NEET Biology Notes – Microbes In Human Welfare

Microbes In Human Welfare

Microbes In Household Products

Dairy Products

  • Lactic acid bacteria (LAB) such as Lactobacillus are added to milk. Lactobacillus converts the lactose sugar of milk into lactic acid.
  • Milk can be changed into curd, yoghurt, and cheese. The starter used in the preparation of milk products actually contains millions of LAB.
    • Curd: Indian curd is prepared by inoculating cream and skimmed milk with Lactobacillus acidophilus at a temperature of about 40°C or less. Curd is more nutritious than milk as it contains a number of vitamins, especially Vitamin B12 and organic acids.
    • Yoghurt: It is produced by curdling milk with the help of Streptococcus thermophilus and Lactobacillus bulgaricus. It has the flavor of lactic acid and acetaldehyde.
    • Butter milk: It is an acidulated product which is formed by inoculating skimmed milk with the starter culture of Streptococcus cremoris, S. lactis, Lactobacillus acidophilus, and Leuconostoc species at 22°C for 18 h.
    • Sour cream: It is inoculated with Streptococcus lactis for producing lactic acid and with Leuconostoc cremoris for imparting the characteristic flavor.
    • Cheese: It is a partially degraded concentrate of milk fat and casein manufactured by the activity of microorganisms. There are several hundred varieties of cheese which are prepared by selected types of microorganisms. The quality and characteristic taste of cheese are is determined by the biochemical activities of specific microorganisms. Cheese consists of milk curd that has separated from whey or liquid part. Cheese is of three types: (i) soft (50-80% water), (ii) semi-hard (about 45% water), and (iii) hard (less than 40% water). The method of preparing cheese with the help of microbes was known in Asia and Europe long before Christ. Large-holed Swiss cheese is ripened with the help of CO, producing bacterium called Propionibacterium sharmanii; Roquefort cheese or blue cheese uses Penicillium roquefortii: Camembert cheese employs Penicillium camembertii for ripening.

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Bread

  • Selected strains of Saccharomyces cerevisiae (baker’s yeast) grown on molasses are used for this purpose.
  • The kneaded flour is kept at a warm temperature for a few hours. It swells up. The phenomenon is called leavening.
  • Leavening is caused by the secretion of three types of enzymes by yeast. They are amylase, maltase, and zymase.
  • The leavened dough is baked. Both carbon dioxide and ethyl alcohol evaporate, making the bread porous and soft.

Dosa, Uppma, and Idli

Dosa, uppma, and idli are fermented preparations of rice and black gram. The two are allowed to ferment for 3-12 h with Leuconostoc and Streptococcus species of bacteria.

  • Other Foods Tempeh (Indonesia), tofu (Japanese), and sufu (Chinese) are fermented foods obtained from soya saucebrown flavored salty sauce fermented from soybean and wheat.
  • Tender bamboo shoots can be used as vegetable directly as well as after fermentation. Several types of sausages are prepared by fermentation and curing of fish and meat.

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Toddy (Toddy palm or Caryota urens)

The unopened spadices of palm are tapped to obtain toddy. It is a refreshing drink which can be heated to produce jaggery or palm sugar. Toddy left for a few hours undergoes fermentation with the help of naturally occurring yeast to form beverage containing about 6% alcohol.

Microbes In Industrial Products

Fermentative activity of microbes is used industrially to obtain a number of products. Production on an industrial scale requires growing microbes in very large vessels called fermentors. The two common ones are alcoholic fermentation and antibiotics.

Fermented Beverages/Alcoholic Fermentation

  • Yeast species used in alcoholic fermentation are Saccharomyces cerevisiae (brewer’s yeast), S. ellipsoidens (wine yeast), S. sake (sake yeast), and S. pireformis (ginger beer/ale yeast).
  • The nutrient media are barley malt for beer, fermented rye malt for gin, fermented rice for sake, cashew-apple for fenny, potato for vodka, fermented cereals for whisky, fermented molasses for rum, and fermented juices for wines and brandy.
  • Wine and beer are produced without distillation, whereas whisky (50% alcohol), brandy (65-70% alcohol), rum (40% alcohol), and gin (about 40% al- cohol) are produced by the distillation of fermented broth.

Antibiotics

  • An antibiotic (Greek: against life) is a substance produced by a microorganism which in low concentration inhibits the growth and metabolic activity of pathogenic organisms without harming the host.
  • This is among the most significant discoveries of the 20th century.
  • The first antibiotic is generally associated with the name of Alexander Fleming (1928), when he discovered penicillin from Penicillium notatum.
  • The antibiotic was, however, commercially extracted by the efforts of Ernst Chain and Howard Florey. The chemical was extensively used in treating wounded American soldiers in World War II. Fleming, Chain, and Florey were awarded Nobel Prize in 1945. A bulk of antibiotics is obtained from three groups of micro- organisms: Eubacteria, actinomycetes, and fungi.
  • Antibiotics have greatly improved our capacity to treat deadly diseases such as plague, whooping cough, diphtheria, and leprosy. So, with reference to human beings, these are pro-life.

Chemicals, Enzymes, and Other Bioactive Molecules

Bioactive molecules are those molecules which are functional in living systems or can interact with their components. A number of them are obtained from microbes such as organic acids, enzymes, cyclosporin A, and statins.

Organic Acids

Certain microbes have the ability to convert carbohydrates into organic acids. This capability of microorganisms is applied in the industrial production of some commercially important organic acids. A few very-important organic acids are as follows:

  • Acetic acid: It is prepared from fermented alcohols with the help of acetic acid bacteria, Acetobacter aceti. Alcoholic fermentation by yeast is an anaerobic process, but the conversion of alcohol to acetic acid is aerobic one. It is used for the preparation of vinegar. It is also used in pharmaceuticals, coloring agents, insecticides, and plastic industries.
  • Citric acid: It is obtained through fermentation carried out by fungi Aspergillus niger and Mucor species on sugary syrups. Yeast Candida lipolytica can also be employed, provided its nutrient medium is made deficient of iron and manganese. Citric acid is employed in dyeing, engraving, medicines, inks, flavoring, and preservation of food and candies.
  • Gluconic acid: The acid is prepared by the activity of Aspergillus niger and Penicillium chtysogenum. Gluconate is used widely as a source of calcium for infants, cows, and lactating mothers.
  • Lactic acid: It was the first acid to be produced by industrial fermentation. It is commercially produced from fermentable carbohydrates such as corn and potato starch, molasses, and whey by using bacteria Lactobacillus bulgaricus and L. delbrueckii.

