence of oxygen. These are

1. Obligate aerobes
2. Facultative aerobes
3. Obligate anerobes
4. Facultative anerobes

Answer: 1. Obligate aerobes

Question 146. What are the infoldings of the plasma membrane called in prokaryotes that store respiratory pigments?

1. Glyoxysomes
2. Oxysomes
3. Mesosomes
4. Cristae

Answer: 2. Oxysomes

Question 147. Plasmid is

1. Small extract chromosomal circular self-replicating DNA that can carry genes into the host organism
2. Bacteriophage
3. DNA found in mitochondria
4. DNA incorporated in bacteria

Answer: 4. DNA incorporated in bacteria

Question 148. The difference between Gram-negative and Gram-positive bacteria is in their

1. Cell membrane
2. Cell wall
3. Ribosome
4. Mitochondria

Answer: 4. Mitochondria

NEET MCQ

Question 149. The cell wall of a bacterium is made up of

1. Cellulose
2. Hemicellulose
3. Lignin
4. Peptidoglycan
5. Glycogen

Answer: 2. Hemicellulose

Question 150. Which of the following Monerans lack cell walls?

1. Actinomycetes
2. Photosynthetic bacteria
3. Eubacteria
4. None above

Answer: 1. Actinomycetes

Question 151. Bacteria can live under sub-zero temperatures for

1. More than 1000 years
2. 100-1000 years
3. Few years
4. Few days

Answer: 1. More than 1000 years

Question 152. A set of bacterial diseases is

1. Diptheria, leprosy, and plague
2. Malaria, mumps, and polio
3. Cholera, typhoid, and mumps
4. Tetanus, TB, and malaria

Answer: 1. Diptheria, leprosy, and plague

Question 153. In prokaryotes, genetic recombination can occur during

1. Transduction
2. Transformation
3. Conjugation
4. All of these

Answer: 1. Transduction

Question 154. Thermococcus, Methanococcus, and Methanobacterium exemplify

1. Archaebacteria that contain protein homologous to eukaryotic core histones.
2. Archaebacteria that lack anarchist ones resemble those found in eukaryotes but whose DNA is negatively supercoiled.
3. Bacteria whose DNA is relaxed or positively supercoiled but which have a cytoskeleton as well as mitochondria.
4. Bacteria that contain a cytoskeleton and ribosomes.

Answer: 4. Bacteria that contain a cytoskeleton and ribosomes.

Question 155. Which one of the following is not characteristic of Gram-positive bacteria?

1. Cell wall is smooth.
2. Mesosomes are distinctively prominent.
3. The basal body of the flagellum contains two rings.
4. An outer membrane is present.
5. The Murein content of cell wall is 70-80%.

Answer: 5. Murein content of cell wall is 70-80%.

Question 156. Pathogenicity of bacteria causing tuberculosis and lep¬rosy is due to

1. Cholesterol
2. Ergosterol
3. Prostaglandins
4. Glycerol
5. Wax-D

Answer: 1. Cholesterol

NEET MCQ

Question 157. Bacterial leaf blight of rice is caused by a species of

1. Xanthomonas
2. Pseudomonas
3. Alternaria
4. Engine

Answer: 2. Pseudomonas

Question 158. Streptomyces griseus gives which of these antibiotics?

1. Chloramphenicol
2. Streptomycin
3. Tetracycline
4. Penicillin

Answer: 1. Chloramphenicol

Question 159. Indirect transfer of genetic material from one bacterium to another through bacteriophage is

1. Transduction
2. Transcription
3. Conjugation
4. Translation
5. Transformation

Answer: 4. Transtation

Question 160. The bacterial brown rot of potatoes is caused by

1. Xanthomonas citri
2. Escherichia coli
3. Agrobacterium tumofaciens
4. Psuedomonas solanacearum
5. Salmonella typhosa

Answer: 2. Escherichia coli

Question 161. Which of the following is a bacterial disease?

