UP Board Class 9 Science Chapter 11 Sound Multiple Choice Questions

Sound Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. Sound waves transfer

  1. Only energy not momentum
  2. Energy
  3. Momentum
  4. Both (2) and (3)

Answer: 4. Both (2) and (3)

Sound waves transfer both energy and momentum by the process of compression and rarefaction.

Question 2. Which of the following does not produce sound waves?

  1. Drum
  2. Birds
  3. TV
  4. Microwave oven

Answer: 4. Microwave oven

A microwave oven is used to produce electromagnetic waves.

Question 3. A tuning fork produces sound waves because it creates

  1. Heat
  2. Light
  3. Vibration
  4. None of these

Answer: 3. Vibration

If the tuning fork is vibrating, it produces sound.

Question 4. Which of the following does not create a transverse wave?

  1. Slinky
  2. Heater
  3. Rope
  4. None of these

Answer: 1. Slinky

In a slinky, the individual particles simply oscillate back and forth about their position of rest.

Question 5. The speed of sound is maximum in

  1. Air
  2. Vacuum
  3. Liquid
  4. Metal

Answer: 4. Metal

The speed of sound is maximum in solids like metals.

UP Board Class 9 Science Chapter 11 Sound Multiple Choice Questions

Question 6. What is the range of audio waves?

  1. 20 kHz to 200 kHz
  2. 20 Hz to 20 kHz
  3. 20 Hz to 20 MHz
  4. 20 Hz to 20 MHz

Answer: 2. 20 Hz to 20 kHz

The range of sound waves is 20 Hz to 20 kHz.

Question 7. The frequency of a source of sound is 200 Hz. How many times does it vibrate in 2 min?

  1. 2400
  2. 24000
  3. 24500
  4. 2450

Answer: 2. 24000

Given, frequency = 200 Hz

Number of oscillations in Is = 200

Number of oscillations in 2 min or 120 s

= 200×120 = 24000

Question 8. Which wave property determines the loudness of sound?

  1. Frequency
  2. Pitch
  3. Speed
  4. Amplitude

Answer: 4. Amplitude

The loudness of a sound wave is determined by its amplitude.

Question 9. Echo is caused by the phenomenon of

  1. Reflection
  2. Rarefaction
  3. Refraction
  4. Reverberation

Answer: 1. Reflection

An echo is the reflected sound wave.

Question 10. A man’s voice and a woman’s voice differ by its

  1. Loudness
  2. Pitch
  3. Intensity
  4. Amplitude

Answer: 2. Pitch

Pitch is the characteristic of sound by which we can distinguish between different sounds of the same loudness.

Question 11. In older age, it is difficult to recognise

  1. lower frequency
  2. medium frequency
  3. higher frequency
  4. ultrasonic sound

Answer: 3. higher frequency

Higher frequencies require, high sensitivity, so for older age, it is difficult to recognise them.

Question 12. A stone is dropped from the top of Qutub Minar 73 m high into a pond of water at the base of the Qutub Minar. When is the splash heard at the top?[Take, g=10 ms-2 and speed of sound = 340 ms-1]

  1. 1.82 s
  2. 2.83 s
  3. 3.82 s
  4. 4.32 s

Answer: 3. 3.82 s

From the second equation of motion,

h =\(u t+\frac{1}{2} g t^2\)

73 =0 \(\times t+\frac{1}{2} \times 10 \times t^2\) [u=0]

⇒ \(5 t^2\) =73

∴ \(t^2 =\frac{73}{5}=14.6 \Rightarrow t=\sqrt{14.6}=3.82 \mathrm{~s}\)

Question 13. A sound wave is generated by a tuning fork. It is measured that the sound wave has a speed of 500 ms-1. If its wavelength is 1 cm, will it be audible?

  1. Audible
  2. Non-audible
  3. Both
  4. None of these

Answer: 2. Non-audible

Given, speed, \(\nu=500 \mathrm{~ms}^{-1}\)

Wavelength, \(\lambda=1 \mathrm{~cm}=10^{-2} \mathrm{~m}\)

Frequency, v=\(\frac{v}{\lambda}=\frac{500}{10^{-2}}=50000 \mathrm{~Hz}\)

This frequency is greater than 20000 Hz. So, it is not audible.

Question 14. A guitar of frequency 360 Hz makes 120 vibrations. If the velocity of sound in air is 330 m/s, then how much distance is travelled by the sound in air?

  1. 90 m
  2. 100 m
  3. 110 m
  4. 140 m

Answer: 3. 110 m

Given, v=360 Hz

Velocity, v=330 \(\mathrm{~m} / \mathrm{s}\)

As, \(\lambda=\frac{v}{v}=\frac{330}{360}=\frac{33}{36} \mathrm{~m}\)

Distance travelled by the sound wave in 120 vibrations =120 \(\times \frac{33}{36}=110 \mathrm{~m}\)

Question 15. What is the SI unit of loudness?

  1. Dioptre
  2. Metre
  3. Weber
  4. Decibel

Answer: 4. Decibel

The SI unit of loudness is decibel (dB).

Question 16. A man beating a drum in front of a cliff hears the echo after 4s. What is the distance of man from the cliff, if the velocity of sound in air is 330 m/s?

  1. 660 m
  2. 500 m
  3. 1000 m
  4. 0.3 km

Answer: 1. 660 m

As we know that, distance, s = speed x time = 330 x 4 =1320 m

As in 4s, sound has to travel twice the distance between man and the cliff.

So, the distance between man and cliff is \(\frac{s}{2}=\frac{1320}{2}=660 \mathrm{~m}\)

Question 17. At which frequency, a guitar produces 1000 sound waves per second?

  1. 1 kHz
  2. 500 Hz
  3. 700 Hz
  4. 1200 Hz

Answer: 1. 1 kHz

The frequency of sound valves is called the number of waves, produced in 1s.

So the frequency of this sound wave is 1000 Hz or 1 kHz.

Question 18. A light string is suspended from a book. Which is attached to a 1 kg weight at its lower end. If the string is pulled right and then released. The disturbance produced in the spring is

  1. Pulse
  2. Longitudinal wave
  3. Transverse wave
  4. None of these

Answer: 3. Transverse wave

Here suing is vibrating which shows crest and trough which are the signs of a transverse wave.

UP Board Class 9 Science Notes For Chapter 11 Sound

Class 9 Science Notes For Chapter 11 Sound

We hear sound from various sources, For Example. from humans, birds, machines, vehicles, TV, radio, etc. Sound is a form of energy which produces a sensation of hearing in our ears.

Production of Sound

  • A sound is produced by vibrating objects. Vibration means a kind of rapid-to-and-fro motion of an object. The sound of the human voice is produced due to vibrations in the vocal cords.
  • We can produce sound by striking the tuning fork, by plucking, scratching, rubbing, blowing or shaking different objects. They all produce sound due to vibrations.

Propagation of Sound

  1. When an object vibrates, it sets the particles of the medium (solid, liquid or gas) around it in vibrations. The particles do not travel from the vibrating object to the ear. A particle of the medium in contact with the vibrating object is first displaced from its equilibrium position.
  2. It then exerts a force on the adjacent particle. As a result of which, the adjacent particle gets displaced from its position of rest.
  3. After displacing the adjacent particle, the first particle comes back to its original position. This process continues in the medium till the sound reaches our ear.
  4. The source of sound creates a disturbance in the medium which travels through the medium. The particles of the medium do not move forward but the disturbance is carried forward.
  5. This is the propagation of sound in a medium, hence sound can be visualised as a wave. Sound waves require a medium to travel, so they are called mechanical waves.

Read and Learn  More Class 9 Science Notes

Formation of Compression and Rarefaction in Air

  1. When a vibrating object moves forward in the air, it pushes and compresses the air in front of it, creating a compression which starts to move away from the vibrating object. When the vibrating object moves backwards, it creates rarefaction.
  2. Compression is the part of a longitudinal wave in which the particles of the medium are closer to one another than they normally are and it is the region of high pressure. It is denoted by C in the figure given here.
  3. Rarefaction is the part of a longitudinal wave in which the panicles of the medium arc are farther apart than they normally arc and it is the region of low pressure. It is denoted by R in the figure given here.
  4. A vibrating object creates a series of compressions (C) and rarefactions (R) in the medium
  5. As the object moves back and forth rapidly, a series of compressions and rarefactions are created in the air.
  6. Thus, the propagation of sound can be visualised as the propagation of density variations or pressure variations in the medium as pressure is related to the number of particles of a medium in a given volume. More density of the particles in the medium gives more pressure and vice-versa.

UP Board Class 9 Science Chapter 11 Sound A Vibrating Object Creating A Series Of Compressions

Types of Waves

There are mainly two types of waves.

Longitudinal Waves

  1. In longitudinal waves, the individual particles of the medium move in a direction parallel to the direction of propagation of the disturbance.
  2. The particles do not move from one place to another but they simply oscillate back and forth about their positions of rest.
  3. This is exactly how a sound wave propagates, hence sound waves are longitudinal waves. Longitudinal waves can be produced in all three media such as solids, liquids and gases.
  4. The waves which travel along a spring when it is pushed and pulled at one end, are the longitudinal waves.
  5. When coils are closer together than normal, compressions (C) are observed in spring. When coils arc farther apart than normal, rarefactions (R) are observed.
  6. A long flexible spring which can be compressed or extended easily is called a slinky.

UP Board Class 9 Science Chapter 11 Sound Longitudinal Wave In A Slinky

Transverse Waves

  • In transverse waves, the individual particles of the medium move about their mean position in a direction perpendicular to the direction of wave propagation, For Example. Light is a transverse wave (but it is not a mechanical wave i.e. it does not require a medium for its propagation).
  • Transverse waves can be produced only in solids and liquids but not in gases.
  • The waves produced by moving one end of a long spring or rope, up and down rapidly, whose other end is fixed, are transverse waves.

UP Board Class 9 Science Chapter 11 Sound Transverse Wave On A Long Spring Or Rope

UP Board Class 9 Science Chapter 11 Sound Crest And Trough Of A Transverse Wave

Graphical Representation of a Sound Wave

  • When a sound wave passes through the air, the density of air changes continuously.
  • A sound Wave in hr has been represented using a density-distance graph as shown below.
  • A sound wave in the air by density-distance graph

UP Board Class 9 Science Chapter 11 Sound Representation Of A Sound Wave

UP Board Class 9 Science Chapter 11 Sound Crest And Trough Of A Transverse Wave

Terms to Describe Sound Waves

Sound waves can be described by its

  1. Wavelength
  2. Frequency
  3. Time period
  4. Amplitude
  5. Speed

Wavelength

  1. The distance between the two consecutive compressions (C) or two consecutive rarefactions (R) is called the wavelength. Wavelength is the minimum distance in which a sound wave repeats itself.
  2. In other words, it is the combined length of a compression and an adjacent rarefaction. It is represented by a Greek letter lambda X. Its SI unit is metre (m).

Frequency

  1. The number of complete waves (or oscillations) produced in one second is called the frequency of the wave. It is the number of vibrations that occur per second.
  2. Or the number of compressions or rarefactions that cross a point per unit of time.
  3. The frequency of a wave is fixed and does not change even when it passes through different substances. It is denoted by v (Greek letter, nu). Its SI unit is hertz (symbol, Hz) named in honour of Heinrich Rudolf Hertz who discovered the photoelectric effect.

Time Period

  • The time taken by two consecutive companion* or rarefactions to cross a fixed point is called the period of the wave.
  • In other words, the time required to produce one complete wave (or oscillations) is called the period of the wave. It is denoted by the symbol T. Its SI unit is second (s).
  • The time period of a wave is the reciprocal of its frequency, Time period(T)=\(\frac{1}{\text { Frequency }(v)}\)

Amplitude

  1. The maximum displacement of the particles of the medium from their original mean positions on passing a wave through the medium is called the amplitude of the wave.
  2. It is used to describe the size of the wave. It is usually denoted by the letter A. Its SI unit is metre (m). The amplitude of a wave is the same as the amplitude of the vibrating body producing the wave.

Speed

  • The distance travelled by a wave in one second is called the speed of the wave or the velocity of the wave. Under the same physical conditions, the speed of sound remains the same for all frequencies.
  • It is represented by the letter v. Its SI unit is metres per second (m/s or ms-1).
  • Relationship between speed, frequency and wavelength of a wave: Speed =\(\frac{\text { Distance travelled }}{\text { Time taken }}\)
  • Suppose the distance travelled by a wave is X (wavelength), in time T, then the speed is given byv=XJT We know that, frequency, v = 1 IT Therefore, y=A.xvor v=vX

Example 1. Sound waves travel in the air with a speed of about 330 ms-1. Calculate the wavelength of sound whose frequency is 550 Hz. Calculate the period of one oscillation.

Answer:

Given, the frequency of sound, v = 550 Hz

Speed of sound wave, v=330 ms-1

The wavelength of the sound wave, X =?

Time period, T=?

We know that, r-v \(\lambda\) and \(\tau-1 / v\)

As. r-v \(\lambda \Rightarrow \lambda=\frac{r}{v}-\frac{330}{550}=\frac{3}{5}=0.6 \mathrm{~m}\)

Asain, T=\(\frac{1}{v}=\frac{1}{550}=0.001 \mathrm{~s}\)

Characteristics of Sound

A sound has three characteristics. These are loudness, pitch and quality (or timbre).

Loudness

  • It is the measure of the sound energy reaching the ear per second. The greater the sound energy reaching our ear per second, the louder the sound will appear to be.
  • If the sound waves have a small amplitude, then the sound will be faint or soft but, if waves have a large amplitude then the sound will be loud. The figure given above shows the wave shapes of a loud and a soft sound of the same frequency.
  • Since the amplitude of a sound wave is equal to the amplitude of vibrations of the source producing the sound waves, hence the loudness of sound depends on the amplitude of vibrations of the source producing the sound waves. Loud sound can travel a larger distance as it is associated with higher energy.
  • A sound wave spreads out from its source, as it moves away from the source, its amplitude as well as its loudness decreases. The loudness of sound is measured in decibels dB). It depends on the sensitivity or the response of our ears.

UP Board Class 9 Science Chapter 11 Sound Soft Sound Has Small Amplitude Abd Louder Sound

Intensity

  • The amount of sound energy passing each second through the unit area is known as the intensity of sound. Loudness and intensity are not the same terms. Loudness is a measure of the response of the car to the sound.
  • Even when two sounds are of equal intensity, we may hear one as louder than the other, simply because our car detects it in a better way.
  • The SI unit of intensity is watt per square metre (W/m²).

(3) Quality or Timbre

The quality or timbre of sound enables us to distinguish one sound from another having the same pitch and loudness. A sound of a single frequency is called a tone.

The sound produced due to a mixture of several frequencies is called a note and is pleasant to listen to. Noise is unpleasant to the ear. Music is pleasant to hear and is of rich quality.

Speed of Sound and Light

  • The speed of sound in air is about 344 ms-1 at 22°C and 331 ms-1 at 0°C and the speed of light in air is 300000000 ms 1 or 3 x 108 ms-1. Thus, the speed of light is very high as compared to the speed of sound.
  • This is the reason why in the rainy season, the flash of lightning is seen first and the sound of thunder is heard a little later, though both are produced at the same time in clouds.

Speed of Sound in Different Media

The medium through which sound propagates can be a solid substance, a liquid or a gas. The speed of sound depends on the properties of the medium through which it travels and the temperature of the medium.

The speed of sound decreases when we go from a solid to a gaseous state. If the temperature of the medium increases then the speed of sound also increases.

Reflection Of Sound Wave

The bouncing back of sound when it strikes a hard surface is known as the reflection of sound. It can be reflected from any surface whether it is smooth or rough.

UP Board Class 9 Science Chapter 11 Sound Reflection Of Sound

Sound is reflected in the same way as light and follows the same laws of reflection, which are as follows:

  1. The incident sound wave (AO), the reflected sound wave (OB) and the normal (ON) at the point of incidence, all lie in the same plane.
  2. The angle of incidence (∠AON) of sound is equal to the angle of reflection (∠NOB) of sound.

Echo

When a person shouts in a big empty hall, we first hear his original sound, after that, we hear the reflected sound of that shout. So, the repetition of sound caused by the reflection of sound waves is called an echo.

The sensation of sound persists in our brain for about 0.1 seconds. Thus, to hear a distinct echo, the time interval between the original sound and the reflected one must be at least 0.1 s.

The distance travelled by the sound in 0.1 s

= speed x time

= 344 x 0.1 = 34.4 m

So, the echo will be heard, if the minimum distance between the source of sound and the obstacle is =\(\frac{34.4}{2} \mathrm{~m}\)=17.2 m

This distance will change with the change in temperature. Echoes may be heard more than once due to successive multiple reflections.

The rolling of thunder is due to successive reflections of sound from a number of reflecting surfaces, such as clouds and the land.

Reverberation

  1. The persistence of a sound in a big hall due to repeated reflections from the walls, ceiling and floor of the wall is known as reverberation.
  2. This occurs when the original sound and reflected sound overlap. For reverberation to occur, reflection occurs at less than 17 metres distance.
  3. A short reverberation is desirable in a concert hall, where music is being played, as it boosts the sound level. However excessive reverberation is highly undesirable because sound becomes blurred, distorted and confusing due to overlapping of different sounds.
  4. To reduce reverberation, the roof and walls of the auditorium are generally covered with sound-absorbent materials like compressed fibre board, rough plaster or draperies.

Uses of Multiple Reflections of Sound

The reflection of sound is used in the working of devices such as megaphones, horns, stethoscopes and soundboards. These devices involve multiple reflections of sound waves.

(1) Megaphone and Horn

A megaphone is a large cone-shaped device used to amplify and direct the voice of a person who speaks into it. When a person speaks into the narrow end of the megaphone tube, the sound waves produced are prevented from spreading by successive reflections from the wider end of the megaphone tube, hence sound of his voice can be heard over a longer distance.

(2) Stethoscope

It is a medical instrument used by doctors to listen to the sounds produced within the heart and the lungs in the human body. The sound of heartbeats (or lungs) reaches the doctor’s ears through the multiple reflections of sound waves through the stethoscope tube.

Sound Board

  • A concave board (curved board) is placed behind the stage in big halls; so that sound after reflecting from the sound hoard, spreads evenly across the width of the hall.
  • Generally, the ceilings of concert halls, conference halls and cinema halls are curved, so that sound after reflection reaches all corners of the hall.

UP Board Class 9 Science Chapter 11 Sound Curved Sound Board Behind The Speaker Or The Stage

UP Board Class 9 Science Chapter 11 Sound Sound Board Behind The Speaker

Range of Hearing

The average frequency range over which the human ear is sensitive is called the audible range. The audible range of sound for human beings is from 20 Hz to 20,000 Hz (20 kilohertz). Children under the age of 5 and some animals, such as dogs can hear up to 25000 Hz. As people grow older, their ears become less sensitive to higher and lower frequencies.

Infrasonic Sound

  • The sound of frequencies lower than 20 Hz is known as infrasonic sounds or infrasound, which cannot be heard by human beings.
  • Earthquakes and some animals like whales, elephants and rhinoceroses produce the infrasonic sounds of frequency 5 Hz.
  • It is observed that some animals get disturbed and start running here and there just before the earthquakes occur. This is because earthquakes produce low-frequency infrasound before the main shock waves begin which possibly alert the animals and they get disturbed.