Enzymes

Hardly 1.0-1.5% of the total known enzymes are employed in industry and medicine.

  • Pectinases: These enzymes are obtained from fungi grown on pectin-containing medium. Examples are Aspergillus niget and Byssochlamys fulvo. These enzymes are used in enhancing juice extraction and clearing of juices.
  • Proteases: Proteases are obtained from Mortierella renispora, Aspergillus, and Bacillus species. These enzymes are used in detergents to remove proteinaceous spots. Bottled juices are also clarified using protease and pectinase.
  • Amylases: Amylases degrade starch. These enzymes are obtained from Aspergillus, Rhizopus, and Bacillus species. Amylases, glucoamylases, and glucoisomerases are employed in the conversion of corn starch into fructose-rich corn syrup.
  • Streptokinase (tissue plasminogen activator or TPA): It is an enzyme obtained from the cultures of some hemolytic streptococci. It has fibrinolytic effect; it is used to dissolve blood clots in heart patients.

Cyclosporin A

  • It is an 11-membered cyclic oligopeptide obtained through the fermentative activity of fungus Trichoderma polysporum.
  • It has antifungal and anti-inflammatory properties. It is used as an immunosuppressive agent in organ transplant patients.

Statins

  • Statins are the products of fermentation activity of yeast Monascus purpureus which resembles melonate and is the competitive inhibitor of B-hydroxy-ẞ-meth-ylglutaryl-CoA reductase (or HMG-CoA reductase).
  • This competitively inhibits cholesterol synthesis. It is used as cholesterol lowering agent.

Microbes In Sewage Treatment

  • Sewage is a collective noun used to represent municipal waste (both liquid and solid waste) generated in cities and towns which is carried off in sewerage.
  • It contains large amount of domestic water and waste including human and animal excreta, microbes, and everything that enters sewerage system.
  • Sewage or municipal waste should not be passed into rivers, streams, and other water bodies, because it not only contains human excreta and other organic wastes but a number of pathogenic microbes.
  • It is made less polluted by passing it through STPs.
  • The treatment of waste water is done by the hetero- trophic microbes naturally present in the sewage.
  • The various steps in sewage treatment are as follows:
    • Primary treatment
      • It is the physical process of removal of large and small particles from sewage through sequential filtration and sedimentation.
      • Initially, floating debris is removed by sequential filtration. Then the grit (soil and small pebbles) is removed by sedimentation.
      • The sewage is first shredded and churned. It is then passed through many screens or skimmers to remove large pieces of organic matter. Now it is passed into a large primary settling tank having a gentle slope.
      • Grit, sand, and other heavy particles settle down.
      • All solids that undergo sedimentation of screened organic matter collectively consti- tute primary sludge.
      • Primary sludge can be used for preparing compost or manure directly. It can also be burnt.
      • The waste water (primary effluent) after removing the primary sludge contains fine organic matter. It is passed for secondary treatment.
    • Secondary treatment or biological treatment
      • It involves biological process of microbial degradation of organic matter.
      • There are three main methods: use of oxidation tanks, trickling filter method, and activated sludge method.
      • In activated sludge method, the effluent from primary settling tank is passed into an aeration tank. It is agitated mechanically.

NEET Biology Microbes In Human Welfare Activated sludge method of sewage treatment

      • Air is pumped into the effluent. It contains a large population of aerobic heterotrophic microbes, including bacteria and fungi.
      • The microbes form flocs (masses of bacteria associated with fungal filaments).
      • The BOD (biological oxygen demand) of the effluent rises initially and the treatment continues till the BOD decreases to a certain level.
      • It is taken to secondary settling tank where the flocs undergo sedimentation.
      • The sediment is called activated sludge. (This can be the inoculant for the next sec- ondary treatment.)
      • The supernatant is allowed to pass into rivers and streams.
      • The activated sludge is taken to anaerobic sludge digesters along with the primary sludge.

NEET Biology Microbes In Human Welfare Anaerobic sludge digester

      • Here, anaerobic microbes act upon organic matter to first produce monomers and then organic acids.
      • This converts the latter into a mixture of gases such as methane, hydrogen sulfide, and carbon dioxide.
      • The gaseous mixture is called biogas. It is inflammable and can be used as a source of energy.
      • The spent sludge is used as manure and land fill or can be burnt. Pathogens present in the original sewage get killed during anaerobic digestion.
    • Tertiary treatment
      It is a physiochemical process in which chlorine gas, zirconium, ozone gas, perchlorate salts, UV rays, and reverse osmosis are used to remove DDT, pesticides, pathogens, and turbidity from waste water. It is preferred when water is to be used for domestic use.

” microbes in household products class 12″

River Action Plans

  • Prior to 1985, very few cities and towns had STPs.
  • Municipal waste water was discharged directly into rivers resulting in their pollution and high incidence of water borne diseases.
  • In order to protect the major rivers of India from sewage pollution, the Ministry of Environment and Forests has initiated the development of STPs under the National River Conservation Authority. Examples are Ganga Action Plan (GAP), Yamuna Action Plan, etc.

Microbes In Production Of Biogas

  • Biogas is a mixture of gases produced from degradable organic matter by the activity of various anaerobic bacteria.
  • The microorganisms involved in biogas production are mainly facultative and strict anaerobic bacteria.
  • The most important among them are methanogenic archaebacteria, represented by Methanobacterium.
  • The other bacteria involved are Bacillus, Cellulomonas, Clostridium, and Ruminococcus.
  • These bacteria are commonly found in anaerobic sludge formed during sewage treatment. Methanogens occur in the rumen of cattle where they act upon cellulose.

Composition of Biogas

  • The major component of biogas is methane (about 50-70%), which is highly inflammable. The second major component is carbon dioxide (30-40%). The mixture of other gases (viz., H2, H2S, etc.) constitutes 10%.
  • The calorific value of biogas is 4429 kcal/m3 at 50% methane content.