1. Red rust of tea
2. Citrus canker
3. Red rot of sugarcane
4. Late blight of potato

Answer: 2. Citrus canker

NEET Biology practice mcq questions with solution

Question 162. Shorter generation time of E. coli compared to eukaryotes may be explained on the basis of

1. Shape
2. Large surface and volume ratio
3. Presence of cell wall
4. Cell wall is smooth
5. Absence of organelles

Answer: 2. Large surface and volume ratio

Question 163. Division in a bacteria cell is carried out through

1. Multiple fission
2. Binary fission
3. Budding
4. Plasmotomy

Answer: 3. Budding

Question 164. Antibiotic resistance genes are present on

1. Plastid
2. DNA
3. Plasmid
4. RNA

Answer: 3. DNA

Question 165. Cyanobacteria is a member of

1. Fungi
2. Protozoa
3. Monera
4. Pteridophytes

Answer: 2. Protozoa

Question 166. The Gram-negative bacteria detect and respond to the chemicals in their surroundings by

1. Muramic acid
2. Lipopolysaccharide
3. Volutin granules
4. Porins

Answer: 2. Lipopolysaccharide

NEET Biology practice mcq questions with solution

Question 167. Which of the following is not bacteria?

1. Methanogens
2. Diatoms
3. Archaebacteria
4. Blue-green algae

Answer: 2. Diatoms

Question 168. A bacterium is capable of withstanding extreme heat, dryness, and toxic chemicals. This indicates that it is probably able to form

1. A thick peptidoglycan wall
2. Endospores
3. Endotoxins
4. Endogenous buds

Answer: 3. Endotoxins

Question 169. The vector for plague is

1. Anopheles
2. Aedes
3. Xenopsylla
4. Culex

Answer: 2. Aedes

Question 170. Lung tuberculosis is caused by

1. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
2. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
3. Streptococcus pneumoniae
4. Escherichia coli

Answer: 2. Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Question 171. An example for symbiotic bacteria is

1. Erwinia amylovora
2. Rhizobium leguminosarum
3. Xanthomonas campestris
4. Agrobacterium tumefaciens

Answer: 3. Xanthomonas campestris

Question 172. Non-pathogenic bacteria found in our vermiform appendix is

1. Entamoeba histolytica
2. Shigella
3. Escherichia coli
4. Ascaris

Answer: 1. Entamoeba histolytica

Question 173. Which one of the following organisms possesses characteristics of plant and an animal?

1. Euglena
2. Bacteria
3. Mycoplasma
4. Paramoecium

2. Bacteria

Question 174. The scientist who coined the term Protista to include both plant and animal-like unicellular organisms was

1. Robert Koch
2. E.F. Haeckel
3. L. Pasteur
4. Joseph Lister

Answer: 1. Robert Koch

Question 175. Protista includes

1. Protozoa, algae, and fungi
2. Algae, Bryophyta, bacteria, and fungi
3. Fungi, slime molds, and vascular plants
4. Protozoa, bacteria, algae, and Bryophyta

Answer: 2. Algae, Bryophyta, bacteria, and fungi

Question 176. Slime molds belong to the kingdom

1. Monera
2. Protista
3. Plantae
4. Animalia

Answer: 1. Monera

Question 177. Which protist reproduces both by binary fission and conjugation?

1. Amoeba
2. Paramecium
3. Euglena
4. Monocytes

Answer: 2. Paramecium

Question 178. Total parasites belong to a protozoan group

1. Sporozoa
2. Ciliata
3. Sarcodina
4. Zooflagellata

Answer: 2. Ciliata

Question 179. Protozoan protists respire through

1. Pseudopodia
2. Contractile vacuole
3. Mitochondria
4. General surface

Answer: 1. Pseudopodia

Question 180. Which one is not a protozoan protist?

