UP Board Class 9 Science Chapter 11 Sound Multiple Choice Questions

Sound Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. Sound waves transfer

  1. Only energy not momentum
  2. Energy
  3. Momentum
  4. Both (2) and (3)

Answer: 4. Both (2) and (3)

Sound waves transfer both energy and momentum by the process of compression and rarefaction.

Question 2. Which of the following does not produce sound waves?

  1. Drum
  2. Birds
  3. TV
  4. Microwave oven

Answer: 4. Microwave oven

A microwave oven is used to produce electromagnetic waves.

Question 3. A tuning fork produces sound waves because it creates

  1. Heat
  2. Light
  3. Vibration
  4. None of these

Answer: 3. Vibration

If the tuning fork is vibrating, it produces sound.

Question 4. Which of the following does not create a transverse wave?

  1. Slinky
  2. Heater
  3. Rope
  4. None of these

Answer: 1. Slinky

In a slinky, the individual particles simply oscillate back and forth about their position of rest.

Question 5. The speed of sound is maximum in

  1. Air
  2. Vacuum
  3. Liquid
  4. Metal

Answer: 4. Metal

The speed of sound is maximum in solids like metals.

UP Board Class 9 Science Chapter 11 Sound Multiple Choice Questions

Question 6. What is the range of audio waves?

  1. 20 kHz to 200 kHz
  2. 20 Hz to 20 kHz
  3. 20 Hz to 20 MHz
  4. 20 Hz to 20 MHz

Answer: 2. 20 Hz to 20 kHz

The range of sound waves is 20 Hz to 20 kHz.

Question 7. The frequency of a source of sound is 200 Hz. How many times does it vibrate in 2 min?

  1. 2400
  2. 24000
  3. 24500
  4. 2450

Answer: 2. 24000

Given, frequency = 200 Hz

Number of oscillations in Is = 200

Number of oscillations in 2 min or 120 s

= 200×120 = 24000

Question 8. Which wave property determines the loudness of sound?

  1. Frequency
  2. Pitch
  3. Speed
  4. Amplitude

Answer: 4. Amplitude

The loudness of a sound wave is determined by its amplitude.

Question 9. Echo is caused by the phenomenon of

  1. Reflection
  2. Rarefaction
  3. Refraction
  4. Reverberation

Answer: 1. Reflection

An echo is the reflected sound wave.

Question 10. A man’s voice and a woman’s voice differ by its

  1. Loudness
  2. Pitch
  3. Intensity
  4. Amplitude

Answer: 2. Pitch

Pitch is the characteristic of sound by which we can distinguish between different sounds of the same loudness.

Question 11. In older age, it is difficult to recognise

  1. lower frequency
  2. medium frequency
  3. higher frequency
  4. ultrasonic sound

Answer: 3. higher frequency

Higher frequencies require, high sensitivity, so for older age, it is difficult to recognise them.

Question 12. A stone is dropped from the top of Qutub Minar 73 m high into a pond of water at the base of the Qutub Minar. When is the splash heard at the top?[Take, g=10 ms-2 and speed of sound = 340 ms-1]

  1. 1.82 s
  2. 2.83 s
  3. 3.82 s
  4. 4.32 s

Answer: 3. 3.82 s

From the second equation of motion,

h =\(u t+\frac{1}{2} g t^2\)

73 =0 \(\times t+\frac{1}{2} \times 10 \times t^2\) [u=0]

⇒ \(5 t^2\) =73

∴ \(t^2 =\frac{73}{5}=14.6 \Rightarrow t=\sqrt{14.6}=3.82 \mathrm{~s}\)

Question 13. A sound wave is generated by a tuning fork. It is measured that the sound wave has a speed of 500 ms-1. If its wavelength is 1 cm, will it be audible?

  1. Audible
  2. Non-audible
  3. Both
  4. None of these

Answer: 2. Non-audible

Given, speed, \(\nu=500 \mathrm{~ms}^{-1}\)

Wavelength, \(\lambda=1 \mathrm{~cm}=10^{-2} \mathrm{~m}\)

Frequency, v=\(\frac{v}{\lambda}=\frac{500}{10^{-2}}=50000 \mathrm{~Hz}\)

This frequency is greater than 20000 Hz. So, it is not audible.

Question 14. A guitar of frequency 360 Hz makes 120 vibrations. If the velocity of sound in air is 330 m/s, then how much distance is travelled by the sound in air?

  1. 90 m
  2. 100 m
  3. 110 m
  4. 140 m

Answer: 3. 110 m

Given, v=360 Hz

Velocity, v=330 \(\mathrm{~m} / \mathrm{s}\)

As, \(\lambda=\frac{v}{v}=\frac{330}{360}=\frac{33}{36} \mathrm{~m}\)

Distance travelled by the sound wave in 120 vibrations =120 \(\times \frac{33}{36}=110 \mathrm{~m}\)

Question 15. What is the SI unit of loudness?

  1. Dioptre
  2. Metre
  3. Weber
  4. Decibel

Answer: 4. Decibel

The SI unit of loudness is decibel (dB).

Question 16. A man beating a drum in front of a cliff hears the echo after 4s. What is the distance of man from the cliff, if the velocity of sound in air is 330 m/s?

  1. 660 m
  2. 500 m
  3. 1000 m
  4. 0.3 km

Answer: 1. 660 m

As we know that, distance, s = speed x time = 330 x 4 =1320 m

As in 4s, sound has to travel twice the distance between man and the cliff.

So, the distance between man and cliff is \(\frac{s}{2}=\frac{1320}{2}=660 \mathrm{~m}\)

Question 17. At which frequency, a guitar produces 1000 sound waves per second?

  1. 1 kHz
  2. 500 Hz
  3. 700 Hz
  4. 1200 Hz

Answer: 1. 1 kHz

The frequency of sound valves is called the number of waves, produced in 1s.

So the frequency of this sound wave is 1000 Hz or 1 kHz.

Question 18. A light string is suspended from a book. Which is attached to a 1 kg weight at its lower end. If the string is pulled right and then released. The disturbance produced in the spring is

  1. Pulse
  2. Longitudinal wave
  3. Transverse wave
  4. None of these

Answer: 3. Transverse wave

Here suing is vibrating which shows crest and trough which are the signs of a transverse wave.

UP Board Solutions For Class 9 Science Chapter 12 Improvement In Food Resources

Class 9 Science Chapter 12 Improvement In Food Sources Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1. The white revolution in India has made us self-sufficient in a product. Name it.
Answer:

Milk.

Question 2. Identify two crops from the following, which provide us with carbohydrates for energy requirements. Black gram, wheat, lentil, and rice.
Answer:

Wheat and rice.

Question 3. Name the type of nutrient that we get from mustard seeds and linseed.
Answer:

Mustard seeds and linseed provide us with fats.

Question 4. Select the one that is not a source of starch among the following: Rice, wheat, sunflower seeds, and potato tuber.
Answer:

Sunflower seeds.

Question 5. List two desirable traits for fodder crops.
Answer:

Tall plants

Profuse branching.

Question 6. State one importance of photoperiod in agriculture.
Answer:

Photoperiod is important for the growth and flowering of plants.

Question 7. Name two proteins containing rabi crops.
Answer:

Gram and peas.

Question 8. Improved varieties can be produced in both animals and plants. How?
Answer:

Hybridization and genetic modification are two processes used for the production of new and improved species.

Read and Learn More Class 9 Science Solutions

Question 9. What is the advantage of selecting seeds for crops with wider adaptability for agriculture?
Answer:

It helps in stabilising crop production under different environmental conditions.

Question 10. From where do the plants acquire nutrients like nitrogen and hydrogen?
Answer:

The plants acquire nutrients like nitrogen from soil and hydrogen from water.

Question 11. Name the organism used in vermicomposting.
Answer:

Earthworms.

Question 12. Arrange these statements in the correct sequence of preparation of green manure.

  1. Green plants are decomposed in soil.
  2. Green plants are cultivated for preparing manure or crop plant parts are used.
  3. Plants are ploughed and mixed into soil, (iv) After decomposition, it becomes green manure.

Answer:

The correct sequence is (2) → (3) →  (1) → (4)

Question 13. Name two plants, which are used as biopesticides in organic farming.
Answer:

Neem leaves and turmeric are used as biopesticides because they can keep pests away from crops.

Question 14. Write an example of intercropping.
Answer:

Soybean + maize is an example of intercropping.

Both crops differ in their nutrient requirements, ensuring maximum utilization of nutrients from the field.

Question 15. Mention any two abiotic factors that affect crop production.
Answer:

Drought and waterlogging.

Question 16. What are exotic breeds in terms of cattle?
Answer:

  • Exotic breeds are not native to that place, For Example. Brown
  • Swiss and Jersey Swiss are the exotic breeds of cows in India.

Question 17. Milk production in cattles is mainly dependent upon a factor. What is it?
Answer:

Milk production in catdes is mainly dependent upon the lactation period.

Question 18. Which type of food is required by dairy animals?
Answer:

Dairy animals require two types of food:

  1. Roughage – Largely fibrous
  2. Concentrates – Low in fibre and contain relatively high levels of proteins and other nutrients.

Question 19. White leghorn is an exotic breed of an animal. Name the animal.
Answer:

It is popular exotic breed of hen that produces long, white eggs and requires less amount of feed.

Question 20. Name the two vitamins, which are added in the poultry feed.
Aswer:

Vitamin-A and vitamin-K.

Question 21. Name the major nutrient, which we get from fish.
Answer:

Protein.

Question 22. How does Catla differ from Madrigal?
Answer:

Catla is a surface feeder, while mrigal is a bottom-feeding fish.

Question 23. What is mariculture?
Answer:

The cultivation of marine fishes like mullets, pearl spots, etc., in coastal waters of India on commercial scale is known as mariculture.

Question 24. Why fish culture is done with a combination of rice?
Answer:

Fish culture is done with a combination of rice, so that fishes get ample food in the paddy field and the latter can get water.

Question 25. Choose the odd one Mullets, bhetki, prawns, pearl spots.
Answer:

Prawn is the odd one. Except prawns all the others are finned fishes, while prawns are shellfish.

Question 26. Give two advantages of apiculture.
Answer:

Two advantages of apiculture are as follows

(1) It produces honey and wax.

(2) It is a low-investment additional income-generating activity for farmers.

Question 27. Give one example of each, local variety and foreign variety of bee.
Answer:

Local variety Apis cerana indica Foreign variety Apis mellifera.

Class 9 Science Chapter 12 Improvement In Food Resources Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1. Cultivation practices and crop yield are related to environmental conditions. Explain.
Answer:

Different crops and their cultivation practices require different climatic conditions such as temperature, photoperiod, etc., for their growth and completion of life cycle. Some crops are grown in hot and rainy season (Kharif crops), while some are grown in dry and winter season (Rabi crops), For Example. apple cannot grow in plains as it requires several days of low temperature exposure.

Question 2. Define the term hybridisation and photoperiod.
Answer:

Hybridisation: The cross between two genetically dissimilar plants to give rise to a new variety with desired trait is called hybridisation.

Photoperiod: The effect of light hours or daily duration of light exposure on the flowering of plant is called photoperiodism and this duration of time is called photoperiod.

Question 3. What is a GM crop? Name any one such crop, which is grown in India.
Answer:

  1. Crop which has been developed by introducing a new gene from any other source of organism to obtain desired characters is called Genetically Modified (GM) crop.
  2. Bt cotton is an example of GM crop in India. It is made insect resistant by introducing a new gene front a bacteria {Bacillus).

Question 4. Give any two differences between macronutrients and micronutrients.
Answer:

Differences between macronutrients and micronutrients are as follows

UP Board Solutions For Class 9 Science Chapter 12 Improvement In Food Resources Difference Between Macronutrients And Micronutrients

Question 5. What do you mean by vermicompost?
Answer:

Vermicompost is a kind of manure prepared by using earthworms to hasten the process of decomposition of plants and animals refuse.

Question 6. State two advantages of fertilisers over manures.
Answer:

The two advantages of fertilisers over manures are as follows

  1. A fertiliser is nutrient specific. It can specifically provide nutrients such as N, P, K to soil according to need.
  2.  It is easy to transport and use.

Question 7. Why is excess use of fertilisers detrimental for environment?
Answer:

The excess use of fertilisers leads to water pollution. Excess fertilisers generally get washed away through irrigation, rainfall or drainage and pollute rivers, lakes, streams, etc. This disturbs the ecosystem, as the polluted water kills the aquatic animals and is also harmful for humans.

Question 8. Organic matter has been given importance in production of crops. Is it true. If yes, why?
Answer:

Yes, organic matter is important for crops because of following reasons

  • forms humus and makes the soil fertile.
  •  improves the soil structure and aeration of clayey soil.
  •  increases water holding capacity of sandy soil.
  • helps in drainage.
  • liberates minerals and improves growth of crop plants.

Question 9. Write about the fresh initiatives in the held of irrigation.
Answer:

Fresh initiatives in irrigation include

  • Rainwater harvesting Conserving rainwater for multipurposes like washing, gardening or irrigation.
  •  Wastershed development It involves building check dams. It leads to an increase in groundwater levels.

Question 10. What is mixed cropping? How does it help a farmer?
Answer:

Mixed cropping is growing two or more crops simultaneously on the same piece of land, For Example. wheat + gram and groundnut + mustard. This reduces risk of total crop failure due to uncertain monsoon. It also helps the farmer to raise his livelihood.

Question 11. What is intercropping? Give one example and advantages of intercropping.
Answer:

Intercropping is a method of growing two or more crops simultaneously on the same field in a specific pattern, For Example. soybean + maize.

Advantages of Intercropping

  1. Intercropping ensures maximum utilisation of the nutrients present in soil or supplied from outside.
  2. It also prevents pests and diseases from spreading to all the plants belonging to one crop in a field.

Question 12. Weeds are unwanted plants in the cultivated field. Give some methods to eradicate them.
Answer:

Some methods to remove weeds are as follows

  1.  Mechanical removal Uprooting, weeding with hand or harrow, ploughing, etc.
  2. Preventive methods Proper seed bed preparation, timely sowing of crops, etc.

Question 13. Write the modes by which insects affect the crop yield.
Answer:

Insects affect the crop yield in three ways

  1. They cut the root, stem and leaf.
  2. They suck the cell sap from different parts.
  3. They bore into stem and fruits.

Question 14. Why using pesticides is not considered a good practice?
Answer:

Using pesticides in excessive amount creates problems because

  1. they are poisonous for some plants and animals.
  2.  they cause environmental pollution.

Question 15. State the food requirements of dairy animals.
Answer:

Food requirements ot dairy animals are of two types

  1. Maintenance requirement, this is die food required to support the animal to live healthy lite.
  2.  Milk producing requirement, this type of food is required during lactation period.

Question 16. Which method is commonly used for improving cattle breeds and why?
Answer:

Cross-breeding between exotic and indigenous breeds is done for improving catde breeds. This is done to get animals with desired qualities of both, For Example. long lactation period of exotic breed and resistance to diseases of local breeds.

Question 17. Name two internal parasites that affect cattle animals.
Answer:

  1. Worms They affect the stomach and intestine.
  2. Flukes They damage the liver.

Question 18. What is poultry farming? How does it help in solving food and nutrition problems?
Answer:

Poultry farming is the method to rear domestic fowl for the production of eggs and meat. It helps in solving food and nutrition problem by providing a balanced diet for the human population. It also converts agricultural byproducts into high quality meat.

Question 19. Name two desirable traits for variety improvement in poultry farming.
Answer:

  •  Quality and quantity of chicks.
  • Dwarf broiler parents for commercial chick production.

Question 20. Good management practices give good production of poultry birds. Enlist some management practices in poultry farming.
Answer:

  1. Management practices in poultry farming include
  2. Maintenance of temperature and hygienic conditions in housing and poultry feed.
  3. Prevention and control of diseases.

Question 21. Suggest some preventive measures for the diseases of poultry birds.
Answer:

Poultry fowl suffers from various diseases. These are caused by different agents found in nature and can affect the growth, quality and quantity of chicks. Fowls also suffer from nutritional deficiency. These diseases can be prevented by

  1. Providing nutritional diet to poultry birds.
  2.  Cleaning and sanitation of shelter.
  3. Appropriate vaccination of poultry birds.
  4. Spraying disinfectant at regular intervals in the shelter.

Question 22. Give two examples of shellfishes.
Answer:

  • Crustaceans like prawns and lobsters.
  • Molluscs like oysters and Octopus.

Question 23. Where can you do inland fisheries?
Answer:

  • Inland fisheries are done in the following water resources
  • Freshwater resources Canals, ponds, reservoirs, and rivers.
  • Brackish water resources These are the resources, where freshwater and seawater mix together, For Example. estuaries and lagoons.

Question 24. Which factors should be taken into consideration for fish culture?
Answer:

The three important factors required for fish culture include

  • Topography, i.e. location of pond.
  • Water resources and their quality.
  • Soil quality.

Question 25. Explain, why does legume crop not require nitrogenous fertilisers.
Answer:

Nitrogen-fixing bacteria, e.g. Rhizobium is present in the roots of leguminous plant. Therefore, they do not require nitrogenous fertilisers to fulfil their nitrogen requirements.

Question 26. (1) Suppose you are incharge of a grain store. How will you find out the presence of pests? Mention any two indicators.

(2) Which method is most effective for destroying insects in stored food grains, spraying or fumigation?

Answer:

(1) (A) Damaged stored grains, pests reduce them to perforated shells.

(B) Degraded quality, loss in weight and discolouration of grains.

(2) Fumigation method is more beneficial over spraying for destroying insects in stored food grains. In fumigation, the insect pests are exposed to the fumes of chemicals.

Question 27. Large population of cattles is present in our country, but milk production is meagre. Why?
Answer:

  • Large population of cattle is present in our country, but milk production is meagre because of the following reasons
  • The poor quality of feed is given to cattle. Most of the cattles are of indigenous breeds and give limited amount of milk.
  • Proper hygienic housing of cattle is not done due to which they suffer from a number of diseases.

Question 28. (1) Name the month during which kharif crop is grown.

(2) List any two factors for which crop variety improvement is done.

Answer:

  • Kharif crop is grown during the months from June to October.
  • Two factors for which crop variety improvement is done are as follows
  • Higher yield To increase producrivity of crop per acre.
  • Improved quality The definition of quality is different for different crops, e.g. baking quality is important in wheat, protein quality in pulses, etc.

Question 29. Group the following and tabulate them as energy yielding, protein yielding, oil yielding and fodder crops. Wheat, rice, berseem, maize, gram, oat, pigeon gram, Sudan grass, lentil, soybean, groundnut, castor and mustard.
Answer:

  1.  Energy yielding crops Wheat, rice, maize and oats.
  2. Protein yielding crops Gram, lentil and pigeon gram.
  3.  Oil yielding crops Groundnut, castor, soybean and mustard.
  4. Fodder crops Berseem and sudan grass.

Question 30. Why has improving crop yields become more important these days? List the major group of activities for improving crop yields. Which one of these activities is the most important and why?
Answer:

Due to continuously growing population, requirement of food is also increasing every year to feed this population. Extra farming land is not available in country to increase production. Therefore, it is necessary to increase crop yield to meet growing demands for food. The major activities for improving crop yields include

  1.  crop variety improvement
  2.  crop production management
  3. crop protection management Out of these three activities, crop variety improvement is very important. It helps to attain the crops of good yield, improved quality and resistant to various stresses.

Question 31. Discuss the role of hybridisation in crop improvement.
Answer:

Hybridisation is a method of crossing between genetically dissimilar plants. It is of three types

  1.  Intervarietal cross between two different varieties.
  2. Interspecific cross between two different species of same genus.
  3. Intcrgcncric cross between two different genera. In plant breeding, intervarictal hybridisation is mostly used to improve the crop variety.
  4. Improved varieties arc high yielding and resistant to diseases and pests. They have better quality and various other desirable traits. Thus, they play an important role in crop improvement.

Question 32. In agriculture practices, higher input gives higher yield. Discuss how?
Answer:

  • In agriculture, higher yield can be obtained by using higher yielding varieties, modern technologies, improved farm practices with latest agricultural machines. All these require high cost and knowledge of new techniques.
  • Finance thus, plays a very important role as the cost of input decides the outcome of cropping. Therefore, higher input gives higher yield in agricultural practices.

Question 33. What is manure? State two advantages of using manure. How does green manure differ from ordinary manure?
Answer:

Manure is an organic substance obtained through the decomposition of plant wastes like straw and animal wastes such as cow dung. The decomposition is brought about by microbes.

Advantages of using manure are as follows

  1.  It enriches soil with nutrients without any pollution.
  2.  It improves soil texture.
  3.  It increases water holding capacity of soil by adding organic matter to it.

Green manure is different as it is obtained by growing green plants, which are then mulched by ploughing them into the soil. Later on, it forms green manure.

Question 34. Differentiate between compost and vermicompost.
Answer:

Differences between compost and vermicompost are as follows

UP Board Solutions For Class 9 Science Chapter 12 Improvement In Food Resources Difference Between Compost And Vermicompost

Question 35. Define the following:

  1. Vermicompost
  2.  Green manure

Answer:

  1.  Vermieompost is a manure rich in pulverised organic matter and nutrients. The compost is prepared by using earthworms to hasten die process of decomposition of plants and animals refuse.
  2.  Green manure is prepared by growing green plants in the field itself. It helps in enriching the soil in nitrogen and phosphorus content. For Example. sunhemp is grown in fields, mulched by ploughing and allowed to decompose in field for die preparation of green manure.

Question 36. Give some advantages of mixed cropping.
Answer:

Advantages of mixed cropping are as follows

  1. Chances of pest infestation is greatly reduced.
  2. By growing two or more crops simultaneously, soil fertility is improved.
  3.  The risk of total crop failure due to uncertain monsoon is reduced.

Question 37. If there is low rainfall in a village throughout the year, what measures will you suggest to the farmers for better cropping?
Answer:

Suggestions to farmers for better cropping in low rainfall area are as follows

  • Enrich soil with humus, as it increases water holding capacity of soil.
  • Reduce tilling.
  • Use of drought resistant and early maturing varieties of crops.
  • Better irrigation facilities and methods to conserve water.

Question 38. The food available is decreasing, day by day, both in quantity and in quality. What steps can be employed to improve this condition, when the population is increasing drastically?
Answer:

The following steps can be taken to improve the condition of food for present as well as for future generations

  1.  By selecting good variety of crops having desirable agronomic traits. Such varieties can be developed using hybridisation technique and by genetic modification of crops.
  2. The field should be kept fertile and nutrient rich by using manure, etc.
  3.  By using high yielding variety of seeds for high yield per acre.
  4. By using a beneficial cropping pattern such as mixed cropping, crop rotation, etc.
  5. By improving irrigation facilities and bringing more agricultural land under irrigation.
  6.  By protecting crops from weeds, diseases, etc.

Question 39.Discuss various methods of weed control.
Answer:

The various methods of weed control are as follows

  1. Mechanical method Uprooting, weeding, ploughing, burying and flooding.
  2. Cultural method Proper seed bed preparation, timely sowing of crops, intercropping and crop rotation.
  3. Chemical method Spraying of chemicals like herbicides or weedicides.
  4.  Biological control Use of insects or some organisms, which consume and destroy the weed plants, For Example. prickly-pear cactus (Opuntia) is controlled by insects and aquatic weeds are controlled by fish grass carp.

Question 40. Give one word for the following

  1.  Farming without use of chemicals as fertilisers, herbicides and pesticides is known as
  2.  Growing of wheat and groundnut on the same field is called
  3. Planting soybean and maize in alternate rows in the same field is called
  4. Growing different crops on a piece of land in pre-planned succession is known as

Answer:

  1. sustainable farming
  2. mixed cropping
  3. intercropping
  4. crop rotation

Question 41. Discuss, why pesticides should be used in very accurate concentration and in very appropriate manner?
Answer:

  1. Pesticides should be used in accurate concentration as they are very harmful to environment. Pesticides are non-biodegradable and can accumulate in organisms.
  2. The environmental impact of pesticides consists of the effects of pesticides on non-target species. Over 98% of sprayed insecticides and 95% of herbicides reach a destination other than their target species, because they are sprayed or spread across entire agricultural fields.
  3. Runoff can carry pesticides into aquatic environments. Wind can carry them to other fields, grazing areas, human settlements and undeveloped areas, potentially affecting other species. Other problems emerge from poor production, transport and storage practices.

Question 42. Explain the factors that are to be considered before deciding the nature of feed for cattle.
Answer:

Following factors should be considered before deciding the nature of feed for cattle

(1) Food requirements of dairy animals are of two types

  • Maintenance requirement Food required to support the animal to live a healthy life.
  • Milk producing requirement Food type required during lactation period.

(2) Animal feed includes

  • Roughage Largely fibrous.
  • Concentrates High levels of proteins and other nutrients.

(3)The food requirements of catdes are different for every age and type of work they do.

(4) Along with the ration, some feed additives can also be given to add micronutrients. It helps to promote the health and milk output of dairy animals.

Question 43. Cross-breeding programme is successfully done in poultry farming for variety improvement. Enlist some desirable traits for which cross-breeding is done in poultry birds.
Answer:

The cross-breeding programmes between Indian breeds like Aseel and foreign breeds like Leghorn are carried out for variety improvement. It focusses on developing new varieties for the following desirable traits

  1. Number and quality of chicks The cross-bred variety should produce good quality chicks in large quantity.
  2.  Dwarf broiler parent They help in commercial chick production.
  3. Summer adaptation capacity The variety should be adaptable to survive in high temperature and different climatic conditions.
  4. Low maintenance requirement
  5. It should decrease the investment charges.

(5) Reduction in the size of the egg-laying bird with the ability to utilise more fibrous and cheaper diets that is formulated using agricultural byproducts.

Question 44. Differentiate between layers and broilers. What type of food should be given to broilers?

Answer:

UP Board Solutions For Class 9 Science Chapter 12 Improvement In Food Resources Difference Between Layers And Broilers

Question 45. Write a short note on marine fisheries.
Answer:

India’s marine fishery resources area include 7500 km long coastline and deep seas beyond it. Marine fishes are caught using many kinds of fishing nets from fishing boats. The yields are increased by locating large schools of fish in open sea by using satellites, etc.

  • Popular marine fish varieties are pomfret, mackerel, tuna, sardines and Bombay duck.
  • High economic value marine fishes are:
  • Firmed fishes Mullets, bhetki and pearl spots.
  • Shellfishes Prawns, mussels and oysters.

Question 46. Differentiate between

  1. inland fishery and marine fishery
  2. apiculture and aquaculture.

Answer:

Differences between inland and marine fisheries are as follows

UP Board Solutions For Class 9 Science Chapter 12 Improvement In Food Resources Difference Between Apiculture And Aquaculture

Question 47. What is honey? What does the quality of honey depend upon?
Answer:

Honey is a dense sweet liquid. It contains 20-40% sugar, small amount of minerals and vitamins. Apart from that, it also contains certain enzymes and pollen. It has medicinal value specially in problems related to digestion and liver.

The quality of honey depends upon the pasturage or flowers available to the bees for nectar and pollen collection. In addition to adequate quantity of pasturage, the kind of flowers available also determine the taste of honey.

Question 48. What are the advantages of bee-keeping?
Answer:

Following are the main advantages of bee-keeping

  1.  Along with getting honey on a commercial scale, other products like wax, royal jelly and bee venom are also obtained from bee-keeping.
  2.  Bee-keeping requires low investments due to which farmers, along with agriculture also prefer bee-keeping to generate additional income.
  3. It helps in cross-pollination. Pollens are transferred from one flower to another by bees, while collecting nectar.

Question 49. An Italian bee variety Apis mellifera has been introduced in India for honey production. Write about its merit over the other varieties.
Answer:

Merits of Italian bee variety Apis mellifera are as follows

  1.  It is stingless.
  2.  It stays in beehives for long period of time and breeds very well.
  3.  It has high honey collection capacity.

Question 50.Differentiate between the following

  1. Capture fishery and culture fishery.
  2. Bee-keeping and poultry farming.

Answer:

UP Board Solutions For Class 9 Science Chapter 12 Improvement In Food Resources Difference Between Capture and culture fishery

UP Board Solutions For Class 9 Science Chapter 12 Improvement In Food Resources Difference Between Bee Keeping And Poultry Farming

Class 9 Science Chapter 12 Improvement In Food Sources Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1. How can crop variety improvement methods help farmers facing repeated crop failure? Describe three factors for which they could do crop improvement. Which is the most common method of obtaining improved varieties of crops? Explain briefly.

Answer:

Crop variety improvement basically focuses on developing a crop variety that can provide a good yield, resistant to diseases and pests, not responsive to fertilisers and is adaptable. Thus, it can lead to better crop produce.

Factors for which crop improvement can be done are as follows

  1. Higher yield Every farmer involved in agriculture needs to get a good yield to be economically stable. Crops need to be improved, so that they provide good productivity per acre.
  2. Improved quality Both quantity and quality are important for crop improvement, For Example. baking quality in wheat, protein quality in pulses and oil quality in oilseeds should be given consideration, while selecting an improved variety.
  3.  Wider adaptability Varieties having wider adaptability can stabilise their growth in different environmental conditions.

There are two ways of getting a variety with desirable characteristics

  1. Genetic manipulation A gene is introduced in plant that provides the desirable characters.
  2. Hybridisation The most common method of obtaining improved variety of crops is hybridisation. Hybridisation is the cross between genetically dissimilar plants.

11 can be of three types

  1. Intervarieal Cross between two different varieties.
  2.  Interspecific Cross between two different species of the same genus.
  3.  Intergeneric Cross between two different genera.

Question 2. Mention the modern initiatives undertaken in India to supply water to the fields.

Answer:

Poor monsoons cause crop failure. The crops should be given water at appropriate stages of life to increase die expected yield of crops. Under such circumstances different kinds of irrigation systems are developed. It ensures the supply of water to agricultural lands.

Depending on the type of water resources, the irrigation systems are as follows

(1) Wells They are of two types

  • Dug wells In this type of well, water is collected from water bearing strata.
  •  Tube wells In this type of well, water is lifted by pumps from deeper strata for irrigation.

(2) Canals In this system, canal receives water from one or more reservoirs or from rivers. The main branch is divided into branch canals with many distributaries to irrigate fields.

(3) River lift system It is most common in those areas, where canal flow is irregular or insufficient due to less number of reservoirs release. In lift system, water is directly drawn from rivers for irrigation in areas near to rivers.

(4) Tanks These are small storage reservoirs intercepting and storing the run-off of smaller catchment areas.

Question 3. Figure shows the two crop fields [plots A and B] that have been treated by manures and chemical fertilisers respectively, keeping other environmental factors same.

UP Board Solutions For Class 9 Science Chapter 12 Improvement In Food Resources Two Crop Field That Have Been Treated By Manures And Chemical Fertilizers

Observe the graph and answer the following questions.

  1. Why does plot B show sudden increase and then gradual decrease in yield?
  2.  Why is the highest peak in plot A graph slightly delayed?
  3.  What is the reason for the different patterns of the two graphs?

Answer:

  1.  With the addition of chemical fertilisers, there is a sudden increase in yield due to the release of nutrients like N, P, K, etc., in high quantity.
  2. The gradual decline in the graph may be due to continuous use of high quantity of chemicals. It has killed microbes useful for replenishing the organic matter in the soil. This results in reduced the soil fertility.
  3. Manures supply small quantities of nutrients to the soil slowly. It takes time to mix with the soil. It increases water holding capacity and aeration of soil, thereby increasing soil fertility continuously.
  4.  The difference in the two graphs is because of the fact that use of manure is beneficial for longer duration in cropping. The yield gets high when the quantity of manure increases.
  5. In case of plot B, the chemical fertilisers may cause various problems, when used continuously for long time. Loss of microbial activity reduces decomposition of organic matter. As a result soil fertility is lost that affects the yield.

Question 4. (1) Which factors are responsible for causing loss of storage grains? State some preventive measures for storage of foodgrains.

(2) What do you mean by animal husbandry? State two advantages of it.

Answer:

(1) Factors responsible for the loss during storage of grains are as follows

  1. Biotic factors as insects, rodents, birds, mites and bacteria.
  2.  Abiotic factors as moisture content, temperature etc.

Preventive measures for storage of foodgrains include:

  • Drying
  • Maintenance of hygiene
  • Fumigation
  • Improved storage structure.

(2) Animal husbandry It is a science of rearing, feeding, caring, breeding and utilisation of animals.

Advantages of animal husbandry are as follows

  • It is beneficial for farmers as increased yield brings more income and raises their living standard.
  •  It helps us to undertake proper management of domestic animals.

Question 5. Name two typos of animal food and writo thoir functions.

Answer:

The dairy cattle is given it balanced ration. It contains all nutrients in proportionate amounts. A ration is the amount of food, which is given to the animal during a twenty-four hour period.

The animal foal includes two types of substances

  • Roughage It largely contains fibres such as green fodder, silage, hay (straw of cereals) and legumes, (For Example. berseem, cowpca and agathi).
  •  Concentrates The concentrates used in feed of cattle and buffaloes arc a mixture of substances. These arc rich in one or more nutrients, For Example. cotton seeds, oil seeds, grains of maize, oats, barley, jowar, bajra and gram. Their byproducts such as wheat bran, rice bran (polish), gram husk, oilseeds, cakes and molasses are also used.

1. Green fodder and dry grasses (roughage) = 15-20 kg

2. Grain mixture (concentrates) = 4-5 kg

3. Water = 30-35 litres.

Besides above mentioned nutritious food material, dairy animals require certain additive feeds. They promote the growth of the animals. They contain antibiotics, minerals and hormones. They facilitate good yield of milk and protect them from diseases.

Question 6. What do you understand by composite fish culture? Describe in detail with its advantages and disadvantages.
Answer:

  • Composite fish culture system is adopted for intensive fishing.
  • Characteristics of composite fish culture These are as follows
  • Both local as well as imported fish species can be used in such systems.
  • Combination of five or six fish species is used in a single fish pond.
  • These species have different feeding habits.
  • The species are selected so that they do not compete for food among them because of their different food habits. Some examples are as follows
  • Catla Surface feeders.
  • Rohu Feeds in the middle zone of the pond. Mrigal Bottom feeders.
  • Common carps Bottom feeders.
  • Grass carps Weed feeders.

Advantages of composite fish culture These are as follows

  1. All the food available in the pond is utilised.
  2. There is no competition for food.
  3. There is an increase in the fish yield from the pond. Disadvantages of composite fish culture These are as follows

Lack of availability of good quality fish seeds.

Question 7. (1) What is the term used for the scientific management of livestock ?

(2) What do you moan by tho term apiary and pasturage?

(3) Mention any two desirable traits, for which cross-breeding programmes between Indian and foreign breeds are undertaking in poultry farming.

Answer:

  • Animal husbandry is the term used for scientific management of livestock.
  • Apiary Bee farm, which is established for the commercial production of honey, etc., is known as apiary.
  • Pasturage It is the flora (flowers) present in the surroundings of apiary that provide nectar to bees. Quantity and quality of honey direedy depends upon pasturage.
  •  Two desirable traits for which cross-breeding between Indian and foreign breeds are undertaken in poultry farming are:
    1.  Number and quality of chicks.
    2. Tolerance to high temperature.

Question 8. You are living in an area with abundant greenery and pasturage. A farmer living near your home is not satisfied with the income he gets from his agricultural land.

Which additional income-generating activity will you suggest him in such a scenario?

Or What are other suggestions you would give him for setting the activity?

Answer:

Apiculture is the best-suited activity in such a scenario that I would suggest to him. It is a low investment, additional income-generating activity. It is the method of rearing, care, and management of honeybees to obtain honey, wax, and other substances.

Utilities of apiculture are as follows

  1. Honey is used for the consumption and manufacturing of other useful products.
  2.  Bees wax is used in various medicinal preparations.
  3. Bees help in cross-pollination of crops as bee transfers pollen grain from one flower to another, while collecting nectar.

It will also suggest him to use following varieties of bees in apiculture

  1. Apis cerana indica Commonly known as Indian bee.
  2. Apis dorsata Commonly known as rock bee.
  3. Apisflorea Commonly known as little bee.
  4. Apis mellifera This is the Italian bee that has been brought in to increase the yield of honey.
  5. I will also explain him the importance of Italian bee in apiary.
  6. The advantages of Italian bees are as follows
  7. They have good honey collection capacity.
  8. They are stingless.
  9. They stay in a given beehive for long periods and breed very well.
  10. They are very good for commercial production.
  11. He should also take care of the pasturage around the apiary as the value or quality of honey depends on it.

Question 9. (1) The black and the white dots in the given picture are an indication of two different types of cropping patterns. Identify the cropping patterns.

UP Board Solutions For Class 9 Science Chapter 12 Improvement In Food Resources The Black And White Dots Indicates The Two Types Of Crop Pattern

(2) Mention one advantage of each cropping pattern.

(3) How are the two cropping patterns different from each other?

Answer:

(1) 1 – Mixed cropping

2 – Intercropping

(2) 1 – Such cropping pattern gives insurance against failure of one of the crops.

2 – It ensures maximum utilisation of nutrients supplied.

(3) Intercropping differs from mixed cropping in several ways, which are as follows

UP Board Solutions For Class 9 Science Chapter 12 Improvement In Food Resources Difference Between Intercropping And Mixed Cropping

Question 10. One of your family friend is thinking to open a dairy farm for economic purpose. He wants to earn profit by selling milk. He discussed this matter with your father. What additional information can you give based on your knowledge for maintenance of cattles?

Answer:

The following information can be given in accordance with dairy farm

  1. Exotic breeds can be selected for long lactation period (For Example. Jersey and Brown Swiss).
  2.  Necessary maintenance

Proper cleaning of the sheds should be done regularly.

They should be sheltered under well-ventilated roofed sheds that will protect them against rain, heat and cold.

The floor should be kept sloping, so as to keep it dry and to facilitate cleaning.

Animals should be brushed regularly to clean dirt and loose hair.

(3) Food requirements Cattles need a balanced ration having all the nutrients in proportional amount.

Along with feeds, feed additives should also be given containing micronutrients. They would promote good health and milk production of cattles.

Animal feed should include

  1.  Roughage Largely fibrous.
  2.  Concentrates Low in fibre, but contain higher levels of proteins and other nutrients.

(4) Protection against diseases should also be taken care of.

The parasites of cats are of two types

  1.  External parasites Living on the skin.
  2.  Internal parasites Affect the stomach, intestine, and liver.

Bacteria and viruses also cause infectious diseases.