NEET Biology Microbes In Human Welfare Substrates useful in biogas production

Commercial Production of Biogas

  • The technology for biogas production was developed in India by IARI (Indian Agriculture Research Institute) and KVIC (Khadi and Village Industries Commission).
  • A biogas plant has a large (10-15 ft. deep) concrete-or brick-lined air-tight cylindrical tank called digester.
  • It has a charge pit for the passage of slurry into the digester, a floating gas holder of metal with an outlet for gas, and a pit for the removal of sludge or manure. The raw materials used in biogas plants are cattle dung, night soil, farm refuse, water weeds (e.g., Eichhornia), and other organic wastes.
  • It is converted into slurry with 90% water content and fed into the digester.

NEET Biology Microbes In Human Welfare A typical biogas plant

  • Cattle dung contains Methanobacterium and other methanogens which are normally present in the rumen of cattle for aiding the digestion of cellulose.
  • An inoculum can also be provided when a gobar gas plant is to be initiated.
  • The formation of biogas is a three-step anaerobic process:
    • Solubilization (decomposition)
      • Organic wastes are composed of lipids, proteins, cellulose, hemicelluloses, and lignin. In the first stage of biogas generation, facultative anaerobic decomposers are active.
      • They secrete hydrolytic enzymes, e.g., lipases, cellulases, proteases, and peptidases.
      • The enzymes break down the complex organic components into simpler and soluble substances. The latter are commonly called monomers.
    • Acidogenesis
      • Monomers are changed into organic acids with the help of fermentating microbes. The most common organic acid produced during acidogenesis is acetic acid.
      • Hydrogen and carbon dioxide are produced as by-products.
    • Methanogenesis
      • Methanogens or methane-producing bacteria become active.
      • They act on various components of microbial digestion and fermentation. Some important basic reactions are as follows:

“chapter 10 biology class 12 notes “

NEET Biology Microbes In Human Welfare Stages in biogas formation

Microbes As Biocontrol Agents

Biological Pest Control or Biopesticide

  • Biopesticides are the organisms which are applied to destroy pests. These are used to destroy the weeds as well as the insect pests. Two basic types of biopesticides are bioherbicides and bioinsecticides.
  • Transgenic plants are genetically engineered plants to develop resistance against pests. Examples are transgenic tobacco and transgenic cotton.
  • Smoother crops are those crops which do not allow the weeds to grow nearby, e.g., barley, rye, Sorghum, millet, sunflower, alfalfa, soybean, marigold, etc. Smoother crops eliminate weeds through chemicals. Crop rotation with these crops will naturally reduce the incidence of weeds.
  • Catch/trap crops: Around the major crop in the field, some early growing crop is sown in strips which is termed as catch or trap crop. The pests get attracted towards the early grown trap crop and then can be easily killed by cutting and destroying the trap crop. A good example of trap crop is bhindi (okra) which is sown around the cotton field to attract the jassid and spotted bollworm. Sesame is also a good trap crop to attract the red hairy caterpillar from the cotton field. Bioherbicides: These involve the biological control of weeds by some living organisms. For example, the use of insects feeding on a specific weed or the use of microorganisms which will cause diseases in weeds. Some common examples are as follows:
    • In India and Australia, the overgrowth of Opuntia (prickly pear cactus) was checked by the introduction of cochineal insect (Cactoblastis cactorum).
    • The first bioherbicide was a mycoherbicide called Devine. It was derived from a fungus Phytophthora palmivora which controls the growth of milk weed vines in Citrus orchards.
    • Another mycoherbicide called Collego has been derived from the conidia of fungus Colletotrichum gloeosporioides. It controls the growth of northern jointvetch (Aeschynomene virginica; family: Leguminosae) growing in rice fields.
    • The extensive growth of Hypericum perforatum or kalmath weed was checked in the USA by the introduction of Chrysolina beetles.
    • Water hyacinth has been successfully controlled in Florida using the indigenous fungus Cercospora rodmanii.
  • Bioinsecticides: These are non-persistent, non-toxic, and biodegradable. These include the following:
    • Pathogens, parasites, and predators:
      • A well known example of biological control of an insect pest is the destruction of large populations of aphids (a pest on crucifers) by an insect called lady bug or praying mantis which feeds on aphids.
      • Hoverfly larvae (syrphid larvae) are very effective in keeping the aphids (plant bugs) under check as they feed on aphids only. Dragon flies are useful to get rid of aphids and mosquitoes.
      • Mosquito larvae are easily controlled by rearing the larvicidal fish Gambusia (mosquito fish).
      • Sugarcane scale insects are controlled by the coccinellid predators (Cailochorus negriti and Pharoscymnus homi); the fluted scale insect (Leerya purchasi), a common pest on Citrus trees, by the lady bird beetles (Rodolia cardinalis); and Nephantis serinopa, a dangerous pest on coconut palms, by Perisicrola nephanticdis and Trichospilus pupivora.
      • Baculoviruses are pathogens that attack insects and other arthopods. NPV (Nuclearpolyhedrovirus) based insecticide has been found to eliminate bollworms which cause extensive damage to cotton. It is species specific and has narrow spectrum.
      • Trichoderma species are effective biocontrol agents of several plant pathogens. Trichoderma species are free-living fungi that are very common in root ecosystems.
    • Sterilization strategy
      Screw worm (Cochliomyia hominivorax) was eradicated by releasing sterile males.
    • Insect hormone or pheromones
      • Pheromones are those chemical messengers which help in communication, sending alarm signals, marking trails, or attracting males.
      • These are secreted by females. Traps containing pheromones are placed in infected fields. Males attracted by the trap become unavailable for reproduction.
      • In confusion technique, the pheromone-containing papers are spread all over the field; so, males can no longer locate the females.
      • Introduction of molting hormone ecdysone or juvenile hormones at inappropriate times results in the early death of insect pests.
    • Natural insecticides
      • These are obtained from living organisms (plants). Examples are rotenones obtained from the roots of Derris elliptica; nicotine obtained from tobacco; pyrethrum and cinerin (pyrethroids) obtained from Chrysanthemum cinerarifolium); azadirachtin obtained from margosa (Azadirachta indica) leaves; and thurioside obtained from mutant strains of a bacterium called Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt).
      • Thurioside is a proteinaceous toxin and is ef fective against several insects such as moths, flies, mosquitoes, and beetles which accumulate as crystals inside the bacteria during sporulation.

ch 10 biology class 12 notes

Integrated Pest Management

  • Sustainable pest management is otherwise known as integrated pest management (IPM), i.e., the integration of tactics for the control of a single pest on one or more crops.
  • The overall objective of IPM is to create and maintain situations in which insects are prevented from causing significant damage to crops.