Ultrasonic Sound

The sounds of frequencies higher than 20000 Hz are called ultrasonic sounds or ultrasounds which cannot be heard by human beings. Dogs can hear ultrasonic sounds of frequencies up to 50,000 Hz. This is why dogs are used for detective work by the police. Bats, dolphins, and porpoises can produce ultrasonic sounds.

Hearing Aid

This is a device used by people who are hard of hearing. It is an electronic, battery-operated device. It receives sound through a microphone which converts the sound waves to electrical signals. These electrical signals are amplified by an amplifier.

The amplified electrical signals are given to the speaker of the hearing aid. The speaker converts the amplified electrical signals to sound and then sends it to the ear for clear hearing.

Ultrasound and Its Applications

Ultrasounds are high-frequency waves. They travel in a straight line without bending around the corners. They can penetrate into matter to a large extent. Due to these properties, ultrasound is used in industry and in hospitals for medical purposes. Some of the important applications of ultrasound are given below.

In Cleaning Minute Parts of Machines

  1. Ultrasound is used to clean parts located in hard-to-reach- places, such as spiral tubes, odd-shaped machines electronic components, etc.
  2. Objects to be cleaned are placed in a cleaning solution and ultrasonic waves are sent into the solution.
  3. Due to their high frequency, the ultrasound waves stir up the solution, hence the particles of dust, grease and dirt vibrate too much, become loose, get detached from the object and fall into the solution. The objects, thus get thoroughly cleaned.

In Internal Investigation of the Human Body

  • Ultrasound is used to investigate the internal organs of the human body such as the liver, gall bladder, pancreas, kidneys, uterus heart, etc.
  • Ultrasound waves can penetrate the human body and different types of tissues get reflected in different ways from a region where there is a change of tissue density.
  • In this way, ultrasound helps us to see inside the human body and to give pictures of the inner organs by converting them into electrical signals.
  • These pictures or images are then displayed on a monitor or printed on a film. This technique is called ultrasonography.
  • Ultrasonography is used for the examination of the foetus during pregnancy to detect any growth abnormalities, which helps in taking the necessary action to rectify the abnormalities.
  • The ultrasonic scanner is an instrument that helps the doctor to detect abnormalities, such as stones in the gall bladder and kidney or tumours in different organs and many other ailments.
  • Ultrasound is also used for diagnosing heart diseases by scanning the heart from inside. This technique is echocardiography. Ultrasound may be employed to break small stones formed in the kidneys into fine grains which later get flushed out with urine. This way, the patient gets relief from pain.

In Industries

  1. Ultrasound is used in industry for detecting flaws (cracks, etc.) in metal blocks without damaging them.
  2. Metal blocks are used in the construction of big structures like bridges, machines scientific equipment, etc.
  3. If there are some cracks and flaws in the metal blocks, which are invisible from the outside reduces the strength of the structure. These can be detected by using ultrasound.
  4. This is based on the fact that an internal crack (or hole) does not allow ultrasound to pass through it.
  5. It reflects the ultrasound. Ultrasound waves are allowed to pass through one face of the metal block (to be tested) and detectors are placed on the opposite face of the metal block to detect the transmitted ultrasound waves.
  6. If there is even a small defect, the ultrasound waves get reflected back indicating the presence of the flaw or defect, as shown
  7. Ultrasound is reflected from a part of the block, which shows that this metal block has a flaw or defect (like a crack] inside it.
  8. Ordinary sound waves cannot be used for detecting the flaws in metal blocks because they will bend around the corners of the defective location and therefore enter the detector.

UP Board Class 9 Science Chapter 11 Sound Transverse Ultrasound Reflected From A Part Of Block

Use of Ultrasonic Waves by Bats

  1. Bats search out prey and fly in dark night by emitting and detecting reflections of ultrasonic waves.
  2. The method used by some animals like bats, tortoises and dolphins to locate objects by hearing the echoes of their ultrasonic squeaks is known as echolocation.
  3. Bats emit high-frequency or high-pitched ultrasonic squeaks while flying and listen to the echoes produced by the reflection of their squeaks from the obstacles or prey in their path.
  4. From the time taken by the echo to be heard, bats can determine the distance of the obstacle or prey and can avoid the obstacle by changing the direction or catching the prey.
  5. However, certain moths can hear the high-frequency ultrasonic squeaks of a bat and can know where the bat is flying nearby and are able to escape from being captured.

UP Board Class 9 Science Chapter 11 Sound The Method Of Echolocation

Sound Questions and Answers

Question 1. How does the sound produced by a vibrating object in a medium reach your ear?

Answer:

  • Sound is produced by vibrating objects. When an object vibrates, it sets the particles of the medium around it in vibration.
  • Their vibrations are passed or transmitted to neighbouring particles in all directions.
  • When vibrations are transmitted by medium particles to our ears, we get the sensation of hearing.

Question 2. Explain, how sound is produced by your school bell.

Answer:

  • The bell produces the sound when the gong of the bell is struck by a hammer. When the gong is struck by the hammer, it starts vibrating.
  • Since the vibrating objects produce sound, the bell produces sound.

Question 3. Why are sound waves called mechanical waves?

Answer:

Sound waves are called mechanical waves because they are produced by the motion of particles of a medium and require a material medium for their propagation.

Question 4. Suppose you and your friend are on the Moon. Will you be able to hear any sound produced by your friend?

Answer:

  • No, I will not be able to hear any sound produced by my friend because the sound waves require some material medium like air to travel.
  • There is no atmosphere or air on the Moon, so the sound produced by my friend will not reach me and I will not be able to hear.

Question 5. Which wave property determines (1) loudness (2) pitch?

Answer:

  • The loudness of a sound wave is determined by its amplitude.
  • The pitch of the sound wave is determined by its frequency.

Question 6. Guess which sound has a higher pitch, guitar or car horn?

Answer:

The pitch of a guitar sound is higher because the frequency of the sound produced by a guitar is higher than that of a car horn.

Question 7. How are the wavelength and frequency of a sound wave related to speed?

Answer:

The relation between wavelength (λ), frequency (v) and speed of wave {v) is v=vλ

Question 8. Calculate the wavelength of a sound wave whose frequency is 200Hz and speed is 440 \(\mathrm{~ms}^{-1}\) in a given medium.

Answer:

Given, frequency, v=200 Hz, velocity, v=440 \(\mathrm{~ms}^{-1}\)

According to the relation, v=\(\mathrm{v}\rangle \Rightarrow \lambda=\frac{v}{\mathrm{v}}\)

= \(\frac{440}{200}=2.2 \mathrm{~m}\)

Question 9. A person is listening to a tone of 500 Hz sitting at a distance of 450 m from the source of the sound, what is the time interval between successive compressions from the source?

Answer:

The time interval between two successive compressions or rarefactions is equal to the time period of the wave.

Required time interval = Time period

=\(\frac{1}{\text { Frequency }}=\frac{1}{500}=0.002 \mathrm{~s}\)

=2 \(\times 10^{-3} \mathrm{~s}=2 \mathrm{~ms}\)

Question 10. Distinguish between loudness and intensity of sound.

Answer:

UP Board Class 9 Science Chapter 11 Sound Difference Between Loudness And Intensity

Question 11. An echo returned in 3 s. What is the distance of the reflecting surface from the source, given that the speed of sound is 342 \(\mathrm{~ms}^{-1}\)?

Answer:

Given, speed of sound, v=342 \(\mathrm{~ms}^{-1}\)

Time taken, t = 3s

So, distance travelled by sound =v x t

= 342 x 3

=1026 m

Hence, the distance between the reflecting surface and the source should be \(\frac{1026}{2}=513 \mathrm{~m}\)

Question 12. Why are the ceilings of concert halls curved?

Answer:

The Curved ceiling of the conference hall focuses on reflecting sound from the walls to the audience so that every corner of the hall gets sound equivalently.

UP Board Class 9 Science Chapter 11 Sound The Ceiling Of Concert Halls Curved

Question 14. What is the audible range of the average human ear?

Answer:

The audible frequency range for the average human car is 20 Hz to 20000 Hz’.

Question 15. What is the range of frequencies associated with (1)Infrasound and (2) ultrasound?

Answer:

  1. Sound waves having frequencies less than 20 Hz and greater than zero are called infrasound.
  2. Sound waves having frequencies more than 20000 Hz are called ultrasound.

Exercises

Question 1. What is sound and how is it produced?
Answer:

Sound is a form of energy, which produces the sensation of hearing in our ears. It is produced when an object is set to vibrate or we can say that vibrating objects produce sound.

Question 2. Describe with the help of a diagram, how compressions and rarefactions are produced in air near a source of sound.
Answer:

  1. When a vibrating object moves forward, it pushes the air in front of it creating a region of high pressure. This region is called compression.
  2. This compression starts to move away from the vibrating object. When the vibrating object moves backwards, it creates a region of low pressure called rarefaction.
  3. As the object moves back and forth rapidly, a series of compressions and rarefactions is created. These make the sound wave that propagates through the medium.

Question 3. Why is a sound wave called a longitudinal wave?
Answer:

The sound wave is called a longitudinal wave because, on the propagation of a sound wave in a medium, the particles of the medium vibrate to and fro about their equilibrium positions and parallel to the direction of propagation of the wave.

Question 4. Which characteristic of the sound helps you to identify your friend by his voice while sitting with others in a dark room?
Answer:

Timbre, a quality of sound is the characteristic by which we can identify the person by his voice.

Question 5. Flash and thunder are produced simultaneously. But thunder is heard a few seconds after the flash is seen, why?
Answer:

Thunder is heard a few seconds after the flash is seen because the speed of light in the atmosphere (or air) is 3 \(\times 10^8 \mathrm{~ms}^{-1}\) which is very high as compared to the speed of sound which is only 330 \(\mathrm{~ms}^{-1}\). So, the sound of thunder reaches us later than the flash.

Question 6. A person has hearing range from 20 Hz to 20 kHz. What are the typical wavelengths of sound waves Tair corresponding to these two frequencies? (Take, the speed of sound in air as \(\mathrm{~ms}^{-1}\)
Answer:

The relation between speed (v), wavelength \((\lambda)\) and frequency (v) of a wave is \(\nu=\mathrm{v} \lambda\)

⇒ \(\lambda=\frac{y}{v}\)

(1) Here, v=344 \(\mathrm{~ms}^{-1}, \mathrm{v}=20 \mathrm{~Hz}\)

Corresponding wavelength,

⇒ \(\lambda=\frac{p}{v}=\frac{344}{20}=17.2 \mathrm{~m}\)

⇒ (2) Here, v=344 \(\mathrm{~ms}^{-1}, \mathrm{v}=20 \mathrm{kHz}=20 \times 10^3 \mathrm{~Hz}\)

Corresponding wavelength, \(\lambda=\frac{v}{v}=\frac{344}{20 \times 10^3}\)

=1.72 \(\times 10^{-2} \mathrm{~m}\)

Question 7. Two children are at opposite ends of an aluminium rod. One strikes the end of the rod with a stone. Find the ratio of times taken by the sound wave in air and in aluminium to reach the second child.
Answer:

Let l be the length of the rod.

Time taken by the sound to travel through the aluminium rod is given by = \(t_1=\frac{\text { distance }}{\text { speed }}=\frac{1}{v_{\mathrm{N}}}\)

Similarly, the time taken by the sound to travel through the air is given by r, \(t_2=\frac{\text { distance }}{\text { speed }}=\frac{1}{v_{\text {air }}}\)

Required ratio, \(t_1: t_2=\frac{v_{\text {air }}}{v_{\mathrm{Al}}}\)

Question 8. The frequency of a source of sound is 100 Hz. How many times does it vibrate in a minute?
Answer:

Given, frequency, v = 100 Hz

From the definition of frequency, we can say that

Number of oscillations in l s = 100

Number of oscillations in l min or 60 s

= 100×60 = 6000

Thus, the tyre source of sound vibrates 6000 times in a minute.

Question 9. Does sound follow the same laws of reflection as light does? Explain.
Answer:

Yes, sound wave follows the same laws as in the case of laws of reflection of light.

UP Board Class 9 Science Chapter 11 Sound The Same Laws Of Reflection As Light

The laws of reflection of sound are as follows:

(1) The incident sound wave (AO), the reflected sound wave (OB) and the normal (ON) at the point of incidence, all lie in the same plane.

{2) The angle of incidence (∠AON) of sound is equal to the angle of reflection (∠NOB) of sound.

Question 10. When a sound is reflected from a distant object, an echo is produced. Let the distance between the reflecting surface and the source of sound production remain the same. Do you hear an echo sound on a hotter day?
Answer:

The time taken by echo to be heard, t = \(\frac{2 d}{v}\)

where d = distance between the reflecting surface and source of sound and v = speed of sound in air.

  • As we know, the speed of sound increases with an increase in temperature, so on a hotter day, the speed of sound will be higher, so the time after which the echo is heard will decrease.
  • If the time taken by the reflected sound is less than 0.1 s after the production of the original sound, then the echo is not heard.

Question 11. A stone is dropped from the top of a tower 500 m high into a pond of water at the base of the tower. When is the splash heard at the top? [Given, g = 10 ms-2 and speed of sound = 340ms-1]
Answer:

Time after which the splash is heard = Time taken by the stone to reach the pond + Time taken by splash sound to reach the top of the tower.

(1) For the time taken by the stone to reach the pond.

Here, u=0 [stone is dropped from rest] From the equation of motion, h=\(u t+\frac{1}{2} g t^2\)

500=0 \(\times t+\frac{1}{2} \times 10(t)^2\)

500=\(5 t^2 \Rightarrow t^2=100 \Rightarrow t=\sqrt{100}=10 \mathrm{~s}\)

(2) Time taken by splash sound to reach the top of the tower \(t^{\prime}=\frac{\text { Distance }}{\text { Speed }}=\frac{500}{340}=1.47 \mathrm{~s}\)

Time after which a splash is heard

=10+1.47=11.47 s

Question 12. A sound wave travels at a speed of 339 \(\mathrm{~ms}^{-1}\). If its wavelength is 1.5 cm, then what is the frequency of the wave? Will it be audible?
Answer:

Given, speed, v=339 \(\mathrm{~ms}^{-1}\)

Wavelength, \(\lambda=1.5 \mathrm{~cm}=1.5 \times 10^{-2} \mathrm{~m}\)

Frequency, v=\(\frac{v}{\lambda}=\frac{339}{1.5 \times 10^{-2}}=22600 \mathrm{~Hz}\)

This frequency is greater than 20000 Hz, so it will not be audible. The audible range for the human ear is 20 Hz to 20000 Hz.

Question 13. What is reverberation? How can it be reduced?
Answer:

  • The persistence of a sound in a big hall due to repeated reflections from the walls, ceiling and floor of the wall is known as reverberation.
  • It can be reduced by covering the roofs and walls of the hall with sound-absorbing materials.

Question 14. What is the loudness of sound? What factors does it depend on?
Answer:

Loudness of a sound is a subjective quantity, it is the measure of the sound energy reaching the ear per second. Loudness depends on

  1.  the amplitude of the vibrating body and
  2. the sensitivity of the human ear.

Question 15. Explain how bats use ultrasound to catch prey.
Answer:

  1. Bats can produce ultrasonic waves by flapping their wings, they can also detect these waves. The ultrasonic waves produced by a bat spread out.
  2. These waves after reflecting from a prey like an insect reach the bat. So, the bat can locate its prey.

Summary

  • Sound is produced by vibrating objects.
  • Vibration means a kind of rapid-to-and-fro motion of an object.
  • Compression is the part of a longitudinal wave in which the particles of a medium are closer to one another than they normally are and it is the region of high pressure.
  • Rarefaction is the part of a longitudinal wave in which the particles of the medium are farther apart than they normally are and it is the region of low pressure.
  • Waves are of two types (1) longitudinal waves and (2) transverse waves.
  • In longitudinal waves, the individual particles of the medium move in a direction parallel to the direction of propagation of the disturbance.
  • In transverse waves, the individual particles of the medium move about their mean position in a direction perpendicular to the direction of wave propagation.
  • The distance between the two consecutive compressions (C) or two consecutive rarefactions (fl) is called the wavelength. Its SI unit is metre (m).
  • The number of vibrations that occur per second is known as frequency. Its SI unit is Hertz (Hz).
  • The time taken by two consecutive compressions or rarefactions to cross a fixed point is called the time period of the wave.
  • The time period of a wave is reciprocal of its frequency, i.e. T=\(\frac{1}{\mathrm{v}}\) .
  • The maximum displacement of the particles of the medium from their original mean positions on passing a wave through the medium is called the amplitude of the wave. Its SI unit is metre (m).
  • The relationship between speed (v), frequency (v)and wavelength of a wave is given by v = vλ
  • The measure of sound energy reaching the ear per second is known as loudness. It is measured in decibels (dB).
  • The amount of sound energy passing each second through the unit area is known as the intensity of sound. Its SI unit is watt per square metre (W/m²).
  • Pitch is that characteristic of sound by which we can distinguish between the different sounds of the same loudness.
  • The quality or timbre of sound enables us to distinguish one sound from another having the same pitch and loudness.
  • The speed of sound is greatest in solids, then in liquids and least in gases.
  • When the speed of any object exceeds the speed of sound, it is said to have supersonic speed.

The bouncing back of sound when it strikes a hard surface is known as the reflection of sound. c Laws of Reflection of Sound

  1. The incident sound wave, reflected sound wave and the normal at the point of incidence, all lie in the same plane.
  2. The angle of incidence of sound is equal to the angle of reflection of sound.

The repetition of sound caused by the reflection of sound waves is called an Echo.

  • The persistence of sound in a big hall due to repeated reflections from the walls, ceiling and floor is known as reverberation.
  • The audible range of sound for the human ear is from 20 Hz to 20000 Hz.
  • The sound of frequencies lower than 20 Hz are known as infrasonic sounds, which cannot be heard by humans.
  • The sounds of frequencies higher than 20000 Hz are called ultrasonic sounds, which cannot be heard by human beings.
  • Ultrasound is used to clean parts located in hard-to-reach places such as spiral tubes, and odd-shaped machines.
  • Ultrasound is also used for diagnosing heart diseases by scanning the heart from the inside. This technique is called echocardiography.
  • The method used by some animals like bats, tortoises and dolphins to locate objects by hearing the echoes of their ultrasonic squeaks is known as echolocation.

UP Board Solutions For Class 9 Science Chapter 12 Improvement In Food Resources

Class 9 Science Chapter 12 Improvement In Food Sources Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1. The white revolution in India has made us self-sufficient in a product. Name it.
Answer:

Milk.

Question 2. Identify two crops from the following, which provide us with carbohydrates for energy requirements. Black gram, wheat, lentil, and rice.
Answer:

Wheat and rice.

Question 3. Name the type of nutrient that we get from mustard seeds and linseed.
Answer:

Mustard seeds and linseed provide us with fats.

Question 4. Select the one that is not a source of starch among the following: Rice, wheat, sunflower seeds, and potato tuber.
Answer:

Sunflower seeds.

Question 5. List two desirable traits for fodder crops.
Answer:

Tall plants

Profuse branching.

Question 6. State one importance of photoperiod in agriculture.
Answer:

Photoperiod is important for the growth and flowering of plants.

Question 7. Name two proteins containing rabi crops.
Answer:

Gram and peas.

Question 8. Improved varieties can be produced in both animals and plants. How?
Answer:

Hybridization and genetic modification are two processes used for the production of new and improved species.