Vaccination and proper medical treatment should be done at regular intervals against diseases.

UP Board Class 9 Science Chapter 12 Improvement In Food Resources Multiple Choice Questions

Improvement In Food Sources Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. Who is known as the father of the green revolution in India?

  1. Guha
  2. Prof. Kashyap
  3. Prof. MS Swaminathan
  4. Maheshwari

Answer: 3. The father of the green revolution in India is Prof. MS Swaminathan. The green Revolution has led to an increase in huffcrstocks good grains, improvement in the economic conditions of farmers, and provided employment opportunities to a large number of people.

Question 2. Who is known as the father of the white revolution?

  1. MS Swaminathan
  2. Dr. NE Borlaug
  3. Prof. Kashyap
  4. Dr. V Kurien

Answer: 4. Dr. V Kurien

Dr. V Kurien is known as the father of the white revolution and the architect of India’s modern dairy industry. He was the chairman of the National Dairy Development Board (NDDB) and founder of Amul implemented Operation Flood project in 1970.

Question 3. Bt cotton is resistant to

  1. herbicides
  2. salt resistant
  3. drought resistant
  4. insect resistant

Answer: 4. insect resistant

Bt cotton is produced by the insertion of insect resistance genes from the bacterium Bacillus thuringiensis into the cotton plant. This gene produces insect-resistant protein toxin crystals, called a parasporal bodies that can act as a microbial bioinsecticide for specific insect groups.

Question 4. The scientific process by which crop plants are enriched with certain desirable nutrients is called

  1. breeding
  2. crop protection
  3. biofortification
  4. bioremediation

Answer: 3. biofortification

Breeding of crops with higher levels of vitamins and minerals or higher protein and healthier fats is called biofortification. This is the most practical aspect of improving the nutritional value of food plants.

Question 5. Which one of the following is a breed of cattle?

  1. Ayrshire
  2. Scampi
  3. Ghagus
  4. Kadaknath

Answer: 1. Ayrshire

UP Board Class 9 Science Chapter 12 Improvement In Food Resources Multiple Choice Questions

Ayrshire is a breed of cow from Scotland. Ghagus and Kadaknath are Indigenous breeds of poultry.

Question 6. Inbreeding is carried out in animal husbandry because it

  1. increases homozygosity
  2. increases heterozygosity
  3. improves the breed
  4. increases vigor

Answer: 1. Increases homozygosity

Inbreeding is carried out in animal husbandry because it increases homozygosity. By inbreeding between animals of the same breeds pure-line animals are produced.

Question 7. Crossing of individuals of two different species to produce a hybrid is called as

intraparietal hybridisation

  1. interspecific hybridization
  2. interparietal hybridization
  3. intergeneric hybridization

Answer:

In interspecific hybridization, a species is mated with a related species of the same genus with different desirable characteristics. Interspecific hybrids are generally difficult to produce, but they are important in plant breeding, particularly in breeding for disease resistance. This is also called intrageneric hybridization.

Question 8. Which of the following is a dual-purpose breed?

  1. Jersey
  2. Sahiwal
  3. Sindhi
  4. Deoni

Answer: 4. Deoni

Deoni is a dual-purpose breed usually females are good milk yielders and males are used as muscular power which serves in plowing.

Question 9. Resistance is the capacity of plants to resist, withstand, lessen, and overcome the attacks of pathogens. Disease resistance crop is obtained from crossing with wild varieties.

  1. crossing with wild varieties
  2. crossing with new varieties
  3. injecting with organic compounds
  4. None of the above

Answer: 1. crossing with wild varieties

Resistance is the capacity of plants to resist, withstand, lessen, and overcome the attacks of pathogens. Disease resistance crop is obtained from crossing with wild varieties.

Question 10. Brown Swiss, 1 lolsIoin-Prtosinn, and Jersey nro all wo 11 known

  1. exotic breeds of goat
  2. exotic breeds of cow
  3. exotic breeds of poultry
  4. exotic breeds of fish

Answer: 2. exotic breeds of cow

Holstein- Friesian from Holland, Brown-Swiss from Switzerland, and Jersey from the Island of Jersey in the English Channel are exotic breeds of cattle.

Question 11. The plant commonly used as green manure is

  1. Sesbania aculeate
  2. Dalbergia sissoo
  3. Polyalthea
  4. None of the above

Answer: 1. Sesbania aculeate

Green manuring is a farming practice where a leguminous plant that has derived enough benefits from its association with appropriate species of Rbizobium is plowed into the soil and then a non-legume plant is grown and allowed to take benefits of already fixed nitrogen in the soil. Some common green manuring crops are Sesbania aculeata, Lens esculenta, Crotolaria juncea, etc.

Question 12. Which one of the following is the American poultry breed?

  1. Asset
  2. Rhod Island Red
  3. Minorica
  4. Australia

Answer: 2. Rhod Island Red

Rhod Island Red, Plymouth Rock, New Hampshire are some of the American breeds of poultry. Australia is a British breed, White leghorn, and Minorica are Mediterranean breeds and Assel is an indigenous breed.

Question 13. Which type of honeybees are useful for apiary industries in India?

  1. Apis florae
  2. Apis mellifera
  3. Apis dorsata
  4. Apis indica

Answer: 4. Apis indica

  1. An apiary is a place where bees are cultured and bred to get commercial products. Apis indica is a small Indian bee that inhabits forests and plain regions throughout India.
  2. It can be easily domesticated because of its gentle nature. Apis indica is the best, suited in India for apiculture industries.

Question 14. Green Revolution depended mainly on plant breeding techniques for high-yielding and disease-resistant varieties of

  1. wheat
  2. rice
  3. maize
  4. All of these

Answer: 1. wheat

Green Revolution depended mainly on plant breeding techniques for high-yielding and disease-resistant varieties of wheat. This was all done by the efforts of Prof. M.S. Swaminathan who is also called the father of the green revolution in India.

UP Board Solutions For Class 9 Science Chapter 4 Structure Of The Atom

Class 9 Science Chapter 4 Structure Of The Atom Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1. Which popular experiment is shown in the figure?

UP Board Class 9 Science Chapter 4 Structure Of The Atom Alpha Particle Scattering ExperimentUP Board Class 9 Science Chapter 4 Structure Of The Atom Alpha Particle Scattering ExperimentUP Board Class 9 Science Chapter 4 Structure Of The Atom Alpha Particle Scattering ExperimentUP Board Class 9 Science Chapter 4 Structure Of The Atom Alpha Particle Scattering ExperimentUP Board Class 9 Science Chapter 4 Structure Of The Atom Alpha Particle Scattering Experiment

Answer:

This figure shows the scattering of a-particles by a gold foil which is known as the Rutherford experiment or a-particle scattering experiment.

Question 2.

  1. What is an octet? How do elements attain an octet?
  2. Make a schematic atomic structure of magnesium and phosphorus.

[Given number of protons of magnesium =12 and that of phosphorus =15 ]

Answer:

  1. An outermost shell, which has eight electrons is said to possess an octet. Elements attain their octet by sharing, gaining, or losing electrons.
  2. Atomic structure of Mg

Read and Learn More Class 9 Science Solutions

UP Board Class 9 Science Chapter 4 Structure Of The Atom Atomic Structure Of Mg

12Mg = \(\begin{aligned}
& K L M \\
& 2,8,2
\end{aligned}\)

The atomic structure of P

UP Board Class 9 Science Chapter 4 Structure Of The Atom Atomic Structure Of P

15P = \(\begin{aligned}
& K L M \\
& 2,8,5
\end{aligned}\)

Question 3.

  1. An element X has an atomic number =12 and a mass number =26. Draw a diagram showing the distribution of electrons in the orbits and the nuclear composition of the neutral atom of the element. What is the valency of the element and why?
  2. If this element X combines with another element Y whose electronic configuration is 2, 8, 7. What will be the formula of the compound thus formed? State how you arrive at this formula.

Answer:

Atomic number =12. Mass number =26

Atomic structure of X

UP Board Class 9 Science Chapter 4 Structure Of The Atom Atomic Structure Of X

Electronic configuration = 2, 8, 2

Nuclear composition

Number of protons =12

Number of neutrons =26 -12 =14

Valency = 2

Because it can donate 2 electrons easily to complete its octet and become stable.

The valency of the element E would be 1, i.e. it can gain 1 electron to become stable. When it combines with the element X of valency 2, the compound formed will be XY2.

The formula of the compound would be XY2.

Question 4.

  1. Rutherford’s a-particle scattering experiment gives the experimental evidence for deriving the conclusion that
    1. Most of the space inside the atom is empty.
    2. The nucleus of an atom is positively charged.
  2. An element has mass number =32 and atomic number = 16, find
    1. The number of neutrons in the atom of the element.
    2. The number of electrons in the outermost shell of the atom.
  3. Based on Rutherford’s model of an atom, which subatomic particle is present in the nucleus of an atom?

Answer:

    1. Most of the a-particles passed straight through the gold foil.
    2. A few of the a-particles which are positively charged, deflected due to the positive charge of the nucleus.
    1. Number of neutrons = Mass number – atomic number =32-16=16
    2. The electronic configuration of the element will K L M be as follows: 2, 8, 6
    3. Hence, the number of electrons in the outermost shell is 6.
  1. According to Rutherford’s model of an atom, positively charged protons are present in the nucleus of an atom.

Question 5.

  1. Write two differences between isotopes and isobars.
  2. Write uses of Co-60 and U-235.

Answer:

Difference between isobars and isotopes:

UP Board Class 9 Science Chapter 4 Structure Of The Atom Difference Between Isotopes And Isobars

  1. The isotope of cobalt (Co-60) is used in the treatment of cancer.
  2. The isotope of uranium (U-235) is used as a fuel in a nuclear reactor.

Question 6. Which of the following is a correct electronic configuration of sodium?

  1. 2, 8
  2. 8, 2, 1
  3. 2, 1,8
  4. 2, 8, 1

Answer: 4. 2, 8, 1

The atomic number of sodium atom is 11, therefore,

its electronic configuration is \(\begin{gathered}
K L M \\
2,8,1 .
\end{gathered}\).

Question 7. Complete the following table.

UP Board Class 9 Science Chapter 4 Structure Of The Atom Atomaci Number To Name Of The Atomaci Species.

Answer:

UP Board Class 9 Science Chapter 4 Structure Of The Atom Atomaci Number To Name Of The Atomaci Species

Explanation

Fluorine (9F19) Given, atomic number = 9 and number of neutrons =10

Mass number =Atomic number + number of neutrons

= 9 + 10

=19

Number of protons = Atomic number

= Number of electrons = 9

Sulphur (16S32) Given, atomic number =16

Number of protons = Number of electrons =16 Number of neutrons

= Mass number — atomic number – =32-16=16

Magnesium (12Mg24) Number of protons =12

Atomic number = Number of protons = 12

Number of electrons = Number of protons =12

Number of neutrons = Mass number – atomic number

= 24 -12 = 12

Deuterium (1D2) Number of protons = 1

and Number of electrons = 1

Atomic number = 1, mass number = 2

Number of neutrons = 2-1=1

Hydrogen ion (1H+) Mass number = 1

Number of protons = 1

Number of neutrons = 0

Number of electrons = 0

Atomic number = Number of protons =1

Because several electrons are zero, i.e. not equal to that of protons, the species is a hydrogen ion, not a hydrogen atom.

Question 8. Define valency by taking examples of silicon and oxygen.
Answer:

The combining capacity of the atom of an element with the atom(s) of the same or other elements (s) to complete its octet is called the valency of that element. The number of valence electrons present in the atom of that element determines the valency of an element.

If the number of valence electrons of the atom of an element is less than or equal to four then the valency of that element is equal to the number of valence electrons, e.g. the atom of silicon has four valence electrons

[ ∵ atomic no of silicon is 14, therefore its electronic configuration is \(\begin{aligned}
& K L M \\
& 2,8,4
\end{aligned}\) ]

Thus, the valency of silicon is four.

On the other hand, if the number of valence electrons of the atom of an element is greater than four, the valency of that element is obtained by subtracting the number of valence electrons from eight, e.g. the atom of oxygen has six valence electrons

[ ∵ atomic no. of oxygen is 6, therefore, its electronic configuration is 2 (K), 6 (L)]. Thus, the valency of oxygen is two [8-6 = 2].

Question 9. Explain with examples.

  1. Atomic number
  2. Mass number
  3. Isotopes
  4. Isobars

Answer:

Give any two uses of isotopes

Atomic number The number of protons present in the nucleus of the atom of an element is called its atomic number.

Atomic number = Number of protons

For example., a sodium atom has 11 protons. Thus, its atomic number is 11. It is represented as 11Na.

Mass number The sum of several protons and neutrons (together called nucleons) present in the nucleus of an atom is called its mass number.

Mass number = Number of protons + number of neutrons

For example., a sodium atom has 11 protons and 12 neutrons. Its mass number is 23. It is represented as 23Na.

Isotopes Atoms of an element having the same atomic number but different mass numbers are called isotopes of that element.

For example., hydrogen has 3 isotopes 1H1,1H2 and 1H3.

Isobars Atoms of different elements with different atomic numbers but the same mass number are known as isobars.

For example., \({ }_{18}^{40} \mathrm{Ar} \text { and }{ }_{20}^{40} \mathrm{Ca}\) are isobars.

Uses of isotopes are:

An isotope of uranium (U-235) is used as a fuel for the production of electricity in nuclear reactors.

An isotope of cobalt is used in the treatment of cancer.

Question 10. Na+ has completely filled K and L shells. Explain.
Answer:

Electronic configuration of Na (atom) = \(\begin{array}{ccc}
K & L & M \\
2, & 8, & 1 .
\end{array}\)

When an atom loses one electron, it acquires a positive charge. Thus, when Na-atom loses one electron from its Af-shell it gets converted into Na+ion.

Electronic configuration of Nation) = \(\begin{array}{ll}
K & L \\
2, & 8 .
\end{array}\)

As the maximum capacity of the K-shell to occupy electrons is 2 and that of the Z-shell is 8 electrons, so, Na+ has filled K and L-shells.

Question 11. If a bromine atom is available in the form of, say, two isotopes \({ }_{359}^{79} \mathrm{Br} \quad(49.7 \%) \text { and }{ }_{35}^{81} \mathrm{Br}\), calculate the average atomic mass of the bromine atom.
Answer:

The average atomic mass of an element

⇒ \(\begin{aligned} & =\left[\binom{\text { Atomic mass of isotope I }}{\left.\times \frac{\text { percentage of isotope I }}{100}\right)}\right. \\ & \left.+\left(\text { Atomic mass of isotope II } \times \frac{\text { percentage of isotope II }}{100}\right)\right] \end{aligned}\)

Average atomic mass of bromine

⇒ \(=\left[\left(79 \times \frac{49.7}{100}\right)+\left(81 \times \frac{50.3}{100}\right)\right]\)

= 39.263+ 40.743 = 80.006 u.

Question 12. The average atomic mass of a sample of an element X is 16.2 u. What are the percentages of isotopes 168X and 18X in the sample?
Answer:

Let, the percentage of 8X16 = x%

Then, the percentage of 8X18 = (100 – x) % … (1)

The average atomic mass of X =16.2 u

According to the given data,

⇒ \(16 \times \frac{x}{100}+18 \times \frac{(100-x)}{100}=16.2\)………(2)

⇒ \(\frac{16 x}{100}+\frac{1800-18 x}{100}=16.2\)

⇒ \(16 x+1800-18 x=1620\)

⇒ \(-2 x=-1800+1620 \Rightarrow \)

⇒ \(x=\frac{180}{2}=90 \%\)

Placing the value of x in Eq.(1)

Percentage of ls8X =100 -90 =10%

∴ Isotope 8X16 =90% , isotope 8X18 =10%

Question 13. The number of valence electrons in CF ions is

  1. 16
  2. 8
  3. 17
  4. 18

Answer: 2. 8

Valence electrons are the electrons present in the outermost shell of an atom. Cl ion is formed when the Cl atom gains an electron. The atomic number of Cl is 17, it has 1 7e, and when it gains one e, it becomes Cl ion and has 18e.

Thus, the electronic configuration of Cl atom and Cl ion are as follows:

Cl (atom) = 2, 8 7;

Valence electrons = 7

Cl (ion) = 2, 8, 8;

Valence electrons = 8

Hence Cl ion has 8 valence electrons.

Question 14. Write the electronic configuration of any one pair of isotopes and isobars.
Answer: Isotopes, for example., \({ }_{17}^{35} \mathrm{Cl} \text { and }{ }_{17}^{37} \mathrm{Cl}\)

The electronic configuration of both the isotopes of chlorine is the same as their atomic number are the same.

17Cl = \(\begin{array}{ccc}
K & L & M \\
2, & 8, & 7
\end{array}\)

Isobars, for example., \({ }_{20}^{40} \mathrm{Ca} \text { and }{ }_{18}^{40} \mathrm{Cl}\)

The electronic configuration of both isobars would be different as both have different atomic numbers but have the same mass number.

⇒ \(\begin{array}{rccc}
K & L & M & N \\
{ }_{20} \mathrm{Ca}=2, & 8, & 8, & 2
\end{array}\)

⇒ \({ }_{18} \mathrm{Ar}=2,8,8\)

Question 15. Two ions having 3 negative and 3 positive charges are found to have 7 and 14 neutrons respectively. If the electronic configuration of these ions is similar to that of neon (Ne), then find the mass number of both ions.
Answer:

The electronic configuration of Ne = \(\begin{array}{cc}
K & L \\
2, & 8
\end{array}\)

Atom, which forms ion similar to neon with 3 negative charges, will have an electronic configuration as = \(\begin{array}{cc}
K & L \\
2, & 5
\end{array}\)

Hence, the given atom is nitrogen.

Mass number = Number of protons + number of neutrons

= 7+7 = 14

Similarly, an atom that forms an ion similar to neon with 3 positive charges, will have an electronic configuration as = \(\begin{aligned}
& K L M \\
& 2,8,3 \\
&
\end{aligned}\)

Hence, the given atom is aluminum.

Mass number = Number of protons + number of neutrons

= 13 + 14

= 27

Class 9 Science Chapter 4 Structure Of The Atom Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1. How can you justify that cathode rays originate from the cathode whereas anode rays do not?
Answer:

  • On applying high potential on a discharge tube, any metal used as a cathode-electrode emits a beam of electrons having (-)ve charge, moving towards the oppositely charged (+)ve plate (anode electrode) known as cathode-rays.
  • Anode rays are gaseous (+)ve-ions (kept in discharge tube) produced due to the knock-out of electrons from gaseous atoms that move towards (-)ve plate. This shows that cathode rays originate from the cathode whereas anode rays do not.

Question 2. Write the conclusions drawn by Rutherford when he observed the following.

  1. Most of the a-particles pass straight through the gold foil.
  2. Some a-particles getting deflected from their path.

Answer:

  1. Most of the space inside the atom is empty.
  2. Some negatively charged particles (called electrons) are present around the center (called the nucleus).

Question 3. List down three different names given to the path in which electrons revolve around the nucleus. Also, explain why are they called so.
Answer:

The three different names are:

  1. Discrete orbit It is called so because electrons revolve in certain distinct paths and not just in any orbit.
  2. Energy level (energy shell) The energy associated with different orbits (with which electron revolves) is distinct for each orbit, hence it is called so.
  3. Stationary state Since the energy associated with an orbit is fixed. Hence, the electron revolving in a particular orbit has stationary energy. That’s why, the orbit is also called a stationary state,

Question 4.

  1. What will be the maximum number of electrons that can be filled in the Z-shell of an imaginary atomic model?
  2. Why is it almost impossible to find such an atom in nature?

Answer:

According to the Bohr and Bury rule, the maximum number of electrons in. Z-shell (16th shell, starting from K)

= 2n2 = 2 × 16 × 16

= 512

Atoms with greater number of electrons have greater number of protons and neutrons therefore they have unstable nucleus which radiates energy or divide itself into smaller stable nuclei. Hence, elements with atomic number greater than 100 are rarely found in nature.

Question 5.

  1. Write the name of an element whose atom has the same number of sub-atomic particles. Draw the atomic structure of the atom.
  2. Draw the atomic structure of an atom with the same number of electrons in L and M-shells.

Answer:

1. Name of element: Oxygen (8O16)

Number of electrons = 8

Number of protons = 8

Number of neutrons =16-8=8

UP Board Class 9 Science Chapter 4 Structure Of The Atom Atomaci Number To Name Of The Atomaci Species

2. Name of element: Argon Atomic number

⇒ \(\begin{array}{r}
K L M \\
(18)=2,8,8
\end{array}\)

UP Board Class 9 Science Chapter 4 Structure Of The Atom Atomic Structure Of An Atom

Number of electrons in L-shell = 8

Number of electrons in M-shell = 8

Question 6. Given below is the atomic structure of an atom of element 11A23, according to Bohr’s

UP Board Class 9 Science Chapter 4 Structure Of The Atom Given Below Is The Atomic Structure Of An Atom

  1. What is wrong with this structure of an atom? Draw a correct representation of this atom.
  2. Write the chemical formula of the chloride of this element.

Answer:

1. The element A is Na and has three shells K, L, and M but here only 2 shells are given.

Further, Z-shell cannot have more than 8 electrons but here 9 electrons are given.

The correct structure is

UP Board Class 9 Science Chapter 4 Structure Of The Atom The Correct Structure Is Bohrs Model

2. As Na has 1 valence electron, thus it has a valency of+1 and chlorine has a valency of -1. Hence, the formula of its chloride is ACl, i.e. NaCl.

Question 7. Write the electronic configuration and valency of the following.

  1. Chlorine
  2. Silicon

Answer:

  1. Chlorine (17Cl): \(\begin{aligned}
    & K L M \\
    & 2,8,7
    \end{aligned}\) ⇒> Valency = 1
  2. Silicon (14Si) \(\begin{aligned}
    & K L M \\
    & 2,8,4
    \end{aligned}\) 4 ⇒ Valency = 4

Question 8. Write the electronic configurations for the following elements and deduce their valencies.

  1. Magnesium
  2. Neon
  3. Sulphur

Answer:

Magnesium (12) = \(\begin{aligned}
& K L M \\
& 2,8,2
\end{aligned}\)

⇒ Valency = 2

2. Neon (10) = \(\begin{array}{cc}
K & L \\
2, & 8
\end{array}\)

⇒ Valency = 0

3. Sulphur (1 6) = \(\begin{aligned}
& K L M \\
& 2,8,6
\end{aligned}\)

⇒ Valency =8-6=2

Question 9. Find out the valency of atoms represented by the following figures.

UP Board Class 9 Science Chapter 4 Structure Of The Atom Find Out The Valency Of Atoms

Answer:

Valency = 0 [∵ number of valence electrons = 8]

Valency = 3 [∵ number of valence electrons =3]

Valency = 1 [∵ number of valence electron = 1]

Valency = 2 [∵ number of valence electrons = 6]

[valency =8-6 = 2]

Question 10. The following data represents the distribution of electrons, protons, and neutrons in atoms of four elements A, B, C, and D.

UP Board Class 9 Science Chapter 4 Structure Of The Atom Distribution Of Electrons Protons And Neutrons In Atoms

Solve the following questions.

  1. Write the electronic distribution of atoms of elements A and D.
  2. Element A is an inert gas. Why?
  3. What is the valency of element C?

Answer:

1. Electronic distribution of elements A and D.

⇒ \(\begin{aligned}
& \quad K L M \\
& A=2,8 \\
& D=2,8,3
\end{aligned}\)

2. The number of electrons in the outermost shell of element A is 8.

The outermost shell of this element is complete and the element does not need to gain or lose electrons to complete its outermost shell. Hence, A is an inert gas.

3. alency of element C (2, 8, 2) is 2.

Question 11. You are given the atom of an element 8X16. Find out the

  1. Number of protons, electrons, and neutrons in X.
  2. Valency of X.
  3. The chemical formula of the compound formed when X reacts with
    1. Hydrogen
    2. Carbon.

Answer:

1. Number of protons = 8

Number of electrons = 8

Number of neutrons =16-8=8

2. Valency = 8-6 = 2

∵ \(\left[\begin{array}{ll}
K & L \\
2, & 6
\end{array}\right]\)

3.

  1. H2X
  2. CX2

Question 12. An atom of an element has 5 electrons in L-shell.

  1. What is the atomic number of the element? State its valency.
  2. Identify the element and write its name.

Answer:

  1. Since there are 5 electrons in the Z-shell, so there must be 2 electrons in the X-shell. Thus, the element has a total of 7 electrons, which is equal to the number of protons, hence the atomic number of the element is 7.
    1. As Z-shell is the outermost shell and it contains 5 electrons. Therefore, it has 5 valence electrons. Thus, its valency is 3 [8 -5 = 3].
  2. An element having atomic number 7 is nitrogen (N).

Question 13.

  1. Answer the following questions.
    1. Name the scientist who discovered protons.
    2. What is the charge and mass of a proton?
    3. Where is a proton located in an atom?
  2. An atom of an element has a mass number of 28 u and its atomic number is

Answer:

1.

  1. Protons were discovered by E. Goldstein.
  2. The charge on a proton is + 1.6×10-19C and its mass is 1.67×10-27kg.
  3. The proton is located in the nucleus of an atom.

2. Number of neutrons

= Mass number – atomic number =28-14 = 14

The element is silicon (14Si28).

Question 14. Show diagrammatically the electron distributions in a sodium atom and a sodium ion and also give their atomic number.
Answer:

The atomic number of sodium (Z) = 11

The mass number of sodium = 23

∴ Number of protons in the nucleus = 11

Number of neutrons in the nucleus = 23 -11=12

Number of electrons =11

∴Electronic configuration of Na-atom = \(\begin{array}{ccc}
K & L & M \\
2, & 8, & 1
\end{array}\)

Na+ ion is formed from sodium atom by loss of an electron (present in the outermost shell). Hence, its electronic configuration is \(\begin{array}{cc}
K & L \\
2, & 8 .
\end{array}\). However, several protons and neutrons remain the same.

UP Board Class 9 Science Chapter 4 Structure Of The Atom Structure Of An Atom Structure Atom And Sodium Ion

Question 15. An atom of an element has two electrons in the outermost M-shell. State

  1. Electronic configuration
  2. Atomic number
  3. Number of protons
  4. Valency of this element

Answer:

1. An atom of an element has two electrons in M-shell. Therefore, it’s electronic configuration = \(\begin{array}{ccc}
K & L & M \\
2, & 8, & 1
\end{array}\)

2. Atomic number = 2 + 8 + 2 = 12

3. Number of protons = 12

4.  2, because there are 2 valence electrons, which it can lose easily to achieve stable outermost electronic configuration.

Question 16. What information do you get from the figure about the atomic number, mass number, and valency of atoms X, Y, and Z? Give your answer in a tabular form.

UP Board Class 9 Science Chapter 4 Structure Of The Atom Give Your Answer In A Tabular Form

Answer:

The tabular form is as below:

UP Board Class 9 Science Chapter 4 Structure Of The Atom The Tabular Form Is As Below

Question 17. Complete the table based on the information available in the symbols given below.

⇒ \((1) { }_{17}^{35} \mathrm{Cl}
(2) { }_{35}^{81} \mathrm{Br}\)

UP Board Class 9 Science Chapter 4 Structure Of The Atom The Basic Of Information Available In The Symbols

Answer:

  • The atomic number is written on the lower left side of the symbol of the element whereas the mass number is written on the upper left side of the symbol of the element.
  • Number of protons (np) = Atomic number of atoms and number of neutrons (nn) = Mass number — atomic number.

UP Board Class 9 Science Chapter 4 Structure Of The Atom Number Of Protons Np

Question 18. Complete the following table.

UP Board Class 9 Science Chapter 4 Structure Of The Atom Element To Mass Number.

Answer:

A: Atomic number = Number of protons =17; Mass number = Number of protons + number of neutrons

= 17 + 18=35

B: Atomic number = Number of protons =14; Mass number = Number of protons + number of neutrons

= 14 + 14 = 28

C: Atomic number = Number of protons = 9; Number of neutrons = Mass number – number of protons

=19—9=10

UP Board Class 9 Science Chapter 4 Structure Of The Atom Structure Of An Atom Element To Mass Number

Question 19. In the following table, the mass numbers and the atomic numbers of certain elements are given.

UP Board Class 9 Science Chapter 4 Structure Of The Atom The Mass Number And Atomic Number

  1. What would be the valency of element C listed in the above table?
  2. Which two sub-atomic particles are equal in number in a neutral atom?

Answer:

1. The electronic configuration of C is 2(X), 5(L).

Hence, its valency is three because it gains three electrons to attain a stable electronic configuration.

[or valency can be found as, 8 – 5 = 3]

2. For a neutral atom,

Number of electrons = Number of protons Thus, electrons and protons are equal in number in a neutral atom.

Question 20. Two elements are represented as 17X35 and 12Y24.

  1. Which of these elements will lose and gain electrons? What is the number of electrons an atom loses, gains, or shares called?
  2. Write the electronic configurations of X and Y.

Answer:

1. Y will lose (2) electrons and X will gain (1) electron.

The number of electrons lost, gained, or shared by an atom is called its valency.

2. Electronic configuration of X (atomic number = 17) = 2, 8, 7

Electronic configuration of Y (atomic number = 12) = 2, 8, 2

Question 21. A metal (mass number = 40) having the same number of protons and neutrons, combines with two chlorine atoms. Identify the element with which the electronic configuration of this metal matches in the combined state.
Answer:

1: As mass number = Number of protons + number of neutrons

⇒ 40 = 2 x number of protons

⇒ Number of protons = 20

Hence, the metal is calcium (Ca).

Since it combines with 2 Cl-atoms (total valency = 2)

Hence, it will acquire 2 positive charges, after losing 2 electrons.

Electronic configuration of Ca2+ ion = \(\begin{array}{ccc}
K & L & M \\
2, & 8, & 8
\end{array}\)

This electronic configuration matches that of argon (Ar).

Question 22. In response to a question, a student stated that in an atom, the number of protons is greater than the number of neutrons, which in turn is greater than the number of electrons. Do you agree with the statement? Justify your answer.
Answer:

The given statement is incorrect.

According to this statement: p > n > e

But actually, several protons can never be greater than the number of neutrons (except protium). Several neutrons can be equal to or greater than the number of protons because a mass number is equal to double the atomic number or greater than double the atomic number.

Of course, several neutrons can be greater than the number of electrons because several electrons are equal to several protons in the neutral atom.

Question 23. An ion M3- contains 10 electrons and 7 neutrons. What is the atomic number and mass number of the element M? Name the element.

The number of protons in M3- ion =10-3 = 7

∴ The atomic number is 7.

Mass number = Number of protons + number of neutrons

= 7 + 7

=14

As the atomic number is 7.

∴ The element is nitrogen.

Question 24. Sulfur dioxide (SO2) is a colorless pungent-smelling gas and is a major air pollutant.

  1. Write the electronic configuration of its constituent elements ‘sulfur and oxygen’ (Given, 16S32,8O16). Write the valency of sulfur and oxygen.
  2. Are sulphur and oxygen isotopes of the same element? Explain your answer.

Answer:

1. Electronic configuration of sulphur (S) : \(\begin{aligned}
& K L M \\
& 2,8,6
\end{aligned}\)

Electronic configuration of oxygen (O): 2, 6 Valency of both sulphur and oxygen is 2, as they tend to gain two electrons to achieve stable outer shell electronic configuration.

2. Isotopes are elements having the same atomic number but different mass numbers. Therefore, they are not isotopes as their atomic numbers are different.

Question 25. Study the data given below and answer the questions which follow:

UP Board Class 9 Science Chapter 4 Structure Of The Atom Study The Data Given Below

  1. Write the mass number and atomic number of particles A, B, C, and D.
  2. Which particles represent a pair of isotopes? Explain.

Answer:

UP Board Class 9 Science Chapter 4 Structure Of The Atom The Mass Number And Atomic Number Of Particles

Particles C and D have the same number of protons, i.e. same atomic number but different mass numbers.

Question 26. The two isotopes of chlorine have mass numbers 35 and 37 and number of neutrons 18 and 20 respectively. Which one will have higher valency? Do they have the same physical or chemical properties?
Answer:

Number of protons in ,35Cl =35 -1 8 =17

⇒ Number of electrons = Number of protons =17

Similarly, the number of protons in 37Cl = 37 — 20 = 17

⇒ Number of electrons = Number of protons =17

Since both have the same number of electrons (i.e. 17). Hence, they will have the same valency (i.e. 1). Isotopes having the same number of electrons show the same chemical properties but may show some different physical properties.

Question 27.

  1. What is the number of electrons in CD ion (Cl =17)?
  2. What is the electronic configuration of phosphorus (P = 15)?

Answer:

1. 17 +1 (gained) =18 electrons [because negative charge shows gain of electrons].

2. Atomic number of phosphorus =15 Electronic configuration = \(\begin{aligned}
& K L M \\
& 2,8,5
\end{aligned}\)

Question 28. An element M forms the compound MH3 when it reacts with hydrogen.

  1. Find the valency of element M.
  2. Write the valency of chlorine and sulfur.

Answer:

  1. The valency of M = 3 because it combines with three atoms of hydrogen.
  2. Valency of chlorine, Cl (2, 8, 7) = 8 – 7 = 1 Valency of sulfur, S (2, 8, 6) = 8-6 = 2

Question 29.

  1. Identify which of the following pairs are isotopes and which are isobars. Give reasons for your choice.
    • \({ }^{58} A_{26},{ }^{58} B_{28},{ }^{79} X_{35},{ }^{80} Y_{35}\)
  2. Do isobars also have identical chemical properties to isotopes? State reason.

Answer:

  1. A and B are isobars as they are atoms of different elements having the same mass number. X and Y are isotopes as they are atoms of the same element (same atomic number) having different mass numbers.
  2. No, isobars do not have identical chemical properties because they have different atomic numbers as well as electronic configurations.

Question 30.

  1. Chlorine occurs in nature in two isotopic forms with masses 35 u and 37 u. The percentage of 35 Cl is 75%. Find the average atomic mass of a chlorine atom,
  2. Give any three applications of isotopes.

Answer:

1. \(\% \text { of }{ }^{37} \mathrm{Cl}=100-75=25 \%\)

Average atomic mass \(=\left(\frac{35 \times 75}{100}+\frac{37 \times 25}{100}\right)\)

⇒ \(\left(\frac{105}{4}+\frac{37}{4}\right)\)

⇒ \(\frac{142}{4}\)

= 35.50 u

2. Applications of isotopes

  1. An isotope of iodine is used in the treatment of goiter.
  2. An isotope of uranium is used as a fuel in nuclear reactors.
  3. An isotope of cobalt is used in the treatment of cancer.

Question 31. Based on the number of protons, neutrons, and electrons in the samples given below identify

  1. The cation.
  2. The pair of isobars, and the pair of isotopes.

UP Board Class 9 Science Chapter 4 Structure Of The Atom Structure Of An Atom Element To Mass Number

Answer:

  1. Sample A has more protons than the electrons. Hence, it is a cation.
  2. Sample B and C have the same mass number (Mass number = Number of protons + several neutrons =37) but different atomic numbers (i.e. 18 and 17 respectively). Hence, they are a pair of isobars. Samples C and D have the same atomic number but different mass numbers. Hence, they are a pair of isotopes.

Question 32. Elements from A to F have the distribution of electrons, protons, and neutrons in the following way.

UP Board Class 9 Science Chapter 4 Structure Of The Atom Elements From A To F

From the table, find

  1. A pair of ionic gas
  2. An atom of noble configuration
  3. A pair of isobars
  4. A pair of isotopes

Answer:

  1. A and B, because several electrons and protons are different for these elements.
  2. E, because it has filled outer shell electronic configuration \(\begin{aligned}
    & K L M \\
    & 2,8,8 .
    \end{aligned}\).
  3. E and E because these have the same mass number (number of protons + number of neutrons) but different atomic numbers.
  4. C and A because these have the same atomic number (number of protons) but different mass numbers.

Question 33. In the gold foil experiment of Geiger and Marsden, which paved the way for Rutherford’s model of an atom, — 1.00% of the a-particles were found to deflect at angles greater than 50°. If one mole of a-particles were bombarded on the gold foil, compute the number of a-particles that would deflect at angles less than 50°.
Answer:

From mole concept

1 mole =6.022 × 1023 particles (mole concept was discussed in the previous chapter)

Number of a-particles deflected at angles greater than 50° = 1% (Given)

∴ Several a-particles deflected at the angles less than 50° = 100-1=99%.

∴ The actual number of a-particles deflected at the angles

less than 50° = \(\frac{99}{100} \times 6.022 \times 10^{23}\)

= 5.96 × 1023 100

Hence, the number of a-particles deflect at an angle less than 500 ≈ 0.06 x 1023

Question 34. If the mass of a proton is 1.67 × 1027 kg and if the electron is found to be 1840 times lighter than hydrogen ion. Then find the charge-to-mass ratio of cathode rays.

[Given, a charge on 1 electron = 1.6×10-19C]

Answer:

Mass of H+ Mass of proton \(=\frac{\text { Mass of } \mathrm{H}^{+}}{1840}=\frac{\text { Mass of proton }}{1840}\)

⇒ \(\frac{1.67 \times 10^{-27} \mathrm{~kg}}{1840}

⇒ [latex]9.1 \times 10^{-31} \mathrm{~kg}\)

Since cathode rays are composed of electrons only. Hence, e/m ratio of cathode rays = e/m ratio of electron

⇒ \(\frac{1.6 \times 10^{-19} \mathrm{C}}{9.1 \times 10^{-31} \mathrm{~kg}}

⇒ [latex]1.76 \times 10^{11} \mathrm{C} \mathrm{kg}^{-1}\)

Question 35. If Z = 3, what would be the valency of the element? Also, name the element. Sol Electronic configuration of an element,
Answer:

Electronic configuration of elements,

∴ \((Z=3)=\begin{array}{cc} K & L \\ 2, & 1 \end{array}\)

Valency of the element = Number of valence electrons

= 1

Name of the element = Lithium (Li)

Question 36. The composition of the nuclei of two atomic species X and Y are given as under.

\(\begin{array}{lcc}
& X & Y \\
\text { Protons } & 6 & 6 \\
\text { Neutrons } & 6 & 8
\end{array}\)

Give the mass numbers of X and Y What is the relation between the two species?

Answer:

Mass number = Number of protons + number of neutrons Mass number of

X = 6 + 6=12

Mass number of F = 6 + 8 =14

To find the relation between X and Y

The atomic number of X = Number of protons = 6

The atomic number of Y = Number of protons = 6

It can be that the atomic numbers of both the elements X and F are the same (6) but their mass number are different, so, X and Y are isotopes of the same element (carbon). Hence, X and Fare U6C respectively.