Microbes As Biofertilizers

  • Organic farming is the raising of unpolluted crops through the use of biofertilizers that provide optimum nutrients to crop plants.
  • Organisms that can be used to improve the nutrient quality of soil through biological activity are known as biofertilizers.
  • The main sources are bacteria, cyanobacteria, and fungi. In paddy fields, cyanobacteria serve as an important biofertilizer.
    • Symbiotic N2 fixing bacteria such as Rhizobium leguminosarum fix atmospheric N2 in the root nodules of legumes.
    • Frankia (actinomycetes) fixes N2 in the root nodules of non-legume plants (e.g., Casuarina and Alnus).
    • Symbiotic cyanobacteria (blue green algae) such as Anabaena azollae fix atmospheric N2 in the leaves of Azolla (water fern). Azolla pinnata (a pteridophyte) is used as an excellent fertilizer in rice field.
    • Anabaena cycadae lives in the coralloid root of Cycas (a gymnosperm).
    • Aulosira is the most active, non-symbiotic nitrogen fixer in rice fields in India.
    • Free living nitrogen fixers such as Azospirillum and Azotobacter enrich the nitrogen content in soil.
    • Mycorrhiza: It is symbiotic association between the fungus and roots of higher plants (seed plants). Many members of genus Glomus form mycorrhiza. The fungal partner absorbs phosphorus from the soil and passes it to the plant. Plants having mycorrhizal associations show resistance to root-borne pathogens, tolerance to salinity and drought, and an overall increase in growth and development. It is of two types:
      • Ectomycorrhizae (ectotrophic or ectophytic): Hyphae of fungus only form mantle on the outer surface of the root, increasing the absorption of water and minerals, e.g., Pinus, oak, etc. Mycorrhiza absorbs and stores nitrogen, phosphorus, potassium, and calcium.
      • Endomycorrhizae (endotrophic or endophytic): Fungal hyphae penetrate into cortex and cells of root, e.g., orchids, coffee, and woody plants. These are also called vesicular arbuscular mycorrhizae or VAM, because cortical cells swell and form vesicles or arbuscles. They play a significant role in providing phosphorus nutrition in plants.

 

Assertion-Reasoning Questions

In the following questions, a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R).

  1. If both Assertion and Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion, then mark (1).
  2. If both Assertion and Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion, then mark (2).
  3. If Assertion is true but Reason is false, then mark (3).
  4. If both Assertion and Reason are false, then mark (4).

Question 1. Assertion: Curd is more nutritious than milk.

Reason: LAB present in curd checks the growth of disease-causing microbes.

Answer. 2. If both Assertion and Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion, then mark (2).

Question 2. Assertion: After 24 h, toddy becomes unpalatable.

Reason: Toddy left for a few hours undergoes fermentation.

Answer. 1. If both Assertion and Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion, then mark (1).

Question 3. Assertion: Newer antibiotics are required to be produced regularly.

Reason: Pathogens often develop resistance to existing antibiotics.

Answer. 1. If both Assertion and Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion, then mark (1).

Question 4. Assertion: Cyclosporin A is antifungal and immunosuppressive medicine.

Reason: It stimulates the activation of T-cells and prevents rejections.

Answer. 3. If Assertion is true but Reason is false, then mark (3).

Question 5. Assertion: Barley, sorghum, and millet are smoother crops.

Reason: They favor the growth of some common weeds.

Answer. 3. If Assertion is true but Reason is false, then mark (3).

Question 6. Assertion: Agricultural output increased several times after the introduction of DDT.

Reason: DDT was the first insecticide used on a wide scale.

Answer. 1. If both Assertion and Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion, then mark (1).

Question 7. Assertion: The disadvantages of chemical pesticides can be overcome by the use of biopesticides.

Reason: Biopesticides are the harmless pesticides of biological origin which are used to control weeds and pests without causing any significant damage.

Answer. 1. If both Assertion and Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion, then mark (1).

NEET Biology Multiple Choice Questions – Microbes In Human Welfare

Microbes In Human Welfare Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. Partially degraded concentrate of milk fat and casein is called

  1. Sour cream
  2. Yoghurt
  3. Cheese
  4. Bread

Answer. 3. Cheese

Question 2. Indian curd is prepared by inoculating cream and skimmed milk with

  1. Lactobacillus acidophilus
  2. Leuconostoc cremoris
  3. Lactobacillus bulgaricus
  4. Streptococcus lactis

Answer. 1. Lactobacillus acidophilus

Question 3. The nutrient medium for beer is

  1. Barley malt
  2. Fermented rice.
  3. Cashew-apple
  4. Potato

Answer. 1. Barley malt

” microbes in human welfare “

Question 4. Mark the incorrect option (with respect to distilled alcoholic beverages):

  1. Wine
  2. Brandy
  3. Rum
  4. Gin

Answer. 1. Wine

Question 5. Which of the following product is not obtained from fermented soya sauce?

  1. Tempeh
  2. Tofu
  3. Sufu
  4. Dosa

Answer. 4. Dosa

Question 6. Select the odd one out with respect to the source of antibiotics:

  1. Bacteria
  2. Lichen
  3. Fungi
  4. Seeded plants

Answer. 4. Seeded plants

Question 7. Which of the following enzymes is employed in the conversion of corn starch into fructose-rich corn syrup?

  1. Amylases
  2. Glucoamylases
  3. Glucoisomerases
  4. All are correct

Answer. 4. All are correct

Question 8. Statins are competitive inhibitors of

  1. Streptokinase
  2. HMG COA reductase
  3. Pectinase
  4. Cellulase

Answer. 2. HMG COA reductase

Question 9. Which of the following organic acid is used as a source of calcium for infants, cows, and lactating mothers?

  1. Gluconic acid
  2. Lactic acid
  3. Citric acid
  4. Acetic acid

Answer. 1. Gluconic acid

Question 10. Organic acid used in pharmaceuticals, coloring agents, and plastic industries is

  1. Acetic acid
  2. Citric acid
  3. Lactic acid
  4. Gluconic acid

Answer. 1. Acetic acid

Question 11. The first mycoherbicide of the world was obtained from

  1. Trichoderma harzianum
  2. Phytophthora palmivora
  3. Cactoblastis cactorum
  4. Pythium debaiyanum

Answer. 2. Phytophthora palmivora

Question 12. The concept of sustainable agriculture lies in

  1. Minimizing biopesticides
  2. A greater dependence on new crops
  3. Least use of biofertilizers
  4. Using spores of Bacillus thuringiensis for pest control

Answer. 4. Using spores of Bacillus thuringiensis for pest control

Question 13. Which of the following has been used for controlling sugarcane leaf hopper?