Read and Learn More Class 9 Science Solutions

Question 9. What is the advantage of selecting seeds for crops with wider adaptability for agriculture?
Answer:

It helps in stabilising crop production under different environmental conditions.

Question 10. From where do the plants acquire nutrients like nitrogen and hydrogen?
Answer:

The plants acquire nutrients like nitrogen from soil and hydrogen from water.

Question 11. Name the organism used in vermicomposting.
Answer:

Earthworms.

Question 12. Arrange these statements in the correct sequence of preparation of green manure.

  1. Green plants are decomposed in soil.
  2. Green plants are cultivated for preparing manure or crop plant parts are used.
  3. Plants are ploughed and mixed into soil, (iv) After decomposition, it becomes green manure.

Answer:

The correct sequence is (2) → (3) →  (1) → (4)

Question 13. Name two plants, which are used as biopesticides in organic farming.
Answer:

Neem leaves and turmeric are used as biopesticides because they can keep pests away from crops.

Question 14. Write an example of intercropping.
Answer:

Soybean + maize is an example of intercropping.

Both crops differ in their nutrient requirements, ensuring maximum utilization of nutrients from the field.

Question 15. Mention any two abiotic factors that affect crop production.
Answer:

Drought and waterlogging.

Question 16. What are exotic breeds in terms of cattle?
Answer:

  • Exotic breeds are not native to that place, For Example. Brown
  • Swiss and Jersey Swiss are the exotic breeds of cows in India.

Question 17. Milk production in cattles is mainly dependent upon a factor. What is it?
Answer:

Milk production in catdes is mainly dependent upon the lactation period.

Question 18. Which type of food is required by dairy animals?
Answer:

Dairy animals require two types of food:

  1. Roughage – Largely fibrous
  2. Concentrates – Low in fibre and contain relatively high levels of proteins and other nutrients.

Question 19. White leghorn is an exotic breed of an animal. Name the animal.
Answer:

It is popular exotic breed of hen that produces long, white eggs and requires less amount of feed.

Question 20. Name the two vitamins, which are added in the poultry feed.
Aswer:

Vitamin-A and vitamin-K.

Question 21. Name the major nutrient, which we get from fish.
Answer:

Protein.

Question 22. How does Catla differ from Madrigal?
Answer:

Catla is a surface feeder, while mrigal is a bottom-feeding fish.

Question 23. What is mariculture?
Answer:

The cultivation of marine fishes like mullets, pearl spots, etc., in coastal waters of India on commercial scale is known as mariculture.

Question 24. Why fish culture is done with a combination of rice?
Answer:

Fish culture is done with a combination of rice, so that fishes get ample food in the paddy field and the latter can get water.

Question 25. Choose the odd one Mullets, bhetki, prawns, pearl spots.
Answer:

Prawn is the odd one. Except prawns all the others are finned fishes, while prawns are shellfish.

Question 26. Give two advantages of apiculture.
Answer:

Two advantages of apiculture are as follows

(1) It produces honey and wax.

(2) It is a low-investment additional income-generating activity for farmers.

Question 27. Give one example of each, local variety and foreign variety of bee.
Answer:

Local variety Apis cerana indica Foreign variety Apis mellifera.

Class 9 Science Chapter 12 Improvement In Food Resources Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1. Cultivation practices and crop yield are related to environmental conditions. Explain.
Answer:

Different crops and their cultivation practices require different climatic conditions such as temperature, photoperiod, etc., for their growth and completion of life cycle. Some crops are grown in hot and rainy season (Kharif crops), while some are grown in dry and winter season (Rabi crops), For Example. apple cannot grow in plains as it requires several days of low temperature exposure.

Question 2. Define the term hybridisation and photoperiod.
Answer:

Hybridisation: The cross between two genetically dissimilar plants to give rise to a new variety with desired trait is called hybridisation.

Photoperiod: The effect of light hours or daily duration of light exposure on the flowering of plant is called photoperiodism and this duration of time is called photoperiod.

Question 3. What is a GM crop? Name any one such crop, which is grown in India.
Answer:

  1. Crop which has been developed by introducing a new gene from any other source of organism to obtain desired characters is called Genetically Modified (GM) crop.
  2. Bt cotton is an example of GM crop in India. It is made insect resistant by introducing a new gene front a bacteria {Bacillus).

Question 4. Give any two differences between macronutrients and micronutrients.
Answer:

Differences between macronutrients and micronutrients are as follows

UP Board Solutions For Class 9 Science Chapter 12 Improvement In Food Resources Difference Between Macronutrients And Micronutrients

Question 5. What do you mean by vermicompost?
Answer:

Vermicompost is a kind of manure prepared by using earthworms to hasten the process of decomposition of plants and animals refuse.

Question 6. State two advantages of fertilisers over manures.
Answer:

The two advantages of fertilisers over manures are as follows

  1. A fertiliser is nutrient specific. It can specifically provide nutrients such as N, P, K to soil according to need.
  2.  It is easy to transport and use.

Question 7. Why is excess use of fertilisers detrimental for environment?
Answer:

The excess use of fertilisers leads to water pollution. Excess fertilisers generally get washed away through irrigation, rainfall or drainage and pollute rivers, lakes, streams, etc. This disturbs the ecosystem, as the polluted water kills the aquatic animals and is also harmful for humans.

Question 8. Organic matter has been given importance in production of crops. Is it true. If yes, why?
Answer:

Yes, organic matter is important for crops because of following reasons

  • forms humus and makes the soil fertile.
  •  improves the soil structure and aeration of clayey soil.
  •  increases water holding capacity of sandy soil.
  • helps in drainage.
  • liberates minerals and improves growth of crop plants.

Question 9. Write about the fresh initiatives in the held of irrigation.
Answer:

Fresh initiatives in irrigation include

  • Rainwater harvesting Conserving rainwater for multipurposes like washing, gardening or irrigation.
  •  Wastershed development It involves building check dams. It leads to an increase in groundwater levels.

Question 10. What is mixed cropping? How does it help a farmer?
Answer:

Mixed cropping is growing two or more crops simultaneously on the same piece of land, For Example. wheat + gram and groundnut + mustard. This reduces risk of total crop failure due to uncertain monsoon. It also helps the farmer to raise his livelihood.

Question 11. What is intercropping? Give one example and advantages of intercropping.
Answer:

Intercropping is a method of growing two or more crops simultaneously on the same field in a specific pattern, For Example. soybean + maize.

Advantages of Intercropping

  1. Intercropping ensures maximum utilisation of the nutrients present in soil or supplied from outside.
  2. It also prevents pests and diseases from spreading to all the plants belonging to one crop in a field.

Question 12. Weeds are unwanted plants in the cultivated field. Give some methods to eradicate them.
Answer:

Some methods to remove weeds are as follows

  1.  Mechanical removal Uprooting, weeding with hand or harrow, ploughing, etc.
  2. Preventive methods Proper seed bed preparation, timely sowing of crops, etc.

Question 13. Write the modes by which insects affect the crop yield.
Answer:

Insects affect the crop yield in three ways

  1. They cut the root, stem and leaf.
  2. They suck the cell sap from different parts.
  3. They bore into stem and fruits.

Question 14. Why using pesticides is not considered a good practice?
Answer:

Using pesticides in excessive amount creates problems because

  1. they are poisonous for some plants and animals.
  2.  they cause environmental pollution.

Question 15. State the food requirements of dairy animals.
Answer:

Food requirements ot dairy animals are of two types

  1. Maintenance requirement, this is die food required to support the animal to live healthy lite.
  2.  Milk producing requirement, this type of food is required during lactation period.

Question 16. Which method is commonly used for improving cattle breeds and why?
Answer:

Cross-breeding between exotic and indigenous breeds is done for improving catde breeds. This is done to get animals with desired qualities of both, For Example. long lactation period of exotic breed and resistance to diseases of local breeds.

Question 17. Name two internal parasites that affect cattle animals.
Answer:

  1. Worms They affect the stomach and intestine.
  2. Flukes They damage the liver.

Question 18. What is poultry farming? How does it help in solving food and nutrition problems?
Answer:

Poultry farming is the method to rear domestic fowl for the production of eggs and meat. It helps in solving food and nutrition problem by providing a balanced diet for the human population. It also converts agricultural byproducts into high quality meat.

Question 19. Name two desirable traits for variety improvement in poultry farming.
Answer:

  •  Quality and quantity of chicks.
  • Dwarf broiler parents for commercial chick production.

Question 20. Good management practices give good production of poultry birds. Enlist some management practices in poultry farming.
Answer:

  1. Management practices in poultry farming include
  2. Maintenance of temperature and hygienic conditions in housing and poultry feed.
  3. Prevention and control of diseases.

Question 21. Suggest some preventive measures for the diseases of poultry birds.
Answer:

Poultry fowl suffers from various diseases. These are caused by different agents found in nature and can affect the growth, quality and quantity of chicks. Fowls also suffer from nutritional deficiency. These diseases can be prevented by

  1. Providing nutritional diet to poultry birds.
  2.  Cleaning and sanitation of shelter.
  3. Appropriate vaccination of poultry birds.
  4. Spraying disinfectant at regular intervals in the shelter.

Question 22. Give two examples of shellfishes.
Answer:

  • Crustaceans like prawns and lobsters.
  • Molluscs like oysters and Octopus.

Question 23. Where can you do inland fisheries?
Answer:

  • Inland fisheries are done in the following water resources
  • Freshwater resources Canals, ponds, reservoirs, and rivers.
  • Brackish water resources These are the resources, where freshwater and seawater mix together, For Example. estuaries and lagoons.

Question 24. Which factors should be taken into consideration for fish culture?
Answer:

The three important factors required for fish culture include

  • Topography, i.e. location of pond.
  • Water resources and their quality.
  • Soil quality.

Question 25. Explain, why does legume crop not require nitrogenous fertilisers.
Answer:

Nitrogen-fixing bacteria, e.g. Rhizobium is present in the roots of leguminous plant. Therefore, they do not require nitrogenous fertilisers to fulfil their nitrogen requirements.

Question 26. (1) Suppose you are incharge of a grain store. How will you find out the presence of pests? Mention any two indicators.

(2) Which method is most effective for destroying insects in stored food grains, spraying or fumigation?

Answer:

(1) (A) Damaged stored grains, pests reduce them to perforated shells.

(B) Degraded quality, loss in weight and discolouration of grains.

(2) Fumigation method is more beneficial over spraying for destroying insects in stored food grains. In fumigation, the insect pests are exposed to the fumes of chemicals.

Question 27. Large population of cattles is present in our country, but milk production is meagre. Why?
Answer:

  • Large population of cattle is present in our country, but milk production is meagre because of the following reasons
  • The poor quality of feed is given to cattle. Most of the cattles are of indigenous breeds and give limited amount of milk.
  • Proper hygienic housing of cattle is not done due to which they suffer from a number of diseases.

Question 28. (1) Name the month during which kharif crop is grown.

(2) List any two factors for which crop variety improvement is done.

Answer:

  • Kharif crop is grown during the months from June to October.
  • Two factors for which crop variety improvement is done are as follows
  • Higher yield To increase producrivity of crop per acre.
  • Improved quality The definition of quality is different for different crops, e.g. baking quality is important in wheat, protein quality in pulses, etc.

Question 29. Group the following and tabulate them as energy yielding, protein yielding, oil yielding and fodder crops. Wheat, rice, berseem, maize, gram, oat, pigeon gram, Sudan grass, lentil, soybean, groundnut, castor and mustard.
Answer:

  1.  Energy yielding crops Wheat, rice, maize and oats.
  2. Protein yielding crops Gram, lentil and pigeon gram.
  3.  Oil yielding crops Groundnut, castor, soybean and mustard.
  4. Fodder crops Berseem and sudan grass.

Question 30. Why has improving crop yields become more important these days? List the major group of activities for improving crop yields. Which one of these activities is the most important and why?
Answer:

Due to continuously growing population, requirement of food is also increasing every year to feed this population. Extra farming land is not available in country to increase production. Therefore, it is necessary to increase crop yield to meet growing demands for food. The major activities for improving crop yields include

  1.  crop variety improvement
  2.  crop production management
  3. crop protection management Out of these three activities, crop variety improvement is very important. It helps to attain the crops of good yield, improved quality and resistant to various stresses.

Question 31. Discuss the role of hybridisation in crop improvement.
Answer:

Hybridisation is a method of crossing between genetically dissimilar plants. It is of three types

  1.  Intervarietal cross between two different varieties.
  2. Interspecific cross between two different species of same genus.
  3. Intcrgcncric cross between two different genera. In plant breeding, intervarictal hybridisation is mostly used to improve the crop variety.
  4. Improved varieties arc high yielding and resistant to diseases and pests. They have better quality and various other desirable traits. Thus, they play an important role in crop improvement.

Question 32. In agriculture practices, higher input gives higher yield. Discuss how?
Answer:

  • In agriculture, higher yield can be obtained by using higher yielding varieties, modern technologies, improved farm practices with latest agricultural machines. All these require high cost and knowledge of new techniques.
  • Finance thus, plays a very important role as the cost of input decides the outcome of cropping. Therefore, higher input gives higher yield in agricultural practices.

Question 33. What is manure? State two advantages of using manure. How does green manure differ from ordinary manure?
Answer:

Manure is an organic substance obtained through the decomposition of plant wastes like straw and animal wastes such as cow dung. The decomposition is brought about by microbes.

Advantages of using manure are as follows

  1.  It enriches soil with nutrients without any pollution.
  2.  It improves soil texture.
  3.  It increases water holding capacity of soil by adding organic matter to it.

Green manure is different as it is obtained by growing green plants, which are then mulched by ploughing them into the soil. Later on, it forms green manure.

Question 34. Differentiate between compost and vermicompost.
Answer:

Differences between compost and vermicompost are as follows

UP Board Solutions For Class 9 Science Chapter 12 Improvement In Food Resources Difference Between Compost And Vermicompost

Question 35. Define the following:

  1. Vermicompost
  2.  Green manure

Answer:

  1.  Vermieompost is a manure rich in pulverised organic matter and nutrients. The compost is prepared by using earthworms to hasten die process of decomposition of plants and animals refuse.
  2.  Green manure is prepared by growing green plants in the field itself. It helps in enriching the soil in nitrogen and phosphorus content. For Example. sunhemp is grown in fields, mulched by ploughing and allowed to decompose in field for die preparation of green manure.

Question 36. Give some advantages of mixed cropping.
Answer:

Advantages of mixed cropping are as follows

  1. Chances of pest infestation is greatly reduced.
  2. By growing two or more crops simultaneously, soil fertility is improved.
  3.  The risk of total crop failure due to uncertain monsoon is reduced.

Question 37. If there is low rainfall in a village throughout the year, what measures will you suggest to the farmers for better cropping?
Answer:

Suggestions to farmers for better cropping in low rainfall area are as follows

  • Enrich soil with humus, as it increases water holding capacity of soil.
  • Reduce tilling.
  • Use of drought resistant and early maturing varieties of crops.
  • Better irrigation facilities and methods to conserve water.

Question 38. The food available is decreasing, day by day, both in quantity and in quality. What steps can be employed to improve this condition, when the population is increasing drastically?
Answer:

The following steps can be taken to improve the condition of food for present as well as for future generations

  1.  By selecting good variety of crops having desirable agronomic traits. Such varieties can be developed using hybridisation technique and by genetic modification of crops.
  2. The field should be kept fertile and nutrient rich by using manure, etc.
  3.  By using high yielding variety of seeds for high yield per acre.
  4. By using a beneficial cropping pattern such as mixed cropping, crop rotation, etc.
  5. By improving irrigation facilities and bringing more agricultural land under irrigation.
  6.  By protecting crops from weeds, diseases, etc.

Question 39.Discuss various methods of weed control.
Answer:

The various methods of weed control are as follows

  1. Mechanical method Uprooting, weeding, ploughing, burying and flooding.
  2. Cultural method Proper seed bed preparation, timely sowing of crops, intercropping and crop rotation.
  3. Chemical method Spraying of chemicals like herbicides or weedicides.
  4.  Biological control Use of insects or some organisms, which consume and destroy the weed plants, For Example. prickly-pear cactus (Opuntia) is controlled by insects and aquatic weeds are controlled by fish grass carp.

Question 40. Give one word for the following

  1.  Farming without use of chemicals as fertilisers, herbicides and pesticides is known as
  2.  Growing of wheat and groundnut on the same field is called
  3. Planting soybean and maize in alternate rows in the same field is called
  4. Growing different crops on a piece of land in pre-planned succession is known as

Answer:

  1. sustainable farming
  2. mixed cropping
  3. intercropping
  4. crop rotation

Question 41. Discuss, why pesticides should be used in very accurate concentration and in very appropriate manner?
Answer:

  1. Pesticides should be used in accurate concentration as they are very harmful to environment. Pesticides are non-biodegradable and can accumulate in organisms.
  2. The environmental impact of pesticides consists of the effects of pesticides on non-target species. Over 98% of sprayed insecticides and 95% of herbicides reach a destination other than their target species, because they are sprayed or spread across entire agricultural fields.
  3. Runoff can carry pesticides into aquatic environments. Wind can carry them to other fields, grazing areas, human settlements and undeveloped areas, potentially affecting other species. Other problems emerge from poor production, transport and storage practices.

Question 42. Explain the factors that are to be considered before deciding the nature of feed for cattle.
Answer:

Following factors should be considered before deciding the nature of feed for cattle

(1) Food requirements of dairy animals are of two types

  • Maintenance requirement Food required to support the animal to live a healthy life.
  • Milk producing requirement Food type required during lactation period.

(2) Animal feed includes

  • Roughage Largely fibrous.
  • Concentrates High levels of proteins and other nutrients.

(3)The food requirements of catdes are different for every age and type of work they do.

(4) Along with the ration, some feed additives can also be given to add micronutrients. It helps to promote the health and milk output of dairy animals.

Question 43. Cross-breeding programme is successfully done in poultry farming for variety improvement. Enlist some desirable traits for which cross-breeding is done in poultry birds.
Answer:

The cross-breeding programmes between Indian breeds like Aseel and foreign breeds like Leghorn are carried out for variety improvement. It focusses on developing new varieties for the following desirable traits

  1. Number and quality of chicks The cross-bred variety should produce good quality chicks in large quantity.
  2.  Dwarf broiler parent They help in commercial chick production.
  3. Summer adaptation capacity The variety should be adaptable to survive in high temperature and different climatic conditions.
  4. Low maintenance requirement
  5. It should decrease the investment charges.

(5) Reduction in the size of the egg-laying bird with the ability to utilise more fibrous and cheaper diets that is formulated using agricultural byproducts.

Question 44. Differentiate between layers and broilers. What type of food should be given to broilers?

Answer:

UP Board Solutions For Class 9 Science Chapter 12 Improvement In Food Resources Difference Between Layers And Broilers

Question 45. Write a short note on marine fisheries.
Answer:

India’s marine fishery resources area include 7500 km long coastline and deep seas beyond it. Marine fishes are caught using many kinds of fishing nets from fishing boats. The yields are increased by locating large schools of fish in open sea by using satellites, etc.

  • Popular marine fish varieties are pomfret, mackerel, tuna, sardines and Bombay duck.
  • High economic value marine fishes are:
  • Firmed fishes Mullets, bhetki and pearl spots.
  • Shellfishes Prawns, mussels and oysters.