1. Plasmodium vivax
2. Paramecium caudatum
3. Enterobius vermiclaris
4. Trypanosoma gambiense

Answer: 2. Paramecium caudatum

Question 181. Protozoan protists are differentiated on the basis of

1. Nuclei
2. Size
3. Shape
4. Locomotory structures

Answer: 3. Shape

Question 182. Endoparasitic protistan protozoans belong to

1. Sporozoa
2. Ciliata
3. Sarcodina
4. Mastigophora

Answer: 4. Mastigophora

Question 183. Protozoans found commensal in the human colon is

1. Entamoeba coli
2. P. vivax
3. A. aegypti
4. All of these

Answer: 1. Entamoeba coli

Question 184. The primary grouping of protozoan protists is based on

1. Locomotor organelles
2. Size and shape
3. Mode of feeding
4. Mode of reproduction

Answer: 1. Locomotor organelles

Question 185. Protozoans are able to live efficiently due to their

1. Motility
2. Rapid reproduction
3. Ability to manufacture food
4. Specialized organelles

Answer: 1. Motility

Question 186. Protista contains

1. Euglena, dinoflagellates, and yeast
2. Amoeba, paramecium, hydra
3. Euglena, paramecium, mushroom
4. Amoeba, paramecium, and dinoflagellates

Answer: 4. Amoeba, paramecium, and dinoflagellates

Question 187. The cyanobacteria are also referred to as

1. Golden algae
2. Slime molds
3. Blue-green algae
4. Protists

Answer: 3. Blue-green algae

Question 188. Which one of the following does not differ in E. coli and Chlamydomonas

1. Chromosomal organization
2. Cell wall
3. Cell membrane
4. Ribosomes

Answer: 3. Cell membrane

Question 189. The nuclear membrane is absent in

1. Agaricus
2. Volvox
3. Nostoc
4. Penicillium

Answer: 3. Nostoc

Question 190. Maximum nutritional diversity is found in the group

1. Animalia
2. Monera
3. Plantae
4. Fungi

Answer: 2. Monera

Question 191. The most abundant prokaryotes helpful to humans in making curd from milk and in the production of antibiotics are the ones categorized as

1. Archaebacteria
2. Chemosynthetic autotrophs
3. Heterotrophic bacteria
4. Cyanobacteria

Answer: 3. Heterotrophic bacteria

NEET Biology The Living World Multiple Choice Questions And Answers

Question 1. At present, scientific names have been given to

1. 10 million species
2. 1.7 million species
3. 3.9 million species
4. 1 million species

Answer: 2. 1.7 million species

Question 2. The study of principles and procedures for the classification of organisms is called

1. Systematics
2. Classification
3. Taxonomy
4. Nomenclature

Answer: 3. Taxonomy

Question 3. The first step of taxonomy is

1. Description
2. Identification
3. Nomenclature
4. Classification

Answer: 2. Identification

NEET Biology MCQ With Solution

Question 4. Find the odd one (with respect to species epithet).

1. Adiamum
2. Triticum
3. Ephedra
4. Deodara

Answer: 4. Deodara

Question 5. Who among the following is called the father of taxonomy?

1. Mendel
2. Linnaeus
3. Khorana
4. Engler

Answer: 2. Linnaeus

Question 6. Systematics is the study of

1. Diversity amongst groups of organisms
2. Grouping of organisms
3. Identification and grouping of organisms
4. Identification, classification, and taxonomy

Answer: 1. Diversity amongst groups of organisms

Question 7. The Father of Indian systematic botany is

1. R. Mishra
2. Santapau
3. Theophrastus
4. Linnaeus

Answer: 2. Santapau

Question 8. Historia Generalis Plantation was published by

1. Engler and Prantl
2. Fl Hutchinson
3. Bentham and Hooker
4. John Ray

Answer: 4. John Ray

Question 9. The book Philosophic-Zoologique published in 1809 was written by

1. C. Darwin
2. Huxley
3. A.I. Oparin
4. Lamarck

Answer: 4. Lamarck

Question 10. Species Plantation and Systema Naturae were written by

1. Engler
2. Linnaeus
3. Hooker
4. Wallace

Answer: 2. Linnaeus

NEET Biology MCQ With Solution

Question 11. Find the incorrectly matched pair.