  1. Predator bug
  2. Bollworm
  3. Praying mantis
  4. Lady bug

Answer. 1. Predator bug

Question 14. Find the odd one out (with respect to bioherbicide):

  1. Cactoblastis cactorum
  2. Helianthus anus
  3. Phytophthora palmivora
  4. Cochliomyia

Answer. 4. Cochliomyia

” microbes in human welfare class 12 ncert”

Question 15. Sustainable agriculture does not include

  1. Ecofriendly cropping
  2. Green Revolution
  3. IPM
  4. Biological control

Answer. 2. Green Revolution

Question 16. Which of the following is included in biopesticide?

  1. Viruses and bacteria only
  2. Viruses, bacteria, and fungi only
  3. Viruses, bacteria, fungi, protozoa, and mites
  4. Viruses, bacteria, fungi, and protozoa only

Answer. 3. Viruses, bacteria, fungi, protozoa, and mites

Question 17. Biofertilizers include

  1. Blue green algae, Rhizobium, other nitrogen-fixing bacteria, and mycorrhiza
  2. Blue green algae, Trichoderma, Rhizobium, and other nitrogen-fixing bacteria
  3. Rhizobium, other nitrogen-fixing bacteria, NPV, and mycorrhiza
  4. Blue green algae, Rhizobium, Bt cotton, and mycorrhiza

Answer. 1. Blue green algae, Rhizobium, other nitrogen-fixing bacteria, and mycorrhiza

Question 18. Devine and Collego are two agricultural substances that are used as

  1. Biofertilizers
  2. Natural insecticides
  3. Insect hormones
  4. Bioherbicides

Answer. 4. Bioherbicides

Question 19. Ganga Action Plan for controlling pollution in Ganges started in

  1. 1985
  2. 1981
  3. 1987
  4. 1989

Answer. 1. 1985

Question 20. Which of the following statement is incorrect with respect to pectinases?

  1. They are used in clearing of fruit juices.
  2. They are used in chill-proofing beer and whisky.
  3. They are obtained from Byssochlamys fulva.
  4. They are used in retting of fibers.

Answer. 2. They are used in chill-proofing beer and whisky.

Question 21. The presence of E. coli in water indicates

  1. Water is clear
  2. Water is fully polluted
  3. Inorganic pollution
  4. Fecal pollution

Answer. 4. Fecal pollution

Question 22. In which stage of sewage treatment is desalination and chlorination of water done?

  1. Primary treatment
  2. Secondary treatment
  3. Tertiary treatment
  4. Both (1) and (2)

Answer. 3. Tertiary treatment

“an example of endomycorrhiza is “

Question 23. Eutrophication in water bodies leads to

  1. High DO
  2. Low BOD
  3. Low DO
  4. Optimum dissolved oxygen

Answer. 3. Low DO

Question 24. Which of the following is not used in the treatment of polluted water?

  1. Activated carbon
  2. Trickling filter method
  3. Cyclone collector
  4. Activated sludge method

Answer. 3. Cyclone collector

Question 25. The greater BOD of waste water

  1. Increases oxygen content of water
  2. Decreases oxygen content of water
  3. Relates the decrease of temperature of water
  4. All of these

Answer. 2. Decreases oxygen content of water

Question 26. Microbes that cannot be cultured in cell-free extracts are

  1. Bacteria
  2. Fungi
  3. Viruses
  4. Algae

Answer. 3. Viruses

Question 27. Most of the antibiotics are obtained from

  1. Actinomycetes
  2. Eubacteria
  3. Ray fungi
  4. Both (1) and (3)

Answer. 4. Both (1) and (3)

Question 28. LAB stands for

  1. Lactic acid bacteria
  2. Lactobacillus acidophilus bacteria
  3. Lactose acetaldehyde bacteria
  4. Laboratory

Answer. 1. Lactic acid bacteria

Question 29. Which of the following is responsible for yoghurt formation?

a. Streptococcus thermophilus

b. Lactobacillus acidophilus

c. Lactobacillus bulgaricus

d. Streptococus cremoris

  1. (a), (b), (c)
  2. (a), (d), (c)
  3. (a), (c)
  4. (a), (d)

Answer. 3. (a), (c)

Question 30. The fermented food of soybean is

  1. Tempeh
  2. Tofu
  3. Sufu
  4. All of these

Answer. 4. All of these

Question 31. Which of the following is not a symbiotic nitrogen fixing bacterium?

  1. Clostridium
  2. Rhizobium leguminosarum
  3. Yeast
  4. Mycobacterium

Answer. 1. Clostridium

Question 32. Biogas contains

  1. 30-40% methane
  2. 50-70% CO2
  3. 50-70% methane
  4. 20% methane

Answer. 3. 50-70% methane

Question 33. Citric acid is obtained from all, except

  1. Aspergillus niger
  2. Mucor
  3. Methanogens
  4. Mortierella

Answer. 4. Mortierella

Question 34. Antibiotic obtained from lichens is

  1. Neomycin
  2. Usnic acid
  3. Polymixin
  4. Viridin

Answer. 2. Usnic acid

Question 35. Which bacterium is used in bioremidiation process?

  1. Rhizobium sp.
  2. Pseudomonas pudita
  3. Bacillus licheniformis
  4. Streptococci

Answer. 2. Pseudomonas pudita

Question 36. CDRI is located in

  1. Lucknow
  2. Kanpur
  3. Delhi
  4. Karnal

Answer. 1. Lucknow

Question 37. Viridin antibiotic is effective against

  1. Bacteria
  2. Fungi
  3. Gram positive bacteria
  4. Gram negative bacteria

Answer. 2. Fungi

Question 38. Which fungal extract was extensively used in treating wounded American soldiers in World War II?