Question 46. Differentiate between

  1. inland fishery and marine fishery
  2. apiculture and aquaculture.

Answer:

Differences between inland and marine fisheries are as follows

UP Board Solutions For Class 9 Science Chapter 12 Improvement In Food Resources Difference Between Apiculture And Aquaculture

Question 47. What is honey? What does the quality of honey depend upon?
Answer:

Honey is a dense sweet liquid. It contains 20-40% sugar, small amount of minerals and vitamins. Apart from that, it also contains certain enzymes and pollen. It has medicinal value specially in problems related to digestion and liver.

The quality of honey depends upon the pasturage or flowers available to the bees for nectar and pollen collection. In addition to adequate quantity of pasturage, the kind of flowers available also determine the taste of honey.

Question 48. What are the advantages of bee-keeping?
Answer:

Following are the main advantages of bee-keeping

  1.  Along with getting honey on a commercial scale, other products like wax, royal jelly and bee venom are also obtained from bee-keeping.
  2.  Bee-keeping requires low investments due to which farmers, along with agriculture also prefer bee-keeping to generate additional income.
  3. It helps in cross-pollination. Pollens are transferred from one flower to another by bees, while collecting nectar.

Question 49. An Italian bee variety Apis mellifera has been introduced in India for honey production. Write about its merit over the other varieties.
Answer:

Merits of Italian bee variety Apis mellifera are as follows

  1.  It is stingless.
  2.  It stays in beehives for long period of time and breeds very well.
  3.  It has high honey collection capacity.

Question 50.Differentiate between the following

  1. Capture fishery and culture fishery.
  2. Bee-keeping and poultry farming.

Answer:

UP Board Solutions For Class 9 Science Chapter 12 Improvement In Food Resources Difference Between Capture and culture fishery

UP Board Solutions For Class 9 Science Chapter 12 Improvement In Food Resources Difference Between Bee Keeping And Poultry Farming

Class 9 Science Chapter 12 Improvement In Food Sources Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1. How can crop variety improvement methods help farmers facing repeated crop failure? Describe three factors for which they could do crop improvement. Which is the most common method of obtaining improved varieties of crops? Explain briefly.

Answer:

Crop variety improvement basically focuses on developing a crop variety that can provide a good yield, resistant to diseases and pests, not responsive to fertilisers and is adaptable. Thus, it can lead to better crop produce.

Factors for which crop improvement can be done are as follows

  1. Higher yield Every farmer involved in agriculture needs to get a good yield to be economically stable. Crops need to be improved, so that they provide good productivity per acre.
  2. Improved quality Both quantity and quality are important for crop improvement, For Example. baking quality in wheat, protein quality in pulses and oil quality in oilseeds should be given consideration, while selecting an improved variety.
  3.  Wider adaptability Varieties having wider adaptability can stabilise their growth in different environmental conditions.

There are two ways of getting a variety with desirable characteristics

  1. Genetic manipulation A gene is introduced in plant that provides the desirable characters.
  2. Hybridisation The most common method of obtaining improved variety of crops is hybridisation. Hybridisation is the cross between genetically dissimilar plants.

11 can be of three types

  1. Intervarieal Cross between two different varieties.
  2.  Interspecific Cross between two different species of the same genus.
  3.  Intergeneric Cross between two different genera.

Question 2. Mention the modern initiatives undertaken in India to supply water to the fields.

Answer:

Poor monsoons cause crop failure. The crops should be given water at appropriate stages of life to increase die expected yield of crops. Under such circumstances different kinds of irrigation systems are developed. It ensures the supply of water to agricultural lands.

Depending on the type of water resources, the irrigation systems are as follows

(1) Wells They are of two types

  • Dug wells In this type of well, water is collected from water bearing strata.
  •  Tube wells In this type of well, water is lifted by pumps from deeper strata for irrigation.

(2) Canals In this system, canal receives water from one or more reservoirs or from rivers. The main branch is divided into branch canals with many distributaries to irrigate fields.

(3) River lift system It is most common in those areas, where canal flow is irregular or insufficient due to less number of reservoirs release. In lift system, water is directly drawn from rivers for irrigation in areas near to rivers.

(4) Tanks These are small storage reservoirs intercepting and storing the run-off of smaller catchment areas.

Question 3. Figure shows the two crop fields [plots A and B] that have been treated by manures and chemical fertilisers respectively, keeping other environmental factors same.

UP Board Solutions For Class 9 Science Chapter 12 Improvement In Food Resources Two Crop Field That Have Been Treated By Manures And Chemical Fertilizers

Observe the graph and answer the following questions.

  1. Why does plot B show sudden increase and then gradual decrease in yield?
  2.  Why is the highest peak in plot A graph slightly delayed?
  3.  What is the reason for the different patterns of the two graphs?

Answer:

  1.  With the addition of chemical fertilisers, there is a sudden increase in yield due to the release of nutrients like N, P, K, etc., in high quantity.
  2. The gradual decline in the graph may be due to continuous use of high quantity of chemicals. It has killed microbes useful for replenishing the organic matter in the soil. This results in reduced the soil fertility.
  3. Manures supply small quantities of nutrients to the soil slowly. It takes time to mix with the soil. It increases water holding capacity and aeration of soil, thereby increasing soil fertility continuously.
  4.  The difference in the two graphs is because of the fact that use of manure is beneficial for longer duration in cropping. The yield gets high when the quantity of manure increases.
  5. In case of plot B, the chemical fertilisers may cause various problems, when used continuously for long time. Loss of microbial activity reduces decomposition of organic matter. As a result soil fertility is lost that affects the yield.

Question 4. (1) Which factors are responsible for causing loss of storage grains? State some preventive measures for storage of foodgrains.

(2) What do you mean by animal husbandry? State two advantages of it.

Answer:

(1) Factors responsible for the loss during storage of grains are as follows

  1. Biotic factors as insects, rodents, birds, mites and bacteria.
  2.  Abiotic factors as moisture content, temperature etc.

Preventive measures for storage of foodgrains include:

  • Drying
  • Maintenance of hygiene
  • Fumigation
  • Improved storage structure.

(2) Animal husbandry It is a science of rearing, feeding, caring, breeding and utilisation of animals.

Advantages of animal husbandry are as follows

  • It is beneficial for farmers as increased yield brings more income and raises their living standard.
  •  It helps us to undertake proper management of domestic animals.

Question 5. Name two typos of animal food and writo thoir functions.

Answer:

The dairy cattle is given it balanced ration. It contains all nutrients in proportionate amounts. A ration is the amount of food, which is given to the animal during a twenty-four hour period.

The animal foal includes two types of substances

  • Roughage It largely contains fibres such as green fodder, silage, hay (straw of cereals) and legumes, (For Example. berseem, cowpca and agathi).
  •  Concentrates The concentrates used in feed of cattle and buffaloes arc a mixture of substances. These arc rich in one or more nutrients, For Example. cotton seeds, oil seeds, grains of maize, oats, barley, jowar, bajra and gram. Their byproducts such as wheat bran, rice bran (polish), gram husk, oilseeds, cakes and molasses are also used.

1. Green fodder and dry grasses (roughage) = 15-20 kg

2. Grain mixture (concentrates) = 4-5 kg

3. Water = 30-35 litres.

Besides above mentioned nutritious food material, dairy animals require certain additive feeds. They promote the growth of the animals. They contain antibiotics, minerals and hormones. They facilitate good yield of milk and protect them from diseases.

Question 6. What do you understand by composite fish culture? Describe in detail with its advantages and disadvantages.
Answer:

  • Composite fish culture system is adopted for intensive fishing.
  • Characteristics of composite fish culture These are as follows
  • Both local as well as imported fish species can be used in such systems.
  • Combination of five or six fish species is used in a single fish pond.
  • These species have different feeding habits.
  • The species are selected so that they do not compete for food among them because of their different food habits. Some examples are as follows
  • Catla Surface feeders.
  • Rohu Feeds in the middle zone of the pond. Mrigal Bottom feeders.
  • Common carps Bottom feeders.
  • Grass carps Weed feeders.

Advantages of composite fish culture These are as follows

  1. All the food available in the pond is utilised.
  2. There is no competition for food.
  3. There is an increase in the fish yield from the pond. Disadvantages of composite fish culture These are as follows

Lack of availability of good quality fish seeds.

Question 7. (1) What is the term used for the scientific management of livestock ?

(2) What do you moan by tho term apiary and pasturage?

(3) Mention any two desirable traits, for which cross-breeding programmes between Indian and foreign breeds are undertaking in poultry farming.

Answer:

  • Animal husbandry is the term used for scientific management of livestock.
  • Apiary Bee farm, which is established for the commercial production of honey, etc., is known as apiary.
  • Pasturage It is the flora (flowers) present in the surroundings of apiary that provide nectar to bees. Quantity and quality of honey direedy depends upon pasturage.
  •  Two desirable traits for which cross-breeding between Indian and foreign breeds are undertaken in poultry farming are:
    1.  Number and quality of chicks.
    2. Tolerance to high temperature.

Question 8. You are living in an area with abundant greenery and pasturage. A farmer living near your home is not satisfied with the income he gets from his agricultural land.

Which additional income-generating activity will you suggest him in such a scenario?

Or What are other suggestions you would give him for setting the activity?

Answer:

Apiculture is the best-suited activity in such a scenario that I would suggest to him. It is a low investment, additional income-generating activity. It is the method of rearing, care, and management of honeybees to obtain honey, wax, and other substances.

Utilities of apiculture are as follows

  1. Honey is used for the consumption and manufacturing of other useful products.
  2.  Bees wax is used in various medicinal preparations.
  3. Bees help in cross-pollination of crops as bee transfers pollen grain from one flower to another, while collecting nectar.

It will also suggest him to use following varieties of bees in apiculture

  1. Apis cerana indica Commonly known as Indian bee.
  2. Apis dorsata Commonly known as rock bee.
  3. Apisflorea Commonly known as little bee.
  4. Apis mellifera This is the Italian bee that has been brought in to increase the yield of honey.
  5. I will also explain him the importance of Italian bee in apiary.
  6. The advantages of Italian bees are as follows
  7. They have good honey collection capacity.
  8. They are stingless.
  9. They stay in a given beehive for long periods and breed very well.
  10. They are very good for commercial production.
  11. He should also take care of the pasturage around the apiary as the value or quality of honey depends on it.

Question 9. (1) The black and the white dots in the given picture are an indication of two different types of cropping patterns. Identify the cropping patterns.

UP Board Solutions For Class 9 Science Chapter 12 Improvement In Food Resources The Black And White Dots Indicates The Two Types Of Crop Pattern

(2) Mention one advantage of each cropping pattern.

(3) How are the two cropping patterns different from each other?

Answer:

(1) 1 – Mixed cropping

2 – Intercropping

(2) 1 – Such cropping pattern gives insurance against failure of one of the crops.

2 – It ensures maximum utilisation of nutrients supplied.

(3) Intercropping differs from mixed cropping in several ways, which are as follows

UP Board Solutions For Class 9 Science Chapter 12 Improvement In Food Resources Difference Between Intercropping And Mixed Cropping

Question 10. One of your family friend is thinking to open a dairy farm for economic purpose. He wants to earn profit by selling milk. He discussed this matter with your father. What additional information can you give based on your knowledge for maintenance of cattles?

Answer:

The following information can be given in accordance with dairy farm

  1. Exotic breeds can be selected for long lactation period (For Example. Jersey and Brown Swiss).
  2.  Necessary maintenance

Proper cleaning of the sheds should be done regularly.

They should be sheltered under well-ventilated roofed sheds that will protect them against rain, heat and cold.

The floor should be kept sloping, so as to keep it dry and to facilitate cleaning.

Animals should be brushed regularly to clean dirt and loose hair.

(3) Food requirements Cattles need a balanced ration having all the nutrients in proportional amount.

Along with feeds, feed additives should also be given containing micronutrients. They would promote good health and milk production of cattles.

Animal feed should include

  1.  Roughage Largely fibrous.
  2.  Concentrates Low in fibre, but contain higher levels of proteins and other nutrients.

(4) Protection against diseases should also be taken care of.

The parasites of cats are of two types

  1.  External parasites Living on the skin.
  2.  Internal parasites Affect the stomach, intestine, and liver.

Bacteria and viruses also cause infectious diseases.

Vaccination and proper medical treatment should be done at regular intervals against diseases.

UP Board Class 9 Science Chapter 12 Improvement In Food Resources Multiple Choice Questions

Improvement In Food Sources Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. Who is known as the father of the green revolution in India?

  1. Guha
  2. Prof. Kashyap
  3. Prof. MS Swaminathan
  4. Maheshwari

Answer: 3. The father of the green revolution in India is Prof. MS Swaminathan. The green Revolution has led to an increase in huffcrstocks good grains, improvement in the economic conditions of farmers, and provided employment opportunities to a large number of people.

Question 2. Who is known as the father of the white revolution?

  1. MS Swaminathan
  2. Dr. NE Borlaug
  3. Prof. Kashyap
  4. Dr. V Kurien

Answer: 4. Dr. V Kurien

Dr. V Kurien is known as the father of the white revolution and the architect of India’s modern dairy industry. He was the chairman of the National Dairy Development Board (NDDB) and founder of Amul implemented Operation Flood project in 1970.

Question 3. Bt cotton is resistant to

  1. herbicides
  2. salt resistant
  3. drought resistant
  4. insect resistant

Answer: 4. insect resistant

Bt cotton is produced by the insertion of insect resistance genes from the bacterium Bacillus thuringiensis into the cotton plant. This gene produces insect-resistant protein toxin crystals, called a parasporal bodies that can act as a microbial bioinsecticide for specific insect groups.

Question 4. The scientific process by which crop plants are enriched with certain desirable nutrients is called

  1. breeding
  2. crop protection
  3. biofortification
  4. bioremediation

Answer: 3. biofortification

Breeding of crops with higher levels of vitamins and minerals or higher protein and healthier fats is called biofortification. This is the most practical aspect of improving the nutritional value of food plants.

Question 5. Which one of the following is a breed of cattle?

  1. Ayrshire
  2. Scampi
  3. Ghagus
  4. Kadaknath

Answer: 1. Ayrshire

UP Board Class 9 Science Chapter 12 Improvement In Food Resources Multiple Choice Questions

Ayrshire is a breed of cow from Scotland. Ghagus and Kadaknath are Indigenous breeds of poultry.

Question 6. Inbreeding is carried out in animal husbandry because it

  1. increases homozygosity
  2. increases heterozygosity
  3. improves the breed
  4. increases vigor

Answer: 1. Increases homozygosity

Inbreeding is carried out in animal husbandry because it increases homozygosity. By inbreeding between animals of the same breeds pure-line animals are produced.

Question 7. Crossing of individuals of two different species to produce a hybrid is called as

intraparietal hybridisation

  1. interspecific hybridization
  2. interparietal hybridization
  3. intergeneric hybridization

Answer:

In interspecific hybridization, a species is mated with a related species of the same genus with different desirable characteristics. Interspecific hybrids are generally difficult to produce, but they are important in plant breeding, particularly in breeding for disease resistance. This is also called intrageneric hybridization.

Question 8. Which of the following is a dual-purpose breed?

  1. Jersey
  2. Sahiwal
  3. Sindhi
  4. Deoni

Answer: 4. Deoni

Deoni is a dual-purpose breed usually females are good milk yielders and males are used as muscular power which serves in plowing.

Question 9. Resistance is the capacity of plants to resist, withstand, lessen, and overcome the attacks of pathogens. Disease resistance crop is obtained from crossing with wild varieties.

  1. crossing with wild varieties
  2. crossing with new varieties
  3. injecting with organic compounds
  4. None of the above

Answer: 1. crossing with wild varieties

Resistance is the capacity of plants to resist, withstand, lessen, and overcome the attacks of pathogens. Disease resistance crop is obtained from crossing with wild varieties.

Question 10. Brown Swiss, 1 lolsIoin-Prtosinn, and Jersey nro all wo 11 known

  1. exotic breeds of goat
  2. exotic breeds of cow
  3. exotic breeds of poultry
  4. exotic breeds of fish

Answer: 2. exotic breeds of cow

Holstein- Friesian from Holland, Brown-Swiss from Switzerland, and Jersey from the Island of Jersey in the English Channel are exotic breeds of cattle.

Question 11. The plant commonly used as green manure is

  1. Sesbania aculeate
  2. Dalbergia sissoo
  3. Polyalthea
  4. None of the above

Answer: 1. Sesbania aculeate

Green manuring is a farming practice where a leguminous plant that has derived enough benefits from its association with appropriate species of Rbizobium is plowed into the soil and then a non-legume plant is grown and allowed to take benefits of already fixed nitrogen in the soil. Some common green manuring crops are Sesbania aculeata, Lens esculenta, Crotolaria juncea, etc.

Question 12. Which one of the following is the American poultry breed?

  1. Asset
  2. Rhod Island Red
  3. Minorica
  4. Australia

Answer: 2. Rhod Island Red

Rhod Island Red, Plymouth Rock, New Hampshire are some of the American breeds of poultry. Australia is a British breed, White leghorn, and Minorica are Mediterranean breeds and Assel is an indigenous breed.

Question 13. Which type of honeybees are useful for apiary industries in India?

  1. Apis florae
  2. Apis mellifera
  3. Apis dorsata
  4. Apis indica

Answer: 4. Apis indica

  1. An apiary is a place where bees are cultured and bred to get commercial products. Apis indica is a small Indian bee that inhabits forests and plain regions throughout India.
  2. It can be easily domesticated because of its gentle nature. Apis indica is the best, suited in India for apiculture industries.

Question 14. Green Revolution depended mainly on plant breeding techniques for high-yielding and disease-resistant varieties of

  1. wheat
  2. rice
  3. maize
  4. All of these

Answer: 1. wheat

Green Revolution depended mainly on plant breeding techniques for high-yielding and disease-resistant varieties of wheat. This was all done by the efforts of Prof. M.S. Swaminathan who is also called the father of the green revolution in India.

UP Board Notes For Class 9 Science Chapter 12 Improvement In Food Resources

Improvement In Food Resources

Food is an essential organic substance required for the growth and proper functioning of all living organisms. It provides nutrients like carbohydrates, proteins, fats, vitamins, and minerals for the growth, development, and maintenance of large populations present on the Earth. To meet ever ever-increasing demand for food, improvement in food resources is required.

Need for Improvement In Food Resources in India

  1. India is a populous country. Its population is over one billion people and it is still growing. To feed this growing population, we will soon require more than a quarter of a billion tonnes of grain every year.
  2. This requirement can be fulfilled by farming on more land, but India is already intensively cultivated. So, we do not have a scope of increasing the area of land under cultivation. It is, therefore, necessary to increase our production efficiency for both crops and livestock.
  3. To meet these requirements, the Green Revolution has contributed to increasing food grain production. The white revolution has led to better availability of milk. Scientific research has also contributed to these revolutions.
  4. These revolutions mean that our natural resources are being used more intensively. Due to this, there are more chances of causing damage to our natural resources, and environment and disturbing its balance completely.
  5. We should increase our food production without degrading our environment and disturbing its balance. This can be done by incorporating sustainable practices in agriculture and animal husbandry.
  6. High yields from farms can be obtained easily by undertaking scientific management practices. It includes mixed farming, intercropping, and integrated farming practices (For Example. a combination of agriculture practices with livestock/ poultry/ fisheries/ bee-keeping).