Question 37. For the following statements, write T for True and F for False.

  1. J.J. Thomson proposed that the nucleus of an atom contains only nucleons.
  2. A neutron is formed by an electron and a proton combining together. Therefore, it is neutral.
  3. The mass of an electron is about \(\frac{1}{2000}\) times that of a proton.
  4. An isotope of iodine is used for making tincture of iodine, which is used as a medicine.

Answer:

  1. (F)Because in J.J. Thomsons’ model, the nucleus was not present.
  2. (F)A Neutron is a fundamental particle (a subatomic particle) of the atom of an element, thus cannot be made by combining an electron and a proton. It is neutral, as it carries no charge.
  3. (T) Mass of electron is \(\frac{1}{1840}\) times, which is 1840 nearly about \(\frac{1}{2000}\) times that of proton.
  4. (T) Tincture of iodine is made by dissolving an isotope of iodine in alcohol (1-131).

Question 38. Rutherford’s a-particle scattering experiment was responsible for the discovery of

  1. Atomic nucleus
  2. Electron
  3. Proton
  4. Neutron

Answer: 1. Atomic nucleus

Based on his experiment, Rutherford predicted that the center part of the atom is positively charged and is responsible for the mass of the atom. He called these protons an atomic nucleus.

Question 39. Isotopes of an element have

  1. The same physical properties
  2. Different chemical properties
  3. Different numbers of neutrons
  4. Different atomic numbers

Answer: 3. Different number of neutrons

Isotopes have different physical properties, similar chemical properties, same atomic number but different mass numbers. Hence, isotopes of an element have different numbers of neutrons.

Question 40. Compare the properties of electrons, protons, and neutrons.
Answer: The properties of electrons, protons, and neutrons are as follows:

UP Board Class 9 Science Chapter 4 Structure Of The Atom Properties Of Electrons Protons And Neutrons

Question 41. What are the limitations Of J.J. Thomson’s model of the atom?
Answer:

Limitations of J.J. Thomson’s model of the atom are :

  1. It could not explain the experimental results of other scientists such as Rutherford, as there is no nucleus in the atomic model proposed by Thomson.
  2. It could not explain the stability of an atom, i.e. how positive and negative charges could remain so close together.

Question 42. What are the limitations of Rutherford’s model of the atom?
Answer:

Limitations of Rutherford’s model of the atom are:

  1. Rutherford’s model could not explain why a moving charge (electrons) does not lose energy and fall into the nucleus.
  2. It could not explain the stability of an atom when charged electrons are moving under the attractive force of a positively charged nucleus.
  3. The model could not explain how the electrons are distributed in the extranuclear portion of an atom.

Question 43. Describe Bohr’s model of the atom.
Answer:

The main postulates of Bohr’s model of an atom are as follows:

  1. Electrons revolve around the nucleus in special orbits called discrete orbits (energy levels).
  2. While revolving in discrete orbits, the electrons do not radiate energy.
  3. These orbits are represented by the letters, K, L, My Nor the numbers n = 1, 2, 3, 4.

Question 44. Compare all the proposed models of an atom given in the chapter.
Answer:

UP Board Class 9 Science Chapter 4 Structure Of The Atom All The Proposed Models Of An Atom Given In The Chapter

Question 45. How will you find the valency of chlorine, sulphur, and magnesium?
Answer:

Magnesium is a metal while chlorine and sulphur are non-metals.
Valency of a metal = Number of valence electrons (i.e. number of electrons present in outermost shell)

Valency of a non-metal = 8 — number of valence electrons

  1. 12Mg = 2, 8, 2; Valency of magnesium = 2
  2. 16S = 2, 8, 6; Valency of sulphur = 8 – 6 = 2
  3. 17Cl = 2, 8, 7; Valency of chlorine = 8 – 7=1

Question 46. Helium atom has an atomic mass of 4u and two protons in its nucleus. How many neutrons does it have?
Answer:

Atomic mass of helium = 4 u

Number of protons = 2

Let the number of neutrons = x

Number of protons + number of neutrons

=Atomic mass

2 + x = 4

⇒ x = 4 – 2

= 2

Question 47. What do you think would be the observation if the a-particle scattering experiment is carried out using a foil of a metal other than gold?

Or Why did Rutherford select a gold foil in his a-rays scattering experiment?

Answer:

If the α-particle scattering experiment is carried out using a foil of any other metal by Rutherford, there would be no change in observations. Since other metals are not so malleable. So such a thin foil is difficult to obtain.

  • If we use a thick foil, more a-particles would bounce back and no idea about the location of positive mass in the atom would be available with such a correctness.
  • This means as the thickness of the foil increases, the possibility of correctness for the experiment decreases. So, the use of gold in this case is preferred.

Class 9 Science Chapter 4 Structure Of The Atom Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1. Electron attributes negative charge, and protons attribute positive charge. An atom has both but why there is no charge?
Answer:

A neutral atom has an equal number of protons and electrons. Hence, it has an equal amount of negative and positive charges which cancel out the effect of each other. Thus, the net electrical charge on an atom is zero.

Question 2. Which scientist concluded that the size of a nucleus is very small as compared to the size of an atom?
Answer: Ernest Rutherford.

Question 3. When a-particles are bombarded on a gold sheet, only a few of them get deflected, whereas most of them go straight undeflected. Give reasons.
Answer:

This occurs because the volume occupied by the nucleus is very small as compared to that of the atom, i.e. most of the part of an atom is empty. Therefore, most of the a-particles go undeflected.

Question 4. One electron is present in the outermost shell of the atom of an element X. What would be the nature and value of charge on the ion formed if this electron is removed from the outermost shell?
Answer:

An element X is metal because one electron is present in the outermost shell, i.e. 1 valence electron. When this valence electron is removed from the outermost shell, a cation (positive ion) will be formed with a charge of +1.

Question 5. In the atom of an element X, 6 electrons are present in the outermost shell. If it acquires noble gas configuration by accepting a requisite number of electrons, then what would be the charge on the ion so formed?
Answer:

Element X has 6 electrons in the outermost shell. To acquire noble gas configuration, element X requires 2 electrons. Therefore, when it gains electrons it acquires a negative charge i.e. -2. The charge on the anion (X2-), so formed is -2.

Question 6. Which sub-atomic particle is not present in a hydrogen atom?
Answer: Neutron.

Question 7. An atom of an element is represented as 9X192. How many electrons and neutrons are present in this atom?
Answer:

Atomic number = Number of electrons = 9

Number of neutrons = Mass number – number of protons =19 -9=10

Question 8. What is the atomic number of the atom of an element X, which has 2 shells, K and L having 2 and 6 electrons respectively?
Answer:

K= 2, L = 6

Atomic number = Number of protons = Number of electrons in neutral atom Atomic number = 2 + 6=8

Question 9. What is the difference between Na and Na+ in terms of a number of electrons?
Answer:

Number of electrons in Na = 11

Number of electrons in Na+ =11-1=10

[∵ In case of positive ion, number of electrons = Number of protons – total positive charge]

Question 10. What happens to an element Z if its atom gains 3 electrons?
Answer:

If an atom gains electrons, the number of electrons gained is represented by a negative charge. So, Z will convert into Z3- after gaining 3 electrons.

Question 11. Write the mass number of neon and argon from the data given below.

UP Board Class 9 Science Chapter 4 Structure Of The Atom Mass Number Of Neon And Argon From The Data

Answer:

Mass number = Number of protons + number of neutrons

For neon, mass number =10 + 10 = 20

For argon, mass number = 18 + 22 = 40

Question 12. Uranium-235 has 92 protons in its atom. Calculate the number of neutrons in this atom.
Answer:

Number of neutrons

= Mass number – number of protons

= 235 -92 = 143

Question 13. Calculate the number of neutrons present in the nucleus of an element X which is represented as 15X31.
Answer:

Atomic number, Z of 15X31=15

The mass number, A of 15X31=31

Number of neutrons = A-Z = 31 -15=16

Question 14. Is it possible for the atom of an element to have 1 electron, 1 proton, and no neutron? If so, name the element.
Answer:

Yes, protium (1H1) is an isotope of hydrogen that has 1 electron, 1 proton and no neutron.

Question 15. Which isotope of carbon is isotopic to X|C and is used in radiocarbon dating to determine the age of old samples of living organisms?
Answer: Carbon-14, 6C14

Question 16. Identify the pair of isotopes from the following:

⇒ \({ }_8^{16} X,{ }_7^{16} X,{ }_8^{17} X\)

Answer:

⇒ \({ }_8^{16} X \text { and }{ }_8^{17} X\) is isotope as they have the same atomic number, but different mass numbers.

Question 17. The atomic number of calcium and argon are 20 and 18 respectively but the mass number of both these elements is 40. What is the name given to such a pair of elements?
Answer:

The mass number of calcium =40, i.e. 20C40.

The mass number of argon =40, i.e. 18Ar40.

A pair of elements having the same mass number but different atomic numbers is called isobars.

Question 18. If X contains 18 electrons, what is its atomic number?
Answer:

For X, Atomic number = Number of protons = Number of electrons-negative charge= 18-1

= 17

Question 19. What is the n/p ratio of \(\begin{array}{r}
222 \\
8 8
\end{array}\) Ra?

Answer:

Number of neutrons, n – 222 – 88 =134

Number of protons, p = 88

∴ \(\frac{n}{p} \text { ratio }=\frac{134}{88}\)

= 1.52

Question 20. Which of the two would be chemically more reactive: element A with atomic number 18 or element D with atomic number 16 and why?
Answer:

Electronic configuration of 18A -2, 8, 8

It would be chemically inert due to its complete octet. Electronic configuration of 16D =2, 8, 6

To complete its octet, it will gain 2 electrons, therefore it will be more reactive.

Question 21. Which isotope of hydrogen contains the same number of electrons, protons, and neutrons?
Answer:

Deuterium (1D2),

Number of electrons (1),

Number of proton (1),

Number of neutrons (2 -1 = 1)

Question 22. What are canal rays?
Answer:

Canal rays or anode rays are the positively charged rays that are seen moving from the anode towards the cathode in a specially designed discharge tube when a high voltage is applied across the electrodes.

Question 23. If an atom contains one electron and one proton, will it carry any charge or not?
Answer:

An electron is a negatively charged particle, whereas a proton is a positively charged particle and the magnitude of their charges is equal. Therefore, an atom containing one electron and one proton will not carry any charge. Thus, it will be a neutral atom.

Question 24. Based on Thomson’s model of an atom, explain how the atom is neutral as a whole.
Answer:

According to the Thomson model, an atom consists of a positively charged sphere, and the electrons are embedded in it. The negative and positive charges are equal in magnitude. So, the atom as a whole is electrically neutral.

Question 25. Based on Rutherford’s model of an atom, which sub-atomic particle is present in the nucleus of an atom?
Answer:

According to Rutherford’s model of an atom nucleus is positively charged, therefore, protons are present inside the nucleus.

Question 26. Sketch Bohr’s model of an atom with three shells.
Answer: Three shells or orbits are presented by the letters K, Z, M (or the numbers, n = 1, 2, 3) M-shell (n = 3)

UP Board Class 9 Science Chapter 4 Structure Of The Atom Bohrs Model Of An Atom With Three Shells

Question 27. Name the three sub-atomic particles in an atom.
Answer:

The sub-atomic particles present in an atom are electrons, protons, and neutrons.

Question 28. If K and L-shells of an atom are full then what would be the total number of electrons in the atom?
Answer:

The maximum number of electrons that can occupy K and Z-shells of an atom are 2 and 8 respectively. Therefore, if the K and Z-shells of an atom are filled, then the total number of electrons in the atom would be (2 + 8) =10 electrons.

Question 29. If the number of electrons in an atom is 8 and the number of protons is also 8, then

  1. What is the atomic number of the atom?
  2. What is the charge on the atom?

Answer:

Atomic number = Number of protons = 8

The charge on the atom is zero because several electrons and several protons are equal.

Question 30. With the help of the table given on NCERT page 92, find out the mass number of oxygen and sulfur atoms.
Answer:

Mass number = Number of protons + number of neutrons

∴ Mass number of oxygen =8 + 8 = 16

and mass number of sulphur = 16 + 16=32

Question 31. For the symbols, H, D, and T tabulate three sub-atomic particles found in each of them.
Answer:

UP Board Class 9 Science Chapter 4 Structure Of The Atom Three Sub Atomic Particles

Class 10 Biology Notes For Components of Ecosystem

Food Chains And Webs

How does the food prepared by green plants or stored in dead matter move in a series of organisms feeding on one another?

Trophic Levels

They are levels in the biotic community at which organisms obtain their food.

Environment Ecosystem What Are Its Components Trophic Levels

  1. First Trophic Level (T1). It is the level of food manufacturers or producers which prepare food from inorganic raw materials with the help of solar energy.
  2. Second Trophic Level (T2). It is the level of herbivores or primary consumers which directly feed on plants or plant parts.
  3. Third Trophic Level (T3). It consists of primary carnivores or secondary consumers which prey upon herbivores.
  4. Fourth Trophic Level (T4). It is the level of secondary carnivores or tertiary consumers which feed on primary carnivores.
  5. Fifth Trophic Level (T5). It consists of tertiary carnivores which prey upon secondary carnivores.

Food Chains

A food chain is a sequence of trophic levels through which food passes in a biotic community from producers to ultimate carnivores. Here, members of one trophic level become food for members ofthe next trophic level.

Actually food chain is a summary of who eats whom. A food chain may have 3-5 trophic levels. It is rarely more. The various steps of a food chain are producers and various categories of consumers.

  1. Producers. They constitute the first trophic level (T1) or base of a food chain. Producers manufacture organic food from inorganic raw materials with the help of solar energy. The major producers are plants in terrestrial ecosystems and phytoplankton in aquatic ecosystems.
  2. Herbivores. They constitute the second trophic level (T2). Herbivores feed on plants or plant parts, for Example caterpillars, grasshoppers, deer, rabbits, mouse.
  3. Primary Carnivores. They belong to the third trophic level or T3. Primary carnivores or secondary consumers feed on herbivores, Example Frog, Fox.
  4. Secondary Carnivores. They are generally large-sized carnivores that belong to the fourth trophic level or T4. They prey upon primary carnivores, Example Hawk. Kingfisher.

Terrestrial Food Chains

  1. Three Steps Forest Food Chain
    Plants →Deer →Lion
    (producers) (herbivores) (carnivores)
  2. Four Steps Grassland Food Chain
    Grass →Insects →Insectivorous Birds→ Hawk
    (producers) (herbivores) (carnivores 1) (carnivores 2)
  3. Five Steps Grassland Food Chain
    Grass→Insects → Frog →Snake→ Hawk
    (producers) (herbivores) (carnivores 1) (carnivores 2) (carnivores 3)

Environment Ecosystem What Are Its Components Food Chains, Forest,Grassland, Pond

Aquatic Food Chains

1. Four-Step Pond Food Chain

Aquatic Plants Crustaceans Fish King Fisher
(producers) (herbivores) (carnivores 1) (carnivores 2) (carnivores 3)

2. Five-Step Ocean Food Chain

Phytoplankton Zooplankton Small fish Larger fish Shark
(producers) (herbivores) (carnivores 1) (carnivores 2) (carnivores 3)

Ecological Pyramids

Ecological pyramids (Elton 1927) arc graphic representations of different ecological parameters like number, biomass, and energy arranged successively with producers at the base, herbivores above them, followed by primary carnivores and top carnivores at the top. The quantity is indicated by the length of the box. It is also written in figures.

Pyramid of Numbers. It is a graphic representation of the number of individuals in a unit area sequence-wise with producer the base, herbivores above them, carnivores L carnivores successfully above them. Only very few top carnivores are supported by a producer population of millions of grassland.

Environment Ecosystem What Are Its Components Pyramid Of Numbers In A Grassland

Pyramid of Biomass. It is a graphic representation of biomass or living organic matter present per unit area sequence-wise with producers at the base, herbivores above them followed by carnivores in various categories. Maximum biomass is present in producers. It decreases stepwise with the rise in trophic level.

Environment Ecosystem What Are Its Components Prymid Of Biomass In Terrestrial Ecosysytem

Pyramid of Energy. It is a graphic representation of energy contained per unit area in various trophic levels with producers at the base, herbivores above them followed by carnivores. Maximum energy is contained in producers with a minimum in the top carnivores.

Flow of Energy and Ten Percent Law

In any ecosystem the flow of energy is unidirectional. Producers obtain energy from sunlight. About 1% of solar energy falling on leaves is changed into organic food. From here the food energy’ passes into herbivores. Herbivores cannot pass back the energy’ to producers nor do the producers pass back energy into the environment.

Lindeman (1942) found that during the transfer of energy from one trophic level to the next higher trophic level only 10% of energy is transferred. 90% of energy is lost in transfer, digestion, respiration, and other body activities. It is lost to the environment. The phenomenon is called the 10% law.

Because ofthe large amount of energy lost at every’ transfer, energy reaching higher trophic levels becomes small. Because the number of top carnivores is always small.

Environment Ecosystem What Are Its Components Pyramid Of Energy

Suppose 1 million Joules of solar energy falls on producers. Producers have 1% efficiency, i.e., they will trap 10,000 Joules of energy in organic food. Herbivores will store 1000 Joules of food energy at 10% efficiency, primary carnivores 100 Joules of food energy while secondary carnivores shall have only 10 Joules of food energy.

Because of the smallness of food energy available at higher trophic levels, both the number of trophic levels as well as members of higher trophic levels will be small.

Biological Magnification (Biomagnification)

What is the phenomenon responsible for the increase in the concentration of persistent chemicals with the rise in trophic levels?

It is an increase in the concentration of persistent soluble chemicals with the rise in trophic levels.

Toxic chemicals are sprayed over crops to protect them from pests and pathogens. They are also sprayed in homes and commercial places to kill insects, mosquitoes, flies, and cockroaches.

Anumberoftoxic chemicals and heavy metals are also released by industries. All these enter waterbodies, soil, groundwater, and then plants. From plants, the persistent chemicals pass into herbivores and from them to carnivores.

Since there is regular entry ofthe chemicals in the food chain, their concentration increases with time in each trophic level. They prove harmful and even fatal to higher trophic-level animals.

Man is also harmed to a great extent as he obtains these chemicals from several sources- water, plant food, milk and meat An example of biomagnification is the study of the concentration of DT in water and the food chain.

Water→Plankton →Small Fish →LargerFish →Fish Eating Birds
0.003pm 0.04 ppm  0.5ppm        2.0ppm                25ppm

The population of fish-eating birds declined in the 1960s due to it. DDT as a pesticide has been banned since then. However, there are several other persistent and toxic chemicals.

Activity 5.5 Pesticide Levels in Food Items and Beverages

Readymade food items and beverages have been found to contain pesticide traces in the past. Many states had to ban the sale of such food items and beverages.

The pesticides are present in the groundwater as well as inside the plant products because they are used to protect the plants from pests.

The sprayed pesticides enter the soil, groundwater as well as water bodies besides the plants and their products. Therefore, beverages and readymade food items prepared from such groundwater as well as plant produce shall contain traces of pesticides.

Farmers must switch over to organic farming where pesticides are not sprayed. Buildings must be provided with double doors. Industries must have safety measures to control pollution.

Food Web

It is a network of several food chains present in an ecosystem where they get interconnected at various trophic levels. It makes each food available to several populations and a population capable of feeding on several foods.

Environment Ecosystem What Are Its Components A Food Web With Many Interconnected Food Chains

In a food web rabbits can be eaten by foxes, wildcats, wild dogs, jackals, wolves, and hawks. Hawk can feed on snakes, rabbits, and several types of birds. Therefore, in the food web, no consumer is dependent upon a single type of food.

Environment Ecosystem What Are Its Components Difference Between Food Chain And Food Web

It does not get starved if its favorite food is in short supply. Similarly, if an organism becomes overpopulated, it will be noticed more by predators and therefore, eaten more in number.

On the other hand, an endangered species will not be eaten to a large extent. It will get the opportunity to recover. Thus, the food web is a mechanism for maintaining the stability of an ecosystem.

Question 1. What are trophic levels? Give an example of a food chain and state the different trophic levels init?
Answer: Trophic levels are levels in the biotic community at which organisms obtain their food. The food chain is the sequence of trophic levels through which food passes in a biotic community from producers to ultimate carnivores. A typical grassland food chain consists of the following trophic levels.

Grass →Insects →Insectivorous birds →Hawk
(producers) (herbivores) (carnivores 1) (carnivores 2)

Question 2. What is the role of decomposers in the ecosystem?
Answer: Decomposers are microscopic saprophytes like many bacteria and fungi, which feed on organic remains and organic excretions. They pour digestive enzymes over the organic matter for its simplification and solubilization.

The process releases many inorganic nutrients previously trapped in organic matter. The process is called mineralization. The soluble simple organic substances are picked up by decomposers for their growth. The released minerals become available to plants for their growth and manufacture of food.

Our Environment Multiple-Choice Questions

Question 1. In an ecosystem, 10% of energy available for transfer from one trophic level to the next is in the form of

  1. Heat Energy
  2. Chemical energy
  3. Mechanical energy
  4. Light energy

Answer: 2. Chemical energy

Question 2. Soil fertility is determined by its ability to

  1. Decay organic matter
  2. Hold organic matter
  3. Hold water
  4. Support life

Answer: 4. Support life

Question 3. A food web is constituted by

  1. Relationship between the organisms and the environment
  2. Relationship between plants and animals
  3. Various interlinked food chains in an ecosystem
  4. Relationship between animals and the environment

Answer: 3. Various interlinked food chains in an ecosystem

Question 4. How much of the net primary productivity of a terrestrial ecosystem is eaten and digested by herbivores?

  1. 100%
  2. 10%
  3. 1%
  4. 0.1%

Answer: 2. 10%

Our Environment Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1. Construct an aquatic chain showing four trophic levels.
Answer: Algae → Crustaceans → Small Carnivorous Fish → Large Carnivorous Fish.

Question 2. Explain biological magnification with the help of an example.
Answer: Biological magnification or biomagnification is the increase in the concentration of a soluble but persistent chemical per unit weight of an organism with the rise in trophic level. A study on DDT concentration has given the following data.

Water → Plankton → Small Fish → Large Fish → Fish Eating Birds 0.003 ppm 0.04 ppm 0.5 ppm 2.0 ppm 25 ppm

Question 3. Observe the food chain: Plant (1000 J) → Goat → Lion.

  1. If autotrophs occupy the first trophic level and are called producers what are herbivores called?
  2. How much energy does the Lion get in the above chain?

Answer:

  1. Herbivores are primary consumers.
  2. As per the 10% law, 1000 J of energy in plants is transferred as 100 J of energy in goats and only 10 J in Lions.

Question 4. The maximum concentration of harmful chemicals accumulates in human beings. State the phenomena involved and justify this statement.
Answer: Biological magnification Human beings are omnivorous. They live at the top of every type of food chain. Harmful chemicals enter the human body through groundwater, plant produce, milk, eggs, and meat. They remain in the human body and continue to accumulate. As a result, the maximum concentration of harmful chemicals occurs in human beings.

Question 5. In the food chain, (Grass → Deer→ Lion), operating in a forest what will happen if all the (a)Lions are removed (b) Deer are removed?
Answer:

Removal of lions will result in a rapid increase in the population of deer. The rise in deer population will ultimately result in the eating of the whole grass and desertification of the area. This will cause the death of deer.

The removal of deer will result in excessive growth of grass but no food for lions. As a result, lions will die.

Question 6. List two reasons to show that the existence of decomposers is essential in an ecosystem.
Answer:

  1. Decomposers feed on organic remains and cleanse the earth of the same.
  2. They release minerals from organic remains that are utilized by plants for the synthesis of organic matter.

Question 7. A food web is shown as a series of branching lines of food chains. Explain and justify the statement.
Answer: The food web is a network of many food chains that get connected at different trophic levels so that several alternate feeding connections develop amongst the organisms. These alternate feeding connections appear as branching lines of the food chains.

Question 8. Why are bacteria and fungi called decomposers? List any two advantages of decomposers to the environment.
Answer: Bacteria and fungi are called decomposers as they bring about the degradation of organic remains. For this, they secrete digestive enzymes over the organic remains. The enzymes convert complex substances into simple and soluble substances. The latter are used as food by the decomposers. During this decomposition, the inorganic nutrients forming part of organic matter are released.

Advantages: Decomposers cleanse the earth of organic remains. They bring about the release of inorganic nutrients which become available for recycling.

Question 9. What is an ecosystem? List its main components. We do not clean ponds or lakes but an aquarium needs to be cleaned regularly. Explain.
Answer:

Components of Ecosystem, Biotic components are producers, consumers, and decomposers. Abiotic components are climate, soil, topography, inorganic nutrients, and organic remains.

An aquarium is an incomplete and imbalanced artificial ecosystem that lacks producers, food chains, and decomposers. There is no self-cleaning as occurs in ponds or lakes.

Question 10. “Our food grains such as wheat and rice, vegetables, fruits, and even meat are found to contain varying amounts of pesticide residues.” State the reason to explain how and why it happens.
Answer: Cereals, vegetable, and fruit crops are sprayed with pesticides to protect them from pests. These pesticides not only enter the crop plants but also pass into soil, groundwater, and nearby water bodies. Animals drinking the contaminated water and eating pesticide-containing fodder will also come to have the pesticides. Therefore, green vegetables, fruits, and meat will have varying amounts of pesticides.

Question 11. “Energy flow in a food chain is unidirectional.” Justify this statement.
Explain how the pesticides enter the food chain and subsequently get into our bodies.
Answer:

Energy from the sun enters the food chain at the level of producers. The efficiency is 1%. From producers energy (as food energy) passes to herbivores. The efficiency is 10%. The rest of the energy is dissipated in transfer, digestion, and respiration.

Primary carnivores similarly can retain only 10% of the energy obtained from herbivores. Because ofthe regular dissipation of energy at every step and decrease of energy with the rise in trophic level, energy cannot flow back. Thus, its flow is unidirectional from

Sun→producers → herbivores → primary carnivores→ secondary carnivores.

Pesticides are sprayed over crops to protect them from pests. They enter the plants, soil, vegetation, groundwater, and water bodies and hence all types of food chains and from there to humans as man is a consumer of water, crop products, milk, eggs, meat, etc. all of which get contaminated with pesticides.

Question 12. How do pesticides spray over crops and fruit plants enter our bodies and accumulate? Name the phenomenon by which their concentration increases in our body.
Answer: Pesticides sprayed over plants enter their bodies and reach their edible parts. They also seep into the ground and contaminate groundwater. Groundwater also enters plants and further contaminates them.

From vegetables, fruits, other edibles, and groundwater pesticides regularly enter the human body and accumulate. They also enter the food chains which pass the same to human beings. Accumulated pesticides become highly toxic and cause harm to vital organs.

The increase in the concentration of non-biodegradable substances with time and with the rise in trophic levels is called biomagnification.

Question 13. Define an ecosystem. Draw a block diagram to show the flow of energy in an ecosystem.
Answer: Ecosystem. It is a self-sustained segment of nature that has a biotic community and abiotic components of the environment both interacting and exchanging materials between them.

Question 14. Define a food chain. Design a food chain of four trophic levels. If a pollutant enters at the producer level, the organisms of which trophic level will have the maximum concentration of the pollutant in their bodies. What is the phenomenon called?
Answer: Food Chain. It is a sequence of trophic levels through which food passes in the biotic community from producers to ultimate consumers. It is also called the series of eating and being eaten.

Maximum Concentration of Pollutant. Members of the highest trophic level have the maximum concentration of pollutants. The phenomenon of a rise in the concentration of nonbiodegradable pollutants with the rise in trophic levels is called biomagnification.

Question 15.

  1. Construct a terrestrial food chain comprising four trophic levels.
  2. What will happen if we kill all the organisms at one trophic level?
  3. Calculate the amount of energy available to the organisms at the fourth trophic level if the energy available to the organisms at the second trophic level is 2000 J.

Answer:

  1. Grass → Insects → Frog → Snake.
  2. If all the organisms of one trophic are killed (/) The animals of higher trophic levels will starve and die Organisms of the lower trophic level will increase.
  3. 2nd Trophic level → 3rd Trophic level → Fourth Trophic Level

⇒ \(2000 \mathrm{~J}{10 \%} 200 \mathrm{~J} {10 \%} 20 \mathrm{~J} .\)

Question 16. What are decomposers? List two consequences of their absence in the ecosystem. 
Answer: Decomposers. They are microscopic organisms like many bacteria and fungi that break down complex components of organic remains and excretions into simpler forms releasing minerals in the process.

Consequences of Their Absence. Organic remains and excretions will pile up (it) There will be no recycling of minerals and other nutrients in nature.

Question 17.

  1. From the following group of organisms, create a food chain that is the most advantageous for human beings in terms of energy Hawk, Rat, Cereal plant, Goat, Snake, Human beings
  2. State the possible disadvantage if the cereal plant is growing in soil rich in pesticides.
  3. Construct a food web using the organisms mentioned above.

Answer:

  1. Cereal Plants→ Human Beings.
  2. Pesticides enter the cereal plants and undergo accumulation with the rise of trophic levels as they are non-biodegradable. The phenomenon is called biomagnification.

Environment Ecosystem What Are Its Components Biomagnification

Question 18.

  1. Define ecosystem.
  2. Autotrophs are at the first level of the food chain. Give reason.
  3. In a food chain of frogs, grass, insects and snakes assign trophic levels to frogs. To which category of consumers do they belong?

Answer:

  • Only autotrophs can manufacture food and transfer this food and its energy to the next level of the food chain.
  • Grass→Insects→Frogs→Snakes
  • Primary consumer Secondary consumer Tertiary consumer

Question 19.

  1. State the reason for the consequence of the decrease in the number of carnivores in an ecosystem.
  2. In a food chain, state the trophic level at which the concentration of harmful chemicals is maximum.
  3. Why is it so?

Answer: (cr) Decrease in carnivores will increase the number of herbivores being their prey.

Top carnivores. The harmful chemicals are non-biodegradable. They accumulate in higher qua rise in trophic level.

Question 20. What is meant by trophic level in a food chain? The energy flow in a food chain is
Answer: Trophic Level. It is the level in the biotic community at which a particular group of organisms obtain Energy flow.

Question 21. Complete the following flow chart based on the ecosystem and its components

Environment Ecosystem What Are Its Components Ecosystem And Its Componets

Answer:

  1. Aquatic,
  2. Abiotic
  3. Air, water, soil, temperature, light.
  4. Plants and animals.

Question 22.

  1. Create a food chain of insects, hawks, Grass, snakes, and frogs.
  2. Name the organism at the third trophic level.
  3. Which organism will have the highest concentration of non-biodegradable chemicals?
  4. Name the phenomenon associated.
  5. If 10,000 joules of energy are available to frogs, how much energy will be available to snakes

Answer:

  1. Grass Insect Nake Hawk.
  2. Frog,
  3. Hawk
  4. Biomagnification
  5. 1000 joules (10,000/10).

Question 23. What is an ecosystem? List any two natural ecosystems.
We do not clean ponds or lakes, but an aquarium needs to be cleaned regularly. Why
Answer: Pond ecosystem, Forest ecosystem.

Question 24. In the following food chain, only 2J of energy was available to peacocks. How energy would have been present in the grass? Justify your answer. Grass→Grasshopper→ Frog → Snake→Peacock
Answer: Transfer of energy from the lower to the next higher trophic level follows the 10% law. 2 J energy in a peacock ha from 20 J energy of a snake. 20 J energy of the snake has been obtained from the 200 J energy of the frog.

Frog gets this much energy from the 2000 J (200 x 10) energy of a grasshopper. 2000 J energy of grasshopper has come from 20,000 J (2000 x 10) energy of grass.

Question 25.

  1. What is meant by garbage? List two classes into which garbage is classified.
  2. What do we mean when we say that the “enzymes are specific in their action”?

Answer: Garbage is rubbish formed of mostly household waste and similar waste from vegetable and fruit markets as well as food industries, Example food left-over, spoiled food, vegetable and fruit peels, tea leaves, milk powder, polythene bags, wrappers, broken crockery, paper waste clothes, waste plastic and metallic articles.

Garbage consists of two types of waste, biodegradable and non-biodegradable. Biodegradable Garbage.

It is garbage that gets decomposed naturally by microbes, for Example, vegetable and fruit peels, food leftovers, paper, etc. Nonbiodegradable Garbage. It is garbage that cannot be disposed of by microbes, for example, broken crockery, plastic, and metallic wastes.

Enzymes are specific for various substrates. They require a particular pH temperature for their activity.

Question 26.

  1. Human beings are most adversely affected by biological magnification. State the reason.
  2. Why can ordinary washing of edibles (fruits and vegetables) not reduce the effect of biological magnification?

Answer: Biological magnification is the increase in the concentration of non-biodegradable or persistent chemicals with the rise in trophic level.

As human beings occupy the top position in various food chains, they receive the maximum concentration of these chemicals. Being long-lived, the harmful chemicals accumulate in the human body and cause toxic effects.

Washing vegetables and fruits can remove harmful chemicals from their surface. However, it cannot remove nonbiodegradable chemicals as they occur inside the food items.

Question 27.

  1. What are trophic levels in a food chain?
  2. Explain the flow of energy through the food chain.
  3. Write a four-trophic level food chain.

Answer:

  1. Trophic Levels. They are levels in the biotic community at which organisms obtain their food. Producers constitute the first trophic level (T1), herbivores the second trophic level (T2), primary carnivores the third trophic level (T3), and so on.
  2. Flow of Energy Through Food Chain.
  3. Grass →Insect →Insectivorous bird→Hawk.

UP Board Class 10 Biology For How Do Our Activities Affect The Environment Question and Answers

How Do Our Activities Affect The Environment Questions

India today is facing the problem of overuse of resources, contamination of water and soil, and lack of methods of processing waste. The time has come for the world to say goodbye to “single-use plastics”.

Steps must be undertaken to develop environment-friendly substitutes, effective plastic waste collection, and methods of disposal. Indore treated 15 lakh metric tonnes of waste in just 3 years, through biomining and bioremediation techniques.

Bioremediation involves introducing microbes into landfills to naturally ‘break’ it down. Biomining involves using trommel machines to sift through the waste to separate the ‘soil’ and the waste component.

The city managed to chip away 15 lakh metric tonnes of waste at the cost of around < 10 crore. A similar experiment was successfully carried out in Ahmedabad also.

Question 1. What is ozone and how does it affect any ecosystem?
Answer: Ozone is a molecule formed by three atoms of oxygen O3. Normal oxygen is 02 or formed of two atoms. Ozone is toxic if present in the lower atmosphere or troposphere.

It destroys the photosynthetic cells of plants and causes injury to mucous membranes, eye irritation, and internal hemorrhage. However, ozone present in the stratosphere is highly useful.

It protects the ecosystem from harmful UV radiations (UVC 100 – 280 nm, UVB 280 – 320 nm) by dissipating their energy. In case of ozone depletion, there would be a rise in skin cancers, cataracts, photobombing, a decrease in immunity, a fall in photosynthetic efficiency, and death of larvae.

Question 2. How can you help in reducing the problem of waste disposal? Give any two methods.
Answer: The following two methods can help in reducing the problem of waste disposal:

  1. Recyclable Waste. It should be separated from the rest ofthe garbage. Recyclable waste includes paper, cardboard, polythene, plastic, glass, metallic cans, etc. They are picked up by rag pickers for selling them to factories for recycling.
  2. Nonrecyclable Biodegradable Waste. It includes stale food, leftover food, vegetable peelings, fruit peelings, used tea leaves, prunings of the kitchen garden, etc. It can be converted into compost for your kitchen garden, or school garden or handed over to municipal waste disposal workers.

How Do Our Activities Affect The Environment Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1. What is ozone? How does it protect the organisms on the earth?
Answer: Ozone is a triatomic molecule that is formed by three atoms of oxygen, 03. Ozone present in the stratosphere filters out harmful high-energy UV radiations and thus protects the organisms on the earth from them.

Question 2. We often observe domestic waste decomposing in the by-lanes of residential colonies. Suggest ways to make people realize that the improper disposal of waste is harmful to the environment
Answer: Domestic waste is often thrown outside each home or at one corner of the street. This attracts pigs, stray cattle, and dogs who scatter the waste that starts decomposing and emitting a foul smell. The practice is unhygienic. Domestic waste must be segregated and the segregated waste must be lifted by municipal staff.

Question 3. Explain how ozone is formed in the atmosphere. How does it protect living beings from harmful radiations of the sun?
Answer: Ozone is formed in the stratosphere from O2 by the action of energy UV radiations.

⇒ \(\begin{gathered}
\mathrm{O}_2 \xrightarrow{\mathrm{UV}}[\mathrm{O}]+[\mathrm{O}] \\
\mathrm{O}_2+[\mathrm{O}] \longrightarrow \mathrm{O}_3 \text { (ozone) }
\end{gathered}\)

Ozone present in the stratosphere also dissipates the energy of harmful UV radiation. The latter, therefore, do not reach the earth.

Question 4. Why is the Government of India imposing a ban on the use of polythene bags? Suggest two alternatives to these bags and explain how this ban is likely to improve the environment.
Answer: Polythene is non-biodegradable. Discarded polythene bags choke drains, kill animals feeding on garbage, and pile up. They are being replaced by cloth/jute and paper bags. Cloth/jute bags can be used again and again. Along with paper bags, they are biodegradable.

Question 5. Recycling of paper, metal, plastic, and e-waste is done in most places. Mention the positive impact of this recycling process on the environment.
Answer: There will be less exploitation of resources in forming newer articles.

There will be less pollution as the recyclable articles are picked up as soon as they are discarded.

Question 6. It is said that there is a need to put a complete ban on the products containing aerosols. What are aerosols? Why is there a demand to ban them?
Answer: Aerosols are propellant gases that are used to release substances such as a fine spray, for Example perfumes, and deodorants. The gases used to be chlorofluorocarbons. Since they have strong ozone-depleting properties, there clamor for banning them. Chlorofluorocarbons have now been replaced by isobutene or methyl propane.

Question 7. In order anto individual so ? can contribute by becoming environmentally friendly. What practice
Answer:

  1. Use repeatedly reusable cloth bags instead of polythene bags.
  2. At home separation of biodegradable and nonbiodegradable wastes.
  3. Employment of containers used in packing at home, instead of throwing them after taking out the contained edibles.