1. Die Naturlichcn—Engler and Prantl Pflanzen Familien
2. Families of Flowering—John Hutchinson Plants
3. Flora of British India—Bentham
4. Philosophia Botanica—Principles of binomial nomenclature

Answer: 3. Flora of British India—Bentham

” mcq on living world”

Question 12. Carolus Linnaeus is the father of taxonomy because of one of his contributions.

1. Genera Plantation
2. Binomial nomenclature
3. Described nearly 10,000 plants and animal species
4. Die Naturlichcn Pflanzen Familien.

Answer: 2. Binomial nomenclature

Question 13. According to binomial nomenclature, two words used for naming a plant or animal are

1. Species and genus
2. Genus and species
3. Species and family
4. Genus and family

Answer: 2. Genus and species

Question 14. Corvus splendens splendor is the scientific name of the Indian crow. It represents

1. Binomial nomenclature
2. Autonyms
3. Tautonyms
4. Synonyms

Answer: 2. Autonyms

Question 15. The type specimen described along with the holotype is

1. Isotypic
2. Paratypc
3. Topotype
4. Syntype

Answer: 2. Paratypc

Question 16. Scientific names were first standardized through

1. ICBN
2. ICZN
3. BSI
4. ZSI

Answer: 1. ICBN

Question 17. The category that includes related orders is called

1. Families
2. Phylum
3. Class
4. Kingdom

Answer: 3. Class

Question 18. The fundamental taxonomic category or basic unit of classification is

1. Genus
2. Species
3. Sub-species
4. Variety

Answer: 2. Species

Question 19. Organisms that can freely interbreed and produce fertile offspring and have similar coded information or blueprints for making these organisms are called

1. Species
2. Tribe
3. Genus
4. Sub-genus

Answer: 1. Species

Question 20. The concept of fixity of species was first proposed by

1. Linnaeus
2. Braunfels
3. Bentham
4. Julian Huxley

Answer: 1. Linnaeus

NEET Biology MCQ With Solution

Question 21. The correct sequence of taxonomic categories is

1. Division-Class-Family-Tribe-Order-Genus—Species
2. Division-Class—Order-Family-Tribe-Genus-Species
3. Phylum-Order-Class-Tribe-Family-Genus-Species
4. Class-Phylum-Tribe-Order-Family-Genus-Species

Answer: 2. Division-Class—Order-Family-Tribe-Genus-Species

Question 22. Two species can be said to be reproductively isolated if they are

1. Interfertile
2. Not interfertile
3. Do not grow together in a common habitat
4. Growing together in a common habitat

Answer: 2. Not interfertile

Question 23. Who gave the biological concept of species?

1. Aristotle
2. John Ray
3. Ernst Mayr
4. Carolus Linnaeus

Answer: 2. John Ray

Question 24. Hinny is a hybrid produced under captive conditions by crossing

1. Male tiger and female lion
2. Female horse and male donkey
3. Male horse and female donkey
4. Female tiger and male lion

Answer: 3. Male horse and female donkey

Question 25. A genus having a single species is known as

1. Polytypic
2. Monotypic
3. Polygamic
4. Monocarpic

Answer: 2. Monotypic

Question 26. Which of the following chemicals is used for poisoning the specimens in the herbarium technique?

1. Hg₂Cl₂
2. AgNO₃
3. HCl
4. HgCl₂

Answer: 4. HgCl₂

Question 27. The international size of the herbarium sheet is

1. 41 x 29 cm
2. 40 x 30 cm
3. 42 x 27 cm
4. 39 x 28 cm

Answer: 1. 41 x 29 cm

Question 28. Find the correct sequence at various steps of herbarium technique:

1. Drying
2. Poisoning
3. Collection
4. Labeling
5. Mounting
6. Deposition
7. Stitching

1. 3, 1, 2, 5, 7, 4, 6
2. 3, 1, 2, 5, 7, 4, 6
3. 3, 1, 2, 5, 7, 4, 6
4. 3, 1, 2, 5, 7. 4, 6

Answer: 1. 3, 1, 2, 5, 7, 4, 6

” the living world”

Question 29. Which of the following is not included in the minor herbaria?