Types of Crops

  1. Crops are cultivated By- humans hemps hu their own benefit. The important types of crops ate:
  2. Cereal crops These plants are cultivated to provide daily energy requirements, For Example. wheat, rice, maize, millet, and Sorghum (provide carbohydrates for energy requirement).
  3. Pulses These plants are cultivated to fulfill protein requirements, For Example. gram (chana), pea (matar), black gram (urad), green gram (moong), pigeon pea (arhar), lentil (masoor), etc.
  4. Oilseed crops These plants provide necessary fats and oils, For Example, soybean, groundnut, sesame, castor, mustard, linseed, and sunflower.
  5. Vegetables, spices, and fruits These plants fulfill the requirement of a variety of vitamins and minerals with small quantities of proteins, carbohydrates, and fats, For Example. cabbage, onion, pepper, etc.
  6. Fodder crops These plants are raised as food for the livestock, For Example. berseem, oats sudan grass, etc.
  7. Each crop requires different climatic conditions, temperature and photoperiods for their growth and completion of life cycle. Growth of plants and flowering depend on the duration of sunlight. Plants also need sunlight to perform photosynthesis (photoperiods).

Classification of Crops

  1. Crops are classified on the basis of seasons as follows
  2. Kharif crops These crops are grown in hot and rainy season from the month of June to October. For e.g. paddy, soybean, pigeon pea, maize, cotton, green gram, groundnut, black gram, etc.
  3. Rabi crops These crops are grown in dry and winter season from the month of November to April. For Example. wheat, gram, pea, mustard, linseed, barley, etc.

Improvement In Crop Yield

The practices involved in farming to increase crop production can be divided into three stages:

The first is the choice of seeds for planting. The second is the nurturing of the crop plants. The third is the protection of the growing and harvested crops from loss.

Accordingly, the major groups of activities for crop yields i an be classified as:

  1. Crop variety improvement
  2. Crop production management
  3. Crop protection management.

Crop Variety Improvement

  • The main aim of this practice is to find a variety of crop, which can withstand different situations like high soil salinity, diverse climatic conditions and water availability (drought and flood).
  • In order to accept the new varieties of crops, it is necessary that the variety should produce high yields under different conditions found in different areas. For this, farmers should be provided with good quality seeds of a particular variety. The seeds should be of the same variety and germinate under the same conditions.
  • Varieties or strains of crops can be selected by breeding for various traits such as disease resistance, response to fertilizers, product quality, and high yields. A new variety developed with all such features is highly acceptable.

Ways for Improvement in Crop Variety

There are two ways to incorporate desirable characteristics into crop varieties. These are:

(1) Hybridisation It is the crossing between genetically dissimilar plants to produce a new type (hybrid) or High Yielding Variety (HYV).
It is further of following types:

  •  AIntervarietal The cross is made between two plants belonging to different varieties of crops. It is the most common method used in plant breeding.
  • Interspecific The cross is made between two plants belonging to different species of same genus.
  •  Intergeneric The cross is made between plants belonging to different genera.

(2) Genetically modified crops It involves the manipulation of crop plants for increasing their yield, improving quality, sustainability, etc. Genetic manipulation provides desired characteristics in the crop.

Factors of Crop Variety Improvement

Some of the factors for which crop variety improvement is done are as follows

  • Higher yield Variety improvement is done to increase the productivity of the crop per acre.
  • Improved quality The definition of quality is different for different crops. For e.g. baking quality is important in wheat, protein quality in pulses, oil quality in oilseeds and preserving quality in fruits and vegetables.
  • Biotic and abiotic resistance Biotic stresses (diseases, insects and nematodes) and abiotic stresses (drought, salinity, water logging, heat, cold and frost) affect crop production to a great extent. Varieties resistant to such conditions are always preferred as they help to improve crop production.
  • Change in maturity duration Short duration or a period between sowing and harvesting makes a crop more economical. It allows the farmers to grow multiple rounds of crops in a year. It also reduces the cost of crop production. Uniform maturity makes the harvesting process easy. It also reduces losses during harvesting.
  • Wider adaptability Developing varieties that can grow and adapt to different conditions help in stabilizing crop production. Thus, a single variety can be grown in different regions with different climatic conditions.
  • Desirable agronomic characteristics These characteristics depict good growth and higher productivity in plants. Plants showing such characteristics are preferred more than others, e.g. tallness and profuse branching are preferred characters for fodder crops. Dwarfness is desired in cereals

Crop Production Management

  1. It involves the control of various aspects of crop production for the best yield. It requires skilful dealing with almost all aspects of crop production.
  2. It is the money or financial condition which allows farmers to take up different forming practices and agricultural technologies. There is a correlation between higher inputs and yields.
  3. The purchasing capacity of former for inputs decides cropping system and production practices. Thus production practices can be grouped at three levels, ,.e. no cost, low cost and high cost production practices.

Crop production management includes the management of

1. Nutrient Management

  • Like animals, plants also require nutrients for their growth and development. Nutrients are the inorganic elements, which are supplied to plants by air, water, and soil. There are sixteen essential nutrients for plants.
  • Essential plant nutrients are divided into two categories which are as follows:

UP Board Class 9 Science Chapter 12 Improvement In Food Resources Difference Between Fishing, Mariculture And Aquaculture

(1) Macronutrients These include six nutrients. They are utilized by plants in large quantities, hence, known as macronutrients. They are nitrogen, phosphorus, potassium, calcium, magnesium and sulfur.

(2) Micronutrients These include seven nutrients. They are required by plants in smaller quantities. They are iron, manganese, boron, zinc, copper, molybdenum, and chlorine.

  • Deficiency of any of these nutrients affects physiological processes in plants including reproduction, growth, and susceptibility to disease. Nutrients can be supplied to the soil m the form of manure and fertilizers. It helps to increase the yield of crops.
  • Manures are natural fertilizers. These are the organic sustances formed by the decomposition of animal-excited plant wastes. It supplies small quantities of nutrients to
  • Based on the type of biological marching used, manure can be classified as:

(1) Compost and vermicompost The process in which Farm waste materials like livestock excreta (cow dung, etc), vegetable waste, animal refuse, domestic waste, sewage waste, straw, eradicated weeds, etc., are decomposed in pits is known as composting.

  • The compost is rich in organic matter and nutrients.
  • The preparation of compost by using earthworms to hasten the process of decomposition of plant and animal refuse is called vermicomposting.

(2) Green manure Some plants like sunhemp or guar are grown and mulched by ploughing into the soil before sowing of the crop seeds. These green plants turn into green manure. It helps in increasing nitrogen and phosphorus content in the soil. It also helps to improve hydration, aeration and crumb structure of the soil.

The advantages of manure are as follows:

  • Manure enriches soil with nutrients and organic matter (called humus).
  • Manure increases soil fertility and decreases the harmful effects of pesticides and insecticides on soil.
  • It helps in improving soil structure by increasing the water-holding capacity in sandy soil. In clayey soil, a large quantity of organic matter helps in drainage and avoiding water logging.
  • By the use of biological waste material (manure), we can protect the environment from excessive use of fertilisers.
  • Manure helps in the recycling of farm waste.

Fertilizers: They are commercially produced plant nutrients. They supply Nitrogen, Phosphorus, and Potassium (NPK) to the soil.

The advantages of fertilizers are as follows:

  • They are easily available, easy to use, and store.
  • They help in the higher yields of high-cost farming.
  • They are used to ensure good vegetative growth (leaves, branches, and flowers) and give rise to healthy plants.

The disadvantages of fertilizers are as follows:

  1. They need to be applied carefully in terms of proper dose, time, and looking after the pre and post-application precautions for their complete utilization.
  2. For example, excessive use of fertilizers can cause water pollution as they get washed away when they arc not absorbed fully by the plants due to excessive irrigation.
  3. Continuous use of fertilizers can destroy soil fertility because the organic matter in the soil does not get replenished. Hence, microorganisms in the soil are harmed by the use of fertilizers.
  4. They provide short-term benefits. Thus, for maintaining soil fertility, short-term benefits of using fertilisers and long-term benefits of using manure must be considered in order to aim optimum yields in crop production.

2. Irrigation

  • The process of supplying water to crop plants in fields by means of canals, reservoirs, wells, tubewells, etc., is called irrigation. Agricultural practices in India are rain-dependent.
  • The success of a crop mainly depends on timely monsoons and sufficient rainfall during its growing season. Ensuring that water will be supplied to the crops at the right stages and in the required amounts, the expected yields of any crop can be increased.
  • Farmers depend on various natural resources like ponds, wells, canals, etc., for the irrigation of their farmlands.
  • Some commonly used irrigation systems depending on the type of water resources available for agricultural purposes are as follows:
  • Wells: They are constructed wherever groundwater is present for irrigation. They are of two types:
  • Dug wells Water is collected from water-bearing strata.
  • Tube wells Water can be drawn from deeper strata using pumps.

Canals: They are an elaborate and the extensively used method of receiving water from reservoirs like dams or rivers. The main canal is further divided into other branches that have distributaries to irrigate fields.

River Lift Systems: This method is used in areas, where canal flow is insufficient or irregular due to insufficient reservoir release. Here, water is directly drawn from the rivers for supplementing irrigation in areas close to rivers.

Tanks: These are small storage reservoirs. They catch and store the run-off of smaller catchment areas.

Modern Techniques

  • These are fresh initiatives for increasing water availability for agriculture by augmenting groundwater. They include
  • Rainwater harvesting Rainwater is collected into the ground by digging tunnels, etc. This water percolates into the soil, thus maintaining the water table.
  • Watershed development Small check-dams are built to increase groundwater levels. The purpose of check-dams is to stop the rainwater from flowing away and also to reduce soil erosion.

Cropping Patterns: It involves raising crops so as to obtain maximum benefit from the same piece of land. It reduces the risk of crop failure, disease, etc. For this purpose, crops can be grown in different ways. Some of them are:

Mixed Cropping: In this practice, two or more crops are grown simultaneously on the same piece of land. For Example Wheat + Gram, Wheat + Mustard, Groundnut -(-Sunflower, etc. Some advantages of mixed cropping are:

  • Improves soil fertility.
  • The risk of total crop failure due to uncertain monsoon is reduced.
  • Gives some insurance against the failure of one of the crops.

Intercropping

  • In this, two or more crops are grown simultaneously on the same field in a definite pattern. A few rows of one crop alternate with a few rows of another crop. The crops are selected be on the basis of their nutrient requirements.
  • Two crops must have different nutrient requirements from each other. For example. Soybean + Maize, Finger millet (bajra) 4-Cowpea (lobia), etc.

Some advantages of intercropping are:

  1. It ensures maximum utilization of supplied nutrients and better returns.
  2. It prevents the spread of pests and diseases to all the plants of one crop in a field.
  3. Both crops give better returns in it.

Crop Rotation

  1. In this type of practice, different crops are grown on a piece of land in a pre-planned succession. The crop combination depends upon the duration of the crops.
  2. One crop is grown on a field and after its harvest, a second crop is grown on the same field. This can also follow a third crop. The crop to be chosen after one harvest depends upon the availability of moisture and irrigation facilities.

Crop Protection Management

  • In fields, crops have to be protected from weeds, insects, pests, and diseases. Crop protection management includes methods to reduce such kinds of infestation.
  • If not controlled in time, they can cause heavy damage to the crops in a way that most of the crops are lost.
    Various threats to crops include:

1. Weeds

These are the unwanted plants in the cultivated field. They compete with the crops for food, space, and light.

Weeds take up nutrients and reduce the growth of the crop. Therefore, they should be removed during the early stages of crop growth in order to obtain a good harvest.

Examples of weeds are:

  • Xanthium (gokhroo), Parthenium (gajar ghas), Cyperinus rotundus (motha), Amaranthus, Chenopodium, wild oat, etc. The following are the methods to control weeds:
  • Mechanical methods Uprooting, weeding with harrow or hand, ploughing, burning, and flooding.
  • preventive methods of Proper seedbed preparation, timely sowing of crops, intercropping, and crop rotation.

2. Insect Pests

  • They affect the health of the crop and reduce its yield. Inseam pests attack the plants in the following ways:
  • They cut the root, stem, and leaf, For Example. locusts.
  • They suck the cell sap from various parts of the plant, For Example. aphids.
  • They bore into stems and fruits, For Example. shoot borer larvae. Pests can be controlled in many ways such as:

Use of resistant varieties.

  • Summer plowing In this method, fields are
  • plowed deep during summers to destroy weeds and pests.

3. Crop Diseases

  • Diseases in plants are caused by pathogens such as bacteria, fungi, and viruses. These pathogens are present in and transmitted through the soil, water, and air.
  • Crop diseases can be controlled by the use of pesticides like herbicides, insecticides, and fungicides. They are sprayed on crop plants in limited amounts. Excessive use of these chemicals is harmful to many species of plants and animals. It also causes environmental pollution.

Storage of Grains

  • During the storage of grains, high losses can occur in agricultural produce.
  • Factors responsible for such losses can be categorized as:
  • Biotic factors These include rodents, fungi, insects, mites, and bacteria.
  • Abiotic factors These include inappropriate moisture and temperature conditions in the place of storage.
  • The effects of these factors on grains are as follows:
  • Degradation in quality.
  • Poor germinative capacity.
  • Discoloration of the produce.
  • Loss in weight.
  • All these lead to poor marketability and heavy economic losses. Some of the preventive and control measures during storage are:
  • The proper storage of grains can be done by proper treatment and systematic management of warehouses.
  • Strict cleaning of the produce before storage.
  • Proper drying of the produce in sunlight and then in shade.
  • Fumigation should be done to kill pests. In fumigation, the insect pests are exposed to fumes of chemicals.

Animal Husbandry

Animal husbandry is the scientific management of livestock. It can be defined as the science of rearing, feeding, breeding, disease control, and utilization of animals. Animal-based farming includes cattle, goat, sheep, poultry, and fish farming.

Need of Animal Husbandry

It is required to meet the increasing demands of animal-based goods like milk, meat, eggs, leather, etc., according to the size of the population and the living standards of the people.

It sets guidelines for proper management and a systematic approach to animal rearing.

Cattle Farming: In India, cattle husbandry is done for two purposes; milk and draught labor for agricultural work (such as tilling, irrigation, and caning).

Cattle in India belong to two different species:

  • Bos indices (cows)
  •  Bos bubalis (buffaloes).

On the basis of the work done by cattle, they can be divided into two categories:

  • Milch animals These are milk-producing females or dairy animals.
  • Draught animals These are used to do labor work on farms.

Breeds of Cattle

  1. Indigenous or local breeds are selected because of their high resistance to disease, For Example. Redsindhi and Sahiwal.
  2. Exotic or foreign breeds They are selected because of their long lactation period, For Example. Jersey and Brown Swiss.

These two breeds can be cross-bred to get both the desirable qualities in animals.

Lactation Period: It is the period of milk production after the birth of a calf. Milk production largely depends on the duration of the lactation period. We can increase the milk production by increasing the lactation period.

Farm Management for Cattle

  • Efficient farm management is essential for humane farming, better health of animals, and production of clean milk. Various measures for farm management are as follows:
  • Proper cleaning and shelter facilities are required for cattle.
  • Regular brushing of animals should be done to remove dirt and loose hair.
  • The cattle should be sheltered in well-ventilated roofed sheds in order to protect them from rain, heat, and cold.
  • The floor of the catde shed should be sloping so as to keep it dry and facilitate cleaning.

Food Requirements of Cattles

Food is required for dairy catdes for following two purposes:

  • For maintenance, Food is required to support the animal to live a healthy life.
  • For producing milk The type of food is required during the lactadon period.

Different types of animal feeds are:

  • Roughage This is largely fibrous and contain low nutrients. For example. green fodder, silage, hay and legumes. ‘
  •  Concentrates These are low in fibre. They contain relatively high levels of proteins and other nutrients. For example. cereals like gram and bajra.

Apart from the above mentioned products, some feed additives containing micronutrients promote the health and milk output of dairy animals. It should also be noted that catde should be given balan^d rations with all the nutrients in proportionate amounts.

Diseases in Cattles

Like other animals, catdes also suffer from a number of diseases. These besides causing death, also reduce milk production.

The parasites of catde can be of following types:

  • External parasites They live on the skin and cause skin diseases, For Example. lice, mites, etc.
  •  Internal parasites They include worms that affect stomach and intestine and flukes that damage the liver.

Cattles also get infectious iliseascs from various bacteria and v,ms. As preventive measure, vaccinations are given to farm animals against many viral and bacterial diseases.

Poultry Farming

It involves rearing of domestic fowl for the production of eggs and chicken meat. Therefore, improved poultry breeds are developed and Firmed to produce layers for eggs and broilers for meat.

For the improvement of poultry breeds, cross-breeding is done successfully between Indian or indigenous (For Example. Aseel) and foreign or exotic (For Example. Leghorn) breeds.

These cross-breeding programs focus to develop desirable traits like:

  • Quality and quantity (number) of chicles.
  •  Dwarf broiler parent for commercial chick production.
  • Summer adaptation capacity/tolerance to high temperature.
  •  Low maintenance requirements.
  • Reduction in the size of egg-laying bird with the ability to utilise more fibrous and cheaper diets. This diet is formulated using agricultural byproducts.

Egg and Broiler Production

  • Broiler chickens are fed with vitamin-rich supplementary feed for good growth rate and better feed efficiency.
  • Care is taken to avoid mortality and to maintain feathering and carcass quality. They are produced as broilers and sent to market for meat purposes.
  • Broilers and egg layers have different housing, nutritional and environmental requirements.
  • The diet of broilers is rich in protein with adequate fat. In the poultiy feed, the level ofvitamin-A and K is kept high.

Maintenance of the Shelter

The following practices are required for the maintenance of shelter:

  • Proper cleaning and sanitation of the shelter.
  • Maintenance of temperature and hygiene in the shelter.
  • Proper ventilation.
  • Prevention and control of diseases and pests.
  • Poultry Diseases and Their Prevention
  • Poultry fowl suffer from various diseases caused by virus, bacteria, fungi and parasites.
  • They also suffer from nutritional deficiency diseases.
  • These diseases can be prevented by:
  • Providing nutritional diet to poultry birds.
  • Proper cleaning and sanitation of shelter.
  • Vaccination of poultry birds can prevent the occurrence of infectious diseases. Loss of poultry during an outbreak of disease can also be reduced by proper vaccination.
  • Spraying of disinfectants at regular intervals in the shelter.

Marine fishes of high economic value that are formed in seawater are:

  1. Finned fishes Mullets, bhetki and pearl spots.
  2. Shell fishes Prawns, mussels, oysters and seaweeds. Oysters are also cultivated for the pearls they produce.

Meld of fishes can be increased by locating large schools of fish in the open sea with the use of satellites and echosounders.

Inland Fisheries

  • It includes fishery in freshwater and brackish water. Freshwater resources include canals, ponds, reservoirs and rivers. Brackish water resources are those where seawater and freshwater mix together, For Example. estuaries and lagoons. These are also important fish reservoirs.
  • The yield of capture fishing is not high in such inland water bodies. Thus, most fish production from these resources is done through aquaculture.
  • Sometimes fish culture is done in combination with rice crops. In this, paddy crop gets ample of water and fishes get food.

Composite Fish Culture (Polyculture)

Fish production by cultivating a single species (monoculture) gives a low yield and demands higher cost. In composite fish culture, a combination of 5 or 6 fish species is cultivated in a single pond having different food habits. Due to this, they do not compete for food with each other. Thus, it helps in more intensive fish farming.