Question 8. Damage to the ozone layer is a cause of concern.” Justify the statement. Suggest any two steps to limit this damage.
Answer: The ozone layer present in the stratosphere has thinned out by more than 8%. It has resulted in a 15-20% increased penetration of harmful UVB radiations reaching the earth.

They are causing increased skin cancers, snow blindness, cataracts, a fall in immunity, reduced photosynthesis, and a higher number of mutations.

Steps to Limit Damage:

  1. Stoppage of the use of chlorofluorocarbons.
  2. Stoppage of the use of halons.
  3. Replacing the ODS with safer chemicals.

Question 9. List 2/3 changes in habits that people must adopt to dispose of non-biodegradable waste to save the environment.
Answer:

  1. Use of cotton and jute bags for shopping.
  2. Segregation of household waste into biodegradable and non-biodegradable and placing them in separate bins.
  3. Adoption of three ‘Reduce, reuse, and recycle.

Question 10. Suggest two measures to manage the garbage we produce.  =As an individual what can be done to generate the least garbage? Give two points.
Answer:

Management of Garbage.

  1. Separation of garbage into biodegradable and nonbiodegradable, recyclable, and nonrecyclable portions.
  2. Handing over the recyclable garbage to rag pickers, and others to waste collectors.

Generate No Garbage.

  1. Use cloth bags or jute bags for shopping. Say no to polythene or plastic bags.
  2. Reuse glass and metallic containers instead of throwing them.

Question 11. How is ozone formed in the upper atmosphere? State its importance. What synthetic chemicals are responsible for the drop in the amount of ozone in the upper atmosphere? How can the use of these chemicals be reduced? Write one harmful effect of ozone depletion. Why did the amount of ozone in the atmosphere drop sharply in the 1980s?
Answer: Ozone is formed in the upper atmosphere or stratosphere from 02 by the action of high energy UV radiations

⇒ \(\begin{aligned}
& \mathrm{O}_2 \xrightarrow{\mathrm{UV}}[\mathrm{O}]+[\mathrm{O}] \\
& \mathrm{O}_2+[\mathrm{O}] \longrightarrow \mathrm{O}_3 \text { (ozone) }
\end{aligned}\)

Ozone present in the stratosphere dissipates the energy of harmful UV radiations ( 1 00-320 nm). The latter, therefore, do not reach the earth.

However, certain synthetic and other chemicals destroy the same, for example chlorofluorocarbons, and halons. They are called ozone-depleting substances (ODS). To the ozone layer, the use of ODS has to be reduced and leakage of these substances prevented.

Alternative chemicals that do not harm the ozone are being searched to replace the ODS. Cb) Release of ozone-depleting substances like CFCs from refrigerators, air conditioners, foam manufacturing industry, fire extinguishers, and aerosols. Harmful Effect of Ozone Depletion. Skin Cancer, Snow blindness.

Question 12. Complete the following table

Environment Ecosystem What Are Its Components Benfits Of Biotic Component

Answer:

  1. O2
  2. O3.
  3. Breathing
  4. Absorbs harmful UV radiations.

Question 13. Kulhads (disposable cups made of clay) and disposable paper cups, both are used as alternatives to disposable plastic cups. Which one of these can be considered a better alternative to plastic cups and why?
Answer: Disposable paper cups are a better choice as they are biodegradable and do not harm the ecology. Kulhads which are made of clay deprive the fields of their fertile topsoil.

Question 14. Why is the ozone layer getting depleted at the higher levels of the atmosphere? Mention harmful effects caused by its depletion.
Answer: The ozone layer present in the upper atmosphere has been getting depleted due to synthetic chemicals emanating from the earth, viz. chlorofluorocarbons (used in refrigeration) and halons used in fire extinguishers). They release chlorine which reacts with ozone breaking it into oxygen. Harmful Effect. More UV radiation reaches the earth. They cause skin cancer.

Question 15 What are decomposers? State the role of decomposers in the natural replenishment of the soil. Why are decomposers not helpful in decomposing plastic waste?
Answer: Decomposers do not possess enzymes for digestion on the breakdown of plastics

Question 16. State two methods of effective plastic waste collection in your school.
Answer: Use separate bins for recyclable waste, plastic waste, and biodegradable waste.

Question 17. Name any two uses of “single-use plastic” in daily life.
Answer:

  • Packaging of water, milk, food, biscuits, etc.
  • Formation of disposable articles like bowls, tumblers, plates, forks, spoons, etc.

Question 18. If we discontinue the use of plastic, how can an environmentally friendly substitute be provided?
Answer: Use thick glazed paper, jute or cloth, cardboard, metallic utensils, and earthen pots.

Question 19. Do you think microbes will work similarly in landfill sites as they work in the laboratory? Justify your answer.
Answer: Yes, microbes will work similarly in laboratory and waste dumps provided the conditions of the two are similar.

How Do Our Activities Affect The Environment Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.

  1. What is ozone? How is it formed in the atmosphere? Explain with equations.
  2. How is the ozone layer useful?
  3. Name the substances responsible for the depletion of the ozone layer.

Answer: Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs), halon, carbon tetrachloride, methyl; chloroform, methyl bromide, bromochloromethane.

Our Environment How Do Our Activities Affect The Environment Our enviroment

UP Board Class 10 Biology Our Environment Question and Answers

Question 1. Why are some substances biodegradable and some non-biodegradable?
Answer: There are two types of substances, biological origin and man-made. Biological origin waste articles can be degraded by decomposer organisms because they have enzymes to do so, for example, garbage, livestock waste, agricultural waste, paper, etc.

They are called biodegradable substances. Most man-made articles cannot be degraded by decomposers because they do not have enzymes to do so, for Example plastic, glass, crockery, and metallic cans. Such articles are called non-biodegradable substances.

Question 2. Give any two ways in which biodegradable substances would affect the environment.
Answer:

  1. Foul Smell. Biodegradable substances begin to stink after a few hours. They emit a foul smell.
  2. Pathogens and Pests. Pathogens and pests multiply rapidly in the heap. They spread diseases through flies, mosquitoes, cockroaches, and rats.

Question 3. Give any two ways in which non-biodegradable substances would affect the environment.
Answer:

Dumping Area. It becomes a source of pollution to groundwater and the emission of foul gases. There is a limit to the creation of new dumping areas as it makes the land barren and an eye sore.

Biological Magnification. Soluble persistent pesticides like DDT, and heavy metals (For example lead, cadmium, nickel, mercury) enter the food chain through soil, groundwater, and plants. They change and increase in concentration at higher trophic levels. Several diseases are caused by them.

Our Environment Paragraph-Based Question

The human body is made up of five important components of which water is the main component. Food as well as potable water are essential for every human being. The food is obtained from plants through agriculture. Pesticides are being used extensively for a high yield in the fields.

These pesticides are absorbed by the plants from the soil along with water and minerals and from the water bodies these pesticides are taken up by the aquatic animals and plants.

As these chemicals are not biodegradable, they accumulate progressively at each trophic level. The maximum concentration ofthese chemicals gets accumulates in our bodies and greatly affects the health of our mind and body.

Question 1. Why is the maximum concentration of pesticides found in human beings?
Answer: Human beings belong to lie lot of food chain

Question 2. Give one method that could be applied to reduce our intake of pesticides through food to some extent.
Answer: Organic farming of Biopesticides/through the washing of vegetables, fruit; and grains

Question 3. Various steps in a food chain represent

  1. Food Web
  2. Trophic Level
  3. Ecosystem
  4. Biomagnification

Answer: 2. Trophic Level

Question 4. About various food chains operating in an ecosystem, man is a

  1. Consumer
  2. Producer
  3. Producer And Consumer
  4. Producer And Decomposer

Answer: 1. Consumer

Our Environment Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1. Mention the basis of classifying substances as biodegradable and non-biodegradable. Give two examples
Answer: Putersxibility or the (lie ability to get decomposed or not. Biodegradable substances are decomposed by saprophytes, for example; food leftovers used leaves leaves.

Non-biodegradable substances are not decomposed by saprophytes as they do not have enzymes for them, for example, milk pouches, and aluminum foil.

Question 2. If nil the wastes we generate are biodegradable, what effect will this have on the environment? Write two virtues that will be imbibed if the people are made to understand that the generation of waste should be restricted to biodegradable only.
Answer: There will be no pilling up of waste, nor there will be pressure to acquire Jand for their disposal.

Biodegradable waste gets decomposed by saprophytes within 2 to 3 months producing manure, compost, biogas, etc. There will be recycling of nutrients. Decomposers release nutrients from biodegradable wastes.

The same arc is picked up by plants for their nutrition and growth. Virtues. Many diseases will disappear, and Earth will remain clean. Manure and compost will be available for crops, Biogas shall be available for energy and lighting. CM.

Question 3. Write two harmful effects of using plastic bags on the environment. Suggest alternatives to the usage of plastic bags. List any two practices that can be followed to dispose of the waste produced in our homes.
Answer: Harmful Effects, Plastic is non-biodegradable. Therefore, waste plastic bags cause pollution of land and water bodies, Waste plastic bags thrown indiscriminately block the drainage system, and They harm or even kill stray animals, Burning of waste plastic releases toxic gases. Alternatives. Use of jute or cloth bags, paper bags (if) Use of washable or biodegradable containers.

Separation of recyclable articles for rag pickers. Separation of biodegradable and non-biodegradable wastes in separate bins. Use of container bottles for storing articles in kitchens Composting of kitchen wastes for the kitchen garden.

Our Environment Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1. Distinguish between biodegradable and nonbiodegradable substances. List two effects of each of them in our environment
Answer:

  • Foul Smell. Biodegradable substances begin to stink after a few hours. They emit a foul smell.
  • Pathogens and Pests. Pathogens and pests multiply rapidly in the heap. They spread diseases through flies, mosquitoes, cockroaches, and rats.
  • Dumping Area. It becomes a source of pollution to groundwater and the emission of foul gases. There is a limit to the creation of new dumping areas as it makes the land barren and an eye sore.
  • Biological Magnification. Soluble persistent pesticides like DDT, and heavy metals (For example lead, cadmium, nickel, mercury) enter the food chain through soil, groundwater, and plants. They change and increase in concentration at higher trophic levels. Several diseases are caused by them.

Trademarks Question And Answers

Trademarks

Question 1. Concerning the relevant legal enactments, write short notes on the following: Well-known trademark
Answer: A Well-known trade mark about any goods or services is a mark that has become so popular among the public that uses such goods or services that the use of such mark about other goods or services, would be likely to be taken as indicating a connection between the goods & services and the first mentioned goods or services.

Question 2. Concerning the relevant legal enactments, write short notes on the following: Collective trademark
Answer:

Collective trademark – A collective trademark means a trademark distinguishing the goods or services of members of an association of persons, which is the proprietor of the mark, from those of others.

The application for registration of the collective mark should be accompanied by Regulations for use of the collective mark, specifying persons authorized to use the mark, conditions of membership, and conditions for use of the mark including sanction against misuse, and other prescribed matters.

Question 3. Concerning the relevant legal enactments, write short notes on the following: Inherently distinctive marks
Answer: A trademark acts as a sign that is capable of distinguishing the goods
or services of one trading entity from another, at the very least it has to be an inherently distinctive mark.

In the case of Imperial Tobacco Co. of India v. The Registrar of Trade Marks, AIR 1977 Calcutta 413 the Calcutta High Court held that the essential conditions of a trademark concerning goods proposed to be registered are distinctive or if not distinctive, or capable of distinguishing the goods as aforesaid, there may be some inherent qualities or distinguishing characteristics in the mark itself which may mark it so distinctive or capable of such distinguishing the goods of the applicant from others

Regarding the relevant legal enactments, write short notes on the following:

  1. Inherently distinctive marks
  2. A trademark acts as a sign that is capable of distinguishing the goods or services of one trading entity from another, at the very least it has to be an inherently distinctive mark.

Trademarks Distinguish Between

Distinguish between the following:

Question 1. ‘Certification trademarks’ and ‘collective trademarks’.
Answer:

Certification trademark – The certification trademark with goods means the mark which is used to show that the goods on which the mark appears are certified by some competent person in respect of certain characteristics of the goods such as origin, mode of manufacture, quality, etc. A certification trademark can be used in addition to the user’s own trademark 1114 on his goods.

Collective Trade Marks:

Question 2. Distinguish between the following: Trademark’ and ‘certification trademark’.
Answer:

The distinction between Trade Mark and Certification Trade Mark The term Trade mark has been defined under Section 2(1)(zb) of the Trade Marks Act, 1999 as a mark capable of being represented graphically and which is capable of distinguishing the goods or services of one person from those of others and may include the shape of goods, their packaging, and combination of colors; and a registered trademark or a mark used concerning goods or services to indicate or to indicate a connection in the course of trade between the goods or services, as the case may be, and some person having the right as proprietor to use the mark; and with other provisions of the Act, a mark used or proposed to be used with goods or services to indicate or so to indicate a connection in the course of trade between the goods or services, as the case may be, and some person having the right, either as proprietor or by way of the permitted user, to use the mark whether with or without any indication of the identity of that person and includes a certification trade mark or collective mark.

Certification Trade Mark:

Section 2(1)(e) of the Trade Marks Act, 1999 defines the term certification trademark as a mark capable of distinguishing the goods or services in connection with which it is used in the course of trade which are certified by the proprietor of the mark in respect of origin, material, mode of manufacture of goods or performance of services, quality, accuracy or other characteristics from goods or services not so certified and registrable as such in respect of those goods or services in the name, as proprietor of the certification trade mark, of that person.

Question 3. Distinguish between the following: ‘Registered proprietor of a trademark’ and ‘registered user of a trademark’.
Answer:

The registered proprietor of a trademark means the person for the time being entered in the register as proprietor of the trademark. In other words, a registered proprietor is simply the person whose name appears in the register containing the name of the owner proprietor of the trademark.

According to the provisions of Section 37 of the Trademark Act, the proprietor has an absolute right to assign the trade mark and thus as a consequence, the person to whom such rights to use the trademark arise becomes the ‘registered user’ of the trademark.

Section 49 Provides for registration as a registered user.

Section 50 deals with the power of the registrar to vary or cancel registration as a registered user on the ground that the registered user has used the trademark otherwise than under the agreement or used in such a way that is likely to cause confusion or registered user has failed to disclose any material fact.

Section 50 empowers the registrar to require the proprietor to confirm at any time during the continuation of registration as a registered user whether the agreement based on which the registered user was registered is still in force and if the reply is not received within 1 month then remove the name from the register.

Question 4. Distinguish between the following:‘Infringement of trademark’ and ‘passing off.
Answer:

Infringement of trademark:

Section 29 of the Act states that a registered trademark is infringed by a person who, not being the registered proprietor of the trademark or a registered under thereof using by way of permitted use, uses in the course of trade a mark which is identical with, or deceptively similar to, the trade mark, concerning any goods in respect of which the trade mark is registered and in such manner as to render the use of the mark likely to be taken as being used as a trade mark.

Accordingly, to constitute an infringement, the act complained of must fulfill the following requirements:

  1. The mark used by the person must be either identical with or deceptively similar to the registered trademark.
  2. The goods in respect of which it is used must be specifically covered by the registration;
  3. The use made of the mark must be in the course of trade in areas covered by the registration,
  4. The use must be in such a manner to render it likely to be taken as being used as a trademark. Whenever misuse of a trademark occurs, the proprietor can either, file a civil suit or file a criminal complaint under Sec. 134, suit for infringement, etc., to be instituted before the District Court of the Act.
  5. After examination of the complaint and in some cases after verification by the complainant, the Court issues an order directing the Crime Branch of the Police to search and seize offending goods, labels, and other materials.
  6. Wherever there is the slavish imitation of a trademark, it is advantageous to resort to criminal complaint ratherthan undergo the long and cumbersome process of a civil suit.
  7. The advantage of a criminal complaint is that it has immediate effect i.e., the premises of the suspected parties manufacturing, storing, selling, or offering for sale spurious goods, can be raided and the spurious goods can be seized.
  8. The problem involved in filing a criminal complaint is to obtain the cooperation of the enforcement authorities for timely and effective action.
  9. A criminal complaint can be filed even if a trademark is not registered. If the complainant can prove to the satisfaction of the Court that his mark enjoys sufficient reputation, the Court will issue a search and seizure order.
  10. By and large, in practice, a Magistrate is not inclined to grant the relief unless the complainant’s mark is registered.

Passing off:

  • Passing off is the infringement of a trademark, which is done in a manner where the trademark is not only deceptively similar to the trademark of other companies but also creates confusion for customers.
  • Factors that are considered while deciding on action for passing off include the nature of trade mark, degree of resemblances between the trademark, etc.

Question 5. Distinguish between the following: ‘Assignment of a trademark’ and ‘transmission of a trademark’ under the Trade Marks Act, 1999.
Answer:

  1. Section 37 entitles the registered proprietor of a trademark to assign the trademark for any consideration for such assignment. Section 39 provides that unregistered trademarks may be assigned or transmitted.
  2. Section 40 contains restrictions on assignments or transmission of trademarks where multiple exclusive rights would be created in more than one person concerning the same goods & services.
  3. The assignment is not deemed to be invalid if having regard to the limitation imposed, the goods are to be sold in different markets – either within India or through export.
  4. A certification trademark can only be assigned with the consent of the registrar.

Question 6. Distinguish between the following: ‘Trademark’ and ‘certification trademark’.
Answer: Distinction between Trade Mark and Certification Trade Mark The term Trade mark has been defined under Section 2(1)(zb) of the Trade Marks Act, 1999 as to mean a mark capable of being represented graphically and which is capable of distinguishing the goods or services of one person from those of others and may include the shape of goods, their packaging, and combination of colors; and A registered trade mark or a mark used concerning goods or services to indicate or to indicate a connection in the course of trade between the goods or services, as the case may be, and some person having the right as proprietor to use the mark; and Concerning other provisions of the Act, a mark used or proposed to be used concerning goods or services to indicate or so to indicate a connection in the course of trade between the goods or services, as the case may be, and some person having the

Attempt of the following:

Question 1. What are the acts that do not amount to infringement of a trademark under the Trade Marks Act, of 1999?
Answer:

Following are the acts that do not amount to infringement of a trademark under Section 30 of the Trade Marks Act, 1999

  1. If there is some restriction or limitation when the trademark is registered and if the trademark is used in a manner that is outside the scope of registration.
  2. Concerning parts or accessories of goods/products.
  3. To indicate the kind of quality of the product.

Question 2. Explain registered the provisionstrade marks of the Trade
Answer:

Section 29 enumerates the grounds which constitute infringement of a trademark. When a trademark is used by a person who is not entitled to use such a trademark under the law, it constitutes infringement.

A trademark is infringed if:

  • The mark is identical and is used in respect of similar goods or services.
  • The mark is similar to a registered trade mark and there is an identity of goods & services covered by trade mark.
  • The trademark is identical and is used concerning identical goods or services and such use is likely to confuse the part of the public.
  • Advertising of a trademark to take unfair advantages also constitutes infringement of a trademark.
  • Where the registered trademark consists of words, the spoken use of such words as well as visual representation for promoting the sale of goods would constitute infringement of the mark.

Question 3. What are the circumstances under which a registered trademark is deemed to be infringed under the Trade Marks Act, of 1999?
Answer: Section 51 of the Copyright Act, 1957 conterripIntOB olluollon In which n copyright shall be deemed to be Infringed.

This Section says that a copyright is infringed when any person without a license granted by the owner of the copyright or the Registrar of Copyright or In contravention of the conditions of a license so granted or of any condition imposed by a competent authority does

Anything for which the exclusive right is conferred upon the owner of the copyright, or Permits for profit any place to be used for the communication of the work to the public where such communication constitutes an Infringement of the copyright in the work unless he was not aware and had no reasonable ground for believing that such communication would be an infringement of copyright.

When any person makes for sale or hire or lets for hire or by way of trade display or offers for sale or hire, or distributes either for trade or to such an extent as to affect prejudicially the owner of the copyright, or by way of trade, exhibits in public, or Imports into India any infringing copies of the work.

However, the import of one copy of any work is allowed for the private and domestic use of the importer. Explanation to Section 51 clarifies that the reproduction of literary, dramatic musical, or artistic work in the form of cinematograph film shall be deemed to be an infringing copy.

Question 4. State the absolute grounds for refusal of registration of trademarks.
Answer:

The absolute grounds for the refusal of registration are the trademark which is devoid of any distinctive characteristic.

  1. The trademark designates the kind, quality, quantity, etc.
  2. The mark that has become customary is the current language.
  3. Telly Toy brought into the market a play toy named “Jump Bhola”, an aspiring balance, in which children can stand and jump. It became very popular among the kids. The spring was, however, made up of plastic, and hence it had many practical problems.

Question 5. Mera Khilona, another competitor company, came up with a similar toy with a different name “Jump Bheem” made of a material that solved all the practical problems that “Jump Bhola”, had. Keeping the above in view, answer the following:

  1. Can Mera Khilona claim patent protection for its product?
  2. Assuming that Mera Khilona adopted the same logo and style of writing as that of Telly Toy, can Mera Khilona claim trademark protection for its product?

Answer:

  1. What is Patent
    • A patent is an exclusive right granted to a person who has invented a new and useful article an improvement of an existing article or a new process of making an article.
    • The exclusive right is to manufacture the new article invented or manufacture an article according to the invented process for a limited period.
    • During the term of the patent the owner of the patent, i.e. the patentee can prevent any other person from using the patented invention.
    • Invention must be New and Useful It is a fundamental principle of Patent Law that a patent monopoly is granted only for inventions that are new and useful and which have industrial applications.
    • This is embodied in the definition of “invention”. The question of whether a particular invention is new and useful is often extremely difficult to decide as it depends upon the state of the prior art in the particular field which includes prior publication on the subject and prior user.
  2. Invention
  • As per Section 2(1) of the Patents Act, 1970: ‘Invention’ means a new product or process involving an inventive step and capable of industrial application.
  • Under Section 2(1)(a) of the Patents Act, 1970: ‘Inventive step’ means a feature of an invention that involves technical advance as compared to the existing knowledge or having economic significance or both and that makes the invention not obvious to a person skilled in the art.
  • As per Section 2(1)(l) of the Patents Act, 1970: New invention’ means any invention or technology which has not been anticipated by publication in any document or used in the country or elsewhere in the world before the date of filing of patent application with complete specification, i.e. the subject -matter has not fallen in public domain or that it does not form part of the state of the art.

Subject — Matter of Invention The question of whether there is an invention is a question of fact in each case. A new and useful application of an old principle may be a good subject matter.

An improvement on something known may also afford subject -matter; so also a new combination of different matters already known. A patentable combination is one in which the component elements are so combined as to produce a new result or to arrive at an old result in a better more expeditious or more economical manner.

Improvements The definition of the invention includes within its scope any new and useful improvement of any manner of manufacture, article, or substance whether patented or otherwise. However, the improvement to be patentable must independently satisfy the test of the invention.

In the present case, M/s Mera Khilona came up with the same Toy but with a material that solved the pre-existing practical problem, and hence with improvements qualifying the test of invention Mera Khilona can claim Patent in the present matters. The law of trademark, practically all over the world is based on three broad concepts:

Distinctiveness or distinctive character capable of distinguishing, Deceptive similarity or similarity or near resemblance of marks, and Same descriptive or similarity of goods. The purpose of the Act, as stated in the preamble, is to provide for the registration and better protection of trademarks for goods and services and to prevent the use of fraudulent marks.

In consonance with this object, the following fundamental principles of trademark law are embodied in the various provisions of the Act: Since registration confers on the proprietor a kind of monopoly right over the use of the mark, which may consist of a word or symbol legitimately required by other traders for bona fide trading or business purposes, certain restrictions are necessary on the class of words or symbols over which such monopoly right may be granted. This principle is recognized in the qualifications for registration laid down in Section 9.

Registration of a trademark should not interfere with the bona fide use by other persons of names or words in ordinary usage. This principle is embodied in Section 13 and Section 3.

Property rights in a trademark acquired by use are superior to similar rights obtained by registration under the Act; this is clear from the preamble which refers to “better protection of trade marks”, thereby necessarily implying the existence and availability of some protection under common law.

It, therefore, follows that prior users of trademarks should be protected against any monopoly rights granted under the Statute. This principle is enacted in Section 34. There are two main interests to be protected when a mark is presented for registration.

There is first the interest of the public. A trademark ought not to be registered if its use will be apt to mislead the public as to the origin of the goods they are purchasing.

There are also the interests of other existing traders who are entitled to object if the use of the trademark proposed for registration will be calculated to enable the applicant’s goods to be passed off to the public as other traders’ goods. These interests are protected by Sections 9 and 11.

Given the above M/s Mera Khilona will not be able to claim trademark protection for its products as it was likely to create confusion among the general public and customers as the conflicting trademark being in the same business.

Question 6. Explain the ‘deceptive similarity of a trademark’ with an example.
Answer: The deceptive similarity of Trade Mark is that a given two trademarks are such their nature that it is likely to deceive the public or cause confusion.

The following examples will clarify the position of deceptive similarity:

  1. Lakshmandhara and Amrit Dhara are deceptively similar.
  2. “Simatul” is likely to confuse and Deceptively similar to “Cibatul”.
  3. ‘Trevicol” was held to have Phonetically deceptive similarity to “FEVICOL”.

In Cadila Healthcare Ltd. Vs. Cadila Pharmaceutical LTD., the Supreme Court held that in an action for passing off on the basis of an unregistered trademark generally for deciding the question of deceptive similarity the following factors are to be considered:

  1. The nature of the marks i.e. whether the marks are word marks label marks or composite marks, i.e. both words and label works.
  2. The degree of resemblance between the marks is phonetically similar and hence similar in idea.
  3. The nature of the goods in respect of which they are used as trademarks;
  4. The similarity in the nature, character, and performance of the goods of the rival traders;
  5. The class of purchasers who are likely to buy the goods bearing the marks they require, on their education and intelligence and a degree of care they are likely to exercise in purchasing and/or using the goods;
  6. The mode of purchasing the goods or placing orders for the goods; and
  7. Any other surrounding circumstances which may be relevant in the extent of dissimilarity between the competing marks.

The weightage to be given to each of the aforesaid factors depends upon the facts of each case and the same weightage cannot be given to each factor in every case.

Note: “In answers to the questions based on case study, the students may write any other alternative answer with valid reasoning.”

Question 7. What rights are conferred by the registration of a trademark?
Answer: Registration of a Trade Mark confers the following rights on the registered proprietor:

  1. It confers on the registered proprietor the exclusive right to the use of the trademark with the goods or services in respect of which the trademark is registered.
  2. If the trademark consists of several matters, there is an exclusive right to the use of the trademark taken as a whole.
  3. It entitles the registered proprietor to obtain relief in respect of infringement of the Trade Mark in the manner provided by the Trade Marks Act, 1999 when a similar mark is used on
    • Same goods or services,
    • Similar goods or services,
    • In respect of dissimilar goods or services.
  4. Registration of a Trade Mark forbids every other person (except the registered unregistered permitted user) to use or to obtain the registration of the same Trade Mark or a confusingly similar mark about the same goods or services or the same description of goods or services about which the Trade Mark is registered.
  5. After registration of the Trade Mark for goods or services, there shall not be registered the same or confusingly similar trade mark not only for the same goods or services but also in respect of similar goods or services.
  6. Moreover, after registration of the trademark for goods or services, there shall not be registered the same or confusingly similar trademarks even in respect of dissimilar goods or services.
  7. Registered Trade Mark shall not be used by anyone else in business papers and advertising. The advertising should not be detrimental to the distinctive character or reputation of the trademark.
  8. There is a right to restrict the import of goods or services marked with a trademark similar to one’s trademark.
  9. There is a right to restrain the use of the trademark as a trade name or part of the trade name or name of a business concern dealing in the same goods or services.

Question 8. ’Passing off is a common tactic to use in a similar trade
mark.

  1. Describe the typical actions and trademark violations in ‘passing off an action of publicizing a body called ‘The University of Universal Learning’.
  2. Is it possible to resort to ‘passing off petition in an unregistered trademark?
  3. Does the Trade Marks Act, 1 999 govern an act of ‘passing off? If yes, why, and if no, why not?

Answer:

A cause of action for passing off is a form of intellectual property enforcement against the unauthorized use of a mark that is considered to be similar to another party’s registered or unregistered trademarks, particularly where an action for trademark infringement based on a registered trademark is unlikely to be successful (due to the differences between the registered trademark and the unregistered mark).

Passing off is a form of common law, whereas statutory law as such provides for enforcement of registered trademarks through infringement proceedings.

Passing off and the law of registered trademarks deal with overlapping factual situations, but deal with them in different ways. Passing off does not confer monopoly rights to any names, marks, or get-ups.

It does not recognize them as property in its own right. Instead, the law of passing off is designed to prevent misrepresentation in the course of trade to the public. A civil suit can be initiated under the law of passing off in respect of an unregistered trademark.

The suit for passing off can be initiated either in the District Court or in the High Court depending on the valuation of the suit.

The suit can be at the place where the rights holder or one of the rights holders actually and voluntarily resides or works for gain or carries on business.

In the given case, a civil suit can be initiated against the University of Universal Learning for an action of passing off.

The Indian trademark law statutorily protects trademarks as per the Trade Marks Act, 1999, and also under the common law remedy of passing off.

The passing off is a common law of tort that can be used to enforce unregistered trademark rights. Passing off action arises when an unregistered trademark is used by a person who is not the proprietor of the said trademark concerning the goods or services of the trademark owner.

It is a tort and actionable under common law. Section 27 of the Trade Mark, 1999 provides that no infringement action will lie in respect of an unregistered trademark but recognizes the common law rights of the trademark owner to take action against any person for passing off their goods or services.

Section 134 of the Trade Marks Act, 1999 provides that no suit for passing off arising out of the use by the defendant of any trademark which is identical with or deceptively similar to the plaintiff’s trademark, whether registered or unregistered shall be instituted in any Court inferior to a District Court having jurisdiction to try the suit

As per Section 11 (3) of the Trade Marks Act, 1999, a trademark shall not be registered if, or to the extent that, its use in India is liable to be prevented: By any law in particular the law of passing off protecting an unregistered trade mark used in the course of trade; or Under law of copyright.

Section 134 of the Trade Marks Act, 1999 provides that no suit for passing off arising out of the use by the defendant of any trademark which is identical with or deceptively similar to the plaintiffs’ trademark, whether registered or unregistered shall be instituted in any Court inferior to a District Court having jurisdiction to try the suit.

Further Section 135 states that the relief which a Court may grant in any suit for infringement or for passing off referred to in Section 134 includes injunction (subject to such terms, if any, as the Court thinks fit) and at the option of the plaintiff, either damages or an account of profits, together with or without any order for the delivery up of the infringing labels and marks for destruction or erasure.

With the above provisions, it can be clearly understood that the action of passing off has been taken care of in the provisions of the Trade Marks Act, 1999.

Since, there is a very minute difference between passing off and infringement, and in the common parlance passing off and infringement are supposed to be the same thing. Therefore, the Act has to take care of the provisions of the passing of.

The difference between action in passing and action in infringement had been clearly explained by the Hon’ble Supreme Court in the case of KavirajPandit Durga Dull Sharma vNavratna Pharmaceutical Laboratories, AIR 1965 SC 980.

Question 9. ‘There is no legislation which explicitly refers to dispute resolution in connection with domain names. This, however, does not mean that domain names are not to be legally protected to the extent possible under the laws relating to passing-off.” Discuss.
Answer: There is no legislation, which explicitly refers to dispute resolution in connection with domain names.

Although the operation of the Trade Marks Act, 1999 itself is not extraterritorial and may not allow for adequate protection of domain names, this does not mean that domain names are not to be legally protected to the extent possible under the laws relating to passing off.

Passing off is a form of tortuous action based on the object of protecting the goodwill that a trader has in his name, unlike an action for infringement of a trademark where a trader’s right is based on property in the name as such.

The law of passing off applies whenever there is the prospect of confusion between marks or where there is the prospect of confusion of identity through the unauthorized use of similar marks.

The protection of domain names in India has been in some ways, a favorable one, because the Courts in India have been more patient towards the concept of providing legal protection to domain names than to trademarks through the instrument of passing off.

Domain names serve the same functions as a trademark and are not mere addresses or like finding a number on the internet therefore, it is entitled to equal protection as trademarks. Domain names are entitled to the protection as trademark and trademark law applies to the activities on the internet and the mere fact that the petitioner has no registered domain name by itself may not stand in the way of passing off action.

Question 10. Only a registered trademark owner can give notice of
opposition. Discuss.
Answer: As per provisions of Section 21 of the Trade Marks Act, 1999 this statement is not correct.

Section 21 (1) provides that “any person may, within four months from the date of the advertisement or re-advertisement of an application for registration, give notice in writing in the prescribed manner and on payment of such fee as may be prescribed by the Registrar, of opposition to the registration”.

Therefore, there is no requirement for the person submitting his opposition to the registration of a trademark to be the registered owner of such trademark.

Having commercial or personal interests is also not necessary. Moreover, his bonafides are also immaterial to submit opposition to the grant of a trademark, The opponent does not necessarily have to be a registered proprietor of a trademark. He can be a purchaser, customer, or a member of the public likely to use the goods.

The rationale behind this is that the opponent is not only representing himself but the public at large because having two similar marks in the market can only confuse the public at large.

Every opposition shall be filed in compliance with the provisions of Section 21 in relevant format and form, along with prescribed fees.

Discuss briefly the grounds for ‘opposition to registration’ and ‘refusal to registration’ of a trademark.

In the case of Syed Mohideen v. Sulochana Bai, the Supreme Court of India stated that passing off right is a wider remedy than that of infringement.

This is because the passing-off doctrine operates on the general principle that no person is entitled to represent his or her business as the business of another person.

Discuss in detail the significant differences between trademark infringement and passing off.

Practical Questions

Read the following case and answer the questions given at the end:

One Shri Rama Krishna Bahadur the appellant in the present case, trading as M/s Om Perfumery, Makerganj, Mahatma Gandhi Road, Bhubaneshwar made an application to the Registrar of Trade Marks to register a trademark by Digitally signed by name “RAMAYAN” with the device of crown in Class 3 in respect on incense sticks (agarbattis, dhoops) and perfumeries etc.

One Shri Laxman Singh the respondent herein, was a dealer for the sale of the products of the appellant and was also trading as M/s Badshah Industries, Shitkohra, Purohit Colony, Bhubaneshwar.

The respondent herein filed a Notice of opposition to oppose the registration of the aforesaid trademark under Sections 9, 11(a), 11(b), 11(e), 12(1), 12(3), and 18(1) of the Trademarks Act, 1999 claiming that the impugned mark, being the name of a religious book, cannot become the subject matter of monopoly for an individual.

The appellant was in the business of manufacturing, trading, and marketing of incense sticks since 1981 and the respondent was a dealer of the appellant.

The goods under the trademark “RAMAYAN” have been advertised by him through various means including the publication of cautionary notices in newspapers, extensive use, wide advertisement, and the excellent quality of the products.

The trademark “RAMAYAN” and the carton in which the products are sold have become distinctive in such a manner that the use of the same or similar trademark or carton by any other person will cause confusion and deception in the trade and amongst the public. The sale was done through a network of dealers and distributors.

The respondent was one of the dealers of the appellant. After the termination of the dealership, the respondent started selling incense sticks under the trademark “RAMAYAN” written in the same style and manner.

The Assistant Registrar of Trade Marks, after holding that the impugned trademark consists of the device of a crown and the word “RAMAYAN” is capable of distinguishing the goods and is not included in the list of marks not registrable under the Act, by order dated 31st March 2004, dismissed the application filed by the respondent.

Taking into account the trademark, being the name of a religious book, cannot be a sufficient ground for refusal of registration under Section 9(2) of the Act and is not based on evidence on record that the feelings of any section of the Hindus having been hurt by its use concerning incense sticks.

Further, it was submitted that the Assistant Registrar of Trade Marks rightly held that the impugned trademark consists of device of the crown and the word is capable of distinguishing the goods of the appellant, and the trademark is not included in the list of marks not registrable under the Act.

It was further claimed that it has already been proved before the Court of Assistant Registrar that the appellant was using the trademark since 1 981 and hence, is the prior user in comparison to the respondent.

Being aggrieved by the other passed by the Assistant Registrar, the respondent preferred an appeal before the Intellectual Property Appellate Board. On January 10’h, 2005 the Board, set aside the other passed by the Assistant Registrar of Trade Marks (31-03-2004).

Aggrieved by the other passed by the IPAB (10-01-2005), the appellant has filed this appeal by way of special leave before the Supreme Court of India. Appellant contended that it was unfortunate the Board, misconstrued the observations of the Standing Committee in the 8th Report on the Trade Marks Bill, 1993.

It was also contended that the Board erred in law while setting aside the judgment of the Assistant Registrar of Trade Marks while holding adversely about its distinctiveness, the mark causing deception and not having been used legally. The respondent contended that the impugned mark, being the name of a religious book, cannot become the subject matter of monopoly for an individual.

He further contended that the mark “RAMAYAN” is not distinctive and is devoid of any distinctive character. The mark is capable of distinguishing the goods of one person from those of another.

It was also contended that the mark “RAMAYAN” is not registrable since it is the name of a famous and well-known religious book.

It was also claimed that more than 20 traders in Patna and many more are using the trademark and thus it has become public juris.

It was further submitted that the impugned mark is identical to the respondent’s mark “BADSHAH RAMAYAN” which is pending registration and the impugned registration will cause harassment to other traders and the purchasing public would be bound to be confused and deceived.

He further added that his application for the registration of the same trademark claiming user since 5th November 1986 is pending registration.

The Court observed that the word “RAMAYAN” represents the title of a book written by Maharishi Valmiki and is considered to be a religious book of the Hindus in our country.

Thus, using the exclusive name of the book “RAMAYAN”, for getting it registered as a trademark for any commodity could not be permissible under the Act.

If any other word is added as a suffix or prefix to the word “RAMAYAN” and the alphabet or design or length of the words are same as of the word “RAMAYAN” then the word “RAMAYAN” may lose its significance as a religious book and it may be considered for registration as a trademark.

However, in the present case, the Court finds that the appellant had applied for registration of the word “RAMAYAN” as a trademark.

It also finds that in the photographs, after adding “OM’s” to the word “RAMAYAN”, at the top and in between “OM’s and RAMAYAN”, the sentence, ‘Three Top Class Aromatic Fragrance”, is also written.

Thus, it is not a case that the appellant is seeking the registration of the word “OM’s RAMAYAN” as a trademark.