  1. Streptomycin
  2. Penicillin
  3. Aflatoxin
  4. Gluconic acid

Answer. 2. Penicillin

Question 39. Dosa and idli are the fermented preparations of rice and black gram. Fermentation is done with

  1. Leuconostoc
  2. Streptococcus
  3. Saccharomyces
  4. More than one option is correct

Answer. 4. More than one option is correct

Question 40. Wine yeast is

  1. Saccharomyces effipsoidens
  2. S. sake
  3. S. pireformis
  4. S. cerevisiae

Answer. 1. Saccharomyces effipsoidens

Question 41. Amylases are employed for all, except

  1. Softening of bread
  2. Clearing of turgidity in juices
  3. Preparation of cheese
  4. Desizing of textile fibers

Answer. 3. Preparation of cheese

microbes in human welfare neetprep

Question 42. The derivatives of gluconic acid are used as a source of

  1. Calcium
  2. Iron
  3. Glucose
  4. Fat

Answer. 1. Calcium

Question 43. The first step in biogas production is carried out with the help of

  1. Obligate aerobes
  2. Decomposers
  3. Frankia
  4. Detritivores

Answer. 2. Decomposers

Question 44. Rotenone, a natural insecticide, is obtained from

  1. Azadirachta indica
  2. Derris sp.
  3. Bacillus thuringiensis
  4. Phytophthora palmivora

Answer. 2. Derris sp.

Question 45. Fermented beverage with maximum alcohol content is

  1. Beer
  2. Brandy
  3. Whisky
  4. Gin

Answer. 2. Brandy

Question 46. Find the correct match:

Column 1                                                                     Column 2

a. Streptomyces venezuelae                                    (1) Neomycin

b. Streptomyces rimosus                                        (2) Gentamycin

c. Micromonosperma purpurea                             (3) Chloramphenicol/ Chloromycetin

d. Streptomyces fradiae                                         (4) Oxytetracycline/ Terramycin

  1. a (4), b (3), c (2), d (1)
  2. a (4), b (2), c (3), d (1)
  3. a (3), b (4), c (1), d (2)
  4. a (3), b (4), c (2), d (1)

Answer. 4. a (3), b (4), c (2), d (1)

Question 47. Rennin used in cheese industry is

  1. Antibiotic
  2. Enzyme
  3. Alkaloid
  4. Inhibitor

Answer. 2. Enzyme

Question 48. A compound which is produced by an organism and inhibits the growth of other organisms is called

  1. Antibody
  2. Antigen
  3. Anti-allergic
  4. Antibiotic

Answer. 4. Antibiotic

Question 49. Genetically engineered bacteria have been used in the commercial production of

  1. Thyroxine
  2. Testosterone
  3. Human insulin
  4. Melatonium

Answer. 3. Human insulin

Question 50. For biogas production, besides dung, which of the following is used as manure?

  1. Eichhornia
  2. Parthenium
  3. Glycine
  4. Arachis

Answer. 1. Eichhornia

Question 51. The bioconcentration of DDT in the body fat of Indians is

  1. 18-36 ppm
  2. 5-10 ppm
  3. 13-31 ppm
  4. 2-5 ppm

Answer. 3. 13-31 ppm

Question 52. DDT is a/an

  1. Organochlorine
  2. Organophosphate
  3. Carbamate
  4. Pyrethroid

Answer. 1. Organochlorine

Question 53. Biopesticides include

  1. Only bioinsecticide
  2. Only bioherbicide
  3. Bioinsecticide and bioherbicide
  4. Bioherbicide, bioinsecticide, and biofertilizers

Answer. 3. Bioinsecticide and bioherbicide

Question 54. Which of the following pairs serve as biofertilizers?

  1. Albugo and lichen
  2. Frankia and Nostoc
  3. Pseudomonas and E. coli
  4. Spirogyra and Mucor

Answer. 2. Frankia and Nostoc

Question 55. The most famous pesticide of the world is

  1. Methyl isocyanate
  2. DDT
  3. Malathion
  4. BHC

Answer. 2. DDT

“select the correct group of biocontrol agents “

Question 56. Which of the following plant is used as green manure?

  1. Crotalaria juncea
  2. Vigna sinensis
  3. Barseem
  4. All the above

Answer. 4. All the above

Question 57. Which of the following statement is incorrect about DDT?

  1. DDT is a pesticide, which is an organochlorine.
  2. It is lipophilic and non-biodegradable.
  3. Milk is a good carrier of DDT.
  4. DDT does not undergo bioconcentration when it enters in food chain.

Answer. 4. DDT does not undergo bioconcentration when it enters in food chain.

Question 58. The first inorganic pesticide to be used commercially was

  1. Bordeaux mixture
  2. Burgandy mixture
  3. DDT
  4. 2-4D

Answer. 1. Bordeaux mixture

Question 59. VAM is important for

  1. Breaking of dormancy
  2. Phosphate nutrition
  3. Water uptake
  4. Retarding flowering
  5. Decrease in yield

Answer. 2. Phosphate nutrition

Question 60. Besides dung, the weed that can be used in biogas production is

  1. Hydrilla
  2. Solanum nigrum
  3. Eichhornia crassipes
  4. Parthenium hysterophorus
  5. All of these

Answer. 2. Solanum nigrum

Question 61. Which one is a neem product used as insect repellent?

  1. Azardirachtin
  2. Rotenone
  3. Parathione
  4. Endrin

Answer. 1. Azardirachtin

Question 62. The enzyme that converts glucose into alcohol is

  1. Lipase
  2. Zymase
  3. Diastase
  4. Invertase

Answer. 2. Zymase

Question 63. Which one of the following statements is correct?

  1. Cyanobacteria such as Anabaena and Nostoc are important mobilizers of phosphates and potassium for plant nutrition in soil.
  2. At present, it is not possible to grow maize without chemical fertilizers.
  3. Extensive use of chemical fertilizers may lead to eutrophication of nearby water bodies.
  4. Both Azotobacter and Rhizobium fix atmospheric nitrogen in the root nodules of plants.

Answer. 3. Extensive use of chemical fertilizers may lead to eutrophication of nearby water bodies.

Question 64. DDT residues are rapidly passed through food chain causing biomagnification because DDT is

  1. Water soluble
  2. Lipo soluble
  3. Moderately toxic
  4. Non-toxic to aquatic animals

Answer. 2. Lipo soluble

Question 65. The term “antibiotic” was coined by

  1. Alexander Fleming
  2. S. Waksman
  3. Louis Pasteur
  4. Edward Jenner

Answer. 2. S. Waksman

Question 66. The antibiotic Terramycin is obtained from

  1. Streptomyces griseus
  2. Streptomyces ramosus
  3. Streptomyces venezuelae
  4. Clostridium botulinum

Answer. 2. Streptomyces ramosus

Question 67. Which one of the following is not true about antibiotics?