Advantages of Composite Fish Culture

  1. Both local and imported fish species are used.
  2. Due to different food habits all the food in pond is consumed by the fishes.
  3. The fish yield from pond is high as their is no competition for food. For example. Catla is surface feeder, Rohu feeds in the middle-zone of the pond, Mrigal and common carps are bottom feeders, grass carp feeds on weeds in the pond.

Disadvantages of Composite Fish Culture

Many of the fishes breed only during monsoon. Thus, one of the major problem of fish farming is the lack of availability of good quality seed. To overcome this problem, fishes are breed in ponds using hormonal stimulation. It ensures the supply of pure fish seed in desired quantities.

Bee-Keeping

Honey is being widely used for various purposes. Thus, its production has become an agricultural enterprise these days. It is scientifically known as apiculture.

It is the method of rearing, care and management of honeybees for obtaining bee products like honey, bee wax (used in medicinal preprations) etc. For commercial honey production, apiaries or bee farms are established.

UP Board Class 9 Science Chapter 12 Improvement In Food Resources Plant Varieties Of Bees Used For Commercial Honey Production

Advantages of Bee-Keeping

  1. Requires low investment.
  2. Provides varied products like honey (for eating or making other products), wax (used in medicinal and cosmetic preparations), bee venom, etc.
  3. Acts as an additional source of income for farmers. (hi) Helps in increasing crop yield by better pollination.
  4. Out of the above mentioned species, A. mellifera has been brought in the country in order to increase the yield of honey. This is the main variety used for the commercial honey production.

Advantages of Italian Bees

  1. They have high honey collection capacity.
  2. They sting somewhat less.
  3. They can stay in a given beehive for long periods and breed well.

Honey

  1. It is the major product that is obtained from apiculture.
  2. Value of honey It depends on pasturage or flowers available to bees for nectar and pollen collection.
  3. Taste of honey It depends on adequate quantity of pasturage and kind of flowers available.

Improvement In Food Sources Question And Answers

Question 1. What do we get from cereals, pulses, fruits and vegetables?
Answer:

Cereals (wheat, rice, maize, etc) are the sources of carbohydrates, which provide energy. Pulses (pea, gram and soybean, etc.) are the source of proteins. Vegetables and fruits provide us vitamins and minerals in addition to small amount of carbohydrates, proteins and fats.

Question 2. How do biotic and abiotic factors affect crop production?
Answer:

Factors which affect crop production are as follows:

  1. Biotic factors that cause loss of grains are rodents, pests, insects, etc.
  2.  Abiotic factors include drought, salinity, water logging, heat, cold and frost.

Both biotic and abiotic factors cause stresses on crop and affect crop production in the following ways:

  1. Poor seed germination
  2. Infestation of insects
  3. Low yield
  4. Discolouration of leaves

Question 3. What are the desirable agronomic characteristics for crop improvements?
Answer:

Desirable agronomic characteristics in crop plants help to give higher productivity. For example:

  1. Tallness and profused branching are desirable characters for fodder crops.
  2. Dwarfness is desired in cereals, so that less nutrients are consumed by these crops.

Question 4. What are macronutrients and why are they called macronutrients?
Answer:

Macronutrients are essential nutrients required for growth, functioning and survival of plants. They are so called because they are required in large amounts by plants. They are six in number, i.e.

  • Nitrogen
  • Phosphorus
  • Potassium
  • Calcium
  • Magnesium
  • sulphur

Question 5. How do plants get nutrients?
Answer:

The nutrients to the plants are supplied by soil, which are absorbed by roots of plants. Some nutrients are provided by air and water too.

Question 6. Compare the use of manure and fertilisers in maintaining soil fertility.
Answer:

Effects of the use of manure in maintaining soil fertility are as follows:

  1. Manures provide a lot of organic matter (humus) to the soil. Humus helps to restore water retention capacity of sandy soil and drainage in clayey soil.
  2.  These are the sources of soil organisms like soil friendly bacteria.

Effects of fertilisers on soil quality are:

  1. Use of excess fertilisers leads to dryness of soil and the rate of soil erosion increases.
  2. Due to continuous use of fertilisers, the organic matter decreases. It reduces porosity of the soil and the plant roots do not get sufficient oxygen.

Question 7. Which of the following conditions will give the most benefits? Why?

  1. Farmers use high quality seeds, do not adopt irrigation or use fertilisers.
  2. Farmers use ordinary seeds, adopt irrigation and use fertilisers.
  3. Farmers use quality seeds, adopt irrigation, use fertilisers and use crop protection measures.

Answer:

Condition will give most benefits because

good quality seeds will give good yield.

irrigation methods will overcome drought and flood situation.

fertilisers fulfil the nutrient requirement of the soil, providing high yield.

crop protection method protects the plants from weeds, pests and pathogens.

Question 8. Why should preventive measures and biological control methods be preferred for protecting crops?
Answer:

Preventive measures and biological control methods should be preferred for protecting crops because :

  1. they are simple.
  2. they are economical as they involve less financial investment.
  3. they minimise pollution and are ecologically safe.
  4. they minimise the adverse effects on soil fertility.
  5. they are harmless to other living organisms.
  6. they are target specific.

Question 9. What factors may be responsible for losses of grain during storage?
Answer:

The major factors responsible for losses of grain during storage are:

  1. Biotic factors They include attack from insects, rodents, fungi, mites and bacteria.
  2. Abiotic factors They include inappropriate moisture and temperature in the place or storage.

Question 10. Which method is commonly used for improving cattle breeds and why?
Answer:

Cross breeding is a method commonly used for improving cattle breeds. It is the process in which indigenous varieties of cattle are crossed with exotic breeds to get a cross-breed which is of desired qualities.

Question 11. Discuss the implications of the following statement: “It is interesting to note that poultry is India’s most efficient converter of low fibre foodstuff (which is unfit for human consumption) into highly nutritious animal protein food”.
Answer:

  • Poultry birds are efficient converters of agricultural byproducts and fibrous wastes into high quality meat. As, the waste which is unfit for human consumption can be formulated into cheaper diets for poultry Birds.
  • Also, they help in providing eggs, feather and nutrient rich manure. So, the mentioned statement is implicit for poultry birds.

Question 12. What management practices are common in dairy and poultry farming?
Answer:

The common management practices include:

  1. Keeping the shelter well-designed, ventilated and hygienic.
  2. The animals and birds are given healthy feed with balanced nutrition.
  3. Both animals and birds must be protected from various diseases. Regular check-up should be done.

Question 13. What are the differences between broilers and layers and in their management?
Answer:

  • A broiler is a poultry bird specially kept for obtaining meat. Layer is a poultry bird that gives eggs. There is a difference in their housing, nutrition and environmental requirements.
  • The daily food requirement of broilers is somewhat different from those of layers. Broilers require protein rich food with adequate fat and high amount of vitamin-A and K. Layers require feed with vitamins, minerals and micronutrients and enough space and proper lighting.

Question 14. How are fish obtained?
Answer:

Fishes are obtained either by capturing them from their natural resources or by culturing them by fish farming.

Question 15. What are the advantages of composite fish culture?
Answer:

Advantages of composite fish culture are as follows:

  1. Fishes selected for this culture differ in their feeding habits and thus, avoid competition for food between them.
  2. All these species together use all the food in the pond without competing with each other.
  3. This increases the fish yield from the pond.

Question 16. What are the desirable characters of bee varieties suitable for honey production?
Answer:

The desirable characters of bee for honey production are as follows:

  1. The bee should have good honey collection capacity.
  2. They should be stingless and breed very well.
  3. They should be able to stay in a beehive for long periods.

Question 17. What is pasturage and how is it related to honey production?
Answer:

Pasturage includes the plants and trees found around an apiary. From them, nectar and pollen are collected by bees to form honey.

Pasturage plays an important role in determining the quantity and quality of honey.

  1. The quality of honey depends upon the pasturage.
  2.  Kinds of flowers determine the taste of honey.

Exercises

Question 1. Explain any one method of crop production, which ensures high yield.
Answer:

Intercropping is a method of crop production, which ensures high yield. During this, two or more crops having different nutrient requirements are grown simultaneously on the same field in a definite pattern.

Question 2. Why are manures and fertilisers used in fields?
Answer:

Manures and fertilisers are used to improve soil fertility and increase crop productivity. They replenish deficient nutrients in the soil.

Question 3. What are the advantages of intercropping and crop rotation?
Answer:

Advantages of intercropping are:

  1. Crops selected in this method differ in their nutrient requirements. This ensures maximum utilisation of the supplied nutrients.
  2.  It prevents pests and diseases from spreading to all the plants belonging to one crop in a field. Advantages of crop rotation are:
  3. It makes the soil fertile and increases the yield from a single field.
  4. It reduces the use of fertilisers. For example. use of nitrogenous fertilisers is not required as leguminous plants that are grown in crop rotation help in biological nitrogen-fixation.
  5. It helps in the replenishment of soil fertility

Question 4. What is genetic manipulation? How is it useful in agricultural practices?
Answer:

  • Genetic manipulation is the incorporation of desirable characters into an organism by hybridisation, mutation, DNA recombination, etc.
  • By genetic manipulation, improved varieties of seeds can be obtained having desirable characters like high yield, disease resistance and better adaptability.

Question 5. How do good animal husbandry practices benefit farmers?
Answer:

Animal husbandry involves the scientific management of the farm animals. Its benefits to farmers are:

  1. Improvement of the breeds having good desirable characters.
  2. Better yield in quantity and quality.
  3.  Reduction of input cost.

Question 6. What are the benefits of cattle farming?
Answer:

The main benefits of cattle farming are as follows:

  1. We get milk from cattle. Various milk products can be manufactured with this milk.
  2.  Cattle can be employed for labour work in agricultural fields for tilling, irrigation and carting.

Question 7. For increasing production, what is common in poultry, fisheries and bee-keeping?
Answer:

Cross-breeding is the most important practice to increase the production and that too of desired characteristics.

Question 8. How do you differentiate between capture fishing, mariculture and aquaculture?
Answer:

Differences between capture fishing, mariculture and aquaculture are as follows:

UP Board Class 9 Science Chapter 12 Improvement In Food Resources Difference Between Fishing, Mariculture And Aquaculture

Summary

  • Improvement in food resources is essential to obtain higher yield to fulfil the need of food for continuously increasing population.
  • The green revolution has contributed in increasing the food grain production, while the white revolution has led to better availability of milk.
  • High yields from farm can be obtained by undertaking scientific management practices like mixed cropping, intercropping and integrated farming practices.
  • Improvement in crop yield are practices involved in farming to increase crop production. In includes crop variety improvement, crop production management and crop protection management.
  • Crop variety improvement is a practice to find an improved variety of crop, which can withstand different situations like soil quality, different weather conditions, water availability (drought and flood) and can ultimately give good yield.
  • Hybridisation and genetic manipulations are the two ways to incorporate desirable characteristics into crop varieties. Factors for which crop variety improvement is done are higher yield, improved quality, resistance against biotic and abiotic factors, change in maturity duration, wider adaptability and desirable agronomic characteristics.
  • Crop production management involves the control of various aspects of crop production for the best yield. It includes nutrient management, irrigation and cropping patterns
  • Nutrient management includes adopting various methods to increase the nutrient level in the soil. This is done by adding manures and fertilisers in the field.
  • Irrigation is the process of supplying water to crop plants in fields by means of canals, reservoirs, wells and tube wells. Cropping patterns involve raising crops so as to obtain maximum benefit from the same piece of land, reducing the risk of crop failure, disease, etc. It can be done by mixed cropping, intercropping and crop rotation.
  • Crop protection management involves the protection of crops from weeds, insects, pests and disease causing organisms. It includes methods to reduce such kinds of infestation. If not controlled in time, they can cause heavy damage to crops.
  • Grains are affected by biotic and abiotic factors. Thus, proper measures should be adopted for their storage, For Example. fumigation. Animal husbandry is the scientific management of livestock.
  • It is animal based farming of cattle, goat, sheep, poultry and fish.
  • 1 Cattle farming is done for milk and drought labour by cattles. Poultry farming is the method of rearing fowls for the production of meat and egg. It aims to improve poultry breeds.
  • Fish production refers to capturing and culturing of fishes as a suppliment of animal protein for humans. It is a cheep source of animal protein for our food.
  • Bee keeping is scientifically known as apiculture. It is rearing, care and management of honeybees for obtaining honey, wax, etc. For commercial honey production, apiaries or bee farms are established.

UP Board Solutions For Class 9 Science Chapter 4 Structure Of The Atom

Class 9 Science Chapter 4 Structure Of The Atom Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1. Which popular experiment is shown in the figure?

UP Board Class 9 Science Chapter 4 Structure Of The Atom Alpha Particle Scattering ExperimentUP Board Class 9 Science Chapter 4 Structure Of The Atom Alpha Particle Scattering ExperimentUP Board Class 9 Science Chapter 4 Structure Of The Atom Alpha Particle Scattering ExperimentUP Board Class 9 Science Chapter 4 Structure Of The Atom Alpha Particle Scattering ExperimentUP Board Class 9 Science Chapter 4 Structure Of The Atom Alpha Particle Scattering Experiment

Answer:

This figure shows the scattering of a-particles by a gold foil which is known as the Rutherford experiment or a-particle scattering experiment.

Question 2.

  1. What is an octet? How do elements attain an octet?
  2. Make a schematic atomic structure of magnesium and phosphorus.

[Given number of protons of magnesium =12 and that of phosphorus =15 ]

Answer:

  1. An outermost shell, which has eight electrons is said to possess an octet. Elements attain their octet by sharing, gaining, or losing electrons.
  2. Atomic structure of Mg

Read and Learn More Class 9 Science Solutions

UP Board Class 9 Science Chapter 4 Structure Of The Atom Atomic Structure Of Mg

12Mg = \(\begin{aligned}
& K L M \\
& 2,8,2
\end{aligned}\)

The atomic structure of P

UP Board Class 9 Science Chapter 4 Structure Of The Atom Atomic Structure Of P

15P = \(\begin{aligned}
& K L M \\
& 2,8,5
\end{aligned}\)

Question 3.

  1. An element X has an atomic number =12 and a mass number =26. Draw a diagram showing the distribution of electrons in the orbits and the nuclear composition of the neutral atom of the element. What is the valency of the element and why?
  2. If this element X combines with another element Y whose electronic configuration is 2, 8, 7. What will be the formula of the compound thus formed? State how you arrive at this formula.

Answer:

Atomic number =12. Mass number =26

Atomic structure of X

UP Board Class 9 Science Chapter 4 Structure Of The Atom Atomic Structure Of X

Electronic configuration = 2, 8, 2

Nuclear composition

Number of protons =12

Number of neutrons =26 -12 =14

Valency = 2

Because it can donate 2 electrons easily to complete its octet and become stable.

The valency of the element E would be 1, i.e. it can gain 1 electron to become stable. When it combines with the element X of valency 2, the compound formed will be XY2.

The formula of the compound would be XY2.

Question 4.

  1. Rutherford’s a-particle scattering experiment gives the experimental evidence for deriving the conclusion that
    1. Most of the space inside the atom is empty.
    2. The nucleus of an atom is positively charged.
  2. An element has mass number =32 and atomic number = 16, find
    1. The number of neutrons in the atom of the element.
    2. The number of electrons in the outermost shell of the atom.
  3. Based on Rutherford’s model of an atom, which subatomic particle is present in the nucleus of an atom?

Answer:

    1. Most of the a-particles passed straight through the gold foil.
    2. A few of the a-particles which are positively charged, deflected due to the positive charge of the nucleus.
    1. Number of neutrons = Mass number – atomic number =32-16=16
    2. The electronic configuration of the element will K L M be as follows: 2, 8, 6
    3. Hence, the number of electrons in the outermost shell is 6.
  1. According to Rutherford’s model of an atom, positively charged protons are present in the nucleus of an atom.

Question 5.

  1. Write two differences between isotopes and isobars.
  2. Write uses of Co-60 and U-235.

Answer:

Difference between isobars and isotopes:

UP Board Class 9 Science Chapter 4 Structure Of The Atom Difference Between Isotopes And Isobars

  1. The isotope of cobalt (Co-60) is used in the treatment of cancer.
  2. The isotope of uranium (U-235) is used as a fuel in a nuclear reactor.

Question 6. Which of the following is a correct electronic configuration of sodium?

  1. 2, 8
  2. 8, 2, 1
  3. 2, 1,8
  4. 2, 8, 1

Answer: 4. 2, 8, 1

The atomic number of sodium atom is 11, therefore,

its electronic configuration is \(\begin{gathered}
K L M \\
2,8,1 .
\end{gathered}\).

Question 7. Complete the following table.

UP Board Class 9 Science Chapter 4 Structure Of The Atom Atomaci Number To Name Of The Atomaci Species.

Answer:

UP Board Class 9 Science Chapter 4 Structure Of The Atom Atomaci Number To Name Of The Atomaci Species

Explanation

Fluorine (9F19) Given, atomic number = 9 and number of neutrons =10

Mass number =Atomic number + number of neutrons

= 9 + 10

=19

Number of protons = Atomic number

= Number of electrons = 9

Sulphur (16S32) Given, atomic number =16

Number of protons = Number of electrons =16 Number of neutrons

= Mass number — atomic number – =32-16=16

Magnesium (12Mg24) Number of protons =12

Atomic number = Number of protons = 12

Number of electrons = Number of protons =12

Number of neutrons = Mass number – atomic number

= 24 -12 = 12

Deuterium (1D2) Number of protons = 1

and Number of electrons = 1

Atomic number = 1, mass number = 2

Number of neutrons = 2-1=1

Hydrogen ion (1H+) Mass number = 1

Number of protons = 1

Number of neutrons = 0

Number of electrons = 0

Atomic number = Number of protons =1

Because several electrons are zero, i.e. not equal to that of protons, the species is a hydrogen ion, not a hydrogen atom.

Question 8. Define valency by taking examples of silicon and oxygen.
Answer:

The combining capacity of the atom of an element with the atom(s) of the same or other elements (s) to complete its octet is called the valency of that element. The number of valence electrons present in the atom of that element determines the valency of an element.

If the number of valence electrons of the atom of an element is less than or equal to four then the valency of that element is equal to the number of valence electrons, e.g. the atom of silicon has four valence electrons

[ ∵ atomic no of silicon is 14, therefore its electronic configuration is \(\begin{aligned}
& K L M \\
& 2,8,4
\end{aligned}\) ]

Thus, the valency of silicon is four.

On the other hand, if the number of valence electrons of the atom of an element is greater than four, the valency of that element is obtained by subtracting the number of valence electrons from eight, e.g. the atom of oxygen has six valence electrons

[ ∵ atomic no. of oxygen is 6, therefore, its electronic configuration is 2 (K), 6 (L)]. Thus, the valency of oxygen is two [8-6 = 2].

Question 9. Explain with examples.

  1. Atomic number
  2. Mass number
  3. Isotopes
  4. Isobars

Answer:

Give any two uses of isotopes

Atomic number The number of protons present in the nucleus of the atom of an element is called its atomic number.

Atomic number = Number of protons

For example., a sodium atom has 11 protons. Thus, its atomic number is 11. It is represented as 11Na.

Mass number The sum of several protons and neutrons (together called nucleons) present in the nucleus of an atom is called its mass number.