Further, from the photographs, it also found that the photographs of Lord Rama, Sita, and Lakshman are also shown on the label which is a clear indication that the appellant is taking advantage of the Gods and Goddesses which is otherwise not permitted.

There are many holy and religious books like the Quran, Bible, Guru Granth Sahib, Ramayan, etc., to name a few. The answer to the question as to whether any person can claim the name of a holy or religious book as a trademark for his goods or services marketed by him is clear ‘NO’.

About the artistic work said to have been created, there is no doubt that both the marks are identical in design, color, and scheme and the reproduction of photographs is in such a manner that an ordinary buyer would reasonably come to a mistaken conclusion that the article covered by one brand can be the article covered by the other.

Both parties have claimed to be manufacturing units engaged in certain goods. The respondent claimed that though he had been in the business since 1 980, he had developed and published the artistic work in 1986 and has also been using the mark as a trademark and claiming use since 1986 whereas the appellant herein claimed use of the trademark since 1987.

However, by applying the concerned authority, the appellant has claimed the use since 1981.

Further, in various pleadings in the Title Suits filed by the respondent herein, the appellant herein has admitted the use and publication of the artistic mark of the respondent before the date of claim OT the first use by the appellant, that is, 1987.

From these facts, it is clear that the respondent herein was using the artistic mark earlier in point of time to that of the appellant herein given the foregoing discussion, the Supreme Court of India does not find any irregularity in the order passed by the Intellectual Property Appellate Board consequently, the appeal fails and is accordingly dismissed.

Question 1. Analyze the judgment of the Supreme Court. Find out the reasons and provisions of law applied by the Court in giving such judgment.
Answer: In the present case, the Supreme Court of India while taking into account the following facts upheld the judgment of the PAB: 1.

  1. The court observed that the word “RAMAYAN” represents the title of a holy book written by Maharishi Valmiki and is considered to be a religious book of the Hindus in our country.
    • Thus, using the exclusive name of the book “RAMAYAN”, to get it registered as a trademark for any commodity could not be permitted under the Act.
    • If any other word is added as a suffix or prefix to the word “RAMAYAN” and the alphabet or design or length of the words are same as of the word “RAMAYAN” then the word “RAMAYAN” may lose its significance as a religious book and it may be considered for registration as a trade mark.
  2. In the present case, the court finds that the appellant had applied for registration of “RAMAYAN” as a trademark for his business.
    • It also finds that in the photographs, after adding “OM’s” to the word “RAMAYAN”, at the top and in between “OM’s and RAMAYAN”, the sentence, “Three Top Class Aromatic Fragrance”, is also written. Thus, it is not a case that the appellant is seeking the registration of the word “OM’s RAMAYAN” as a trademark.
    • Further, from the photographs, it also found that the photographs of Lord Rama, Sita, and Lakshman are also shown on the label which is a clear indication that the appellant is taking advantage of the Gods and Goddesses which is otherwise not permitted.
  3. There are many other holy and religious books like the Quran, Bible, Guru Granth Sahib, Ramayan, etc., to name a few.
    • According to the Court, no person can claim the name of a holy or religious book as a trademark for his goods or services.
  4. Concerning the creation of artistic work, there is no doubt that both the marks are identical in design, color, and scheme and the reproduction of photographs is in such a manner that an ordinary buyer would reasonably come to a mistaken conclusion that the article covered by one brand is the article covered by the other.
    • Both parties have claimed to be the manufacturing units in respect of certain goods.
  5. The impugned mark, being the name of a religious book, cannot become the subject matter of monopoly for an individual.
  6. Further, the respondent claimed that though he had been in the business since 1980, he had developed and published the artistic work in 1986 and has also been using the mark as a trademark and claiming use since 1986 whereas the appellant herein claimed use of the trademark since 1987.
    • However, by applying the concerned authority, the appellant has claimed the use since 1981. Section 9 and 1 1 of the Trade Marks Act, 1999 prohibits the registration of certain marks as trademarks.
    • In case of a mark that hurts the religious sentiments of any class or section of the citizens of India has been laid down as an absolute ground for refusal of registration of a trademark under section 9(2)(b) of the Act.
    • It comes under the absolute grounds for refusal of registration of a trademark. Section 11 deals with the relative grounds and section 12 states regarding honest concurrent use or other special circumstances. These two sections also deal with certain exceptions to the main rule.
    • The only question before the SC was whether the “registration of the word Ramayan as a trademark, being the name of a Holy Book of Hindus, is prohibited under Section 9(2) of the Trade Marks Act, 1999”.
    • Answering this question the court emphatically held “The answer to the question as to whether any person can claim the name of a holy or religious book as a trademark for his goods or services marketed by him is NO”.
    • Also, the court very specifically added that if there was a prefix or a suffix to the word Ramayan that was of the same “length as the word Ramayan then Ramayan may lose its significance as a religious book and it could be considered for registration as a trademark”.

Question 2. Do you agree with the order passed by the Assistant Registrar of Trademarks Registry? Explain the concept of domain names mentioned under trademark law 
Answer: 

No, the order passed by the Assistant Registrar is not proper. The impugned trademark consists of the device of a crown and the word “RAMAYAN” is capable of misleading, causing confusion and deception in the minds of the public.

Concept of Domain Names: Domain names are human-friendly forms of Internet addresses. A domain name is a unique name that identifies a website. For example, the domain name of the Tech Terms Computer Dictionary is “techterms.com.”

  • Each website has a domain name that serves as an address, which is used to access the website. Whenever we visit a website, the domain name appears in the address bar of the web browser. Some domain names are preceded by “www” (which is not part of the domain name), while others omit the “www” prefix.
  • All domain names have a domain suffix, such as .com, .net, or .org. The domain suffix helps identify the type of website the domain name represents.
  • For example, “.com” domain names are typically used by commercial websites, while “.org” websites are often used by non-profit organizations. Some domain names end with a country code, such as “.dk” (Denmark) or “.se” (Sweden), which helps identify the location and audience of the website.
  • When we access n website, the domain name is translated to an IP address, which defines the server where the website is located. This translation is performed dynamically by a server called the Domain Name Server (DNS).
  • Domain names are formed by the rules and procedures of the Domain Name System (DNS). Technically, any name registered in the DNS is a domain name.
  • It is commonplace for traders to have their electronic mail address and use the same in respect of their goods /services as trade names.
  • In other words, the domain name is being used as a trade name or trademark, and the Registrar will, subject to the usual criteria of the Act, permit domain names to be registered as trademarks, if otherwise registerable.
  • Elements of the domain name such as “.com” or “.co.in” are considered to be non-distinctive, much in the same way as “Ltd” and “Pic”.

As a general rule, one should consider whether the remainder of the mark is descriptive or non-distinctive; if so, there is likely to be an objection under Section 9(1) (a) of the Act. The rights to take rigorous and drastic actions against any infringement cases connected with the registered and protected domain name within the Indian jurisdictions are essentially covered by these rights granted to the registrant of the domain name by any regional Trademarks Office of India.

In this connection, the opinion and judgment of the law courts of India, essentially including the Apex Court, are expressed explicitly during the handling of many domain-name-related law cases, particularly the cases of Satyam Infoway Ltd. Sifynet Solutions Pvt.

Ltd, and Tata Sons Ltd. vs Manukosuri and Others. Within three months of the publication of the trademark in the Trade Marks Journal, should the trademark not be opposed by a third party, it will proceed for registration and the Trade Marks Registry will accordingly issue a registration certificate.

Requisites of Registration: The registration of a trademark confers upon the owner the exclusive right to the use of the registered trademark and indicates so by using the symbol (R) concerning the goods or services in respect of which the mark is registered and seek the relief of infringement in appropriate courts in the country. The exclusive right is however subject to any conditions entered on the register such as limitation of area of use etc.

  • Also, where two or more persons have registered identical or nearly similar marks due to special circumstances such exclusive rights do not operate against each other.
  • The register of trade mark currently maintained in electronic form contains inter alia the trade mark the class and goods/ services in respect of which it is registered including particulars affecting the scope of registration of rights conferred or disclaimers, if any; the address of the proprietors; particulars of trade or other description of the proprietor; the convention application date (if applicable); where a trade mark has been registered with the consent of proprietor of an earlier mark or earlier rights, that fact.
  • The Trade Marks Act, 1999 does not expressly list any requisites for registration of a Trade Mark.
  • The requirements for registration and the definition of a trademark have converged. Instead of detailing requisites for registration, grounds for refusal are listed in Section 9(1), (2), and (3) and Section 11 which conversely are requisites for registration.
  • Most of the substantive law laid down by the Trade & Merchandise Marks Act, of 1958 remains valid and would hold the field in respect to administering the provisions of the Trade Marks Act, of 1999.
  • From the previous operation of trademark law, four categories of trademarks were made out i.e., names, signatures, words, and other distinctive marks.
  • Most of the principles relating thereto would hold good under the new dispensation too. Now any mark that is a trademark may be registered for any goods or services if it is not hit by any of the two categories of grounds for refusal or other specific prohibitions.
  • The first requisite is that it should be a trademark within the meaning of the Trade Marks Act, 1999 which concept itself imports many conditions as has been mentioned earlier in the legal concept of trademark. There emerge many conditions from the definition of trademark in Section 2(1)(zb).
  • The identification and distinguishing functions performed by the trademark must be fulfilled by the mark sought to be registered as a trademark under the Act.
  • The next pre-requisite distinctive character emerges from the presence of words “capable of distinguishing goods of one person from those of others” in the definition of trademark in Section 2(1)(2b).
  • A mark shall be trade trademark only if, in addition to fulfilling other conditions in the definition of trademark, it also satisfies the requirement of being a distinctive character. That distinctive character may be inherent or an acquired one.

Purpose the Trademark System serves

  1. It identifies the actual physical origin of goods and services. The brand itself is the seal of authenticity.
  2. It guarantees the identity of the origin of goods and services.
  3. It stimulates further purchases.
  4. It serves as a badge of loyalty and affiliation.
  5. It may enable consumers to make a lifestyle or fashion statement.

Capable of Distinguishing the Goods or Services: A mark that has a direct reference to the character or quality of the goods/services is considered as inherently not capable of distinguishing.

If the reference to the character or quality is only indirect or suggestive, the mark may be considered as possessing a sufficient degree of inherent capacity to distinguish.

Thus, the legal requirements to register a trademark under the Act are: – The mark should be capable of being represented graphically.

It should be capable of distinguishing the goods or services of one undertaking from those of others.

Duration and Renewal of Trademark: Trademark protection in India is perpetual and subject to renewal of the registration after every 10 years.

The renewal application can be filed six months before the expiry of the validity period of the trademark. Section 25 of the Act allows registration of a trademark for 10 years.

In keeping with the generally accepted international practice and to reduce the workload of the Trade Marks Office, section 25 allows.

Renewal of registration for successive periods of 10 years, from the date of the original registration to the last renewal. to facilitate the renewal of registration, section 25(3) provides for a grace period of six months for payment of the renewal fee after the expiry of registration, subject to the payment of the prescribed surcharge.

Sub-section (4) provides for the restoration of the trademark to the register and renewal of the registration on payment of renewal fees. Unlike patents, copyrights, or industrial designs, trademark rights can last indefinitely if the owner continues to use the mark and seek its renewal. However, if a registered trademark is not renewed, it is liable to be removed from the register.

An application for restoration of the expired trademark can filed to the Registrar within one year from the expiration of the last registration of the trademark under Section 25(4) of the Trademark Act, 1999 accompanied by the prescribed fee. The Registrar shall while considering the request for restoration of the expired trademark look at the interest of other affected persons.

Upon the restoration of the expired trademark, a notice must be sent by the Registrar to the proprietor regarding such restoration and the same must be advertised in the official Journal. After the advertisement is made in the Trademark Journal regarding the restoration of the expired trademark, the Registrar invites objection against restoration.

If no such objection is made then the trademark is restored in the register for the next 10 years.

In case of any objection, the Registrar conducts a hearing and after hearing both the parties it passes a decision on whether to restore the trademark or not.

If somebody else applies for registration of the expired trademark, then the proprietor has to file an objection against the third party who has applied for registration of the expired trademark.

Restoration of an expired trademark protects the proprietor from duplicity and enables to maintenance of the exclusivity of the brand. If the expired trademark is not restored then the brand opens up in the market and can be exploited by anyone.

Thus, to protect the rights of the proprietor that are attached to the trademark, it is necessary to restore the trademark.

Thus, it can be said that the Trademark Act. 1S99 and Trademark Rules of 2002 (further amended in 201 3) provide the liberty to the proprietor of the trademark that even if the trademark has expired he can apply for restoration of the expired trademark at any point in time only if the Registrar has not issued a notice to the proprietor in FORM 03.

Should the rights holder of a trademark come across a trademark that is deceptively similar to their mark and which has been published in the Trade Marks Journal, they can oppose the grant of the impugned mark within three months of the publication of the journal.

A trader acquires a right of property in a distinctive mark merely by using it upon or in connection with his goods irrespective of the length of such user and the extent of his trade. Priority in the adoption and use of a trademark is superior to priority in registration [Consolidated Foods Corporation v. Brandon & Co. Pvt. Ltd., AIR 1965 Bom 35].

In Ramdev Food Products (P) Ltd. v. Arvind Bhai Rambai Patel, 2006 SCC 726, the Apex Court held that the registration of trademarks is envisaged to remove any confusion in the minds of the consumers. If, thus, goods are sold that are produced from two sources, the same may lead to confusion in the minds of the consumers.

In a given situation, it may also amount to fraud on the public. A proprietor of a registered trademark indisputably has a statutory right thereto.

In the event of such use by any person other than the person in whose favor the trademark is registered, he will have a statutory remedy in terms of section 21 of the Trade & Merchandise Marks Act, 1958.

Ordinarily, therefore, two people are not entitled to the same trademark, unless there exists an express license on that behalf. Further the Supreme Court in Commissioner of Income-taxi.

Finlay Mills Ltd., AIR 1951 SC 464, held that the expenditure incurred on registration of trade mark is capital expenditure and thus allowable to deduction under the Income-tax Act.

Kinds of Trademark: Trademarks can be divided into the following categories: Service Mark is the same as a trademark except that it identifies and distinguishes the source of a service rather than a product.

Normally, a mark for goods appears on the product or its packaging, while a service mark appears in advertising for the services. It includes service-oriented establishments, such as banking, communication, education, finance, insurance, boarding, lodging, construction, repairs, etc.

Certification Trade Mark means a mark capable of distinguishing the goods or services in connection with which it is used in the course of trade which are certified by the proprietor of the mark in respect of its origin, material, mode of manufacture of goods or performance of services, quality, accuracy or other characteristics from goods or services not so certified and registrable as such under Chapter IX in respect of those goods or services in the name, as proprietor of the certification trade mark, of that person (Section 2(1)(e) of the Act).

Examples are AGMARK, HALLMARK, 151 Mark et al. Collective Mark is a trademark that distinguishes the goods or services of members of an association of persons not being a partnership within the meaning of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932 which is the proprietor of the mark from those of others.

It is provided for the benefit of members of an association of persons (but not partnership) and such inclusion of ‘collective mark’ is intended to benefit the traditional Indian family trademarks [Section 2(1)(g)].

Well-known trademark as per Section 2(1)(zg) of the Trade Marks Act, 1999 refers to a trade mark which about any goods or services, means a mark which has become so to the substantial segment of the public that uses such goods or receives such services that the use of such mark concerning other goods or services would be likely to be taken as indicating a connection in the course of trade or rendering of services between those goods or services and a person using the mark with the first-mentioned goods or services.

A mark, that has been designated as a well-known mark, is accorded stronger protection. The Act casts an obligation on the Registrar to protect a well-known mark against an identical or similar trademark.

Unconventional Trademarks: Unconventional trademarks are those trademarks that get recognition for their inherently distinctive feature.

Unconventional trademarks include the following categories:

Color Trademark: If a particular color has become a distinctive feature indicating the goods of a particular trader it can be registered as a trademark. For example, Red Wine.

Sound Marks: Signs which are perceived by hearing and which are distinguishable by their distinctive and exclusive sound can be registered as sound marks. For example, Musical notes.

Shape Marks: When the shape of goods, and packaging have some distinctive feature it can be registered. For example, Ornamental Lamps.

Smell Marks: When the smell is distinctive and cannot be mistaken for an associated product it can be registered as a smell mark. For example, Perfumes.

On the whole, a trademark is an important means to protect the goodwill and reputation of a Business. While filing a trademark, the applicant can choose any aforementioned types of trademarks based on the nature of the mark.

Provisions Related to Registered User under Trade Marks Act, 1999 Provisions relating to registered users are discussed in sections 48 to 54 of the Act.

Section 50 empowers the Registrar to vary or cancel registration as a registered user on the ground that the registered user has used the trademark otherwise than under the agreement or in such a way as to cause or likely to confuse, or deception or that the proprietor registered user misrepresented or has failed to disclose any material facts for such registration or that the stipulation in the agreement regarding the quality of goods is not enforced or that the circumstances have changed since the date of registration, in such a way that at the date of such application for cancellation they would not have justified registration of the registered user, etc.

However, the Registrar has been put under an obligation to give a reasonable opportunity of hearing before passing orders for cancellation of registration.

Section 51 empowers the Registrar, at any time during the continuance of the registration of the registered user, by a notice in writing, to require the registered proprietor to confirm to him within one month, whether the agreement based on which the registered user was registered is still in force, and if such confirmation is not received within one month, the Registrar shall remove the entry thereof from the Register in the prescribed manner. The Act also recognizes the right of registered user to take proceedings against infringement.

Section 54 provides that the registered user will not have a right of assignment or transmission.

However, it is clarified that where an individual registered user enters into a partnership or remains in a reconstituted firm, the use of the mark by the firm would not amount to assignment or transmission.

Read and analyze the following case study and answer the questions given at the end:

A Dutch SME produces its additives in China under the name Roi Jaguar. Their General Manager in China is tasked with making sure that the brand is protected under Chinese law. At one point, the Chinese General Manager leaves the company.

Soon after he leaves, the Dutch SME discovers a very similar product on the Indian market called Roi Lynx. Both brands thus exist with the same word followed by the name of a species of big cat.

After some research, the Dutch SME found out that after quitting the job, its former General Manager started competing against it with very similar products.

Also, after consulting the China IPR SME Helpdesk, the SME finds out that the former General Manager has registered the trademarks of the company in China in his name instead of under the Dutch company in China.

The situation escalated due to some other related outstanding issues for which the former General Manager still demands certain payments.

The Dutch company refuses, so the former General Manager goes to the Local Authority of Industry and Commerce (AIC) and shows them the trademark certificate of Roi Jaguar, which results in the AIC confiscating the infringing products of the Dutch SME that carry the name, Roi Jaguar.

As the Chinese trademark registration is in the name of the former General Manager, and the Dutch SME does not have the legal right to the name Roi Jaguar, the former General Manager legally closes down the business of the Dutch SME about the brand Roi Jaguar.

The Trademark registration carried out by the former General Manager was done in bad faith due to his existing relationship with the Dutch SME.

The Dutch SME thus filed for a trademark cancellation as the trademark was registered in bad faith, and then subsequently applied for the trademark itself.

After first having filed the trademark cancellation, which temporarily stopped infringement of the Roi Jaguar trademark, the Dutch SME continued to produce the product, but under a different product name.

Before the new product name was used, the company checked that there were no conflicting trademarks that had already been registered in China, concerning additives for that new name. The Dutch SME then registered the wordmark, logo, and the Chinese character name of the new product.

Once the cancellation was concluded and the trademarks were applied for in the Dutch SME’s name, the Dutch SME was able to put its products under the Roi Jaguar name back on the market Be on top of trademark registrations in China, and make sure the registration of the trademarks is conducted in your company name.

Draft your contracts with care and with the assistance of legal professionals and translators to make sure that all terms, conditions, and obligations are clear for both parties.

Question 1. How was the former General Manager successful in legally closing down the business of the Dutch SME brand Roi Jaguar in China?
Answer: After quitting his job the former General Manager of the Dutch SME had started competing against it with very similar products.

When the Dutch SME consulted the China IPR SME Helpdesk, the SME discovered the fact that the General Manager had the trademark of the company in China registered in his name instead of getting it registered in the name of the Dutch company in China.

The former General Manager went to the local Authority of Industry and Commerce (AIC) and showed them the trademark certificate of Roi Jaguar registered in his name, which resulted in the AIC confiscating the infringing products of the Dutch SME that carried the name Roi Jaguar.

As the Chinese trademark registration was in the name of the former General Manager, and the Dutch SME did not have the legal right to use the trademark of Roi Jaguar, the former General Manager succeeded in getting the business of the Dutch SME closed down legally concerning the brand, Roi Jaguar.

The case study points out in the lessons learned that in China, Be on top of trademark registrations, and make sure that the registration of the trademark is carried out in your own company’s name.

Draft the contracts with care and with the assistance of legal professionals and translators to make sure that all terms, conditions, and obligations are clear for both parties

Question 2. Explain how was Dutch SME able to put its products under the Roi Jaguar name in the Chinese market.
Answer: The system of international registration of Trade Marks is governed by the Madrid Agreement and Protocol, which are open to any State that is a party to the Paris Convention for the Protection of Industrial Property.

The system of international registration has several advantages for trademark owners. The trademark registration carried out by the former General Manager in his name was done in bad faith and with mala fide intentions taking advantage of his existing relationship with the Dutch SME.

The Dutch SME thus filed for a Trade Mark cancellation as the Trade Mark was registered in bad faith, and then subsequently applied for the Trade Mark in its name itself

After first having filed the trademark cancellation application, which temporarily stopped the activity of infringement of the ‘Rol Jaguar’ trademark, the Dutch SME continued to produce the product, but under a different product name.

Before the new product name was used, the company checked that there were no conflicting Trade Marks that had already been registered in China, concerning additives for that new name. The Dutch SME then registered the word mark, logo, and the Chinese character name of the new product in its name.

Once the cancellation was concluded and the trademark was applied for in the Dutch SME’s name, the Dutch SME was able to put its products under the ‘Roi Jaguar’ trade name back in the market.

Question 3. If tomorrow the Dutch SME operates in India by registering its trademark in India and someone infringes its trademark, then how will the Dutch SME get relief in suits for infringement/passing off under the Indian law quoting relevant case law, if any?
Answer: The relief in the suit could be realized under Civil Litigation.

It says that a suit can be instituted either under the law of passing off or for trademark infringement under the Trade Marks Act, 1999 depending on whether the trademark is unregistered, pending registration, or registered respectively.

This means thereby, if the trademark is not registered in India then the remedy available is under the ‘Law of Passing off’ and if the trademark is registered then the statutory remedy available under the Trade Marks Act, 1999 can be availed.

The important aspects of the legal action are as follows:

  • Jurisdiction and Venue: The suit for passing off and/or infringement can be instituted either in the District Court or in the High Court depending on the valuation of the suit and the pecuniary jurisdiction of the Courts. Apart from the pecuniary jurisdiction, the other aspect that needs to be taken care of while deciding the appropriate forum for the suit is the territorial jurisdiction of the Court. The suit can be filed in the Court which has territorial jurisdiction over the place where the rights holder or one of the rights holders actually and voluntarily reside or work for gain or carry on its business.
  • Elements of the Complaint: In the complaint, the rights holder is required to demonstrate that: The alleged infringing act involves a mark that is identical or similar to a trademark of the rights holder;

The infringing representation of a trademark is being used in connection with goods or services and might lead to confusion in the mind of the general public regarding the origin of the infringing goods/services; The unlawful act interfered with the trademark holder’s rights of exclusive use of the trade mark and caused the rights holder consequent economic loss.

Section 135 of the Trade Marks Act, 1999 expressly stipulates that the relief which a Court may grant in any suit for infringement or for passing off referred to in Section 134 includes injunction (subject to such terms, if any, as the court thinks fit) and at the option of the plaintiff, either damages or an account of profits, together with or without any order for the delivery up of the infringing labels and marks for destruction or erasure.

According to Section 28(1) of the Act, the registration of a trademark ensures the exclusive right of the registered proprietor to use the registered trademark and the right to obtain relief in respect of infringement of the trademark.

Only a registered proprietor or registered user can institute a suit for infringement against an identical or deceptively similar mark to his registered trademark according to Section 27(1).

A registered trademark owner does not have an exclusive right to operate the identical/ nearly similar mark against another registered trademark owner.

In the landmark judgment Clinique Laboratories LLC and Another vs. Gufic Limited and Another, the Court held that a suit for infringement by a registered trademark owner/proprietor is certainly maintainable against another registered trademark owner/proprietor.

It was further held that Section 124(5) of the Act also allows the grant of an interim injunction in such suits for infringement.

Please read the Case below carefully and answer the questions at the end in detail:

PayPal Accuses Paytm of Trademark Infringement in India:

On November 18, 2016, PayPal Inc. filed an objection at the Indian Trademark Office accusing Paytm, an Indian mobile wallet company, of trademark infringement.

The objection comes at the heels of the recent windfall made by the latter on account of a cash-strapped nation moving rapidly towards a cashless normal.

For six years, Paytm had been steadily becoming a household name in middle-class India- until it hit the jackpot on November 8, 201 6 when Indian Prime Minister Narendra Modi announced the demonetization of currency notes of 500 and t 1,000 – invalidating overnight 80% of the country’s cash in circulation.

The drastic move was taken to tackle the vast amounts of unaccounted “black” money in the Indian economy that was being used for bribery, corruption, tax evasion, and for funding separatists and terrorists- and has since invoked strong emotions, both in favor and against, from the media, politicos, and citizens across the country.

A direct consequence of the demonetization has been an unprecedented increase in electronic transactions – with Paytm being at the forefront.

Adding over half a million users aday, Paytm saw its daily transactions grow from 2.5 million to over 7 million a day and a 10-fold increase in the amount of money added to Paytm accounts in the first 14 days after the demonetization was announced. Rapid growth in that short time earns Paytm not only great profits and valuation but also the attention of global competitors like PayPal.

In its complaint, PayPal accused Paytm of having “slavishly adopted the two-tone blue color scheme” of PayPal’s logo in its entirety, especially where “The first syllable in each mark is in dark blue and the second syllable in a light blue color”.

Further, PayPal also noted that “both marks begin with the term ‘PAY’ which consumers tend to remember more than the second syllable, with the marks being of similar length.”

The Indian Trademark law requires an applicant to publish and advertise their logo for 4 months in which objections can be raised by third parties. Paytm applied for trademark registration on July 18, 201 6- which means its four-month window expired on November 1 8, 201 6.

PayPal’s lastday complaint has thus raised many an eyebrow on why a company like PayPal- with ample legal resources at hand- would wait right until the end of the window to file the complaint.

Needless to say, it was only after the demonetization that PayPal felt threatened (read jealous) by the rise of Paytm in a market that until now has been ignored, underserved, and/or underperformed by PayPal.

It must be noted that PayPal had not registered its trademark in India until after the demonetization – a fact that Paytm’s lawyer will undoubtedly cite at trial.

Notwithstanding the timing and PayPal’s motivations, the complaint and the subject matter do raise a few important points.

The names PayPal and Paytm are similar to the extent both start with the word “Pay”- however given that both companies operate in the electronic transactions space, PayPal would have a tough time winning the argument based on just the word “Pay” in the name.

There is a precedent strongly in favor of Paytm here. In MicronixIndia Vs. Mr. J.R. Kapoor, for example, the Supreme Court observed that micro-chip technology being the basis of many of electronic products, the word “micro” has much relevance in describing the products, and therefore no one can claim monopoly over the use of the said word.

Applying the same logic in this case, the word “Pay” has little distinctive relevance in the market to which PayPal and Paytm cater.

PayPal’s stronger argument lies in the use of a similar color combination. Even a brief look at the two logos betrays the similarity between the two.

The color tones while not identical – are undoubtedly similar – the first syllable is a darker shade of blue while the second syllable is light blue.

Technically, the Paytm logo uses color codes #042e6f (dark blue) and #00baf2 (light blue) while PayPal uses 002d8b (dark blue) and #009bel (light blue)-so one could argue that the colors are not identical.

The difference is more easily seen if you compare just the colors side by side. It will remain to be seen if the difference is big enough for consumers and more importantly for the Court.

The Indian Trademark Law does protect colors to the extent that the colors or combination of colors confer a distinctive characteristic to a product or service.

Schedule 10 of the Trade Marks Act, 1999, pertains specifically to the use of colors:

A trademark may be limited wholly or in part to any combination of colors and any such limitation shall be taken into consideration by the tribunal having to decide on the distinctive character of the trademark.

So far as a trademark is registered without limitation of color, it shall be deemed to be registered for all colors.

PayPal will undoubtedly argue that the differences in the two sets of colors are minimal and inconsequential to the consumer’s eye – an ordinary consumer will not be able to discern the difference and naturally confuse the two logos.

This approach gives more weight to the overall look and feel of the brand- and at least partly abandons the question of whether PayPal has a trademark right over the use of particular colors.

It also opens up the discussion to whether the whole package- name, font, and colors – used by Paytm and PayPal are similar enough for ordinary consumers in India to be deceived into buying the wrong product.

Consumer perception can be a tricky territory for PayPal, especially after Paytm’s customer base increased manifold over the last five weeks.

The key question the Court should ask is: Would an ordinary consumer intending to use PayPal be confused into using Paytm instead The fact of the matter is that ordinary consumers like regular workers, grocers, and Uber drivers use and hear the word Paytm all day most of whom would not even know about PayPal.

PayPal’s foray into India has been limited largely to eBay shoppers, freelancers, and IT software developers who are exposed to the global economy much more than the ordinary consumer- which means that if PayPal and or Paytm were to conduct a survey, it would likely result strongly in favor of Paytm.

However, had PayPal chosen to file a trademark infringement lawsuit before the demonetization move was announced (perhaps anytime in 201 1 -2014) when Paytm had not yet established its household name status, it would have been a much easier battle (albeit also bearing much less rewards).

PayPal would however be much better placed to win this dispute in virtually any other country (If and when Paytm expands its operations in those countries)- where PayPall still is recognized as a global payments leader.

Question 1. What prompted PayPal to file a complaint on the last day against Paytm though it had ample legal resources but waited until the end of the window?
Answer: The relevant facts of the case (in brief) need to be analyzed before really answering the question as to what prompted PayPal file the complaint on the last day against Paytm though it had ample legal resources and still waited till the end of the window.

The facts are, that on November 18, 2016, Paypal Inc. had filed an objection at the Indian Trademark Office accusing Paytm of trademark infringement.

The timing of the filing of the objection is interesting since it has come very soon after the windfall of business gains made by Paytm on account of the change in the cash-strapped nation moving rapidly towards a cashless normal.

It is further stated that for six years (since its incorporation) Paytm had steadily become a household name in India i.e… inhabited largely by the middle class till it got benefitted and hit the jackpot on November 8.

2016 when the Indian Prime Minister, Shri. Narendra Modi announced the decision to demonetization of currency notes in the denominations of 1 500 and 1,000 respectively, thereby invalidating overnight 80% of the country’s cash currency in circulation.

It is important to note that the said move was taken by the Government of India to tackle the problem of vast amounts of unaccounted “black” money operating in the Indian economy which was being inter alia used for illegal purposes like bribery, corruption, tax evasion and for funding separatists and terrorists as well, and thus the measure invoked strong emotions, both in favor as well as against the decision from all quarters including the media, the politicos and the citizens across the country.

This also proves that Paytm got naturally benefited from this move being one of the only few players operating in the Indian market.

As per the facts, the direct consequence of demonetization was that there was an unprecedented increase in electronic transactions — with Paytm being the beneficiary at the forefront.

As per the statistics available, there was an addition of over half a million users per day, and Paytm also saw its daily transactions grow from 2.5 million to over 7 million a day and a 10-fold increase in the amount of money added to Paytm accounts in the initial first 14 days after the demonetization was announced. Rapid growth in that short time earned Paytm not only great profits and valuation but also the attention of global competitors like PayPal.

In its complaint, as per the facts available, PayPal has accused Paytm of having “slavishly adopted the two-tone blue color scheme” of PayPal’s logo in its entirety, especially where “The first syllable in each mark is in dark blue and the second syllable in a light blue color”. Further, PayPal also noted that “both marks begin with the term ‘PAY’ which consumers tend to remember more than the second syllable, with the marks being of similar length.”

Needless to say, it was only after the demonetization that PayPal felt threatened (read jealous) by the rise of Paytm in a market that until now had been ignored, underserved, and /or underperformed by PayPal.

Another important fact is that PayPal had not registered its trademark in India until after the demonetization and thus its intention to carry out a huge business in India is suspect.

Coming to the position of law on the subject, it is important to note that while the law, Limitation Act, 1963 in particular, prescribes different limitation periods for filing different suits, appeals, and applications in the court of law (for their respective causes of action), it does not prohibit one from filing the same even on the last day of the end of period of limitation.

Furthermore, it is only in cases wherein the limitation period is not prescribed by the statute that the court is to look into the facts of the case to ascertain if there were bottlenecks or an unreasonable delay.

Therefore, in the facts of the case, PayPal is entitled to file its objections/ complaint even on the last day of the period of limitation and all facts provided by the other party are extraneous to the issue at hand.

No adverse inference can be drawn from the said facts against PayPal. The objection being filed within the period of limitation (prescribed period) merits consideration (by the Tribunal) from the limitation standpoint.

Question 2. Is Paytm and PayPal branding similar? Would you think PayPal & Paytm
have similar trademarks? What is the extent of similarity?
Answer: The names ‘PayPal’ and ‘Paytm’ are undoubtedly similar but the similarity is to the extent that both start with the word “Pay” and relying only on the fact that both companies operate in the electronic transactions space, PayPal would have a tough time winning the argument based on the presence of just the word “Pay” in both the names.

The precedent provided in the facts of the case is strongly in favor of Paytm here. Thus, in the case of Micronix India v. JR Kapoor, MAN U/SC/1 166/1994: 1994 Supp (3) SCC 215: 1994 (3) SCALE 732, the Supreme Court had observed that “micro-chip technology being the base of many of the electronic products, the word “micro” has much relevance in describing the products.

Further, the word ‘micro’ is descriptive of the microtechnology used for the production of many electronic goods which daily come to the market daily, no one can claim monopoly over the use of the said word.” Applying the same logic to the case at hand, the word “Pay” has little distinctive relevance in the market to which PayPal and Paytm cater.

In the given set of facts, PayPal has also argued and insisted on the use of a similar color combination by Paytm as that of PayPal to make a case for non-grant of trademark rights to Paytm. It is however provided in the facts of the case that even a brief look at the two logos betrays such similarity between the two. The color tones, while not identical, are undoubtedly similar the first syllable is a darker shade of blue while the second syllable is light blue.

It is further provided in the facts that, technically speaking, the Paytm logo uses color codes #042e6f (dark blue) and #00baf2 (light blue), while PayPal uses #002d8b (dark blue) and #009be1 (light blue). Therefore, one could argue that the colors are not identical. The difference is thus more easily seen if one compares just the colors side by side.

From the legal standpoint, section 2(h) of the Trade Marks Act, 1999 defines the term ‘Deceptively similar as: ‘A mark shall be deemed to be deceptively similar to another mark if it so nearly resembles that other mark as to be likely to deceive or cause confusion.’

Further, Section 1 1 of the Trade Marks Act, 1999 lays down the relative grounds for refusal of registration wherein it is stated that ‘a trademark shall not be registered if, because of its identity with an earlier trade mark and similarity of goods or services covered by the trade mark; or its similarity to an earlier trade mark and the identity or similarity of the goods or services covered by the trade mark, there exists a likelihood of confusion on the part of the public, which includes the likelihood of association with the earlier trade mark.’

In the facts of the case, PayPal had not registered its trademark in India before the application for registration by Paytm. Furthermore, it is stated that Ordinary consumers like regular workers, grocers, and uber drivers use and hear the word Paytm throughout the day daily most of whom would not even know about Paypal.

Paypal’s foray into India has been limited largely to eBay shoppers, freelancers, and IT software developers who are exposed to the global economy, which means that if Paypal and Paytm were to conduct a survey, it would likely result strongly in favor of Paytm.

Taking the aforementioned facts and the law into consideration, it is very difficult to conclude that the branding of Paytm and Paypal are similar or that both have similar trademarks. The similarity between the two is not substantial enough to cause the customer of one brand to confuse it with the other one.

Question 3. Can colors or color combinations be trademarked in India? Would an ordinary consumer be confused?
Answer: The Indian Trademark Law (Trade Marks Act, 1999) does protect color. to the extent, that the colors or combination of colors confer a distinctive characteristic to the trademark applied to the product or service.

Section 10 of the Trade Marks Act, 1999, pertains specifically to the use of colors It lays down that: A trademark may be limited wholly or in part to any combination of colors and any such limitation shall be taken into consideration by the tribunal having to decide on the distinctive character of the trade mark.’ So far as a trademark is registered without limitation of color, it shall be deemed to be registered for all colors.

In the facts of the present case, PayPal can argue that the difference in the two sets of colors is minimal and inconsequential to the consumer’s eye, thus, an ordinary consumer will not be able to discern the difference and shall naturally be confused between the two logos.

This approach, however, gives more weight to the overall look and feel of the brand and at least partly abandons the question of whether PayPal has a trademark right over the use of particular colors.

Thus, in my opinion, it is not the correct approach or a fair reading of the Trade Mark Law in India.

It also opens up the discussion as to whether the whole package name, font, and colors, used by Paytm and PayPal, are similar enough for ordinary consumers in India to be deceived into buying the wrong product.

In the facts of the case, it has been provided that the difference between the colors in the two trademarks is more easily seen if one compares just the colors side by side.

Therefore, it is clear that though color and color combinations can be a subject matter of Trade Mark in India, in the facts of the present case, it is highly unlikely that the consumers may trapped in the error of confusing Paytm’s trademark as that of Paypal’s trade mark.

Question 4. Does Paytm deceive consumers away from PayPal? Are Paytm and PayPal Competitors? Does Arm decide consumers to use Paytm?
Answer: The answer to the question regarding Consumer perception of the services provided by Paytm and Paypal is subjective.

However, the key question the court should ask itself is: Has the expansion of business by Paytm in India been on account of any misconception in the minds of the customers as to the real identity or the origin of Paytm, and has there been any confusion in the minds of the customers between the business of Paytm and PayPal. In short, would the consumers confuse Paytm for Paypal when deciding to avail of its services.

As provided in the facts, ordinary consumers like regular workers, grocers, and Uber drivers use and hear the word Paytm throughout the day daily. Most of them would not even know about PayPal.