1. Regional herbaria
2. College herbaria
3. National herbaria
4. Local herbaria

Answer: 3. National herbaria

Biology MCQs with answers

Question 30. Central National Herbarium is situated at

1. Chennai
2. Kolkatta
3. Dehradun
4. Mumbai

Answer: 2. Kolkatta

Question 31. Over 6,000,000 specimens are preserved in which botanical garden or herbaria?

1. Museum of National History, Paris
2. Royal Botanic Gardens, Kew
3. Royal Botanic Garden, Edinburgh
4. US National Herbarium, Washington, DC

Answer: 2. Royal Botanic Gardens, Kew

Question 32. The National Museum of Natural History is located at

1. Mumbai
2. Washington
3. Delhi
4. London

Answer: 3. Delhi

Question 33. Which one of the following is the first zoological mu¬seum of India?

1. Indian Museum, Kolkata
2. Maharaja Sawai Man Singh Museum, Jaipur
3. Prince of Wales Museum, Mumbai
4. National Museum of Natural History, Delhi

Answer: 1. Indian Museum, Kolkata

Biology MCQs with answers

Question 34. The garden famous for the great Banyan tree is under the control of

1. ZSI
2. Calcutta University
3. WWF
4. BSI

Answer: 4. BSI

Question 35. The concept of the key was introduced by

1. John Ray
2. Bentham
3. Linnaeus
4. Hutchinson

Answer: 1. Bentham

Question 36. Two species that are morphologically almost identical but do not interbreed are called

1. Evolutionary species
2. Sibling species
3. Polytypic species
4. Evolutionary trend

Answer: 2. Sibling species

Question 37. A taxon is

1. A hierarchical unit of taxonomy
2. An animal
3. A plant
4. A vims

Answer: 1. A hierarchical unit of taxonomy

Question 38. Class is present between

1. Kingdom and phylum
2. Phylum and order
3. Order and family
4. Family and genus

Answer: 2. Phylum and order

Question 39. Order is placed between

1. Kingdom and phyla
2. Kingdom and class
3. Class and family
4. Genus and species

Answer: 3. Class and family

Question 40. Those species which can interbreed among themselves but cannot do so with other species is known as

1. Morphological species
2. Biological species
3. Ecological species
4. Interbreeding species

Answer: 2. Biological species

Question 41. Which of the following is highest in the hierarchy?

1. Order
2. Species
3. Class
4. Genus

Answer: 3. Genus

Biology MCQs with answers

Question 42. The word hierarchy was given by

1. Carolus Linnaeus
2. John Ray
3. Lamarck
4. Berscy

Answer: 1. Carolus Linnaeus

Question 43. Two species occupying the same or overlapping area are called

1. Sympatric
2. Allopatric
3. Parapatric
4. Ring species

Answer: 1. Sympatric

Question 44. Binomial nomenclature was first mentioned in the book:

1. Systema Naturae
2. Historia Animalium
3. Historia Plantarum
4. Philosphic Zoologique

Answer: 1. Sympatric

” species are considered as”

Question 45. Which of the following is not included under in situ conservation?

1. National park
2. Sanctuary
3. Botanical garden
4. Biosphere reserve

Answer: 3. Botanical garden

Question 46. Select the false statement.

1. Scientists who study and contribute to the classification of organisms are known as systematists.
2. C. Linnaeus developed the first scientific system of naming species.
3. A five-kingdom arrangement of organisms was introduced by R.H. Whittaker.
4. A genus is a group of species that are related and have fewer characteristics in common as compared to species.
5. Phycomycetes are called club fungi because of the club-shaped basidium as the end of mycelium.

Answer: 5. Phycomycetes are called club fungi because of the club-shaped basidium as the end of mycelium.

Question 47. Darwin is the author of

1. Genera Plantarum
2. Origin of species
3. Natural selection
4. Theory of evolution

Answer: 2. Origin of species

Question 48. Who proposed the term, alpha, beta, and gamma in taxonomy?