Mass number = Number of protons + number of neutrons

For example., a sodium atom has 11 protons and 12 neutrons. Its mass number is 23. It is represented as 23Na.

Isotopes Atoms of an element having the same atomic number but different mass numbers are called isotopes of that element.

For example., hydrogen has 3 isotopes 1H1,1H2 and 1H3.

Isobars Atoms of different elements with different atomic numbers but the same mass number are known as isobars.

For example., \({ }_{18}^{40} \mathrm{Ar} \text { and }{ }_{20}^{40} \mathrm{Ca}\) are isobars.

Uses of isotopes are:

An isotope of uranium (U-235) is used as a fuel for the production of electricity in nuclear reactors.

An isotope of cobalt is used in the treatment of cancer.

Question 10. Na+ has completely filled K and L shells. Explain.
Answer:

Electronic configuration of Na (atom) = \(\begin{array}{ccc}
K & L & M \\
2, & 8, & 1 .
\end{array}\)

When an atom loses one electron, it acquires a positive charge. Thus, when Na-atom loses one electron from its Af-shell it gets converted into Na+ion.

Electronic configuration of Nation) = \(\begin{array}{ll}
K & L \\
2, & 8 .
\end{array}\)

As the maximum capacity of the K-shell to occupy electrons is 2 and that of the Z-shell is 8 electrons, so, Na+ has filled K and L-shells.

Question 11. If a bromine atom is available in the form of, say, two isotopes \({ }_{359}^{79} \mathrm{Br} \quad(49.7 \%) \text { and }{ }_{35}^{81} \mathrm{Br}\), calculate the average atomic mass of the bromine atom.
Answer:

The average atomic mass of an element

⇒ \(\begin{aligned} & =\left[\binom{\text { Atomic mass of isotope I }}{\left.\times \frac{\text { percentage of isotope I }}{100}\right)}\right. \\ & \left.+\left(\text { Atomic mass of isotope II } \times \frac{\text { percentage of isotope II }}{100}\right)\right] \end{aligned}\)

Average atomic mass of bromine

⇒ \(=\left[\left(79 \times \frac{49.7}{100}\right)+\left(81 \times \frac{50.3}{100}\right)\right]\)

= 39.263+ 40.743 = 80.006 u.

Question 12. The average atomic mass of a sample of an element X is 16.2 u. What are the percentages of isotopes 168X and 18X in the sample?
Answer:

Let, the percentage of 8X16 = x%

Then, the percentage of 8X18 = (100 – x) % … (1)

The average atomic mass of X =16.2 u

According to the given data,

⇒ \(16 \times \frac{x}{100}+18 \times \frac{(100-x)}{100}=16.2\)………(2)

⇒ \(\frac{16 x}{100}+\frac{1800-18 x}{100}=16.2\)

⇒ \(16 x+1800-18 x=1620\)

⇒ \(-2 x=-1800+1620 \Rightarrow \)

⇒ \(x=\frac{180}{2}=90 \%\)

Placing the value of x in Eq.(1)

Percentage of ls8X =100 -90 =10%

∴ Isotope 8X16 =90% , isotope 8X18 =10%

Question 13. The number of valence electrons in CF ions is

  1. 16
  2. 8
  3. 17
  4. 18

Answer: 2. 8

Valence electrons are the electrons present in the outermost shell of an atom. Cl ion is formed when the Cl atom gains an electron. The atomic number of Cl is 17, it has 1 7e, and when it gains one e, it becomes Cl ion and has 18e.

Thus, the electronic configuration of Cl atom and Cl ion are as follows:

Cl (atom) = 2, 8 7;

Valence electrons = 7

Cl (ion) = 2, 8, 8;

Valence electrons = 8

Hence Cl ion has 8 valence electrons.

Question 14. Write the electronic configuration of any one pair of isotopes and isobars.
Answer: Isotopes, for example., \({ }_{17}^{35} \mathrm{Cl} \text { and }{ }_{17}^{37} \mathrm{Cl}\)

The electronic configuration of both the isotopes of chlorine is the same as their atomic number are the same.

17Cl = \(\begin{array}{ccc}
K & L & M \\
2, & 8, & 7
\end{array}\)

Isobars, for example., \({ }_{20}^{40} \mathrm{Ca} \text { and }{ }_{18}^{40} \mathrm{Cl}\)

The electronic configuration of both isobars would be different as both have different atomic numbers but have the same mass number.

⇒ \(\begin{array}{rccc}
K & L & M & N \\
{ }_{20} \mathrm{Ca}=2, & 8, & 8, & 2
\end{array}\)

⇒ \({ }_{18} \mathrm{Ar}=2,8,8\)

Question 15. Two ions having 3 negative and 3 positive charges are found to have 7 and 14 neutrons respectively. If the electronic configuration of these ions is similar to that of neon (Ne), then find the mass number of both ions.
Answer:

The electronic configuration of Ne = \(\begin{array}{cc}
K & L \\
2, & 8
\end{array}\)

Atom, which forms ion similar to neon with 3 negative charges, will have an electronic configuration as = \(\begin{array}{cc}
K & L \\
2, & 5
\end{array}\)

Hence, the given atom is nitrogen.

Mass number = Number of protons + number of neutrons

= 7+7 = 14

Similarly, an atom that forms an ion similar to neon with 3 positive charges, will have an electronic configuration as = \(\begin{aligned}
& K L M \\
& 2,8,3 \\
&
\end{aligned}\)

Hence, the given atom is aluminum.

Mass number = Number of protons + number of neutrons

= 13 + 14

= 27

Class 9 Science Chapter 4 Structure Of The Atom Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1. How can you justify that cathode rays originate from the cathode whereas anode rays do not?
Answer:

  • On applying high potential on a discharge tube, any metal used as a cathode-electrode emits a beam of electrons having (-)ve charge, moving towards the oppositely charged (+)ve plate (anode electrode) known as cathode-rays.
  • Anode rays are gaseous (+)ve-ions (kept in discharge tube) produced due to the knock-out of electrons from gaseous atoms that move towards (-)ve plate. This shows that cathode rays originate from the cathode whereas anode rays do not.

Question 2. Write the conclusions drawn by Rutherford when he observed the following.

  1. Most of the a-particles pass straight through the gold foil.
  2. Some a-particles getting deflected from their path.

Answer:

  1. Most of the space inside the atom is empty.
  2. Some negatively charged particles (called electrons) are present around the center (called the nucleus).

Question 3. List down three different names given to the path in which electrons revolve around the nucleus. Also, explain why are they called so.
Answer:

The three different names are:

  1. Discrete orbit It is called so because electrons revolve in certain distinct paths and not just in any orbit.
  2. Energy level (energy shell) The energy associated with different orbits (with which electron revolves) is distinct for each orbit, hence it is called so.
  3. Stationary state Since the energy associated with an orbit is fixed. Hence, the electron revolving in a particular orbit has stationary energy. That’s why, the orbit is also called a stationary state,

Question 4.

  1. What will be the maximum number of electrons that can be filled in the Z-shell of an imaginary atomic model?
  2. Why is it almost impossible to find such an atom in nature?

Answer:

According to the Bohr and Bury rule, the maximum number of electrons in. Z-shell (16th shell, starting from K)

= 2n2 = 2 × 16 × 16

= 512

Atoms with greater number of electrons have greater number of protons and neutrons therefore they have unstable nucleus which radiates energy or divide itself into smaller stable nuclei. Hence, elements with atomic number greater than 100 are rarely found in nature.

Question 5.

  1. Write the name of an element whose atom has the same number of sub-atomic particles. Draw the atomic structure of the atom.
  2. Draw the atomic structure of an atom with the same number of electrons in L and M-shells.

Answer:

1. Name of element: Oxygen (8O16)

Number of electrons = 8

Number of protons = 8

Number of neutrons =16-8=8

UP Board Class 9 Science Chapter 4 Structure Of The Atom Atomaci Number To Name Of The Atomaci Species

2. Name of element: Argon Atomic number

⇒ \(\begin{array}{r}
K L M \\
(18)=2,8,8
\end{array}\)

UP Board Class 9 Science Chapter 4 Structure Of The Atom Atomic Structure Of An Atom

Number of electrons in L-shell = 8

Number of electrons in M-shell = 8

Question 6. Given below is the atomic structure of an atom of element 11A23, according to Bohr’s

UP Board Class 9 Science Chapter 4 Structure Of The Atom Given Below Is The Atomic Structure Of An Atom

  1. What is wrong with this structure of an atom? Draw a correct representation of this atom.
  2. Write the chemical formula of the chloride of this element.

Answer:

1. The element A is Na and has three shells K, L, and M but here only 2 shells are given.

Further, Z-shell cannot have more than 8 electrons but here 9 electrons are given.

The correct structure is

UP Board Class 9 Science Chapter 4 Structure Of The Atom The Correct Structure Is Bohrs Model

2. As Na has 1 valence electron, thus it has a valency of+1 and chlorine has a valency of -1. Hence, the formula of its chloride is ACl, i.e. NaCl.

Question 7. Write the electronic configuration and valency of the following.

  1. Chlorine
  2. Silicon

Answer:

  1. Chlorine (17Cl): \(\begin{aligned}
    & K L M \\
    & 2,8,7
    \end{aligned}\) ⇒> Valency = 1
  2. Silicon (14Si) \(\begin{aligned}
    & K L M \\
    & 2,8,4
    \end{aligned}\) 4 ⇒ Valency = 4

Question 8. Write the electronic configurations for the following elements and deduce their valencies.

  1. Magnesium
  2. Neon
  3. Sulphur

Answer:

Magnesium (12) = \(\begin{aligned}
& K L M \\
& 2,8,2
\end{aligned}\)

⇒ Valency = 2

2. Neon (10) = \(\begin{array}{cc}
K & L \\
2, & 8
\end{array}\)

⇒ Valency = 0

3. Sulphur (1 6) = \(\begin{aligned}
& K L M \\
& 2,8,6
\end{aligned}\)

⇒ Valency =8-6=2

Question 9. Find out the valency of atoms represented by the following figures.

UP Board Class 9 Science Chapter 4 Structure Of The Atom Find Out The Valency Of Atoms

Answer:

Valency = 0 [∵ number of valence electrons = 8]

Valency = 3 [∵ number of valence electrons =3]

Valency = 1 [∵ number of valence electron = 1]

Valency = 2 [∵ number of valence electrons = 6]

[valency =8-6 = 2]

Question 10. The following data represents the distribution of electrons, protons, and neutrons in atoms of four elements A, B, C, and D.

UP Board Class 9 Science Chapter 4 Structure Of The Atom Distribution Of Electrons Protons And Neutrons In Atoms

Solve the following questions.

  1. Write the electronic distribution of atoms of elements A and D.
  2. Element A is an inert gas. Why?
  3. What is the valency of element C?

Answer:

1. Electronic distribution of elements A and D.

⇒ \(\begin{aligned}
& \quad K L M \\
& A=2,8 \\
& D=2,8,3
\end{aligned}\)

2. The number of electrons in the outermost shell of element A is 8.

The outermost shell of this element is complete and the element does not need to gain or lose electrons to complete its outermost shell. Hence, A is an inert gas.

3. alency of element C (2, 8, 2) is 2.

Question 11. You are given the atom of an element 8X16. Find out the

  1. Number of protons, electrons, and neutrons in X.
  2. Valency of X.
  3. The chemical formula of the compound formed when X reacts with
    1. Hydrogen
    2. Carbon.

Answer:

1. Number of protons = 8

Number of electrons = 8

Number of neutrons =16-8=8

2. Valency = 8-6 = 2

∵ \(\left[\begin{array}{ll}
K & L \\
2, & 6
\end{array}\right]\)

3.

  1. H2X
  2. CX2

Question 12. An atom of an element has 5 electrons in L-shell.

  1. What is the atomic number of the element? State its valency.
  2. Identify the element and write its name.

Answer:

  1. Since there are 5 electrons in the Z-shell, so there must be 2 electrons in the X-shell. Thus, the element has a total of 7 electrons, which is equal to the number of protons, hence the atomic number of the element is 7.
    1. As Z-shell is the outermost shell and it contains 5 electrons. Therefore, it has 5 valence electrons. Thus, its valency is 3 [8 -5 = 3].
  2. An element having atomic number 7 is nitrogen (N).

Question 13.

  1. Answer the following questions.
    1. Name the scientist who discovered protons.
    2. What is the charge and mass of a proton?
    3. Where is a proton located in an atom?
  2. An atom of an element has a mass number of 28 u and its atomic number is

Answer:

1.

  1. Protons were discovered by E. Goldstein.
  2. The charge on a proton is + 1.6×10-19C and its mass is 1.67×10-27kg.
  3. The proton is located in the nucleus of an atom.

2. Number of neutrons

= Mass number – atomic number =28-14 = 14

The element is silicon (14Si28).

Question 14. Show diagrammatically the electron distributions in a sodium atom and a sodium ion and also give their atomic number.
Answer:

The atomic number of sodium (Z) = 11

The mass number of sodium = 23

∴ Number of protons in the nucleus = 11

Number of neutrons in the nucleus = 23 -11=12

Number of electrons =11

∴Electronic configuration of Na-atom = \(\begin{array}{ccc}
K & L & M \\
2, & 8, & 1
\end{array}\)

Na+ ion is formed from sodium atom by loss of an electron (present in the outermost shell). Hence, its electronic configuration is \(\begin{array}{cc}
K & L \\
2, & 8 .
\end{array}\). However, several protons and neutrons remain the same.

UP Board Class 9 Science Chapter 4 Structure Of The Atom Structure Of An Atom Structure Atom And Sodium Ion

Question 15. An atom of an element has two electrons in the outermost M-shell. State

  1. Electronic configuration
  2. Atomic number
  3. Number of protons
  4. Valency of this element

Answer:

1. An atom of an element has two electrons in M-shell. Therefore, it’s electronic configuration = \(\begin{array}{ccc}
K & L & M \\
2, & 8, & 1
\end{array}\)

2. Atomic number = 2 + 8 + 2 = 12

3. Number of protons = 12

4.  2, because there are 2 valence electrons, which it can lose easily to achieve stable outermost electronic configuration.

Question 16. What information do you get from the figure about the atomic number, mass number, and valency of atoms X, Y, and Z? Give your answer in a tabular form.

UP Board Class 9 Science Chapter 4 Structure Of The Atom Give Your Answer In A Tabular Form

Answer:

The tabular form is as below:

UP Board Class 9 Science Chapter 4 Structure Of The Atom The Tabular Form Is As Below

Question 17. Complete the table based on the information available in the symbols given below.

⇒ \((1) { }_{17}^{35} \mathrm{Cl}
(2) { }_{35}^{81} \mathrm{Br}\)

UP Board Class 9 Science Chapter 4 Structure Of The Atom The Basic Of Information Available In The Symbols

Answer:

  • The atomic number is written on the lower left side of the symbol of the element whereas the mass number is written on the upper left side of the symbol of the element.
  • Number of protons (np) = Atomic number of atoms and number of neutrons (nn) = Mass number — atomic number.

UP Board Class 9 Science Chapter 4 Structure Of The Atom Number Of Protons Np

Question 18. Complete the following table.

UP Board Class 9 Science Chapter 4 Structure Of The Atom Element To Mass Number.

Answer:

A: Atomic number = Number of protons =17; Mass number = Number of protons + number of neutrons

= 17 + 18=35

B: Atomic number = Number of protons =14; Mass number = Number of protons + number of neutrons

= 14 + 14 = 28

C: Atomic number = Number of protons = 9; Number of neutrons = Mass number – number of protons

=19—9=10

UP Board Class 9 Science Chapter 4 Structure Of The Atom Structure Of An Atom Element To Mass Number

Question 19. In the following table, the mass numbers and the atomic numbers of certain elements are given.

UP Board Class 9 Science Chapter 4 Structure Of The Atom The Mass Number And Atomic Number

  1. What would be the valency of element C listed in the above table?
  2. Which two sub-atomic particles are equal in number in a neutral atom?

Answer:

1. The electronic configuration of C is 2(X), 5(L).

Hence, its valency is three because it gains three electrons to attain a stable electronic configuration.

[or valency can be found as, 8 – 5 = 3]

2. For a neutral atom,

Number of electrons = Number of protons Thus, electrons and protons are equal in number in a neutral atom.

Question 20. Two elements are represented as 17X35 and 12Y24.

  1. Which of these elements will lose and gain electrons? What is the number of electrons an atom loses, gains, or shares called?
  2. Write the electronic configurations of X and Y.

Answer:

1. Y will lose (2) electrons and X will gain (1) electron.

The number of electrons lost, gained, or shared by an atom is called its valency.

2. Electronic configuration of X (atomic number = 17) = 2, 8, 7

Electronic configuration of Y (atomic number = 12) = 2, 8, 2

Question 21. A metal (mass number = 40) having the same number of protons and neutrons, combines with two chlorine atoms. Identify the element with which the electronic configuration of this metal matches in the combined state.
Answer:

1: As mass number = Number of protons + number of neutrons

⇒ 40 = 2 x number of protons

⇒ Number of protons = 20

Hence, the metal is calcium (Ca).

Since it combines with 2 Cl-atoms (total valency = 2)

Hence, it will acquire 2 positive charges, after losing 2 electrons.

Electronic configuration of Ca2+ ion = \(\begin{array}{ccc}
K & L & M \\
2, & 8, & 8
\end{array}\)

This electronic configuration matches that of argon (Ar).

Question 22. In response to a question, a student stated that in an atom, the number of protons is greater than the number of neutrons, which in turn is greater than the number of electrons. Do you agree with the statement? Justify your answer.
Answer:

The given statement is incorrect.

According to this statement: p > n > e

But actually, several protons can never be greater than the number of neutrons (except protium). Several neutrons can be equal to or greater than the number of protons because a mass number is equal to double the atomic number or greater than double the atomic number.

Of course, several neutrons can be greater than the number of electrons because several electrons are equal to several protons in the neutral atom.

Question 23. An ion M3- contains 10 electrons and 7 neutrons. What is the atomic number and mass number of the element M? Name the element.

The number of protons in M3- ion =10-3 = 7

∴ The atomic number is 7.

Mass number = Number of protons + number of neutrons

= 7 + 7

=14

As the atomic number is 7.

∴ The element is nitrogen.

Question 24. Sulfur dioxide (SO2) is a colorless pungent-smelling gas and is a major air pollutant.

  1. Write the electronic configuration of its constituent elements ‘sulfur and oxygen’ (Given, 16S32,8O16). Write the valency of sulfur and oxygen.
  2. Are sulphur and oxygen isotopes of the same element? Explain your answer.

Answer:

1. Electronic configuration of sulphur (S) : \(\begin{aligned}
& K L M \\
& 2,8,6
\end{aligned}\)

Electronic configuration of oxygen (O): 2, 6 Valency of both sulphur and oxygen is 2, as they tend to gain two electrons to achieve stable outer shell electronic configuration.

2. Isotopes are elements having the same atomic number but different mass numbers. Therefore, they are not isotopes as their atomic numbers are different.

Question 25. Study the data given below and answer the questions which follow:

UP Board Class 9 Science Chapter 4 Structure Of The Atom Study The Data Given Below

  1. Write the mass number and atomic number of particles A, B, C, and D.
  2. Which particles represent a pair of isotopes? Explain.