As further provided. PayPal’s foray into India has been limited largely to eBay shoppers, freelancers, and IT software developers who are exposed to the global economy much more than the ordinary consumer — which means that if PayPal and/or Paytm were to conduct a survey, it would likely result strongly in favor of Paytm.

However, had PayPal chosen to file a trademark infringement lawsuit before the demonetization move was announced (or perhaps anytime in 2011-2014) when Paytm had not yet established its household name status, it would have been a much easier battle (albeit also bearing much less rewards).

PayPal would however be much better placed to win this dispute in virtually any other country (if and when Paytm expands its operations in those countries) — where PayPal is still recognized as a global payments leader.

Thus, it is not correct to say that Paytm has either deceived consumers away from Paypal or that Paytm and Paypal are competitors in the Indian market.

Read the following case study carefully and answer the questions given at the end:
Facts of the case: The plaintiff XYZ Ltd. is a Company publicly listed, organized, and existing under the laws of the USA, having its registered office in New York.

Mr. ABC is duly authorized to sign, verify, and institute the present suit.

The plaintiff’s group of companies is one of the world’s most famous and well-known hotel and resort chain groups using the trademark sleeping cat and its device.

The plaintiff’s flagship company Sleeping Cat Resort was launched in 1994 in Laguna Phuket under the trademark Sleepingcat and its device.

Hence, the mark is inherently distinctive of the business and products of the plaintiff, and the continuous use of the trademark sleeping cat by the plaintiff group since the year 1994 has created goodwill and reputation in the said mark that is associated with the plaintiff and the plaintiff alone.

The plaintiff Group’s services and products under the trademarks sleeping cat and its device have been widely promoted inter alia through print and audio-visual media including television programs, advertisements, articles, and write-ups appearing in leading newspapers, magazines, journals, etc.

All of which enjoy a wide viewership, circulation, and readership all over the world. Many of these forms of media also have a substantial reach and circulation in India and are viewed by millions of Indians who travel abroad or who subscribe to the same in India every year.

In addition, many people from all over the world including India access the plaintiff Group’s websites:

  • www.sleepingcat.com,
  • www.sleepingcatspa.com,
  • www.sleepingcatgallery.com,
  • www.sleepingcatresorts.com

They have been registered since as early as 1996 and become acquainted with the plaintiff Group’s business, services, and products which further contributed to the reputation and notoriety of the mark sleeping cat and its device the plaintiff.

The plaintiff Group, being prior in the adoption and use of the mark sleeping cat and its device, is its proprietor and thus, entitled to the use of these marks under common law rights, to the exclusion of all others.

Apart from having common law rights in the mark sleeping and its device, the plaintiff also has statutory rights in the same. It is submitted that the plaintiff has registered or has sought to register the mark sleeping cat and its device in more than 30 countries of the world.

The plaintiff is, thus, the registered owner of the trademark sleeping as well as the device in various countries.

The defendant Mr. X is the Managing Director of defendant No. 2 which is sleeping Tours and Travels (Pvt.) Ltd has its office at Dadar, Mumbai, and at the Regal Building, Parliament Street, New Delhi.

It is the case of the plaintiff against the defendant that sometime in 2004 it came to the knowledge of the plaintiff that the defendants had applied for registration of the mark sleepingcat under the Trademarks Act, 1999.

The plaintiff had filed an opposition against the purported registration applications in 2004. The said application was thereafter abandoned in February 2005 since the defendants failed to file any counter statements to the oppositions filed by the plaintiff’s predecessor in title and thus, the cases were closed.

In June 2005 the defendants filed an application with the trademark office seeking registration of the mark sleeping cat with device, opposition to which was filed by the plaintiff in May 2006 and September 2006 respectively.

While the said applications were under contest before the trademarks registry, the defendant used the trademark for advertising his services.

  • It adopted the website www.sleepingcattours.com which was created on 16th August 2003. The plaintiff filed the suit against the defendant’s use of the trademark on 15th January 2019. It pleads to the court that
  • The adoption of the Mark sleeping cat and its device by the plaintiff is much before the filing of the application for registration of the Mark sleeping and its device by the defendants and also much before the alleged use of it by the defendants.
  • It is submitted that the defendants belong to the same trade/industry and therefore, there exists every reason for the defendants to have been aware of the plaintiffs’ marks and also the goodwill and reputation of the said marks worldwide.
  • The plaintiff submits that there is no way in which the defendants could have honestly or by sheer coincidence adopted such a well-known mark for their goods, except for ulterior gains.
  • The conduct of the defendants is dishonest and is solely motivated to create mass deception and confusion by running a trade/business under an identical trademark.
  • The defendants’ activities are motivated to encroach upon the hard-earned reputation and goodwill of the plaintiff’s well-known and recognized trademark Sleeping Cat and its device.

The following defenses were raised by the defendant:

The plaintiffs have no area of operation from India nor do they have any office in India, while the defendants are a company incorporated within India and have their area operations in India and have been actively conducting business since 1996 without any interruption.

  1. The plaintiffs are only trying to take advantage of the goodwill and reputation of the defendants and to encash on the presence of the defend ants’ business which the defendants have established for the last 12 years in India and abroad under the trademark of sleepingcat and its device.
  2. Defendant No. 2 is one of the leading tour and travel companies including camping and adventure sports and lays special emphasis on providing services to suit the clients and to provide such hospitality designed to fit into its natural surroundings, using indigenous resources as far as possible which may reflect the landscape and architecture of the area of travel and also catering to all such needs of clients visiting India and taking the advantage of the facilities and other opportunities available in India with regards to well-known tourists spots in India.
  3. The plaintiffs are conducting a business of hotels, resorts, and spas while the defendants are primarily conducting services relating to travel and tourism in India through their company and the trademark sleeping cat and its device. There is no trade connection between the business of the plaintiff and the defendants

Question 1. Can an unregistered mark be entitled to trademark protection?
Answer: The trademark rights arise automatically as a result of using a mark on the goods or services. Registration of a Trademark is not mandatory.

An “unregistered trademark” does not possess legal benefits. But in some cases, an unregistered trademark may get common law benefits.

Unregistered marks are defined as marks that are not registered concerning goods or services (that is names, marks, or logos used concerning a business) under the Trade Marks Act, 1999.

Though under Section 27 of Trade Marks Act, 1999. no action for infringement is allowed for unregistered trademarks, they can still be protected by employing the common law tort of passing off.

To succeed in such an action, it is necessary to establish that an unregistered mark has comparable goodwill or reputation in connection with the product, service, or business with which it is used.

The facts of the given case are similar to that of Choice Hotels International Inc. vs. M Sanjay Kumar and Another decided by the Delhi High Court on 9 February 2015 The legal position emerging from the above case may be summarised as under:

Section 29(5) of the Trade Mark Act, 1999 relates to a situation where the infringer uses the registered trademark “as his trade name or part of his trade name, or name of his business concern or part of the name, of his business concern” and The business concern or trade is in the same goods or services in respect of which the trade mark is registered.

This is like a per se or a ‘no-fault’ provision which offers a higher degree of protection where both the above elements are shown to exist.

If the owner/proprietor of the registered trademark can show that both the above elements exist then an injunction order restraining order the infringer should straightway follow.

  1. As per Section 29(5) of the Trade Mark Act 1999, there is no requirement to show that the mark has a distinctive character or that any confusion is likely to result from the use by the infringer of the registered mark as part of its trade name or name of the business concern. Although, in a situation where the first element is present and not the second then obviously the requirement of Section 29(5) is not fulfilled.
  2. Where the registered trademark is used as part of the corporate name but the business of the infringer is in goods or services other than those for which the mark is registered, the owner or proprietor of the registered trademark is not precluded from seeking a remedy under Section 29(4) of Trade Mark Act 1 999 if the conditions attached to Section 29(4) are fulfilled.
  3. Given the object and purpose of Section 29(1) to (4), Section 29(5) cannot be intended to be exhaustive of all situations of uses of the registered mark as part of the corporate name. Section 29(5) cannot be said to render Section 29(4) otiose.
  4. The object of Section 29(5) was to offer better protection and not to shut the door of Section 29(4) to a registered proprietor who can show that the registered mark enjoying a reputation in India has been used by the infringer as part of his corporate name but his business is in goods and services other than that for which the mark has been registered.
  5. A passing-off action is maintainable in the case of a well-known mark even if the goods and services being dealt with by the parties are not similar.
  6. The owner of an unregistered trademark may be able to prevent the use by another party of an infringing mark according to the common law tort of passing off.
  7. The action against passing off is based on the principle that a man may not sell his goods under the pretense that they are the goods of another man.
  8. Passing off is a species of unfair trade competition by which one person seeks to profit from the reputation of another in a particular trade or business.

Question 2. What are the essential ingredients of ‘passing off’?
Answer: The three fundamental components of passing off are Reputation, Misrepresentation, and Damage to goodwill. These three elements are also called the Classical Trinity, as restated by the House of Lords in the case of Reckitt & Colman Ltd vs. Borden Inc.

It was stated in this case that in a suit for passing off the plaintiff must establish firstly, goodwill or reputation attached to his goods or services.

Secondly, he must prove a misrepresentation by the defendant to the public i.e. leading or likely to lead the public to believe that the goods and services offered by him are that of the plaintiff.

Lastly, he must demonstrate that he has suffered a loss due to the belief that the defendant’s goods and services are those of the plaintiff. Among the three, one of the essential components of ‘passing off’ is goodwill.

The classic case of passing off as it existed since its genesis always insists on the existence of goodwill of a merchant to give him a locally enforceable right to sue for passing off.

This has been explained by Kelly in his book called Law of Trade Marks and Trade Names, wherein the concept of goodwill has always been categorized as local in character and the learned author observed thus:-

“Since an essential ingredient of passing off is damage to goodwill, he (the Plaintiff) must show that he had, at the date when the Defendants started up, in this country not merely a reputation but a goodwill capable of being damaged. Goodwill, however, is local; it is situated where the business is.

Hence, a foreign claimant may have a reputation in this country as a traveler or periodicals of international circulation or, increasingly, from exposure on the Internet still fail in an action for passing off because he has here no business and so no goodwill.

Such cases have been not uncommon in recent years, and have caused considerable difficulty. Where there is a substantial reputation here, our courts will often accept minimal evidence that a business exists here, but there has to be some”.

This meaning of goodwill and the insistence of localized business has been the traditional concept of passing off which sometimes is called a classic case of passing off. Although, this concept of passing off has changed due to the advent of technology and modernization.

For this reason, the tendency to insist on localized goodwill has been transformed into proving the reputation of a global character.

All this would mean that courts entertaining the case of passing off can discount the localized existence of goodwill and the business in the territory specific if the substantial nature of reputation has been proved which, has some kind of nexus in the territory where the protection is sought and the said concept in the modern language is called trans-border reputation whereas the goodwill is always local, the concept of reputation is dynamic and is all-encompassing.

The reputation of a person can transcend boundaries through its advertisement in the newspapers, media circulation, expatriate reputation due to cultural kindness, and all other relevant factors that connect one country’s business with that of another. This has been aptly explained by the Division Bench of this Court in the case of N. R. Dongre vs.

Whirlpool Corporation, AIR 1995 Delhi 300 wherein the concept of trans-border reputation was approved in the following words:-

Thus a product and its trade name transcend the physical boundaries of a geographical region and acquire a trans-border overseas or extraterritorial reputation not only through the import of goods but also through its advertisement.

The knowledge and awareness of the goods of foreign trade and their trademark can be available at a place where goods are not being marketed and consequently not being used. How or the source from which the knowledge has been acquired is immaterial.

To prove the passing off action under the Trade Marks Act, of 1999, the following points need to be proved:

  1. The owner has to prove that there is a similarity in the trade names.
  2. The defendant is deceptively passing off his goods as those of the owners’.
  3. It is leading to confusion in the minds of the customers (whether a person of average intelligence and imperfect recollection would be confused).
  4. Nature of the activity and the market consumption of the goods
    of the parties to the passing-off action must be the same.
  5. Use of the same trademark or trademark by the defendant must be likely to injure the business reputation of the plaintiff.
  6. Misrepresentation and loss or damage of the goodwill are also essential components for a successful passing off action. This needs to be proved by the plaintiff for an interlocutory injunction.

Question 3. Does the court have jurisdiction in the given case?
Answer: The plaintiffs have no area of operation from India nor do they have any office in India, while the defendants’ area of operation is a company incorporated in India and have their area operations in India and have been actively conducting business since 1996 without any interruption.

The plaintiffs are only trying to take advantage of the goodwill and reputation of the defendants and to encash the presence of the defendant’s business which the defendants have established for the last 12 years in India and abroad under the trademark of sleeping cat and its device.

Defendant No. 2 is one of the leading tour and travel companies including camping and adventure sports and lays special emphasis on providing services to suit the clients and to provide such hospitality designed to fit into its natural surroundings, using indigenous resources as far as possible which may reflect the landscape and architecture of the area of travel and also catering to all such needs of clients visiting India and taking the advantage of the facilities and other opportunities available in India with regards to well-known tourist spots in India.

The plaintiffs are conducting a business of hotels, resorts, and spas while the defendants are primarily conducting services relating to travel and tourism in India through their company and the trademark sleeping cat and its device.

There is no trade connection between the business of the plaintiff and the defendants.

The defendants are carrying on their business in India. The plaintiffs neither actually nor voluntarily reside and/or carry on business nor personally work for gain within the territorial jurisdiction of the Courts in India.

Section 135 of the Trade Marks Act, 1999 states that plaintiff-centric jurisdiction to the parties.

In the given case the plaintiff is offering his products and services for sale in India through the Internet. Further, the plaintiff has filed the case by making itself available to the court in India.

Therefore, this Court has jurisdiction to entertain and decide the present suit. By inserting section 134(2) of the Trademarks Act, 1999 the Legislature has brought the trademarks law in tandem with the provisions under the Copyright Act.

Section 62(2) of the Copyright Act as well as in Section 20 of the Code of Civil Procedure to enable the plaintiff to sue one who infringed his copyright within whose local limits he carried on business at the time of institution of the suit or other proceedings.

The expression “carries on business” as provided under Section 62(2) and Section 134(2) of the Copyright Act and Trademarks Act respectively is restricted not only to the principal place of business but also covers branches or branches wherever the business is carried on.

In Ultratech Cement & Ann/ Dalmia CementBharatLimited the Bombay High Court held that even if one of the plaintiffs has a place of residence or carries on business within the jurisdiction of the Courts, the Court is entitled to entertain the suit.

The Court has further held that even if no cause of action arises at a subordinate place of business the plaintiff is still entitled to file a suit for infringement and passing off within the jurisdiction of the Court.

There is a divergence from Section 20 of the CPC wherein the suits related to trademarks can be filed even in a place other than the principal place of business i.e. where a branch office is situated, even if no cause of action arises.

Question 4. Is the current suit barred by limitation
Answer: It has been decided in many cases that such statutory right cannot be lost merely on the question of principles of delay, laches, or acquiescence.

It was also held that a mere delay after knowledge of infringement does not deprive the registered proprietor of a trademark of his statutory rights or the appropriate remedy for the enforcement of those rights so long as the said delay is not inordinate.

It is now well settled that an action for passing off is a common law remedy being an action in substance of deceit under the Law of Torts. Wherever and whenever a fresh deceitful act is committed the person deceived would naturally have a fresh cause of action in his favor.

Thus whenever a person passes off his goods as those of another he commits the act of such deceit.

Similarly, whenever and wherever a person commits a breach of a registered trademark of another he commits a recurring act of breach or infringement of such trade mark giving a recurring and fresh cause of action at each time of such infringement to the party aggrieved.

The present suit is not barred by limitation. Generally limitation period is 3 years from the start of a cause of action.

Article 88 and Section 22 of the Limitation Act, 1963 are to be read conjointly, it provides that in case of a continuing breach of contract or in the case of a continuing tort, a fresh period of limitation begins to run at every moment of the time during which the breach or the tort, as the case may be, continues.

In the given case, admittedly, the defendants are subsequent users of the trademark SLEEPING CAT and SLEEPING CAT device.

It is a continuous cause of action. The passing off is one of the facets of tort. In case both the provisions are read, prima facie it appears to the court that the suit is not barred by limitation.

In Timken Company v. Timken Sen/ices Private Ltd., the Delhi High Court held that if a new deceitful act is committed, the deceived party would naturally have afresh cause of action in its favor. Hence, every time a party passes its goods off as those of another it commits an act of infringement.

Similarly, whenever a party breaches another party’s registered trademark, it commits a recurring act of breach or infringement of that mark, giving rise to a fresh cause of action for the aggrieved party.

Case study 

Comfort Travel is a brand name for the manufacturer of luxury cars by ComfoCar Ltd. The company is based in Japan. It has earned a worldwide reputation for producing a variety of luxury cars.

It has a presence in many countries across the world. In India, it has acquired registration in different classes of luxury cars for its trademark “Comfo”, “ComfoTrvI’’ and “Comfo Device” during the years 1989-2003.

It launched the world’s first commercial hybrid car called “Deception” in Japan in the year 1997 and in other countries like UK, Australia, the USA, etc. during the years 2000-01.

The company claims to have registered the trademark ‘Deception’ in different countries as early as the year 1990 (in Japan) and in other jurisdictions around the world.

In India, the car was released in the year 2009 and till then the company had not registered the mark in India. It plans to enter in the Indian market in the year 2008 with a new luxury car.

The Company discovered that the Company ZZZ had not only got the “deception” registered in India way back in the year 2002-03 for all types of auto parts and accessories but they had also been using the said trademark in carrying out trade in such auto parts and accessories.

The first party or plaintiff, therefore, approached the trademark registry for cancellation of the registered trademark of the defendant and also filed the suit in the court questioning the other party’s using the well-known trademark of the first party without their authorization and taking unfair advantage of the reputation and goodwill of the first party earned over some time across the globe.

The plaintiff prayed for a permanent injunction restraining the defendant from using the plaintiff’s registered trademark and a permanent injunction restraining the defendant from using the well-known unregistered mark “deception”.

The defendant replied that they are using the mark ‘Comfo’, ‘Comfo India’, and ‘Comfo Device’ on the packaging materials in which the auto parts manufactured by them are packed for item identification and nothing more.

Since operating in the same area of industry they are supposed to indicate the cars for which the spare parts have been manufactured by displaying the name on the packaging of the products. Therefore, it is honest use under section 30 and therefore protected under the Act.

With regards to the ‘Deception’ they had registered the mark in the year 2002 and continuously used the same since the year 2001. They have been regularly supplying auto accessories to various automobile giants. By the time they have acquired a market reputation for the mark and their services.

Since they have been operating in India since a time when the plaintiff had not established the product, therefore they are entitled to have the trademark in their favor. In the background of the above facts, analyze the following issues.

Question 1. What is the nature of Intellectual Property Rights in general and trademarks in particular territorial or international or both?
Answer: Intellectual property rights are like any other property right. They allow the creators or owners of patents, trademarks, or copyrights to benefit from their work or investment in a creation.

An efficient and equitable intellectual property system can help all countries to realize intellectual property’s potential as a catalyst for economic development and social and cultural well-being.

The intellectual property system helps strike a balance between the interests of innovators and the public interest, providing an environment in which creativity and invention can flourish, for the benefit of all.

Countries have laws to protect intellectual property for two main reasons.

One is to give statutory expression to the moral and economic rights of creators in their creations and such rights of the public in access to those creations.

The second is to promote creativity, dissemination, and application of its results and to encourage fair trading thereby leading to economic and social development.

A trademark protects the owner of the mark by ensuring the exclusive right to use it, or to authorize another to use the same in return for payment.

The period of protection varies, but a trademark can be renewed indefinitely beyond the time limit on payment of additional fees.

In a larger sense, trademarks promote enterprise approach worldwide by rewarding the owners of trademarks with recognition and financial profits. Trademark protection also prevents unfair competitors, such as counterfeiters from using similar distinctive signs to market inferior or different products or services.

The system enables people with skill and enterprise to produce and market goods and services in the fairest possible conditions, thereby facilitating international trade. With the advent of WTO, the law of trademarks is now modernized under the Trade Marks Act of 1999 and is in harmony with two major international treaties on the subject, namely, The Paris Convention for Protection of Industrial Property and the TRIPS Agreement.

Intellectual Property is developed under the territorial concept of Intellectual Property Rights. The State defined and recognized the rights of the stakeholder. The rights were applied and enforced within the jurisdiction of the State. Therefore, it is known as territorial right.

However, with the development of international conventions new intellectual property rights were recognised. It provided unification to the concepts and principles relating to intellectual property rights.

However, it did not change the nature of intellectual property rights.

The rights are legislated by the State to be enforced within the boundaries of the State. Therefore the nature of Intellectual Property Rights irrespective of international development remains territorial.

Question 2. What are the essentials for a mark to be a well-known trademark?
Answer: Being the signatory of the Paris Convention and TRIPs Agreement, India recognizes the concept of well known trademarks. Under section 2(l)(zg) of the Trade Marks Act, 1999, “well-known trade mark”, about any goods or services, means a mark that has become so to the substantial segment of the public that uses such goods or receives such services that the use of such mark about other goods or services would be likely to be taken as indicating a connection in the course of trade or rendering of services between those goods or services and a person using the mark about the first-mentioned goods and services

A mark, that has been designated as a well-known mark, is accorded stronger protection. The Trade Marks Act, 1999 casts an obligation on the registrar to protect a well-known mark against an identical or similar trademark. While determining whether a trademark is a well-known trademark, take into account all the facts considered relevant for determining a trademark as a well-known trade mark including the following factors

  • The trademark is well known to the public at large in India;
  • The number of persons involved in the channels of distribution of the goods or services;
  • The number of actual or potential consumers of the goods or services;
  • The duration, extent, and geographical area of any use of such trademark;
  • The business circle deals with those goods or services.

Many countries protect unregistered well-known marks under their international obligations under the Paris Convention for the Protection of Industrial Property and the Agreement on Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (the TRIPS Agreement).

The object of Trade Mark law has been explained by the Supreme Court in Dau Dayal v. State of Uttar Pradesh, AIR 1959 SC 433, in the following words:

Question 3. Can a trademark that has acquired a reputation in a foreign State be entitled to acquire a mark in India?
Answer: “The object of trademark law is to protect the rights of persons who manufacture and sell goods with distinct trademarks against invasion by other persons passing off their goods fraudulently and with counterfeit trademarks as those of the manufacturers.

Normally, the remedy for such infringement will be by action in Civil Courts.

But because of the delay which is incidental to civil proceedings and the great injustice that might result if the rights of manufacturers are not promptly protected, the law gives them the right to take the matter before the Criminal Courts, and prosecute the offenders, to enable them to effectively and speedily vindicate their rights’’.

The trademark law in India is a ‘first-to-file’ system that requires no evidence of prior use of the mark. A trademark application can be filed on a ‘proposed to be used or intent-to-use’ basis or based on the use of the mark.

The term ‘use’ under the Trade Marks Act, 1999 has acquired a broad meaning and does not necessarily mean the physical presence of the goods in India.

The presence of the trademark on the Internet and publication in international magazines and journals having circulation in India are also considered as used in India.

One of the first landmark judgments in this regard is the “Whirlpool case” [N. R. Dongre v. Whirlpool Corporation, 1996 (16) PTC 583] in which the Court held that a rights holder can maintain a passing off action against an infringer based on the trans-border reputation of its trademarks and that the actual presence of the goods or the actual use of the mark in India is not mandatory.

It would suffice if the rights holder has attained reputation and goodwill in respect of the mark in India through advertisements or other means.

In the case of Daimler-Benz v. Hybo Hindustan [AIR 1 994 Del 2369], the defendant had been using the plaintiff’s logo and the word ‘Benz’ for which the plaintiff sought an injunction against such use of his logo.

The court while recognizing the plaintiff’s logo as a well-known trademark on the grounds of trans-border reputation and goodwill granted an injunction against the impugned use of the logo by the defendant.

In another case of RolexSa v. Alex JewelleryPvt. Ltd. & Ors. [2009 (41 ) PTC 284 (Del.)], the defendants were using the trade name “Rolex” of the plaintiff while dealing in artificial jewelry for which the plaintiff brought an action against the defendant to prevent him from using his trade name further.

The court held that the plaintiff’s business dealt with watches, and the section of the public using watches recognizes the trade name Rolex, for which it is a well-known trademark. The same segment of people if find artificial jewellery with the same trade name might assume the artificial jewellery to be from the plaintiff’s business.

For the same reasons, the court considering Rolex to be a well-known trademark granted an injunction against the acts of the defendants. In the present case, the respondents are the original and earlier users of the trademark.

Being a signatory to the Paris Convention and TRIPs Agreement, India recognizes the concept of well-known trademarks. Amark, which has been designated as a well-known mark, is accorded stronger protection. The Trade Marks Act, of 1999 casts an obligation on the Registrar to protect a well-known mark against an identical or similar trademark. Accordingly, the Registrar should allow the Japanese Company to use the Trade Mark.

Question 4. What are the grounds for passing off and infringements
Answer: Infringement, very broadly means taking unfair advantage or being detrimental to the distinctive character or reputation of a trademark.

Under the Trade Marks Act, 1999 the meaning of infringement has been enlarged as more actions shall be taken as constituting infringement which are listed in Section 29. Section 29 of the Trade Marks Act dealing with infringement of trademarks explicitly enumerates the grounds that constitute infringement of a registered trademark.

This section lays down that when a registered trademark is used by a person who is not entitled to use such a trademark under the law, it constitutes infringement.

This section clearly states that a registered trademark is infringed, if the mark is identical and is used in respect of similar goods or services; or if the mark is deceptively similar to the registered trademark and there is an identity or similarity of the goods or services covered by the trade mark; or the trade mark is identical and is used concerning identical goods or services; and that such use is likely to confuse the part of the public or is likely to be taken to have an association with the registered trade mark.

The infringement action is a statutory remedy available to the registered proprietor or the registered user, based on statutory rights conferred by registration of a trademark, subject to other restrictions laid down in Sections 30, 34, and 35 of the Trade Marks Act, 1999.

An infringement action is available to the registered proprietor or registered user to enforce his exclusive right over the trademark concerning the goods in respect of which it is registered. If at the time of registration of a trademark, certain limitations or conditions have been imposed, then, the exclusive right has to be evaluated within the terms of such registration.

Further, in the case of Mahendra and Mahendra PaperMills Ltd. Vs Mahindra and Mahindra Ltd.

Supreme Court broadly stated, in an action for passing-off based on unregistered trade mark generally for deciding the question of deceptive similarity the following factors are to be considered

The nature of the marks i.e. whether the marks are word marks label marks or composite marks i.e. both words and label works.

  • The degree of resembleness between the marks is phonetically similar and hence similar in idea.
  • The nature of the goods in respect of which they are used as trademarks.
  • The similarity in nature, character, and performance of the goods of the rival traders
  • Class of purchasers who are likely to buy the goods bearing the marks they require, on their education and intelligence and a degree of care they are likely to exercise in purchasing and /or using the goods.
  • The mode of purchasing the goods or placing orders for the goods
  • Any other surrounding circumstances which may be relevant in the extant of dissimilarity between the competing marks.
  • Weightage to be given to each of the aforesaid factors depending upon facts of each case and the same weightage cannot be given to each factor in every case.

Relief in Suits for Infringement/Passing Off:

Civil Litigation: A suit can be initiated either under the law of passing off or for infringement under the Trade Marks Act, 1999 depending on whether the trademark is unregistered, pending registration, or registered respectively.

Jurisdiction and Venue: The suit for passing off and/or infringement can be initiated either in the District Court or in the High Court depending on the valuation of the suit. The suit can be at the place where the rights holder or one of the rights holders actually and voluntarily resides or works for gain or carries on business.

Elements of the Complaint: In the complaint, the rights holder is required to demonstrate that

The alleged infringing act involves a mark that is identical or similar to a trademark of the rights holder;

The infringing representation of a trademark is being used in connection with goods or services and might lead to confusion in public regarding the origin of the infringing goods/services;

The unlawful act interfered with the trademark holder’s rights of exclusive use or caused the rights holder economic loss.

Read the following case study and answer the questions given at the end: The Ethiopian economy is heavily dependent on the trade of its primary products. Among the country’s limited tradable goods, coffee alone generates about 60 percent of Ethiopia’s total export earnings. Indeed, coffee is closely tied to the culture and society of Ethiopia and an estimated 15 million people are, directly or indirectly, involved/engaged in the Ethiopian coffee industry.

Some of the world’s finest coffees, such as Harrar, Sidamo, and Yirgacheffe, originate in Ethiopia.

These coffees have a unique flavor and aroma that distinguish them from coffees of other countries or even from other coffees of Ethiopia.

This African nation enjoys a strong reputation for its heritage coffees which command a very high retail price in the international market.

However, only 5 to 10 percent of the retail price goes back to Ethiopia; most of the profit is shared by distributors and middlemen in the marketing sector.

In wealthy countries, a cup of cappuccino may be sold at US$ 4, but many coffee growers in Ethiopia and other developing countries earn less than a dollar a day.

There are instances where farmers were forced to abandon coffee production due to low returns and resort to growing more profitable narcotic plants.

Seeking to narrow down this gap between the retail price and the return to the producers, the Ethiopian government is trying to use a range of intellectual property rights (IPRs) to differentiate their coffee in the marketplace and achieve higher returns.

In 2004, the government launched the Ethiopian Coffee Trademarking and Licensing Initiative (The Initiative) to provide a practical solution to overcome the longstanding divide between what coffee farmers receive for a sack of their beans and what retailers charge for that coffee when they sell it in retail outlets in different countries.

The Initiative is organized and run by the Ethiopian Fine Coffee Stakeholders Committee (the Stakeholders Committee) – a consortium comprising cooperatives, private exporters, and the Ethiopian Intellectual Property Office (EIPO) as well as other concerned government bodies.

The EIPO took the leadership of The Initiative and began working on identifying a mechanism that would lead to a greater share for the country’s coffee growers. The Initiative also intended to generate high retail prices for Harrar, Sidamo, and Yirgacheffe- the three most famous coffee brands in Ethiopia.

“The theory is: make the pie bigger. Let the market pay,” explained Mr. Getachew Mengistie, former Director General of the EIPO.

“Rather than focusing on short-term gain, this way we can enlist the big companies to do what we don’t have the skills or financial means for that is, building recognition of our brands in international markets and so increasing long-term demand for them.

The key strategy, the Stakeholders, Committee agreed, was to achieve wider recognition of the distinctive qualities of Ethiopian coffees as brands and position them strategically in the expanding specialty coffee market; while at the same time protecting Ethiopia’s ownership of the names to prevent their, misappropriation.

This would lead to a greater share of the high, retail price of Ethiopian coffee demand going straight to rural producers.

The Ethiopian Government had to decide on how to best use IPRs to obtain exclusive ownership of Ethiopian coffee names, achieve wider international recognition, and maximize returns.

At first glance, registration of each Ethiopian coffee as a geographical indication (Gl) seemed to be the best course of action.

After all, the coffees are made in Ethiopia and named after the regions that made them famous. However, there are many unique circumstances summoning specialty coffee production in Ethiopia that make Gl registrations less suitable than other forms of intellectual property (IP) protection.

As Mr. Mengistie explained, “setting up a certification system would have been impracticable and too expensive.” Used to indicate the regional origin of a particular product, a Gl registration must demonstrate a link between a characteristic of the product and the region where it is produced.

If each Ethiopian specialty coffee were registered as a Gl, it would have to be produced in a specific area of the country under specific circumstances.

For example, a Gl for Sidamo coffee would require every bag of Sidamo to be produced, processed, or prepared in the Sidamo region and have a special quality that is directly dependent on the unique properties of the region. A Gl also requires that the government oversee producers and distributors to guarantee that the coffees sold belong to a particular style or region, such as Sidamo.

However, this is not a practical solution for Ethiopia. Specialty coffee in Ethiopia is grown on over four million small plots of land by an estimated 600,000 independent farmers spread throughout the country in remote areas.

Although Ethiopian coffees such as Sidamo and Harrar are named after specific regions, all of them are produced in the same region under the same circumstances.

Distribution is also a problem, as it is predominately done informally by hauling bags of coffee on foot for many kilometers.

Government oversight of coffee producers is therefore nearly impossible. Farmers would be required to pay a surcharge for government oversight, and this would only be an additional burden on them, many of whom are already living below the subsistence level.

Therefore, the very nature of coffee production in Ethiopia makes Gl certification difficult and impractical. The Government of Ethiopia decided that instead of trying to protect Ethiopian coffee’s geographical origin, it would be better to protect its commercial origin, which it would do through registering trademarks.

This was seen as a more direct route of protection because it would grant the government of Ethiopia the legal right to exploit, license, and use the trademarked names with coffee goods to the exclusion of all other traders. Unlike a Gl, a trademark registration does not require a specific coffee to be produced in a specific region or have a particular quality in connection with that region.

Using trademark registrations, the government of Ethiopia could then produce greater quantities of specialty coffees from all over the country.

Rural producers outside the Sidamo region could grow Sidamo coffee, as it would not need to have a characteristic that is unique to the Sidamo region.

The Stakeholders Committee therefore opted for a trademark-based solution, with the Ethiopian Government as the owner of these marks.

This strategy gave the Government greater and more effective control over the distribution of its product, which ultimatelyincreases revenue by exporting more goods, enabling a rise in prices and benefits to farmers.

The EIPO began filing applications to register the names Harrar/Harar, Sidamo, and Yirgacheffe as trademarks in key markets.

In the United States, Yirgacheffe was the first to obtain registration Sidamo and Harrar/Harar were granted registration at a later time.

Trademarks for Ethiopian coffees were also registered in the European Union and Canada. In Japan, registration certificates were secured for two of the coffees (Yirgacheffe and Sidamo).

The EIPO filed applications for trademark registrations of these three coffees in some other countries including Australia, Brazil, China, Saudi Arabia, and South Africa. The trademark strategy for Ethiopian coffee faced a major difficulty in 2006.

The United States Patent and Trademark Office (USPTO) had approved the application to register Yirgacheffe. But the National Coffee Association (NCA), representing coffee roasters of the United States, objected to the EIPO’s applications to trademark first Harrar, then Sidamo. The American coffee chain Starbucks Coffee Corporation was reported to be a driving force behind the NCA objection.

It however, publicly offered to assist the EIPO in setting up a national system of certification marks to enable the farmers to protect and market their coffee as “robust” geographical indications. The EIPO and its advisors disagreed.

The designations, they argued, referred not to geographical locations but to distinctive coffee types. Moreover, appropriate intellectual property (IP) tools had to be chosen to meet specific needs and situations.

It said that its coffee is grown on four million very small plots of land. Setting up a certification system would have been impracticable and too expensive. Trademarking was more appropriate to our needs.

It was a more direct route offering more control. The EIPO filed rebuttals against the USPTO decisions with supporting evidence to demonstrate that the terms Harrar and Sidamo had acquired distinctiveness.

Meanwhile, both Starbucks and the Ethiopian government were keen to resolve their differences quickly and find a flexible way forward.

Their joint efforts led to an announcement in 2006 that they had reached a mutually satisfactory agreement regarding the distribution, marketing, and licensing of Ethiopia’s specialty coffee designations, which provided a framework for cooperation to promote recognition of Harrar, Sidamo, and Yirgacheffe.

Starbucks agreed to sign voluntary trademark licensing agreements that immediately acknowledge Ethiopia’s ownership of the Harrar, Sidamo, and Yirgacheffe names, regardless of whether or not a trademark registration has been granted.

Legal commentators have honed in on the use of the term “designation” in the agreement as a means of circumventing the obstacle. caused by the status of the Harrar and Sidamo applications.

EIPO felt that designation is used here as a broader term than trademark, to encompass some of the trademarks that are still pending registration. It is not related to certification. In August 2006, the USPTO informed the EIPO that their rebuttal in the case of Harar had been successful.

A trademark for Sidamo was also granted in February 2008. The Initiative secured financial support from the Department for International Development (DFID) of the United Kingdom, technical advice from a Washington-based Non-governmental Organization (NGO), Light Years IP, and legal assistance from an American law firm, Arnold and Porter.

The high cost of legal services for foreign trademark registration created some initial difficulties. Ethiopia, moreover, is not a member of the Madrid system for the international registration of marks.

This was overcome by support from law firms which agreed to provide their services pro bono. After acquiring the trademarks, Ethiopia initiated a royalty-free licensing scheme.

The purpose of licensing was to secure recognition from the coffee distribution industry that Ethiopia owns and controls the use of trademarks, thereby building the reputation and goodwill of its specialty coffees around the trademarks.

The government of Ethiopia wanted its coffee to have more market visibility so that the export premium for Ethiopian specialty coffee could be raised. The adopted strategy offered royalty-free license agreements and required the licensee to sell the specialty coffees using the registered trademarks (free of charge) on any product that consists wholly of Ethiopian specialty coffees and to promote Ethiopian fine coffee by educating their customers. The licensing strategy is expected to boost consumer recognition of Ethiopian coffee trademarks and facilitate the growth of the demand for Ethiopian fine coffees. This strategy will ensure that Ethiopian farmers and small businessmen secure a reasonable return from the sale of their coffees.

By mid-2009, almost one hundred license agreements had been concluded with coffee importing, roasting, and distributing companies in North America, Europe, Japan, and South Africa. Within the country, some forty-seven private coffee exporters and three coffee producer cooperative unions in Ethiopia had also signed the agreement.

The high-profile dispute with Starbucks increased the popularity of Ethiopian coffee.

It was learned from the coffee farmers’ cooperatives and exporters just three months ago that the price of Yirgacheffe had already increased by 0.60 cents to $ 2 a pound.” Immediately after the resolution of the dispute, the stakeholders of Ethiopian coffee focused their attention on the need for a marketing strategy.

They opted for a well-organized branding instrument. A United Kingdom-based company was given the responsibility of the brand promotion of Ethiopian coffee.

The company worked together with the stakeholders and developed the brands and brand guidelines.

Under this approach, a total of four brands were created: an umbrella brand with the name “Ethiopian Fine Coffee” and three individual brands entitled “Harar Ethiopian Fine Coffee,” “Yirgacheffe Ethiopian Fine Coffee” and “Sidamo Ethiopian Fine Coffee”.

The Initiative helped Ethiopia to differentiate Ethiopian coffee from coffees of other countries, which strengthened the confidence and bargaining position of the coffee growers and exporters of the country.

The novelty of the Initiative was that it enabled the growers and producers to become Part price setters instead of being price takers.