1. de Candolle
2. Turill
3. Huxley
4. Lamarck

Answer: 2. Turill

Biology MCQs with answers

Question 49. Two plants are taxonomically related if

1. They store carbohydrates in the same type of molecule.
2. Both obtain energy from the hydrolysis of ATP.
3. Both have similarly lobed palmate leaves.
4. Both have pinnately veined leaves.

Answer: 1. They store carbohydrates in the same type of molecule.

scientific name of wheat

Question 50. Which of the following pairs are not related?

1. Mendel in Piston sativum
2. Morgan in Drosophila
3. Bentham and Hooker in binomial nomenclature
4. Hugo de Vries in Oenothera lamarckiana

Answer: 3. Bentham and Hooker in binomial nomenclature

Question 51. In which of the following, organisms are very similar to each other?

1. Order
2. Class
3. Genus
4. Species

Answer: 4. Species

Question 52. Bionomical nomenclature was given by

1. Linnaeus
2. Whittaker
3. Huxley
4. Darwin

Answer: 1. Linnaeus

Question 53. ICBN stands for

1. International Code of Botanical Nomenclature
2. International Congress of Biological Names
3. Indian Code of Botanical Nomenclature
4. Indian Congress of Biological Names

Answer: 1. International Code of Botanical Nomenclature

Question 54. Living organisms can be unexceptionally distinguished from non-living things based on their ability for

1. Interaction with the environment and progressive evolution.
2. Reproduction
3. Growth and movement
4. Responsiveness to touch

Answer: 2. Reproduction

Question 55. Genera Plantarum was written by

1. Engler and Prantl
2. Bentham and Hooker
3. Carolus Linnaeus
4. Arthur Cronquist

Answer: 3. Carolus Linnaeus

” living world”

Question 56. The standard size of a herbarium sheet is

1. 29; 41 cm
2. 50; 10 cm
3. 41; 29 cm
4. Variable size

Answer: 1. 29; 41 cm

Question 57. New systematics and the concept of life were given by

1. Clementia
2. Elton
3. Odum
4. Huxley

Answer: 4. Huxley

Question 58. In which book Bentham and Hooker proposed their classification?

1. Genera Plantarum
2. Species Plantarum
3. Historia Plantarum
4. Historia Nature

Answer: 1. Genera Plantarum

Biology MCQs with answers

Question 59. New systematics introduced by Sir Julian Huxley is also called

1. Phenetics
2. Cladistics
3. Biosystematics
4. Numerical taxonomy
5. Chemotaxonomy

Answer: 1. Phenetics

Question 60. Which one of the following statements correctly defines the term “Homonym”?

1. Identical name of two different taxa.
2. Two or more names belonging to the same taxon.
3. When a species name repeats the generic name.
4. Another name of taxon are given in a language other than the language of zoological/botanical nomenclature.

Answer: 1. Identical name of two different taxa.

Question 61. Linnaeus is associated with

1. Historia Plantarum
2. Origin of species
3. Systema Nature
4. Origin of life

Answer: 3. Systema Nature

Question 62. Oryza sativae is a binomial name of rice plant. Sativae stands for

1. Specific name
2. Specific epithet
3. Species name
4. Specific nomenclature

Answer: 1. Specific name

Question 63. External fertilization occurs in the majority of

1. Algae
2. Fungi
3. Liverworts
4. Mosses

Answer: 1. Algae

” living world neet notes”

Question 64. The largest number of species are traced in

1. Arthropoda
2. Echinodermata
3. Bacteria
4. Fungi

Answer: 4. Fungi

Question 65. Taxonomic hierarchy refers to:

1. Stepwise arrangement of all categories for the classification of plants and animals.
2. A group of senior taxonomists who decide the nomenclature of plants and animals.
3. A list of botanists or zoologists who have worked on the taxonomy of a species or group.
4. The classification of a species based on fossil record.

Answer: 1. Stepwise arrangement of all categories for the classification of plants and animals.

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