Answer:

UP Board Class 9 Science Chapter 4 Structure Of The Atom The Mass Number And Atomic Number Of Particles

Particles C and D have the same number of protons, i.e. same atomic number but different mass numbers.

Question 26. The two isotopes of chlorine have mass numbers 35 and 37 and number of neutrons 18 and 20 respectively. Which one will have higher valency? Do they have the same physical or chemical properties?
Answer:

Number of protons in ,35Cl =35 -1 8 =17

⇒ Number of electrons = Number of protons =17

Similarly, the number of protons in 37Cl = 37 — 20 = 17

⇒ Number of electrons = Number of protons =17

Since both have the same number of electrons (i.e. 17). Hence, they will have the same valency (i.e. 1). Isotopes having the same number of electrons show the same chemical properties but may show some different physical properties.

Question 27.

  1. What is the number of electrons in CD ion (Cl =17)?
  2. What is the electronic configuration of phosphorus (P = 15)?

Answer:

1. 17 +1 (gained) =18 electrons [because negative charge shows gain of electrons].

2. Atomic number of phosphorus =15 Electronic configuration = \(\begin{aligned}
& K L M \\
& 2,8,5
\end{aligned}\)

Question 28. An element M forms the compound MH3 when it reacts with hydrogen.

  1. Find the valency of element M.
  2. Write the valency of chlorine and sulfur.

Answer:

  1. The valency of M = 3 because it combines with three atoms of hydrogen.
  2. Valency of chlorine, Cl (2, 8, 7) = 8 – 7 = 1 Valency of sulfur, S (2, 8, 6) = 8-6 = 2

Question 29.

  1. Identify which of the following pairs are isotopes and which are isobars. Give reasons for your choice.
    • \({ }^{58} A_{26},{ }^{58} B_{28},{ }^{79} X_{35},{ }^{80} Y_{35}\)
  2. Do isobars also have identical chemical properties to isotopes? State reason.

Answer:

  1. A and B are isobars as they are atoms of different elements having the same mass number. X and Y are isotopes as they are atoms of the same element (same atomic number) having different mass numbers.
  2. No, isobars do not have identical chemical properties because they have different atomic numbers as well as electronic configurations.

Question 30.

  1. Chlorine occurs in nature in two isotopic forms with masses 35 u and 37 u. The percentage of 35 Cl is 75%. Find the average atomic mass of a chlorine atom,
  2. Give any three applications of isotopes.

Answer:

1. \(\% \text { of }{ }^{37} \mathrm{Cl}=100-75=25 \%\)

Average atomic mass \(=\left(\frac{35 \times 75}{100}+\frac{37 \times 25}{100}\right)\)

⇒ \(\left(\frac{105}{4}+\frac{37}{4}\right)\)

⇒ \(\frac{142}{4}\)

= 35.50 u

2. Applications of isotopes

  1. An isotope of iodine is used in the treatment of goiter.
  2. An isotope of uranium is used as a fuel in nuclear reactors.
  3. An isotope of cobalt is used in the treatment of cancer.

Question 31. Based on the number of protons, neutrons, and electrons in the samples given below identify

  1. The cation.
  2. The pair of isobars, and the pair of isotopes.

UP Board Class 9 Science Chapter 4 Structure Of The Atom Structure Of An Atom Element To Mass Number

Answer:

  1. Sample A has more protons than the electrons. Hence, it is a cation.
  2. Sample B and C have the same mass number (Mass number = Number of protons + several neutrons =37) but different atomic numbers (i.e. 18 and 17 respectively). Hence, they are a pair of isobars. Samples C and D have the same atomic number but different mass numbers. Hence, they are a pair of isotopes.

Question 32. Elements from A to F have the distribution of electrons, protons, and neutrons in the following way.

UP Board Class 9 Science Chapter 4 Structure Of The Atom Elements From A To F

From the table, find

  1. A pair of ionic gas
  2. An atom of noble configuration
  3. A pair of isobars
  4. A pair of isotopes

Answer:

  1. A and B, because several electrons and protons are different for these elements.
  2. E, because it has filled outer shell electronic configuration \(\begin{aligned}
    & K L M \\
    & 2,8,8 .
    \end{aligned}\).
  3. E and E because these have the same mass number (number of protons + number of neutrons) but different atomic numbers.
  4. C and A because these have the same atomic number (number of protons) but different mass numbers.

Question 33. In the gold foil experiment of Geiger and Marsden, which paved the way for Rutherford’s model of an atom, — 1.00% of the a-particles were found to deflect at angles greater than 50°. If one mole of a-particles were bombarded on the gold foil, compute the number of a-particles that would deflect at angles less than 50°.
Answer:

From mole concept

1 mole =6.022 × 1023 particles (mole concept was discussed in the previous chapter)

Number of a-particles deflected at angles greater than 50° = 1% (Given)

∴ Several a-particles deflected at the angles less than 50° = 100-1=99%.

∴ The actual number of a-particles deflected at the angles

less than 50° = \(\frac{99}{100} \times 6.022 \times 10^{23}\)

= 5.96 × 1023 100

Hence, the number of a-particles deflect at an angle less than 500 ≈ 0.06 x 1023

Question 34. If the mass of a proton is 1.67 × 1027 kg and if the electron is found to be 1840 times lighter than hydrogen ion. Then find the charge-to-mass ratio of cathode rays.

[Given, a charge on 1 electron = 1.6×10-19C]

Answer:

Mass of H+ Mass of proton \(=\frac{\text { Mass of } \mathrm{H}^{+}}{1840}=\frac{\text { Mass of proton }}{1840}\)

⇒ \(\frac{1.67 \times 10^{-27} \mathrm{~kg}}{1840}

⇒ [latex]9.1 \times 10^{-31} \mathrm{~kg}\)

Since cathode rays are composed of electrons only. Hence, e/m ratio of cathode rays = e/m ratio of electron

⇒ \(\frac{1.6 \times 10^{-19} \mathrm{C}}{9.1 \times 10^{-31} \mathrm{~kg}}

⇒ [latex]1.76 \times 10^{11} \mathrm{C} \mathrm{kg}^{-1}\)

Question 35. If Z = 3, what would be the valency of the element? Also, name the element. Sol Electronic configuration of an element,
Answer:

Electronic configuration of elements,

∴ \((Z=3)=\begin{array}{cc} K & L \\ 2, & 1 \end{array}\)

Valency of the element = Number of valence electrons

= 1

Name of the element = Lithium (Li)

Question 36. The composition of the nuclei of two atomic species X and Y are given as under.

\(\begin{array}{lcc}
& X & Y \\
\text { Protons } & 6 & 6 \\
\text { Neutrons } & 6 & 8
\end{array}\)

Give the mass numbers of X and Y What is the relation between the two species?

Answer:

Mass number = Number of protons + number of neutrons Mass number of

X = 6 + 6=12

Mass number of F = 6 + 8 =14

To find the relation between X and Y

The atomic number of X = Number of protons = 6

The atomic number of Y = Number of protons = 6

It can be that the atomic numbers of both the elements X and F are the same (6) but their mass number are different, so, X and Y are isotopes of the same element (carbon). Hence, X and Fare U6C respectively.

Question 37. For the following statements, write T for True and F for False.

  1. J.J. Thomson proposed that the nucleus of an atom contains only nucleons.
  2. A neutron is formed by an electron and a proton combining together. Therefore, it is neutral.
  3. The mass of an electron is about \(\frac{1}{2000}\) times that of a proton.
  4. An isotope of iodine is used for making tincture of iodine, which is used as a medicine.

Answer:

  1. (F)Because in J.J. Thomsons’ model, the nucleus was not present.
  2. (F)A Neutron is a fundamental particle (a subatomic particle) of the atom of an element, thus cannot be made by combining an electron and a proton. It is neutral, as it carries no charge.
  3. (T) Mass of electron is \(\frac{1}{1840}\) times, which is 1840 nearly about \(\frac{1}{2000}\) times that of proton.
  4. (T) Tincture of iodine is made by dissolving an isotope of iodine in alcohol (1-131).

Question 38. Rutherford’s a-particle scattering experiment was responsible for the discovery of

  1. Atomic nucleus
  2. Electron
  3. Proton
  4. Neutron

Answer: 1. Atomic nucleus

Based on his experiment, Rutherford predicted that the center part of the atom is positively charged and is responsible for the mass of the atom. He called these protons an atomic nucleus.

Question 39. Isotopes of an element have

  1. The same physical properties
  2. Different chemical properties
  3. Different numbers of neutrons
  4. Different atomic numbers

Answer: 3. Different number of neutrons

Isotopes have different physical properties, similar chemical properties, same atomic number but different mass numbers. Hence, isotopes of an element have different numbers of neutrons.

Question 40. Compare the properties of electrons, protons, and neutrons.
Answer: The properties of electrons, protons, and neutrons are as follows:

UP Board Class 9 Science Chapter 4 Structure Of The Atom Properties Of Electrons Protons And Neutrons

Question 41. What are the limitations Of J.J. Thomson’s model of the atom?
Answer:

Limitations of J.J. Thomson’s model of the atom are :

  1. It could not explain the experimental results of other scientists such as Rutherford, as there is no nucleus in the atomic model proposed by Thomson.
  2. It could not explain the stability of an atom, i.e. how positive and negative charges could remain so close together.

Question 42. What are the limitations of Rutherford’s model of the atom?
Answer:

Limitations of Rutherford’s model of the atom are:

  1. Rutherford’s model could not explain why a moving charge (electrons) does not lose energy and fall into the nucleus.
  2. It could not explain the stability of an atom when charged electrons are moving under the attractive force of a positively charged nucleus.
  3. The model could not explain how the electrons are distributed in the extranuclear portion of an atom.

Question 43. Describe Bohr’s model of the atom.
Answer:

The main postulates of Bohr’s model of an atom are as follows:

  1. Electrons revolve around the nucleus in special orbits called discrete orbits (energy levels).
  2. While revolving in discrete orbits, the electrons do not radiate energy.
  3. These orbits are represented by the letters, K, L, My Nor the numbers n = 1, 2, 3, 4.

Question 44. Compare all the proposed models of an atom given in the chapter.
Answer:

UP Board Class 9 Science Chapter 4 Structure Of The Atom All The Proposed Models Of An Atom Given In The Chapter

Question 45. How will you find the valency of chlorine, sulphur, and magnesium?
Answer:

Magnesium is a metal while chlorine and sulphur are non-metals.
Valency of a metal = Number of valence electrons (i.e. number of electrons present in outermost shell)

Valency of a non-metal = 8 — number of valence electrons

  1. 12Mg = 2, 8, 2; Valency of magnesium = 2
  2. 16S = 2, 8, 6; Valency of sulphur = 8 – 6 = 2
  3. 17Cl = 2, 8, 7; Valency of chlorine = 8 – 7=1

Question 46. Helium atom has an atomic mass of 4u and two protons in its nucleus. How many neutrons does it have?
Answer:

Atomic mass of helium = 4 u

Number of protons = 2

Let the number of neutrons = x

Number of protons + number of neutrons

=Atomic mass

2 + x = 4

⇒ x = 4 – 2

= 2

Question 47. What do you think would be the observation if the a-particle scattering experiment is carried out using a foil of a metal other than gold?

Or Why did Rutherford select a gold foil in his a-rays scattering experiment?

Answer:

If the α-particle scattering experiment is carried out using a foil of any other metal by Rutherford, there would be no change in observations. Since other metals are not so malleable. So such a thin foil is difficult to obtain.

  • If we use a thick foil, more a-particles would bounce back and no idea about the location of positive mass in the atom would be available with such a correctness.
  • This means as the thickness of the foil increases, the possibility of correctness for the experiment decreases. So, the use of gold in this case is preferred.

Class 9 Science Chapter 4 Structure Of The Atom Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1. Electron attributes negative charge, and protons attribute positive charge. An atom has both but why there is no charge?
Answer:

A neutral atom has an equal number of protons and electrons. Hence, it has an equal amount of negative and positive charges which cancel out the effect of each other. Thus, the net electrical charge on an atom is zero.

Question 2. Which scientist concluded that the size of a nucleus is very small as compared to the size of an atom?
Answer: Ernest Rutherford.

Question 3. When a-particles are bombarded on a gold sheet, only a few of them get deflected, whereas most of them go straight undeflected. Give reasons.
Answer:

This occurs because the volume occupied by the nucleus is very small as compared to that of the atom, i.e. most of the part of an atom is empty. Therefore, most of the a-particles go undeflected.

Question 4. One electron is present in the outermost shell of the atom of an element X. What would be the nature and value of charge on the ion formed if this electron is removed from the outermost shell?
Answer:

An element X is metal because one electron is present in the outermost shell, i.e. 1 valence electron. When this valence electron is removed from the outermost shell, a cation (positive ion) will be formed with a charge of +1.

Question 5. In the atom of an element X, 6 electrons are present in the outermost shell. If it acquires noble gas configuration by accepting a requisite number of electrons, then what would be the charge on the ion so formed?
Answer:

Element X has 6 electrons in the outermost shell. To acquire noble gas configuration, element X requires 2 electrons. Therefore, when it gains electrons it acquires a negative charge i.e. -2. The charge on the anion (X2-), so formed is -2.

Question 6. Which sub-atomic particle is not present in a hydrogen atom?
Answer: Neutron.

Question 7. An atom of an element is represented as 9X192. How many electrons and neutrons are present in this atom?
Answer:

Atomic number = Number of electrons = 9

Number of neutrons = Mass number – number of protons =19 -9=10

Question 8. What is the atomic number of the atom of an element X, which has 2 shells, K and L having 2 and 6 electrons respectively?
Answer:

K= 2, L = 6

Atomic number = Number of protons = Number of electrons in neutral atom Atomic number = 2 + 6=8

Question 9. What is the difference between Na and Na+ in terms of a number of electrons?
Answer:

Number of electrons in Na = 11

Number of electrons in Na+ =11-1=10

[∵ In case of positive ion, number of electrons = Number of protons – total positive charge]

Question 10. What happens to an element Z if its atom gains 3 electrons?
Answer:

If an atom gains electrons, the number of electrons gained is represented by a negative charge. So, Z will convert into Z3- after gaining 3 electrons.

Question 11. Write the mass number of neon and argon from the data given below.

UP Board Class 9 Science Chapter 4 Structure Of The Atom Mass Number Of Neon And Argon From The Data

Answer:

Mass number = Number of protons + number of neutrons

For neon, mass number =10 + 10 = 20

For argon, mass number = 18 + 22 = 40

Question 12. Uranium-235 has 92 protons in its atom. Calculate the number of neutrons in this atom.
Answer:

Number of neutrons

= Mass number – number of protons

= 235 -92 = 143

Question 13. Calculate the number of neutrons present in the nucleus of an element X which is represented as 15X31.
Answer:

Atomic number, Z of 15X31=15

The mass number, A of 15X31=31

Number of neutrons = A-Z = 31 -15=16

Question 14. Is it possible for the atom of an element to have 1 electron, 1 proton, and no neutron? If so, name the element.
Answer:

Yes, protium (1H1) is an isotope of hydrogen that has 1 electron, 1 proton and no neutron.

Question 15. Which isotope of carbon is isotopic to X|C and is used in radiocarbon dating to determine the age of old samples of living organisms?
Answer: Carbon-14, 6C14

Question 16. Identify the pair of isotopes from the following:

⇒ \({ }_8^{16} X,{ }_7^{16} X,{ }_8^{17} X\)

Answer:

⇒ \({ }_8^{16} X \text { and }{ }_8^{17} X\) is isotope as they have the same atomic number, but different mass numbers.

Question 17. The atomic number of calcium and argon are 20 and 18 respectively but the mass number of both these elements is 40. What is the name given to such a pair of elements?
Answer:

The mass number of calcium =40, i.e. 20C40.

The mass number of argon =40, i.e. 18Ar40.

A pair of elements having the same mass number but different atomic numbers is called isobars.

Question 18. If X contains 18 electrons, what is its atomic number?
Answer:

For X, Atomic number = Number of protons = Number of electrons-negative charge= 18-1

= 17

Question 19. What is the n/p ratio of \(\begin{array}{r}
222 \\
8 8
\end{array}\) Ra?

Answer:

Number of neutrons, n – 222 – 88 =134

Number of protons, p = 88

∴ \(\frac{n}{p} \text { ratio }=\frac{134}{88}\)

= 1.52

Question 20. Which of the two would be chemically more reactive: element A with atomic number 18 or element D with atomic number 16 and why?
Answer:

Electronic configuration of 18A -2, 8, 8

It would be chemically inert due to its complete octet. Electronic configuration of 16D =2, 8, 6

To complete its octet, it will gain 2 electrons, therefore it will be more reactive.

Question 21. Which isotope of hydrogen contains the same number of electrons, protons, and neutrons?
Answer:

Deuterium (1D2),

Number of electrons (1),

Number of proton (1),

Number of neutrons (2 -1 = 1)

Question 22. What are canal rays?
Answer:

Canal rays or anode rays are the positively charged rays that are seen moving from the anode towards the cathode in a specially designed discharge tube when a high voltage is applied across the electrodes.

Question 23. If an atom contains one electron and one proton, will it carry any charge or not?
Answer:

An electron is a negatively charged particle, whereas a proton is a positively charged particle and the magnitude of their charges is equal. Therefore, an atom containing one electron and one proton will not carry any charge. Thus, it will be a neutral atom.

Question 24. Based on Thomson’s model of an atom, explain how the atom is neutral as a whole.
Answer:

According to the Thomson model, an atom consists of a positively charged sphere, and the electrons are embedded in it. The negative and positive charges are equal in magnitude. So, the atom as a whole is electrically neutral.

Question 25. Based on Rutherford’s model of an atom, which sub-atomic particle is present in the nucleus of an atom?
Answer:

According to Rutherford’s model of an atom nucleus is positively charged, therefore, protons are present inside the nucleus.

Question 26. Sketch Bohr’s model of an atom with three shells.
Answer: Three shells or orbits are presented by the letters K, Z, M (or the numbers, n = 1, 2, 3) M-shell (n = 3)

UP Board Class 9 Science Chapter 4 Structure Of The Atom Bohrs Model Of An Atom With Three Shells

Question 27. Name the three sub-atomic particles in an atom.
Answer:

The sub-atomic particles present in an atom are electrons, protons, and neutrons.

Question 28. If K and L-shells of an atom are full then what would be the total number of electrons in the atom?
Answer:

The maximum number of electrons that can occupy K and Z-shells of an atom are 2 and 8 respectively. Therefore, if the K and Z-shells of an atom are filled, then the total number of electrons in the atom would be (2 + 8) =10 electrons.

Question 29. If the number of electrons in an atom is 8 and the number of protons is also 8, then

  1. What is the atomic number of the atom?
  2. What is the charge on the atom?

Answer:

Atomic number = Number of protons = 8

The charge on the atom is zero because several electrons and several protons are equal.

Question 30. With the help of the table given on NCERT page 92, find out the mass number of oxygen and sulfur atoms.
Answer:

Mass number = Number of protons + number of neutrons

∴ Mass number of oxygen =8 + 8 = 16

and mass number of sulphur = 16 + 16=32

Question 31. For the symbols, H, D, and T tabulate three sub-atomic particles found in each of them.
Answer:

UP Board Class 9 Science Chapter 4 Structure Of The Atom Three Sub Atomic Particles

UP Board Class 9 Science Question and Answers

UP Board Class 9 Science Multiple Choice Questions

UP Board Class 9 Science Notes