  1. The first antibiotic was discovered by Alexander Fleming.
  2. The term “antibiotic” was coined by S. Waksman in 1942.
  3. Some persons can be allergic to a particular antibiotic.
  4. Each antibiotic is effective only against one particular kind of germ.

Answer. 4. Each antibiotic is effective only against one particular kind of germ.

Question 68. Penicillin is obtained from

  1. Aspergillus fumigatus
  2. Penicillium chrysogenum
  3. Penicillium griseofulvum
  4. Streptomyces griseus

Answer. 2. Penicillium chrysogenu

Question 69. Antibiotic flavicin is obtained from

  1. Aspergillus fumigatus
  2. Aspergillus flavus
  3. Streptomyces griesus
  4. Streptomyces fradiae

Answer. 2. Aspergillus flavus

Question 70. Cyclosporin-an immunosuppressive drug-is produced by

  1. Aspergillus niger
  2. Manascus purpureus
  3. Penicillium notatum
  4. Trichoderma polysporum

Answer. 4. Trichoderma polysporum

Question 71. A sewage treatment process in which a part of decomposer bacteria present in the waste is recycled into the starting of the process is called

  1. Cyclic treatment
  2. Activated sludge treatment
  3. Primary treatment
  4. Tertiary treatment

Answer. 2. Activated sludge treatment

Question 72. When domestic sewage mixes with water,

  1. Small animals such as rats will die after drinking river water
  2. The increased microbial activity releases micronutrients such as iron
  3. The increased microbial activity uses up dissolved oxygen
  4. The river water is still suitable for drinking as impurities are only about 0.1%

Answer. 3. The increased microbial activity uses up dissolved oxygen

Question 73. Which one of the following is used as biological insecticide?

  1. Tiger beetle
  2. Caterpillar
  3. Silk moth
  4. Majra Poka

Answer. 1. Tiger beetle

Question 74. Biogas production is carried out by

  1. Thermoacidophiles
  2. Methanogens
  3. Halophiles
  4. Luminants

Answer. 2. Methanogens

Question 75. Biogas produced by the fermentation of manure, sewage, cattle dung, etc., predominantly comprises

  1. Methane, nitrogen, and hydrogen
  2. Methane and carbon dioxide
  3. Methane and carbon monoxide
  4. Methane and nitric oxide

Answer. 2. Methane and carbon dioxide

Question 76. Which one of the following is an example of carrying out biological control of pests/diseases using microbes?

  1. Nucleopolyhedrovirus against white rust in Brassica.
  2. Bt-cotton to increase cotton yield.
  3. Lady bird beetle against aphids in mustard.
  4. Trichodrma sp. against certain plant pathogens.

Answer. 4. Trichodrma sp. against certain plant pathogens.

Question 77. Green Revolution in India occurred during

  1. 1960’s
  2. 1970’s
  3. 1980’s
  4. 1950’s

Answer. 1. 1960’s

Question 78. In gobar gas, the maximum amount is of

  1. Butane
  2. Methane
  3. Propane
  4. Carbon dioxide

Answer. 2. Methane

Question 79. Domestic sewage in large cities

  1. Has a high BOD as it contains both aerobic and anaerobic bacteria
  2. Is processed by aerobic and then anaerobic bacteria in the secondary treatment in sewage treatment plants (STPs)
  3. When treated in STPS does not really require the aeration step as the sewage contains adequate oxygen.
  4. Has very high amounts of suspended solids and dissolved salts

Answer. 4. Has very high amounts of suspended solids and dissolved salts

Question 80. During sewage treatment, biogas is produced which includes

  1. Methane, oxygen, and hydrogen sulfide
  2. Hydrogen sulfide, methane, and sulfur dioxide
  3. Hydrogen sulfide, nitrogen, and methane
  4. Methane, hydrogen sulfide, and carbon dioxide

Answer. 3. Hydrogen sulfide, nitrogen, and methane

Question 81. A good producer of citric acid is

  1. Pseudomonas
  2. Clostridium
  3. Saccharomyces
  4. Aspergillus

Answer. 3. Saccharomyces

NEET Biology Notes – Strategies For Enhancement In Food Production

NEET Biology Notes For Strategies For Enhancement In Food Production Animal Breeding

A group of animals related by descent and similar in most characters such as general appearance, features, size, and configuration are said to belong to a “breed.” Animal breeding is producing improved breeds of domesticated animals by improving their genotypes through selective mating.

Objectives of Animal Breeding

The main objectives of animal breeding are as follows:

  • Improved growth rate.
  • Increased production of milk, meat, egg, wool, etc.
  • Superior quality of milk, meat, eggs, wool, etc.
  • Improved resistance to various diseases.
  • Increased productive life.
  • Increased or, at least, acceptable reproduction rate, etc.

Methods of Animal Breeding

Two methods of animal breeding are inbreeding and outbreeding (based mainly on the breeding work done with cattle).

Inbreeding

  • When breeding is done between animals of the same breed for 4-6 generations, it is called inbreeding, e.g., between the breeds of cows, buffaloes, poultry, etc.
  • Inbreeding may be explained by taking an example of cows and bulls.
  • Superior cows and superior bulls of the same breed are identified and mated.
  • The progeny obtained from such mating are evaluated and superior males and females are identified for fur- ther mating.
  • A superior female, in the case of cattle, is a cow that produces more milk per lactation.
  • On the other hand, a superior male is a bull that gives rise to superior progeny as compared to that of other males.
  • Inbreeding, as a rule, increases homozygosity.
  • Thus, inbreeding is necessary if we want to develop a pure-line in any animal.
  • Inbreeding exposes harmful recessive genes that are eliminated by selection.
  • It also helps in the accumulation of superior genes and the elimination of less desirable genes.
  • But continued inbreeding reduces fertility and even productivity.
  • This is called inbreeding depression.
  • In this condition, the selected animals of the breeding population should be mated with superior animals of the same breed but those which are unrelated to the breeding population.