Question 1. Analyze the reasons why the Government of Ethiopia did not favor Cl registration of their specialty coffee and instead favored protecting its commercial origin.
Answer: Specialty coffee in Ethiopia is grown on over four million small plots of land by an estimated 600,000 independent farmers spread throughout the country in remote areas. Although Ethiopian coffees such as SicJamo and Harrar are named after specific regions, all of them are produced in the same region under the same circumstances. Distribution is also a problem, as it is predominately done informally by hauling bags of coffee on foot for many kilometers.

Government oversight of coffee producers is therefore nearly impossible. Farmers would be required to pay a surcharge for government oversight, and this would only be an additional burden on them, many of whom are already living below the subsistence level.

Therefore the very nature of coffee production in Ethiopia makes Gl certification difficult and impractical. Even, trademark registration doesn’t require a specific coffee to be produced in a specific region or have a particular quality in connection with that region. Through this registration, the government of Ethiopia could produce huge quantities of different kinds of coffees across the country.

This kind of mechanism can give the government better control and supervisory role on the production, and distribution of their products in their financial interest by raising revenues and exportation. Therefore, the Government of Ethiopia decided that instead of trying to protect Ethiopian coffee’s geographical origin, it would be better to protect its commercial origin, which it would do by registering trademarks.

Question 2. Discuss the initiative of the Ethiopian Intellectual Property Office in obtaining trademark registration for Ethiopian coffee brands highlighting the steps taken by it to overcome the difficulties.
Answer: The EIPO began filing applications to register the names Harrar/Harar, Sidamo, and Yirgacheffe as trademarks in key markets. In the United States, Yirgacheffe was the first to obtain registration Sidamo and Harrar/ Harar were granted registration at a later time.

Trademarks for Ethiopian coffees are also registered in the European Union and Canada. In Japan, registration certificates have been secured for two of the coffees (Yirgacheffe and Sidamo).

The EIPO has filed applications for trademark registrations of these three coffees in several other countries including Australia, Brazil, China, Saudi Arabia, and South Africa.

There are different actions that EIPO has taken in the form of rebuttals against different USPTO decisions with corroborative evidence. In certain cases, the Ethiopian government and EIPO play a constructive role in reaching amicable settlements about distribution, and licensing of Ethiopia’s coffee designations.

The trademark strategy for Ethiopian coffee faced a major difficulty in 2006. The United States Patent and Trademark Office (USPTO) had approved the application to register Yirgacheffe.

But the National Coffee Association (NCA), representing coffee roasters of the United States, objected to the EIPO’s applications to trademark first Harrar and then Sidamo.

The grounds for opposition in both cases were that the names had become too generic a description of coffee, and as such were not eligible for registration under United States trademark law. The USPTO turned down the application for Harrar in 2005 and for Sidamo in 2006.

The EIPO filed rebuttals against the USPTO decisions with supporting evidence to demonstrate that the terms Harrar and Sidamo had acquired distinctiveness

Question 3. How did Starbucks and the Ethiopian Government resolve their differences and arrive at a flexible way forward? Did the move pave the way for the growing popularity of its coffee?
Answer: The Ethiopian Intellectual Property Office (EIPO) filed rebuttals against the USPTO decisions with supporting evidence to demonstrate that the terms Harrar and Sidamo had acquired distinctiveness.

Their joint efforts led to an announcement in 2006 that they had reached a mutually satisfactory agreement regarding the distribution, marketing, and licensing of Ethiopia’s specialty coffee designations, which provided a framework for cooperation to promote recognition of Harrar, Sidamo, and Yirgacheffe.

Starbucks agreed to sign voluntary trademark licensing agreements that immediately acknowledge Ethiopia’s ownership of the Harrar, Sidamo, and Yirgacheffe names, regardless of whether or not a trademark registration has been granted.

Legal commentators have honed in on the use of the term “designation” in the agreement as a means of circumventing the obstacle caused by the status of the Harrar and Sidamo applications.

The famous dispute between the Ethiopian government and Starbucks increased the popularity of Ethiopian coffee. With the expansion of exportation and financial interest of farmer’s cooperative, the prf Yirgacheffe.

Furthermore, all stakeholders of Ethiopian coffee started working aggressively for promotion and brand marketing with the help of UK UK-based company as a result different brands were identified. “Yes, given the above, it can be said that the move paved the way for the growing popularity of its coffee.

Question 4. Why did the Ethiopian Government initiate a royalty-free licensing scheme? Did the licensing agreement strategy prove successful?
Answer: The purpose of licensing is “to secure recognition from the coffee distribution industry that Ethiopia owns and controls the use of trademarks, thereby building the reputation and goodwill of its specialty coffees around the trademarks.”

The government of Ethiopia wanted its coffee to have more market visibility so that the export premium for Ethiopian specialty coffee could be raised.

The adopted strategy offered royalty-free license agreements and required the licensee to sell the specialty coffees using the registered trademarks (free of charge) on any product that consists wholly of Ethiopian specialty coffees and to promote Ethiopian fine coffee by educating their customers.

The licensing strategy is expected to boost consumer recognition of Ethiopian coffee trademarks and facilitate the growth of the demand for Ethiopian fine coffees. This strategy will ensure that Ethiopian farmers and small businessmen secure a reasonable return from the sale of their coffees.

Information on the Initiative as well as licensing is made publicly available through a dedicated website.

By mid-2009, almost one hundred license agreements have been concluded with coffee importing, roasting, and distributing companies in North America, Europe, Japan, and South Africa.

Within the country, some forty-seven private coffee exporters and three coffee producer cooperative unions in Ethiopia have also signed the agreement.

Information on the initiative as well as licensing is publicly available through a dedicated website. With the passage of time, more than 100 license agreements were determined with diverse entities having experience in coffee importation, distribution across many countries.

Different promotional strategies and brand advertisements have raised the bar and confidence of domestic coffee growers and exporters for better bargaining in sales. Yes, given this, it can be said that the licensing agreement strategy proved successful.

Question 5. A British manufacturer of biscuits has been selling cookies in India for more than 20 years and had a registered trademark ‘ChipsMore’ for these products during all that time. Two years ago, an Indian company started manufacturing and selling cookies under the brand ‘ChipsPlus’. Can the British manufacturer institute a suit seeking relief for infringement/passing off under the Trade Marks Act, of 1999? Give reasons and refer to case law in support of your answer
Answer: The given case is similar to Hindustan Unilever Limited v. Ashique Chemicals & Ors [BOM] Notice of Motion No. 926 of 2010 in Suit No. 862 of 2010 S.J. Vazifdar, J. [Decided on 08/08/2011]

Brief facts: The plaintiff seeks a perpetual injunction, restraining the defendants from using, concerning soaps or detergents, the impugned mark “SunPlus” or the word “Sun” with any prefix or suffix or any other deceptively similar mark or the impugned labels containing the words “Sunplus” or any other deceptively similar labels to infringe the plaintiffs registered trademarks or to pass off the defendants’ goods as and those of the goods of the plaintiff.

The plaintiff is the registered proprietor of the words marks “Sun”, “Sunlight” and “Sunsilk” under class 3. The marks “Sunlight” and “Sunsilk” are associated with the mark “Sun”. The plaintiff is also the registered proprietor of the label marks, which include prominently the word “Sunlight”.

The plaintiff has admittedly not used the mark “Sun” in India, but the other marks are associated with the word mark “Sun”.

Decision: Suit dismissed.

Reason: The defendant has been using the mark since the year 1997. The defendant has developed a reputation in the market on its own in the State of Kerala. There is nothing to suggest that in the State of Kerala, the mark “Sunlight” had acquired such a reputation that the plaintiff derived an advantage merely by trading on the same.

The mark “Sun” has not been used for over 60 years. There is a possibility that if the plaintiff’s mark had acquired a reputation in Kerala, it would have come across the plaintiff’s mark which has been widely advertised in a variety of ways, including on television channels, hoardings, and in magazines. In that event, the plaintiff would have noticed the defendant’s mark and adopted proceedings earlier.

As it is, the defendants have used the mark for almost fifteen years now. As a result, the plaintiff’s action for infringement of the registered mark “Sun” cannot succeed. Nor can the action for passing off in respect of the mark “Sun” succeed as admittedly it has never been used. The next question is whether this action can succeed in respect of the mark “Sunlight”.

I do not consider the defendant’s mark “Sunplus” to be deceptively similar to the plaintiff’s mark “Sunlight”. The mere fact that the marks are prefixed by the letters “Sun” would not indicate deceptive similarity.

The marks “Sunlight” and “Sunplus” are phonetically and visually distinct. Moreover, the word SunPlus is written in the stylized manner, I have described earlier, reducing the possibility of confusion.

Further, in both marks the suffix is pronounced and distinct from the prefix. Thus, on the one hand, the word “Sun” has not been used for over 60 years, and on the other, there is no deceptive similarity between the words “Sunplus” and “Sunlight”.

Thus, even if the inspection had been taken by the defendants of the records of the Registrar of Trade Marks, it would have made no difference.

In light of the decision of the above case, the suit filed by a British manufacturer seeking relief for infringement/passing off under the Trade Marks Act, 1999 will not succeed as the word Chips is a general word and has no specific relation with a British manufacturer.

Question 6. ABC Ltd. specializing in the production and distribution of professional sealants for commercial and home use, had registered ownership of its trademark and packaging design for its growing sales of sealants in India.

After several years of sales in India, it was alerted by its local distributor about the existence of competing products bearing similar packaging design, but with a different logo, being sold by resellers of hardware products in Chennai and Bengaluru. Advise the company regarding the course of action it should take. Give reasons and refer to case law in support of your answer.
Answer: Infringement, very broadly means taking unfair advantage or being detrimental to the distinctive character or reputation of a trade mark.

Under the Trade Marks Act, 1999 the meaning of infringement has been enlarged as more actions shall be taken as constituting infringement which are listed in Section 29. Section 29 of the Act dealing with infringement of trade marks explicitly enumerates the grounds which constitute an infringement of a registered trademark.

This section lays down that when a registered trademark is used by a person who is not entitled to use such a trademark under the law, it constitutes infringement.

This section clearly states that a registered trademark is infringed, if the mark is identical and is used in respect of similar goods or services; or if the mark is deceptively similar to the registered trademark and there is an identity or similarity of the goods or services covered by the trade mark; or the trade mark is identical and is used with identical goods or services; and that such use is likely to confuse the part of the public or is likely to be taken to have an association with the registered trade mark.

In the case of Brooke Bond India vs. C. Patel & Co., 1993 IPLR 220 (Cal.), the Court held that application by the defendants of the trade mark Taj Tea in India on the packets of tea is an infringement of the registered trade mark of the plaintiff.

An interim injunction was issued even though the defendant was willing to alter the color scheme and get up his packets bearing the trademark Taj Tea.

In Cox Distillery v. McDowell & Co., 1999 PTC 507, the Court said that there is a deceptive similarity between the label used by the plaintiff as his trademark and the one introduced by the defendant.

It amounts to infringement of the plaintiff’s trade mark within the meaning of Section 29(1).

The defendant was restrained from using COX DIPLOMAT premium Whisky as the defendant used the logo and print of similar size and the word DIPLOMAT label with the printed figure of a human being which made his label similar to the registered trademark of the plaintiff.

Therefore, in the present case considering the facts stated in the) question and above mentioned position of law w.r.t. infringement or passing off under the Trade Marks Act,1 999, ABC Limited Company can take action under Section 29 of the Act alleging infringement/passing off its registered trademark.

Abbott Laboratories, a Chicago, USA-based pharmaceutical company was founded in the year 1888. The Company marketed the medicinal preparation of the drug Camylofin Dihydrochloride with Paracetamol as EASYJET. The word EASYJET is stated to be an invented mark having no dictionary meaning.

It is also not derived from any principal ingredient/formulation of the drug. Medicinal preparations with the mark EASYJET are extremely popular and widely distributed all over India. It is stated that the said mark was used by the laboratory predecessor for decades and now the plaintiff by way of extensive use has acquired a considerable reputation as a quality pharmaceutical product. The said trademark EASYJET has acquired valuable goodwill and reputation which extends throughout India. The company’s trademark is said to be recognized and associated extensively with the company. Another company the sole proprietorship named Birani Hosiery carrying its business from Chennai, Tamil Nadu.

The said company also filed an application for registration of the mark EASYJET in class 25 which is meant for hosiery products. Abbott in July 2012 through market inquiries came to know about the unauthorized use of the mark EASYJET by the defendants. Abbott Laboratories filed an opposition proceeding before the Registrar of Trade Mark against Birani Hosiery stating that the mark used by the applicant is identical. The Birani contends that the mark applied for registration falls in another class and therefore is eligible for registration.

Based on the above facts:

Question 1. Discuss the fate of the opposition proceedings. Give reasonable grounds for your decision.
Answer: Descriptive trademarks are generally prohibited from being registered under Section 9 (1)  of the Indian Trade Marks Act, 1999 except for the rule being that the mark in question has acquired distinctiveness or secondary meaning under long-standing use and the resulting recognition.

Illustrations of marks that are descriptive but registered due to acquired distinctiveness are:

A descriptive mark, over a sustained period of extensive and uninterrupted usage and substantial promotion, may acquire the status of a ‘well-known’ mark under the scope of Section 2 (1) (zg) of the Act and as such, would be considered capable of registration. Some marks that were held as ‘well-known by Indian courts are WHIRLPOOL and PEPSI.

Thus, the default position in India is that a descriptive mark cannot be registered unless it has acquired distinctiveness or it has acquired a secondary meaning. In ITC Limited v.

Nestle India Limited 2017 (70) PTC 66 (Del) The Court observed that when a word was only descriptive of the character of goods, no protection can be claimed for the use of such word, but if a word is known for its distinctiveness secondary meaning, such word is entitled to get protection.

The evidence for the descriptive mark should be filed at the earliest.

After the trademark has been sustainably used, the position established through large sales, publicity, and possibly time evidence should be filed to avoid cancellation.

Indian courts have consistently maintained that such marks are registrable only if they have acquired distinctiveness or a secondary meaning.

The Supreme Court in Godfrey Philips India Limited v. Girnar Food & Beverages (P) Ltd (2005), examining whether the expression Super Cup (for a tea brand) was protectable as a trademark, held that a descriptive trademark may be entitled to protection if it has assumed a secondary meaning and is identified with a particular product or as being from a particular source.

While reiterating this position, Indian courts have sought to construe this protection narrowly, i.e. limiting it to a particular category of products or services.

In Cadila Healthcare Ltd. v. Gujarat Co-operative Milk Marketing Federation Limited and Ors (2009), a division bench of Delhi

High Court held that the mark Sugar-Free being highly descriptive could not be protected beyond the goods for which it had been used and with which it was connected. The court agreed with the trial court that the proprietor of the mark was not entitled to restrain any descriptive “non-trademark use” of the expression “sugar-free”.

Similarly, in Marico Limited v. AgroTech Foods Limited (2010), the Delhi High Court held that the appellant, owner of the registered marks Losorb and Lo-Sorb, could not assert a monopoly over the term “low absorb” for edible oil products. Further, the court held that a descriptive mark may acquire a secondary meaning if the mark is used by one person undisturbed for a long period.

Although via several decided cases, it has been shown that a common descriptive word can acquire a secondary distinctive meaning by use concerning the goods. However, it can be extremely difficult to establish that such a word has become distinctive in fact and has acquired a secondary meaning different from its natural meaning.

The difficulty becomes even greater when the mark is not only descriptive but also contains the name of the product such as Diabolo for a top or shredded wheat etc. This difficulty may sometimes be overcome if the alleged trademark is a description of goods but the public identifies it as a fancy word and not a descriptive word.

The onus is on the applicant to show that the word which is primarily descriptive of quality of goods has become descriptive.

The onus must be discharged by the applicant in respect of every article to which the trademark is applied and not just for one of the many products to which the mark is applied. When the case is on the borderline, the registrar will usually refuse to grant the registration, however, he will not try to discover reasons for refusing the registration.

However, the traders should get a fair opportunity to establish their right to statutory protection. In determining whether a mark has acquired a distinctive character because of long and continuous use, the competent authority must make an overall assessment of the evidence that the mark has come to identify the product concerned as originating from a particular source. In assessing the distinctive character of a mark in respect of which registration has been applied, the following should betaken into account:

  1. The market share held by the mark.
  2. How intensive, geographically, widespread and long, standing use
    of the mark has been.
  3. The amount invested by the undertaking in promoting the market.
  4. The proportion of the relevant class of persons who identify the goods to be coming from a particular undertaking.

Statements from various trade and commerce associations.

Question 2. What elements can be used as trademarks? How is the scope of protection of trademark rights determined?
Answer: A trademark helps identify the origin of a product through human senses.

People receive messages through the eye, the ear, the nose, etc., but predominantly through the eyes. In reality, trademarks that can be seen are the most common form of trademark.

The TRIPS Agreement provides that member countries may require, as a condition of registration, that signs be visually perceptible.

Elements that may be used in a visually perceptible trademark include words, letters, numerals, figurative elements, and colors. Of course, a trademark may comprise two or more of these elements. For example, Microsoft’s corporate trademark contains a word and a device.

Section 2(1)(zb) of the Trademarks Act, 1 999 states: Trade Mark means a mark capable of being represented graphically and which is capable of distinguishing the goods or services of one person from those of others and may include the shape of goods, their packaging, and combination of colors.”

A trademark is a visual symbol used concerning any goods or services to indicate some kind of trade connection between the goods or services and the person using the mark.

To bring it within the scope of the statutory definition, a trademark should satisfy the following essential requirements; It must be a mark that is a device, brand, heading, label, ticket, name, or an abbreviation of a name, signature, word, letter or numeral shape of goods, packing or combination of colors or any combination thereof.

It must be capable of being represented graphically. It must be capable of distinguishing the goods or services of one person from those of others.

It must be used or proposed to be used concerning goods or services. The use must be of a printed or other visual representation of the mark.

With services, it must be the use of the mark or availability or porioniinncn ol service. services must be to indicate to connection in the course of trade between the goods or some person having the right to use the mark either as proprietor or by way of the permitted user as the case may be. The person using the mark doesn’t need to reveal his identity.

Sections 9 & 11 of the said Trade Marks Act provide the guidelines as to the conditions for a mark to get protection. Registration of Trademark Any person claiming to be the owner of the trademark or supposed to use the trademark in the future may apply in writing to the appropriate registrar in a prescribed manner.

The application must contain the name of the goods, mark, and services, the class of goods and the services in which it falls, the name and address of the applicant, and the duration of use of the mark. Here the person means an association of firms, a partnership firm, a company, a trust, a state government, or the central government.

Conditions of registration The central government by mentioning in the official gazette appoints a person to be known as the controller, general of patents, designs, and trademarks who shall be the registrar of the trademark. The central government may appoint other officers also if they think that they are appropriate, to discharge, under the superintendence and direction of the registrar, the registrar may authorize them to discharge.

The registrar has the power to transfer or withdraw the cases in writing with the reasons mentioned. Section 6 of the Act, discussed the maintenance of a registered trademark. At head office wherein particulars of registered trademarks and other prescribed, particulars, except notice of the trust, shall be recorded.

A copy of the register is to be kept at each branch office. It gives for the preservation of records in computer or diskettes or in any other electronic form. Absolute grounds for refusal of registration Absolute grounds for the refusal of registration are defined in Section 9 of the Act.

The trademarks can lack any distinctive characteristics or consist exclusively of marks or signals, which can be used in trade to indicate the kind, fine, quantity, supposed grounds, values, and geographical origin.

And also a time of production of goods or rendering of the offerings or different characteristics of the goods or offerings which consists solely of marks or indications which have come to be average in the present language. Those marks are not entitled to registration. Except it is confirmed that the mark has acquired a new character as a result of use before the date of application.

It gives that a mark shall not be registered as a trademark if:

  1. It frauds the public or confuses.
  2. There is no matter to hurt religious susceptibility.
  3. There is an obscene or scandalous matter.

Its use is prohibited. It provides that if a mark contains exclusively the shape of goods which form the nature of goods or, the shape of goods which is needed to obtain a technical result or, the shape of goods which gives substantial value to goods then it shall not be registered as a trademark.

Test of similarity

For the conclusion, if one mark is deceptively similar to another the essential features of the two are to be considered.

They should not be placed side by side to find out if there are any differences in the design and if they are of such a character to prevent one design from being mistaken for the other.

It would be enough if the disputed mark has such an overall similarity to the registered mark as it is likely to deceive a person usually dealing with one to accept the other if offered to him.

Apart from the structural, visual, and phonetic similarity or dissimilarity, the query needs to be viewed from the factor of view of man’s typical intelligence and imperfect collection. It’s regarded as an entire third it is the query of his impressions.

In Mohd. Iqbal v. Mohd. Wasim it was held that “it is common knowledge that ‘bidis’ are being used by persons belonging to the poorer and illiterate or semi-literate class.

Their level of knowledge is not high. It cannot be expected of them that they would comprehend and understand the fine differences between the two labels, which may be detected by comparing the two common labels. Given the above, there appears to be a deceptive similarity between the two labels”.

Relative grounds for refusal of registration

Under Section 1 1 of the Act, gives relative grounds lor the refusal of registration of a trademark. A trademark cannot be registered if because of its identity with an earlier trademark and similarity of goods or services, its similarity to an earlier trademark and the similarity of the goods and confusion is probable. It also gives that a trademark cannot be registered that is identical or similar to an earlier trademark.

And also which is to be registered for goods and services which are not similar to those for which an earlier trademark is registered in the name of a different proprietor if, or to the extent, the earlier trademark is well known in India. It further gives that a trademark cannot be registered if, or to the extent that, its use in India is liable to be prevented by any law.

Procedure and Duration of Registration

The registrar on the application made by the proprietor of the trademark in the prescribed manner within the given period with the adequate payment of fees.

Registration of a trademark shall be for ten years and renewal of the registered trademark is also for ten years from the date of expiration of the original registration or of the last renewal of registration.

The registrar shall send the notice before the expiration of the last registration in the prescribed manner to the registered proprietor.

The notice mentions the date of expiration and payment of fees and upon which a renewal of registration may be obtained if, at the expiration of the time given on that behalf, those conditions have not duly complied with the registrar may remove the trademark from the register.

But the registrar shall not remove the trademark from the register if implication is made within the prescribed form and the prescribed rate is paid within six months from the expiration of the final registration of the trademark and shall renew the registration of the trademark for ten years.

If the trademark is removed from the register for non-payment of the prescribed fee, the registrar shall after six months and within one year from the expiration of the last registration of the trademark renew the registration, And also on receipt of implication in the prescribed form and on payment of the prescribed fee the registrar restores the trademark to the register and renew the registration of the trademark, for ten years from the expiration of the last registration.

“Most people immediately think of cars when they hear the name Nissan, and this is understandable since the company has used the label since the 1970s. In 1994, however, nissan.com was registered with Nissan Computer Corporation. This was five years before the automobile company decided they wanted the domain.

Nissan Motors claimed that the domain name constituted trademark dilution, infringement, and cybersquatting. This would typically be a valid claim, but the owner of the domain and corporation is Uzi Nissan. Uzi’s companies are simply titled after his surname.

Nissan Motors ended up registering a different domain for their company.” What do you mean by cybersquatting? Did cybersquatting occur in this case? Critically examine the Legal Scenario of Cybersquatting in India.

Recent Developments In the Patent System Question and Answers

Recent Developments In the Patent System Descriptive Questions

Question 1. Company ABC is specialized in the area of creating software as per the needs of the clients. It developed software which enhances the performance of the computer in terms of speed. Company ABC wants to provide IPR protection to the software. Please advise on this issue to the company.
Answer: Computer Software is a matter of Intellectual Property Rights protection and is recognized at the International Level by the Agreement on Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights. TRIPS provides patents as well as copyright protection to computer software.

However, there are conceptual differences between patents and copyright. Hence, the protection of the computer software has to qualify the eligibility criteria of the patents or copyrights to claim the protection of IPR.

For the protection of software for patent rights, the eligibility criteria of novelty, non-obviousness, etc have to be about the software.

Although, the Patents Act, of 1970 excludes certain innovations from the purview of the Patent Act, of 1970. Sections 3 and 4 of the Patent Act specify a list of subject matter that is not patentable, in particular, “a mathematical or business method or a program per se or algorithm’ is of specific importance to a software innovation (Section 3(k)).

The Indian Patent law does not contain any specific provision regarding the protection of computer software. Computer software on the other hand is protected as applicable to literary and aesthetic works.

Computer software that does not have a technical effect is protected under copyright law. A computer program therefore deals with literary work and the law and practice concerning literary works will apply to computer programs.

For copyright protection, computer software needs to be original, and sufficient effort and skill must be put into making it the original work of the author.

A program that generates a multiplication of tables or algorithms may not suffice the degree of effort required for protection. Apart from that, the work should be first published in India or if published outside India, the author on the date of publication should be a citizen of India.

Recent Developments In the Patent System Practical Questions

Question 1. Dr. Albert Costa is a Professor and Scientist with TATA Institute of Medical Science, working in the area of molecular biology.

During the process of his research with regards to the environmental impact in his lab, he accidentally invents a new microorganism that eats up the plastic content and converts it to bioproduct.

Hoping that his invention will eradicate plastic-related environmental pollution worldwide, he wants to take credit for his invention. What kind of Intellectual Property Rights protection he is entitled to? Give justification if any.
Answer:

As per the Patents Act, of 1970, Patent of life forms are not allowed. Section 3 of the Patents Act deals with inventions that are not patentable.

Section 3 of the Patents Act, of 1970 deals with the plants and animals in whole or any parts thereof other than microorganisms but including seeds varieties, and species, and essentially biological processes for the production or propagation of plants and animals are not inventions.

As per this provision the plants in whole or in part, animals in whole or in part, seeds, verities, and specifies of plant and animals, essentially biological processes for production or propagation of plant and animal are not patentable.

However, Section 3 makes an exception about the microorganisms, other than the ones discovered in nature, that may be patentable. For instance, genetically modified microorganisms may be patentable subject to other requirements of patentability.

Question 2. Regenerate Inc. is a Multinational Company operating around the world over and specializes in the genetic mutation of plants and seeds. In India, it has opened its subsidiaries in Ahmedabad.

It collects the seeds of tomato plants from traditional farmers from the Punjab region and successfully genetically modifies them to grow cultivated in arid tropical areas of the Indian subcontinental. The experiment is a hugely successful one.

The genetic manipulation of seeds not only makes them suitable for other ecological environments but also enhances the quality and size of the tomato. Advise them as to how their interest as inventors will be protected under the current Intellectual Property Rights regime in India.
Answer: The genetically manipulated seeds in this case can be protected under the Protection of Plant Verities and Farmers Rights Act, 2001 as the subject is outside the purview of the Indian Patent Act, of 1970.

The Act recognizes the breeder’s right with regards to the scientific modification of the seeds and therefore for its protection the eligibility criteria of the Plant Variety have to be fulfilled i.e., section 15 of the Act defines the criteria of

  1. Novelty,
  2. Distinctiveness,
  3. Uniformity,
  4. Stability.

The criteria of novelty are not as tough as in the case of the Indian Patent Act, of 1970.

The new variety needs to be registered under the Protection of Plant Verities and Farmers Rights Act, 2001 for Intellectual Property Rights protection.

For registration of plant variety the following pre-requisites are essential:

  1. Denomination assigned to such a variety
  2. Every application shall be accompanied by an affidavit showing that such variety does not contain any gene or gene sequences involving terminator technology.
  3. Complete passport data of parental lines with their geographical location in India and all information relating to the contribution if any, of any farmer(s), village, community, institution or organization, etc., in breeding, evolving, or developing the variety.
  4. Characteristics of variety with description for novelty, distinctiveness, uniformity, and stability.
  5. A declaration that the genetic material used for breeding of such variety has been lawfully acquired.
  6. A breeder or other person making an application for registration shall disclose the use of genetic material conserved by any tribal or rural families for the improvement of such variety.

Question 3. During his stay for sociological research in a tribal populated area of State A tribal people, Mr. X discovered that the indigenous community is immune from mosquito-related infections and diseases. On testing the blood samples, he discovered that their immunity power is comparatively greater in comparison to the urban people of the same age in neighboring areas. Upon further research, They discovered that they consume daily certain herbal leaves of specific plants only found in their region. He shares this knowledge in an article published in the international journal Nature and Medicine. Company ABC was impressed by the research article investigated and did the research from their end to verify the facts on confirming the medicinal properties in the plant they started manufacturing medicines with the ingredients of the specific plant and its leaf to enhance the immunity power. Advise them if they can seek patent rights on medicine.
Answer: Section 3(p) of the Patents Act, of 1970 provides that an invention whose effect, is traditional knowledge or which is an aggregation or duplication of known properties of traditionally known components or compounds is not an invention. Traditional knowledge being knowledge already existing is not patentable.

An example is the antiseptic properties of turmeric for wound healing. Another example is the pesticidal and insecticidal properties of neem. The examiner investigates by using the Traditional Knowledge Digital Library (TKDL) and other resources to decide whether the claimed subject matter falls within the purview of the above provision.

However, if there is a substantial improvement in the existing Traditional Knowledge (TK) which enables the invention to fulfill the criteria under the Indian Intellectual Property (IP) Law, Intellectual Property protection can be sought.

The key issue in protecting Traditional Knowledge is prior knowledge of the innovation as much of Traditional Knowledge is already in the public domain being passed on orally or through documentation through generations.

This makes most Traditional Knowledge ineligible for IP protection as the majority of information is already part of “prior art” and therefore there is very little in terms of novelty that can be established for patent protection.

Traditional Knowledge is an integral part of the strength of local community knowledge.

Attempts to exploit TK owned by local communities, for industrial or commercial benefit is a major issue as it is unfair exploitation of knowledge owned by local communities, as IP protection creates a monopoly of patent owners. Governments the world over including India have enacted laws to prevent such unfair exploitation of TK.

Indian law has adequate provisions for the protection of TK. Traditional knowledge, by its very definition, is in the public domain and hence, any application for a patent relating to TK does not qualify as an invention under section 2 (1) of the Patents Act, 1970, which defines that “invention means a new product or process involving an inventive step and capable of industrial application”.

Recent Developments In the Patent System Short Notes

Question 1. Write a brief note on Patentable Inventions in Biotechnology.
Answer:

Patentable Inventions in Biotechnology: The exciting developments in the domain of biotechnology have resulted in intensive R&D activities all over the world including India. After information technology, biotechnology is increasingly recognized as the next wave in the knowledge-based economy.

Biotechnology has been at the core of some important developments in the pharmaceutical, agrochemical, energy, and environmental sectors.

In particular, progress in the fields of molecular biology, biotechnology, and molecular medicine has highlighted the potential of biotechnology for the pharmaceutical industry.

Conventionally, a micro-organism is considered an organism that is microscopic, i.e., too small to be seen by the naked human eye and can be viewed only under a microscope, usually, an ordinary light microscope.

Micro-organisms include bacteria, fungi, viruses, protists, and other prokaryotes as well as some microscopic plants (phytoplankton) and animals (zooplankton).

The US Supreme Court ruled that genetically altered micro-organisms were indeed patentable based on the following criteria:

  1. They were man-made;
  2. They were products of human manipulation and therefore considered similar to any other invention;
  3. They had a specified industrial application (one criterion for patenting is that the invention has utility). Further, the Supreme Court cited the fact that there was precedence for patenting living matter.
  4. Since 1930 certain asexually reproduced plants have been protected by patenting.

Furthermore, in 1970 the Plant Variety Protection Act allowed for the protection of some sexually reproduced plants.

As a result of the Supreme Court’s decision, the US biotechnology industry flourished and many US patents have been granted on human-made higher life forms such as transgenic mice, fish, etc. Thus, microorganisms, plants, and animals have now all received U.S.

Patenting status. Europe views the patenting of “man-made” life in much the same manner as the U.S. patent office. TRIPS Agreement obliges member states to patent micro-organisms.

Article 27.3 permits WTO member countries to exclude two specific classes of subject matter from patentability:

Diagnostic, therapeutic, and surgical methods for the treatment of humans or animals; and

Plants and animals other than microorganisms, and essentially biological processes for the production of plants or animals other than nonbiological and microbiological processes.

Though the TRIPS agreement mandates patent protection for micro-organisms, it does not define microorganisms; thus there is no standard definition for member nations to follow.

To comply with the World Trade Organization (WTO), Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS) Agreement, India amended the Patents Act, 1970 with effect from January 2005.

The Indian Patent Act has now a specific provision concerning the patenting of microorganisms and microbiological processes. It is now possible to get a patent for a microbiological process and also products emanating from such processes.

The most vital distinction between the legal practices of India and developed countries is that India does not allow the patenting of micro-organisms that already exist in nature, as the same is considered to be a discovery as per the provisions of Section 3(d) of the Patents Act, 1970 and therefore not patentable.

But genetically modified versions of the same microorganisms that result in enhancement of its known efficacies are patentable.

Another requirement is sufficiency of disclosure which is very important.

The Patents Act, of 1970 stipulates that a sufficient and clear description of the invention should be given.

The Act or the Rule, however, does not stipulate any condition or procedure to meet the requirement of sufficiency of disclosure in the case of inventions involving the use of biological material, which are very difficult to describe in words.

It has been the practice of the Patent Office from time immemorial to follow the practice adopted by the foreign patent offices by allowing the accession No., accorded by a depository institution either foreign or Indian in the patent specification to satisfy the requirement of sufficiency of disclosure of the invention desired to be patented.

Question 2. Write a brief note on the Biodiversity Act, of 2002.
Answer: The Biodiversity Act, 2002

Under the CBD, India enacted the Biological Diversity Act in 2002, and notified Biological Diversity Rules in 2004, to give effect to the provisions of this Convention.

The Act is implemented through a three-tiered institutional structure at the national, state, and local levels. The National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) was set up in October 2003 in Chennai.

As per Section 8(4) of the Act, the NBA consists of a Chairperson, five non-official, and ten ex-officio members to be appointed by the Central Government to represent various Ministries.

The Biological Diversity Act, of 2002 is an Act of the Parliament of India for the preservation of biological diversity in India and provides a mechanism for equitable sharing of benefits arising out of the use of traditional biological resources and knowledge. The Act was enacted to meet the obligations under the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD), to which India is a party.

This is an Act to provide for the conservation of biological diversity, sustainable use of its components, and fair and equitable sharing of the benefits arising out of the use of biological resources, knowledge, and matters connected therewith or incidental thereto.

Whereas India is rich in biological diversity and associated traditional and contemporary knowledge systems relating thereto. India is a party to the United Nations Convention on Biological Diversity signed at Rio de Janeiro on the 5th day of June, 1992.

The vision of NBA is the conservation and sustainable use of India’s rich biodiversity and associated knowledge with people’s participation, ensuring the process of benefit sharing for well well-being of present and future generations.

The mission of the NBA is to ensure the effective implementation of the Biological Diversity Act, 2002, and the Biological Diversity Rules 2004 for the conservation of biodiversity, sustainable use of its components, and fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising out of the utilization of genetic resources.

Biodiversity and Biological Resource Biodiversity has been defined under Section 2(b) of the Act as “the variability among living organisms from all sources and the ecological complexes of which they are part, and includes diversity within species or between species and of eco-systems”.

The Act also defines Biological resources as “plants, animals and micro-organisms or parts thereof, their genetic material and by-products (excluding value added products) with actual or potential use or value, but does not include human genetic material.

” National Biodiversity Authority and State Biodiversity Boards The National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) is a statutory autonomous body, headquartered in Chennai, under the Ministry of Environment and Forests, Government of India established in 2003 to implement the provisions under the Act.

State Biodiversity Boards (SBB) have been created in 28 States along with 31,574 Biological management committees (for each local body) across India.

Recent Developments In the Patent System Descriptive Questions

Question 1. How has a software patent been defined? Briefly discuss some of the important issues concerning software patenting.
Answer:

  1. A software patent is generally defined as a patent that protects some programming technique.
  2. The Foundation for Free Information Infrastructure (FFII) has defined a software patent as being a patent on any performance of a computer realized employing a computer program.
  3. The important issues concerning software patenting are as follows: Whether software patents should be allowed, and if so, where the boundary between patentable and non-patentable software should lie;
  4. Whether the invention step and non-obviousness requirement are applied too loosely to software; and
  5. Whether patents covering software discourage, rather than encourage, innovation.

Question 2. Discuss the criteria for the patentability of software in India.
Answer: The criteria for the patentability of software in India are:

  • They are man-made;
  • They were products of human manipulation and there of considered
    similar to any other invention;
  • They had a specified industrial application

Question 3. How is the requirement of sufficiency of disclosure met in the case of micro-organisms?
Answer:

  • In the case of micro-organism sufficiency of disclosure is very important. The Patent Act, of 1970 stipulates that a sufficient and clear description of the invention should be given.
  • The Act or the Rule, does not stipulate any condition or procedure to meet the requirement of sufficiency of disclosure in the case of inventions involving the use of biological material, which are very difficult to describe.

Patent Infringement Question and Answers

Patent Infringement

Question 1. Concerning the relevant legal enactments, write short notes on the following: Potential infringement of a patent.
Answer: Potential infringement of a patent:

  • It refers to do any act that comes under the prohibited act concerning a patented invention infringement of a patent occurs without permission of the patent holder.
  • It normally includes using or selling the patented invention.
  • Patentee relief for infringement is under
    • Interim injunction
    • Damages on account of profits
    • Permanent injunction

Descriptive Questions

Question 1. Explain the powers of the Controller in respect of an application for a patent that has a substantial risk of infringement.
Answer: Section 19 of the Patents Act, 1970 covers the powers of the controller in respect of an application for a patent that has substantial risk of infringement.

  • If it appears to the controller in respect of an application for a patent which has substantial risk of infringement, he may direct that a reference to that other patent, be inserted in the applicant’s complete specification by way of notice to the public.
  • Such reference will not be inserted if the applicant shows to the 1 satisfaction of the controller that there are reasonable grounds for contesting the validity of the said claim of the other patent.

Question 2. Statement: Customs has lost power to interdict Patent violating goods at the Border. It can stop imports of trademark infringement but not patents By Notification Nos. 56-Customs (NT) and 57-Customs (NT) dated 22 June, 201 8 the Customs has lost its power to interdict patent infringing goods at the time of customs clearance.

In the previous dispensation, a patent registered with the customs was automatically enforced at the border by an alarm triggered by the EDI computer which raised a flag from the inward manifest when goods with registered patents entered a port.

Patent Infringement - Definition and Types

The infringing goods import was prohibited under Sec. 11 of Customs Act, 1 962. The offense could result in the confiscation of the goods and their destruction. What is the impact of the above on technology import and domestic manufacturing? Discuss.
Answer: Many multinationals secured Patent protection at the border without having taken the pains to go to the Court of Law to get an adjudication as regards infringement of the Patent.

This provision in the border rules was deliberately inserted in the 2007 law by certain vested interests in the customs who wanted a source of income from the legal practice of Patent law after their retirement.

They went beyond the TRI Ps Agreement at WTO which allowed waiver of Patent enforcement at the border to Developing Countries.

(The fact that Indian Border Rules on Patent enforcement go beyond WTO TRIPS was first pointed out by the Academy of Business Studies in 2007. It has taken 11 years for the Government to amend the rules and bring with it the special treatment offered to developing countries by WTO).

Many Indian manufacturers, who were earlier harassed by the Customs Authority on the ground that the goods imported infringed somebody’s registered Patent, shall get relief from the present notification.

The imposters in India who registered false Patents with the intent to blackmail the importers will also lose ground due to the present notification.

The Ramkumarcase of 2007 is of relevance here. In that case, an “inventor” from Madurai registered a false Patent for dual sim mobile phones of suitcase size. He demanded and secured, some 60 crore rupees from a reputed company (an importer in this case) like Samsung, as a license fee to import dual sim phones.

Finally, the law caught hold of him, and the IP Appellate Board overturned his Patent and thus the Customs Authority allowed free import of the dual sim phones without Ram Kumar’s NOC (No Objection Certificate).

The amendment brought into the Border Rules (the present notification in particular) is not intended to say that India shall not protect the Patent Rights of Inventors. A regular Court of Law as well as the IP Appellate Board (IPAB) is required to be moved by such Patent holder to secure an injunction to stop any infringement of his rights at the point of sale/import of an infringing article.

In the two notifications reference to the Patent Act, of 1970 has been omitted in the registration as well as enforcement system. Other PRs like copyrights, designs, and trademarks will however continue to get protection at the border.

Since the notification is made effective prospectively, all past cases shall, however, continue to be adjudicated at the customs border as per the old law.

Question 3. Ravi KamaI Bali instituted an infringement suit against Kala Tech and Ors seeking an interim injunction preventing the defendant, from making, selling, or distributing tamper-proof locks/seals as it would be the infringement of his patent.

He argued that Kala techs perform the same work, in substantially the same manner and give the same output thereby contributing to the infringement. The plaintiff asked the court to apply the Doctrine of Equivalents while considering the question of infringement of patents. Regarding this case, discuss the relevant Sections of the Indian Patent Act, of 1970.
Answer: Ericsson is a Swedish multinational company and is the registered owner of eight patents on AMR technology, 3G technology, and Edge technology in India. It is amongst the largest patent holders in the mobile phone industry along with Qualcomm, Nokia, and Samsung.

The patents owned by Ericsson are considered to be standard essential patents. Standard essential patents are those patents that form a part of a technical standard that must exist in a product as a part of the common design of such products.

In the past two years, Ericsson has been suing various mobile handset companies on the grounds of patent infringement in India, such as Xiaomi Technology (Xiaomi), and Micromax Informatics Ltd.

(Micromax) and Intex Technologies (India) Ltd. (Intex), which are major handset and smartphone provider companies in India.

Contentions of Ericsson: Ericsson moved to the Delhi High Court against the companies named above contending that licenses on the standard essential patents were offered to be granted to these companies on fair, reasonable, and non-discriminatory (FRAND) terms.

However, these companies had refused to undertake such licenses and were using these patents without a license and accordingly were infringing Ericsson’s patents.

The decision of the High Court: The High Court held that prima facia Micromax and Xiaomi were dealing with a patent-infringing product and therefore, granted ex-parte injunction orders against them.

Furthermore, the court also directed the Customs Authorities to take note of any consignment of the products undertaken by these companies.

In the case of Xiaomi, Flipkart was also implemented in the order and was directed to get rid of all the products of Xiaomi that may be patent infringing.

Although Xiaomi managed to acquire an order allowing the company to import and sell the devices that use the chipsets imported from Qualcomm Inc., a licensee of Ericsson, it was asked to deposit an amount of 1100 for the sale of every device.

Furthermore, the court also directed Micromax to pay certain royalty rates per set to Ericsson pending the outcome of the patent infringement suit, if Micromax wanted to continue selling the devices.

The aforesaid ex-parte injunction orders by the High Court concerning selling, advertising, importing, and/or manufacturing devices that infringed the patents owned by Ericsson.

CCI Investigation Orders: Some of the aggrieved parties like Micromax decided to file a complaint under section 9(1)(a) of the Competition Act, 2002 before the Competition Commission of India (CCI) against Ericsson.

These parties claimed that Ericsson did not negotiate the terms of the license for the standard essential patents as per FRAND terms.

The main contention raised by the parties was that the royalty rates prescribed by Ericsson were excessive and discriminatory and that Ericsson, being a dominant player in the relevant market concerning essential patents, had taken advantage of its position and charged exorbitant rates for royalty from the companies for use of its patents.

The CCI considered this contention and after examining the evidence presented, agreed with the companies and passed an investigation order.

However, this order suffered a blow as the Delhi High Court passed an order restraining the CCI from passing final orders to the contention of the companies.

The Delhi High Court held that the CCI’s order resulted in raising a question of conflict of jurisdiction with the orders of the Delhi High Court.

The High Court held that the order of CCI was adjudicatory and determinative due to the nature of the order being detailed and as a result, the remedy available to Ericsson had been discarded.

Question 1. Under what provisions of the Patents Act, of 1970, can the court grant injunction orders? Is the injunction order justified in this case?
Answer:

1. Section 108 of the Patents Act, 1970 provides the power of the Court to issue injunction orders for infringement, subject to such terms, if any, as the Court thinks fit. In the case of patent infringement, an interlocutory order in the form of a temporary injunction can be granted if facts indicate:

  1. A prima facia of infringement;
  2. Balance of convenience is in favor of the plaintiff;
  3. Insufferable damage for the plaintiff, if injunction is not granted.

The patents owned by Ericsson are considered to be Standard Essential Patents.

Standard Essential Patents are those patents that form a part of a technical standard that must exist in a product as a part of the common design of such products.

The Indian Patents Act, of 1970 seeks to protect the rights of patent holders, and the Court, too has displayed their willingness to protect such rights.

  • The Courts have often granted ex-parte injunction orders, without hearing any arguments on merits from the alleged infringers.
  • But in this case, the Court failed to reckon that the patents were Standard Essential Patents. As mentioned above, Standard Essential Patents form a part of a technical standard that must exist in a product as a part of the common design of such products.
  • The alleged infringers were under the obligation to ensure that the Standard Essential Patents as a technical standard existed in their products as a part of a common design.
  • In the circumstances, it would have been in order if the Defendants (alleged infringers) had been given a hearing before the order had been passed.

Question 2. What are the likely implications of such ex-parte orders for the public?
Answer: The High Court granted ex-parte injunction orders, without hearing any arguments on merits from the alleged infringers.

  • Besides the fact that the Court failed to observe that the patents in these cases were Standard Essential Patents, it cannot be, he again said that it would have major implications for the development of technology and the protection of consumers.
  • Consumers in these circumstances are likely not given enough choice due to such ex-parte injunction orders. In the case of Xiaomi, Flipkart was implemented in the order and the Court directed Flipkart to get rid of all the products of Xiaomi that may be patent infringing.
  • Although Xiaomi managed to acquire an order allowing the company to import and sell the devices that use the chipsets imported from Qualcomm Inc., a licensee of Ericsson, it was asked to deposit an amount of INR 100 for the sale of every device.
  • Thus the consumers were deprived of the products of Xiaomi before even the charges of infringement were proved.
  • Furthermore, the Court also directed Micromax to pay certain royalty rates to Ericsson pending the outcome of the patent infringement suit, if Micromax wanted to continue selling the devices.
  • The consumers impliedly would have to pay more for the products, as Micromax would pass on the royalty payments in the price payable by the former.

Question 3. How does the Competition Act, of 2002 deal with matters relating to IPRs?
Answer: Section 3(5) of the Competition Act, 2002 deals with its applicability to matters relating to IPRs.

Section 3 of the Competition Act, 2002 deals with anti-competitive practices. It states that:

  1. No enterprise or association of enterprises or person or association of persons shall enter into any agreement in respect of production, supply, distribution, storage, acquisition, or control of goods or provision of services, which causes or is likely to cause an appreciable adverse effect on competition within India.
  2. Any agreement entered into in contravention of the provisions contained in sub-section Shall be void.

Section 3(5) declares that nothing contained in this Section shall restrict:

  1. The right of any person to restrain any infringement of, or to impose reasonable conditions, as may be necessary for protecting any of his rights which have been or may be conferred upon him under:
    1. The Copyright Act, 1957
    2. The Patents Act, 1970
    3. The Trade Marks Act, 1999
    4. The Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999
    5. The Designs Act, 2000
    6. The Semi-Conductor Integrated Circuits Layout Design Act, 2000

Thus, the patent holder has every right to restrain the infringement of his rights.

Section 3(5) of the Competition Act, 2002 cannot come in the way of the right of the patent holder to restrain infringement of his rights unless he has imposed any unreasonable conditions while granting the license.

In cases of unreasonable conditions in the license, Section 3 of the Competition Act can be invoked. This is the legal situation on a bare reading of the Competition Act, of 2002 in conjunction with the Patent Act, of 1970.

The decision of the Delhi High Court of the CCI’s investigation orders shows that there is a possibility in patent cases that CCI’s orders may result in the overlapping with the jurisdiction of the High Courts and result in intervening with the jurisdiction of the High Court.

The role of CCI in patent cases needs to be clearer. The High Court has flagged the issue for adjudication.

Question 2. Read the following case study and answer the questions that follow: A question for adjudication, whether Section 1 07 A of the Patents Act, 1970 permits export from India of a patented invention, even if solely for uses reasonably related to the development and submission of information required under any law for the time being in force, in India, or a country other than India, that regulates the manufacture, construction, use, sale or import of any product, camp up before the High Court of Delhi.

The petitioner, Bayer Corporation (Bayer) filed a writ petition in the High Court of Delhi contending that Natco was granted a Compulsory Licence by the Controller of Patents for the drug ‘Sorafenib Tosylate’ under section 84 of the Patents Act, subject to certain terms and conditions contained therein, that one of the said terms was that the Compulsory Licence was solely to make, use, offering to sell and selling the drug covered by the patent to treat HCC and RCC in humans within the territory of India, that Natco was, however, manufacturing the product covered by the Compulsory Licence for export outside India and that the export by Natco was contrary to the terms of Compulsory Licence and amounted to infringement of the patent within the meaning of Section 48 of the Patents Act.

Natco filed a counter affidavit in the writ petition inter alia pleading

  1. That Natco had not exported any product (subject matter of Compulsory Licence);
  2. That under the scheme of the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940 (Drugs Act) permission was routinely granted for export to various countries upon compliance with certain conditions and that there were similar provisions in the Western countries including Europe;
  3. The Patents Act also provided that the export of a patented product for generation or submission of regulatory permission was not an act of infringement;
  4. The export by Natco was also for regulatory purposes
  5. That such export was not at all barred by the compulsory license;
  6. That the activity of conducting studies for regulatory approval was squarely covered under section 107a of the Patents Act, and
  7. That natco had never exported the finished product to any party outside India for commercial purposes. Bayer, in its rejoinder to the counter affidavit aforesaid, pleaded
  8. That section 107a of the patents act had no application as the acts contemplated thereunder, of making, constructing, using selling, or importing a patented invention, were to be performed within the territory of India and that the information from such activity could be submitted with the regulatory authorities either in India or with the countries other than India;
  9. Section 107aof the act did not contemplate the export of products perse but was limited to information generated within the territory of India; and
  10. That export of a product covered by compulsory license under the garb of section 1 07a of the act was an abuse of the process of law.
  11. The senior counsel for Bayer contended that the rights, if any of natco, under section 107a of the act stood surrendered on natco obtaining the compulsory license, and thereafter natco was governed only by the terms of the compulsory license;
  12. That such giving up of statutory rights under section 107a of the act flowed from section 84(4) of the patents act,
  13. That the word ‘selling’ in section 107a of the patents act meant selling in India only and did not include export;
  14. Section 107a of the act, owing to its history called the ‘bolar provision’ was only to enable the activities mentioned in section 107a of the act within India and not for exports;
  15. That section 107a of the act was not enacted for seeking approval to manufacture a new drug in other countries;
  16. To read the word ‘export’ in section 107a would amount to making laws for other countries, and

Section 107a of the act used the word ‘import’ and from the absence of the word ‘export’ therein, the only logical conclusion was that exports of patented invention were outside the ambit of section 107a of the act (reproduced below).

Section 107a of the patents: “For this act, Any act of making, constructing, using, selling, or importing a patented invention solely for uses reasonably related to the development and submission of information required the time being in force, in India, or a country other than India, that regulates the manufacture, construction, use, sale or import of any product

Importation of patented products by any person from a person who is duly authorized under the law to produce and sell or distribute the product, shall not be considered as an infringement of patent rights.” It will be to reproduce Section 48 of the Copyright Act to provide the context.

Section 48: “Rights of patentees -Subject to the other provisions contained in this Act and the conditions specified in Section 47, a patent granted under this act shall confer upon the patentee-

Where the subject matter of the patent is a product, the exclusive right to prevent third parties, who do not have his consent, from the act of making, using offering for sale, selling, or importing for those purposes that product in India;

Where the subject matter of the patent is a process, the exclusive right to prevent third parties, who do not have his consent, from the act of using that process, and from the act of using, offering for sale, selling importing for those purposes the product obtained directly by that process in India.”

The said Section 48 prescribes the rights of a patentee on conferment of patent.

Those rights vest exclusively in the patentee. Axiomatically, the exercise of any of those rights by a non-patentee would be an infringement of the patent.

Counsel for Bayer contended that, the acts of a non-patentee (Natco) of making, using offering for sale, and selling patented products would be an infringement of the patent and that the patentee was entitled to approach the Courts to prevent the non-patentee from doing the said acts.

  1. The senior counsel for Natco argued
  2. That the exports intended by Natco were only for research and development purposes and for obtaining the drug regulatory approvals in the countries to which exports were intended
  3. Natco did not intend to export the product covered by the Compulsory Licence for commercial purposes
  4. Before a new drug was granted marketing approval, the drug regulatory authorities had to test its safety, efficacy, and therapeutic value by requiring clinical trials to be undertaken;
  5. That the Indian pharmaceutical industry was the largest exporter of generic drugs; and the biggest supplier of medicines to the developing world;
  6. That research and development activity with respect even to patented drugs, for submission of data to the Drug Regulatory Authority, was not infringement;
  7. That Section 48 of the Patents Act was subject to other provisions of the Act,
  8. That the rights of Natco under Section 107A were independent of the Compulsory Licence; and
  9. That grant of compulsory Licence could not be in negation of the rights under Section 107A.
  10. Further argued Natco that it was the purpose which distinguished, whether the impugned acts constituted infringement of patent or not.

If the said purpose was within the confines of Section 107A, the acts so done would not constitute infringement and the patentee would not have the right to prevent a non-patentee from doing them.

However, if the purpose of doing the acts of making, using, selling, or importing a patented invention was not solely for the purposes prescribed in Section 107A, the said acts would constitute an infringement of the patent, and the patentee would have the right to prevent a non-patentee from doing them. Hence the need for the word ‘selling’ in Section 107A.

Thus, the sale by a non-patentee of a pharmaceutical product solely for the purposes prescribed in Section 107A would also not be an infringement and cannot be prevented.

Bayer could not controvert that such selling of patented inventions, even if for profit, as long as solely for the purposes prescribed in Section 107A, is not an infringement and cannot be prevented.

The point of difference between Bayer and Natco is qua selling outside India.

Bayer contended that the word ‘selling’ in Section 107A was confined to within the territory of India and that selling of patented invention outside India even if for purposes specified in Section 107A would constitute an infringement that could be prevented by the patentee, the contention of the senior counsels for Natco was that use of the word ‘selling’ under Section A was without any such restriction of being within India only and would include selling outside India also, so long as solely for the purposes proscribed in section 107A.

An issue that was raised during the proceedings in the Court related to the Agreement on Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS Agreement). India as a party to the TRIPS agreement has agreed to give effect to the provisions thereof without being obliged to implement in its law more extensive protection than is required by it, provided that such protection does not contravene the provisions of the TRIPS Agreement.

Otherwise, India is free to determine the appropriate method of implementing the provisions of the TRIPS Agreement within its legal system and practice.

The objective of the TRIPS Agreement, as per Article 7 thereof, is the protection and enforcement of intellectual property rights, to contribute to the promotion of technological innovation and the transfer and dissemination of technology, to the mutual advantage of producers and users of technological knowledge and in a manner conducive to social and economic welfare and to a balance of rights and obligations.

Per Clause 1 of Article 8 of the TRIPS Agreement, member countries, in formulating and amending their laws and regulations, have the discretion to adopt measures necessary to protect public health and nutrition and to promote the public interest in sectors of vital importance to their socio-economic and technological development, provided that such measures are consistent with the provisions of the TRIPS Agreement.

Article 30 of the TRIPS Agreement entitles the member countries to provide limited exceptions to the exclusive rights conferred by a patent provided that such exceptions do not unreasonably conflict with the normal exploitation of the patent and so do not unreasonably prejudice the legitimate interest of the patent owner, taking into account the legitimate interest of third parties.

Article 31 of the TRIPS Agreement, while providing that the laws of member countries may allow the use of patented products/processes for certain purposes, vide Clause provides that such use should be predominantly for the supply of the domestic market of the member country authorizing such use.

It is the contention of counsels for Bayer, that the use permitted by Section 1 07A thus has to be for selling to the domestic market only and not for selling by way of export. The submissions of both parties traverse the contours of the Patents Act and TRIPS Agreement. Having regard to the submissions, answer the following questions.

Question 1. What is the spirit/basis for Section 107A of the Patents Act?
Answer: Section 107A was incorporated/inserted into the Patents Act, 1 970 vide the Amendment Act of 2002 (Act 38 of 2002) and the same came into effect on 20th May 2003. The broad purpose and spirit behind bringing in such a provision on the statute book were to lay down certain acts that shall not be considered as amounting to an ‘infringement of a patent’. This was done in pursuance of the larger public interest.

The importance of Section 107A is to be understood in light of the provisions of Section 48 of the Act wherein the rights of the patentee (patent holder) have been laid down. A Patentee is conferred with certain exclusive rights as regards the invention (product or process) which is the subject matter of his patent.

Normally, the acts of a nonpatentee, of making, using, offering for sale, or selling patented products would be an infringement of the patent and the patentee is entitled to approach the Courts to prevent such non-patentee from doing such acts.

However, by Section 107A, the acts of a non-patentee of making, using, or selling a patented product for the purposes prescribed therein have been made as not amounting to infringement of the patent. In all such cases, the patentee cannot prevent the non-patentee from doing them.

But for Section 107A, the acts of making, constructing, using, selling, or importing a patented invention, even if for the purposes prescribed in Section 107A would have constituted an infringement of the patent.

It is thus the purpose for which the said acts are done which distinguishes, whether the acts constitute infringement of a patent or not. If the said purpose is within the confines of Section 107A, the acts so done would not constitute infringement and the patentee cannot prevent a non-patentee from doing them.

However, if the purpose of doing the acts of making, using, selling, or importing a patented invention is not solely for the purposes prescribed in Section 107A, the said acts would constitute an infringement of the patent and the patentee can prevent non-patentee from doing them.

Therefore, the consideration and the object behind the inclusion of such a provision was to allow the acts of making, using, and selling a patented invention, even during the life of the patent but solely for uses reasonably related to the development and submission of information required under the law for obtaining approval.

Question 2. Would the word ‘selling’ in Section 107A of the Patents Act include export?
Answer: Section 107A lays down that any act of making, constructing, using, selling, or importing a patented invention solely for uses reasonably related to the development and submission of information required under any law for the time being in force, in India, or in a country other than India, that regulates the manufacture, construction, use, sale or import of any product shall not be considered as an infringement of the patent right of somebody else. The pertinent question that arises in the present set of facts, however, is, ‘whether a non-patentee thereunder can export a patented invention for such purposes’.

The answer to this question has to be sought from the language of Section 107A itself.

In the recent case, this question was answered by the Hon’ble High Court of Delhi wherein it has held that a ‘Sale by a non-patentee of a pharmaceutical product solely for the purposes prescribed in Section 107A would also not be an infringement and cannot be prevented’.

However, the further question to be answered is whether the word ‘selling’ in Section 107A is confined to within the territory of India and thus selling of patented invention outside India, even if for purposes specified in Section 107A, would constitute an infringement which can be prevented by the patentee.

To answer the question and to interpret the word ‘selling’, the Court proceeded to dissect the language of Section 107A and came to a finding that the meaning and ambit of the term ‘selling’ cannot be confined to ‘selling within India only’.

If further held that the ‘presence of the word import’ and absence of the word export’ in Section 107A does not lead to any inference of the word ‘selling’ therein being exclusive of in the course of export.

While the need for exporting was not felt due to the presence of the word ‘selling’, the need for the word ‘importing’ in Section 48 was necessary to preserve the exclusive right of the patentee and in Section 107A to allow import for purposes prescribed therein’.

Question 3. Are the provisions Section 107A and Section 48 independent of each other?
Answer: Section 48 of the Patents Act, 1970 which is titled ‘Rights of Patentee’ starts with the wording ‘Subject to the other provisions contained in this Act and the conditions specified in Section 47, a patent granted under this Act shall confer upon the patentee….’.

Therefore, it is sufficiently clear while conferring certain rights on the Patentee to prevent others from making use of the Product or Process (as the case may be) which is the subject matter of his patent, it admits of certain exceptions carved out by Section 107A.

Section 107A provides that the acts of a non-patentee of making, using, or selling a patented product for the purposes prescribed therein shall not be considered infringement. Therefore, the patentee cannot prevent the non-patentee from doing them.

In the present set of facts, the exports intended by Natco are only for research and development purposes and for obtaining drug regulatory approvals in the countries to which exports are intended.

Natco did not intend to export the product covered by the Compulsory Licence for commercial purposes.

Therefore, as mentioned above, Section 48 of the Patents Act is subject to other provisions of the Act and the rights of Natco under Section 107A are independent of the Compulsory Licence and the grant of Compulsory Licence will not be in negation of the rights under Section 107A.

It follows that the grant of patent under the Act does not confer on the patentee’s right to prevent others from making and selling patented products if solely for purposes prescribed in Section 107A.

These are two independent provisions, admitting of no overlap or need to read one as a proviso (and consequently narrowly) to another.

The rights conferred on non-patentees under Section 107A are to be interpreted following the same rules as the rights of a patentee and are not to be read narrowly or strictly to reduce the ambit of Section 107A, as is the rule of interpretation of statutes about provisos or exceptions. Section 107A does not carve out an exception to the exclusive right conferred by the grant of a patent.

Question 4. Discuss the relevance of Article 31(f) of the TRIPS Agreement in the export.
Answer: Section 107A of the Patents Act, 1970 is not an exception that is carved out to the exclusive rights conferred by the grant of a patent. The exclusive right conferred by the grant of a patent concerning selling, offering for sale, and thereby profiteering and earning from the patent is confined only during the term of the patent.

Section 107A permits the sale of a patented product during the term of the patent but only to obtain regulatory approvals for manufacturing and marketing the patented product after the expiry of the term of the patent.

The purchasers of a patented product for such a purpose would be few and negligible in comparison to the consumers of the patented product. There is nothing in the provisions of the TRIPS Agreement to suggest that reading the word ‘selling’ in Section 107A as including ‘by way of export’, would violate the TRIPS Agreement.

TRIPS Agreement specifically vests discretion in the member countries to adopt measures in their laws that are necessary to promote public interest in sectors of vital importance to their socio-economic development.

Even if it were to be considered that clause of Article 31 thereof allows domestic operation only of Bolar provision, the Indian Parliament while enacting the Patents Act, 1970 was entitled to, having regard to the extent of the Indian Generic Industry, permit export for purposes of Section 107A.

Patents Act is concerned with the protection of the rights of the patentees in India only and not outside India. Neither the legislature nor the Courts in India can impose any conditions on the use of the goods exported once they reach the destination country or ensure that such goods continue to comply with the laws in India.

The use of the goods in a foreign country would be subject to the laws of that country and cannot be regulated by the laws of India or orders of the Courts in India. Even if it were to be believed that the patented invention once exported from India for the purposes prescribed in Section 1 07A may be used for other purposes, it is for the patentee to enforce its rights if any in that country.

The laws of India are only concerned with the sale by way of export from this country being for the purposes prescribed. As long as the sale by way of export is declared to be for purposes of Section 1 07A and there is nothing to suggest that it is otherwise, no fetters can be imposed.

Topic Not Yet Asked But Equally Important For Examinations Short Notes

Question 1. Write a brief note on the Doctrine of Equivalents and Doctrine of Colorable Variation.
Answer: Doctrine of Equivalents and Doctrine of Colorable Variation:

Patent infringement generally falls into two categories: literal infringement and infringement under the doctrine of equivalents.

The term “literal infringement” means that every element recited in a claim has identical correspondence in the allegedly infringing device or process.

However, even if there is no literal infringement, a claim may be infringed under the doctrine of equivalents if some other element of the accused device or process performs substantially the same function, in substantially the same way, to achieve substantially the same result.

The doctrine of equivalents is a legal rule in most of the world’s patent systems that allows a Court to hold a party liable for patent infringement even though the infringing device or process does not fall within the literal scope of a patent claim but is equivalent to the claimed invention.

An infringement analysis determines whether a claim in a patent literally “reads on” an accused infringer’s device or process, or covers the allegedly infringing device under the doctrine of equivalents. The steps in the analysis are:

  1. Construe the scope of the “literal” language of the claims.
  2. Compare the claims, as properly construed, with the accused device or process, to determine whether there is literal infringement.
  3. If there is no literal infringement, construe the scope of the claims under the doctrine of equivalents.

The doctrine of equivalents is an equitable doctrine that effectively expands the scope of beyond their literal language to the true scope of the inventor’s contribution to the art. However, there are limits on the scope of equivalents to which the patent owner is entitled.

The doctrine of Colorable Variation: A colorable variation or immaterial variation amounting to infringement is where an infringer makes a slight modification in the process or product but takes in substance the essential features of the patentee’s invention.

In Lektophone Corporation v. The Rola Company, 282 U.S. 168 (1930), a patent holder’s patents were for sound-reproducing instruments for phonographs.

According to the patent application, the size and dimensions of the invention were the essence of the patent. The patent holder claimed that a radio loudspeaker manufactured by the defendant (manufacturer) infringed the patent.

The manufacturer’s devise also had a central paper cone, but the cone was smaller than that of the patented device and that constituted colorable alteration.

The court held that because of colorable alterations of the manufacturer’s devise, it would not accomplish the object specified in the patent claims and hence did not infringe upon the patent holder’s claims.

There are five ways to justify a case of patent infringement:

  • Doctrine of Equivalents
  • Doctrine of Complete Coverage
  • Doctrine of Compromise
  • Doctrine of Estoppel

Doctrine of Superfluity Sometimes the end user is not even aware that he or she is using a patented item unlawfully.

Other times, there are too many people using the item to sue all of them. Rather than suing end users, it might be best to sue those who are knowingly trying to infringe on a patent.

Question 2. Write a Brief Note on the Power of Controller in Case of Potential Infringement.
Answer: Power of Controller in case of Potential Infringement: Section 19 of the Patent Act, of 1970 provides that-

1. If, in consequence of the investigations required under this Act, it appears to the Controller that an invention in respect of which an application for a patent has been made cannot be performed without substantial risk of infringement of a claim of any other patent, he may direct that a reference to that other patent shall be inserted in the applicant’s complete specification by way of notice to the public, unless within such time as may be prescribed—

  1. The applicant shows to the satisfaction of the Controller that there are reasonable grounds for contesting the validity of the said claim of the other patent; or
  2. The complete specification is amended to the satisfaction of the Controller.

2. Where, after a reference to another patent has been inserted in a complete specification in pursuance of a direction under sub-section (1)-

  1. That other patent is revoked or otherwise ceases to be in force; or
  2. The specification of that other patent is amended by the deletion of the relevant claim; or
  3. It is found, in proceedings before the court or the Controller, that the relevant claim of that other patent is invalid or is not infringed by any working of the applicant’s invention, the Controller may, on the application of the applicant, delete the reference to that other patent.

Review of Controllers’ Decision (Procedure)

  1. The statute provides for review of the Controller’s decision under section 77 of the Patents Act 1970. The applicant need to file Form 24 within the time limits prescribed in Rule 130.
  2. The Controller shall act per the prescribed norms under Rule 130 and decide that matter on the merit of each case.
  3. The Controller, in any proceeding before him under the Patents Act, 1970, shall have the powers of a civil court while trying a civil suit under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 (5 of 1908). The review under section 77 is dealt with in the like manner.

Who may file the review Petition:

Any person considering himself aggrieved—

  • By a decree or order from which an appeal is allowed, but from which no appeal has been preferred,
  • By a decree or order from which no appeal is allowed, Grounds for review:

Grounds for review:

  • Discovery of new and important matter or evidence which, after the exercise of due diligence was not within the petitioner’s knowledge or could not be produced by him at the time when the decree was passed or order made, or
  • On account of some mistake or error apparent on the face of the record or, for any other sufficient reason.

A party who is not appealing from a decree or order may apply for a review of judgment notwithstanding the pendency of an appeal by some other party except where the ground of such appeal is common to the applicant and the appellant, or when, being respondent, he can present to the Appellate Court, the case on which he applies for the review.

Hon’ble Supreme Court of India on reviews:

Hon’ble Supreme Court in Satyanarayan Laxminarayan Hegde and Ors. vs. Mallikarjun Bhavanappa Tirumale (AIR 1960 SC 137) held that “An error which has to be established by a long drawn process of reasoning on points where there may conceivably be two opinions can hardly be said to be an error apparent on the face of the record.

Where an alleged error is far from self-evident and if it can be established, it has to be established, by lengthy and complicated arguments, such an error cannot be cured by a Writ of Certiorari according to the rule governing the power of the Superior Court to issue such a writ.”

The very fact that the Learned Counsel for the appellant had to labor for several hours to make her submissions would show that if there were errors in the decisions, it had to be decided only by a process of reasoning that is not apparent on the face of the records.

Question 3. Write a Brief Note on the powers of the Intellectual Property Appellate Board.
Answer:

According to the amendments introduced to the Patents Act, 1970 in 2002, a specialized forum called the Intellectual Property Appellate Board (“!PAB”) was constituted by the Central Government on September 15, 2003, to hear and adjudicate appeals against the decisions of the Registrar under the Trade Marks Act, 1999 and the Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999.

In India, only High Courts have the power to deal with both infringement and invalidity of patents simultaneously.

Now the IPAB has since April 2, 2007, been extended to Patent law and is now authorized to hear and adjudicate upon appeals from most of the decisions, orders, or directions made by the Controller of Patents.

Also, vide a notification; all pending appeals from the Indian High Courts under the Patents Act were transferred to the IPAB from April 2, 2007.

The IPAB has its headquarters in Chennai and has sittings in Chennai, Mumbai, Delhi, Kolkata, and Ahmedabad.

Jurisdiction: Every appeal from the decision of the Controller to the IPAB must be made within three months from the date of the decision, order, or direction, as the case may be, or within such further time as the IPAB may permit, along with the prescribed fees.

Exceptions: The IPAB (Procedure) Rules, 2003 exempt orders passed by the Central Government of India for inventions on defense purposes, including directions of secrecy in respect of such inventions, revocation if the patent is contrary or prejudicial to the public interest, or pertains to atomic energy, from the purview of appeal to the IPAB.

Transfer of pending proceedings to IPAB: The IPAB is the sole authority to exercise the powers and adjudicate proceedings arising from an appeal against an order or decision of the Controller.

All the cases on revocation of patent, other than a counter-claim in a suit for infringement, and rectification of register pending before the Indian High Courts shall be transferred to the IPAB.

In case of a counter-claim in a suit for infringement, the Indian High Courts continue to be the competent authority to adjudicate on the matter.

The IPAB also has exclusive jurisdiction on matters related to the revocation of patents and rectification of the register. The IPAB in its sole discretion may either proceed with the appeals afresh or from the stage where the proceedings were transferred to it.

Question 4. Write short notes on the following:

  1. Direct Infringement
  2. Declaration as to non-infringement
  3. Defenses for infringement

Answer:

Direct Infringement: Direct patent infringement is the most obvious and the most common form of patent infringement.

Direct patent infringement occurs when a product that is substantially close to a patented product or invention is marketed, sold, or used commercially without permission from the owner of the patented product or invention.

Declaration as to non-infringement: Under Section 1 05 of the Act, any person after the grant of publication of the patent may institute a suit for a declaration as to non-infringement.

For this, the plaintiff must show that:

  • He applied in writing to the patentee or his exclusive licensee for a written acknowledgment to the effect that the process used or the article produced by him does not infringe the patent and
  • The patentee or the licensee refused or neglected to give such an acknowledgment. It is not necessary that the plaintiff must anticipate an infringement suit.

Defenses for infringement:

1. In any suit for infringement of a patent, every ground on which it may be revoked under Section 64 shall be available as a ground for defense.

In any suit for infringement of a patent by the making, using, or importation of any machine, apparatus, or other article or by the using of any process or by the importation, use, or distribution of any medicine or drug, it shall be a ground for defense that such making, using, importation or distribution is under any one or more of the conditions specified in Section 47 [Section 107] In Cadila Pharmaceuticals Ltd. v.

Instacare Laboratories Pvt. Ltd., 2001(21) PTC 472 (Guj), the Gujarat High Court observed that Section 107 expressly empowered a defendant to defend any suit for infringement of a patent. Every ground on which a patent could be revoked under section 64 was available as a ground of defense.

Though the defendant had chosen not to give notice of opposition under section 25 of the Act or to apply for revocation under section 64 of the Act, he still had the right to defend his action on any ground on which the patent could be revoked under section 64 of the Act.

Descriptive Questions

Question 1. Enumerate the acts that do not amount to infringement.
Answer:

The law however enumerates certain exceptions to infringement:

Experimental and Research:

Any patented article or process can be used for the following purposes:

  1. Experiment
  2. Research
  3. Instructing pupils

It is also permitted to make, construct, use, sell, or import a patented invention solely for the uses reasonably related to the development and submission of information required under any law for the time being in force, in India, or in a country other than India, that regulates the manufacture, construction, use, sale or import of any product.

All such acts, if within the bounds as created above, cannot be challenged as infringing the rights of the patentee.

Parallel Importation under certain conditions: A patented article or article made by using the patented process can be imported by the government for its use. Also, a patented process can be used by the government solely for its use. Moreover, the government can import any patented medicine or drug for its use or distribution in any dispensary, hospital, or other medical institution maintained by the government or any other dispensary, hospital, or medical institution notified by the government. [Section 27 & 47]

Jurisdiction: The legal provisions concerning jurisdiction are provided in Section 104 of the Patents Act, 1970. Before dealing with jurisdiction, it may be pointed out that the courts in India receive

Patent Administrative Cases and Patent Infringement Cases. In patent administrative cases, the Indian Patent Office is the defendant. These types of cases include disputes on the grant of a patent, patent invalidation and upholding, and compulsory licensing.

In patent infringement cases, the patentee or patent assignees pursue damages against willful infringement conduct by the alleged infringer.

These cases include infringement of patents, disputes relating to ownership of patents, disputes regarding patent rights or right for application, patent contractual disputes, contractual disputes of assignment of patent rights, patent licensing, and disputes relating to the revocation of patents.

Period of Limitation: The period of limitation for instituting a suit for patent infringement is years from the date of infringement.

Burden of Proof: The traditional rule of burden of proof is adhered to concerning patented products and accordingly in case of alleged infringement of a patented product the ‘onus of proof’ rests on the plaintiff.

However, the TRIPS-prompted amendment inserted by way of Section 104 (A) has ‘reversed the burden of proof’ in case of infringement of the patented process.

Under the current law, the court can at its discretion shift the burden of proof on the defendant, in respect of process patent if either of the following two conditions is met:

The subject matter of the patent is a process for obtaining a new product; there is a substantial likelihood that an identical product is made by the process and the plaintiff has made reasonable efforts to determine the process used but has failed.

[Section 1 04 (A)] While considering whether a party has discharged the burden imposed upon him under Section 104(A), the court shall not require him to disclose any manufacturing or commercial secrets, if it appears to the court that it would be unreasonable to do so.

Question 2. What are the different types of Patent Infringement?
Answer:

Types of Patent Infringement:

There are different ways a patent could be infringed. Some of the types of patent infringements include:

Direct Infringement: This occurs when a product covered by a patent is manufactured without permission. Direct patent infringement is the most obvious and the most common form of patent infringement.

Direct patent infringement occurs when a product that is substantially close to a patented product or invention is marketed, sold, or used commercially without permission from the owner of the patented product or invention.

Indirect Infringement and Contributory infringement: An indirect infringer may induce infringement by encouraging or aiding another in infringing a patent. Indirect patent infringement suggests that there was some amount of deceit or accidental patent infringement in the incident.

For instance, A holds a patent for a device and B manufactures a device that is substantially similar to A’s device. B is supplied with a product from another person C to facilitate the manufacturing of B’s device.

If the device so manufactured by B infringes upon A’s patent, then person C indirectly infringes A’s patent. Further, if such a product is knowingly sold or supplied, it may lead to “contributory infringement”. In the above example, if the person C knowingly supplies the product to B then the infringement is construed as contributory infringement.

Contributory Infringement: This occurs when a party supplies a direct infringer with a part that has no substantial non-infringing use.

Literal Infringement: This exists if there is a direct correspondence between the words in the patent claims and the infringing device.

Even if an invention does not infringe the patent, it may still infringe under the doctrine of equivalents. A device that performs the substantially same task in substantially the same way to achieve substantially the same result infringes the patent under this doctrine. If the court finds infringement, it must still determine whether the infringement was willful.

Willful Infringement: Willful infringement involves intentional disregard for another’s patent rights and encompasses both direct and intentional copying and continued infringement after notice. Patent users and inventors should employ patent attorneys to ensure that the use of a patent is valid and non-infringing. Even if the infringement is later found, the attempt to secure a legal opinion is evidence that the infringement was not willful.