Read and Learn More NEET Biology Notes

Outbreeding

  • Outbreeding is breeding between unrelated animals. It may be between the individuals of the same breed (but not having common ancestors) or between different breeds (cross-breeding) or different species (interspecific hybridization).
    • Outcrossing: It is the mating of animals within the same breed but not having common ancestors on either side of their pedigree up to 4-6 generations. The offspring of such a cross is called an outcross. Outcrossing is the best breeding method for animals that are below average in productivity and milk production, growth rate in beef in cattle, etc. Sometimes only one outcross helps to over-come inbreeding depression.
    • Cross-breeding. In cross-breeding, the superior males of one breed are mated with the superior females of another breed. Many new animal breeds have been developed by this strategy. It gives better breeds. The cows of an inferior breed may be mated with the bulls of a superior breed to get better progeny. Hisardale is a new breed of sheep developed in Punjab by crossing Bikaneri ewes and Marino rams.
    • Interspecific hybridization: In this approach, the male and female animals of two different spe- cies are mated. The progeny obtained from such a mating are usually different from both parental species. But in some cases, the progeny may combine the desirable characters of both the parents. A mule is produced from a cross between female horse (mare) and male donkey. Mules are sturdier than their parents and are well-suited for hard work in mountainous regions.
  • Animal husbandry is the science of rearing, improvement, and caring of domesticated animals.
  • Although the word “animal” includes any of the various organisms belonging to kingdom Animalia, when we use it in animal husbandry, we mean only those domesticated animals which are reared mostly for economic or for recreation purposes, such as cattle, buffalo, sheep, goat, camel, pig, horse, etc.
  • It also includes poultry farming and fisheries.
  • Since a long time, animals such as bees and silkworm have been used by humans.
  • All the above-mentioned livestock (animals kept for use or profit) has been used by humans for products such as milk, eggs, meat, wool, silk, and honey.
  • The word “husbandry” means the management of do- mestic affair.
  • The term used in connection with animal husbandry includes proper feeding, breeding, healthcare, hous- ing, etc.
  • Domestication of animals probably began during the “hunting and gathering” phase of human civilization.
  • As humans realized the importance of domesticating animals for use as beasts of burden and as sources of milk, meat, leather, and fur, the methods of improvement through selective breeding were used.
  • Curiously, Old World agriculture employed animals while there is little evidence of the use of animals in the primitive agriculture of the New World.
  • Most of the useful animals raised today have evolved from their wild ancestors.
  • One of the earliest animals to be domesticated was the dog.
  • Starting from a few basic types the wild dog, the wolf, and the jackal-man has produced an amazing variety of breeds. The Eskimos still use huskies to draw sledges.

” class 12 biology ch 9 notes”

Cattle Livestock

  • Buffalo in India, termed “water-buffalo” in the Western literature, constitutes the most important species of livestock in India.
  • It serves as the primary source of milk-the only dietary animal protein for a majority of Indians.
  • Compared to cows, buffaloes (Bubalus bubalus) generally yield more milk of high fat content.
  • They also have greater disease resistance and longevity.
  • The milk yielding capacity of buffaloes is three times more than cows. Buffalo’s milk is superior to cow’s milk in fat content as well as minerals.
  • The cattle are used to draw water from wells.
  • Their dung is used as fuel and for the generation of biogas.
  • India happens to be one of the largest exporters of leather goods made from cattle hide.
  • Horns, hooves, and bones are used to prepare cattle feed and fertilizers.
  • Indian cattle are hardy and highly resistant to major diseases.
  • Bulls from India are used for cross-breeding with Eu- ropean and American varieties.
  • The best Indian cattle breeds are found in the drier parts of the country.
  • There are 26 breeds of cattle and 7 breeds of buffaloes which differ in their body colors, horns, and shape of forehead.
  • The family of domestic cattle is Bovidae.
  • There are two main groups of Bovidae (domestic cattle):
    • Bos indicus: It is found in India and Africa. It is also called zebu cattle or humped cattle.
    • Bos Taurus: It is found in Europe and North America. It is non-humped cattle.
  • The zebu is characterized by the following:
    • Presence of prominent hump.
    • Upright horns.
    • A long face.
    • Drooping cars.
    • Large and slender legs.
  • In the US, zebus are called Brahman cattle.

NEET Biology Stratagies For Enhancement In Food Production Sahiwal cow and Sahiwal bull

  • The cattle breeds are classified into three groups.
    • Milch breeds: The cows of these breeds are good milk producers. However, bullocks are of poor quality.
    • Draught breeds: The bullocks of these breeds are good for working but cows are poor milk producers.
    • General utility breeds (dual-purpose breeds): The cows of these breeds are good milk producers and the bullocks are good draught animals. They are intermediate between milch and draught breeds.

Cross Breeds

  • Karan Swiss: This breed has been evolved at the National Dairy Research Institute, Karnal, in Haryana, by breeding the Sahiwal cows with the semen of Brown Swiss bulls imported from the USA.
  • Sunandini: This breed originated in Kerala by crossing the local non-descript cattle with Jersey, Brown Swiss, and Holstein-Friesian breeds.
  • Karan Fries: This breed originated at the National Dairy Research Institute, Karnal, out of crossing between Tharparkar and Holstein-Friesian.

NEET Biology Stratagies For Enhancement In Food Production Some exotic foreign breeds

Cattle of Higher Altitudes

Mithun is found in the north-eastern India at an altitude of 700-1700 m. It is used for meat. Yak is found in Tibet, Ladakh, Lahaul, Spiti, Garhwal, and Sikkim. Yak gives meat, hide, and wool. It is also used for tilling land. The transport of people and goods across the desolate transHimalayan region would be impossible without the yak.

NEET Biology Notes For Strategies For Enhancement In Food Production Cattle Management And Feeding

  • India has about 227 million cattle and buffaloes. In terms of sheer numbers, India ranks fifth in the world. However, in milk production, India figures very poorly. Cattle management practices vary in different parts of the country depending upon climatic conditions. India is the lowest in milk yield per cow.
  • Feeding: Ninety percent livestock subsists on grazing in public and government-owned lands and forests.
  • The prepared feed given to them is classified into the following:
    • Roughages: These include fodder, silage, hag, and straw. This feed has a high fiber content.
    • Concentrates: These include cereals, millets, forage crops with high leaf protein and oil cake, oil seeds, and animal by-products. Although low in fiber content, the concentrates have high nutrient value and digestibility. Minerals and vitamins are added to the feed of high yielders. The proportion of balanced feed differs for the young and the adult animals.

Cattle-Breeding

  • In villages, a few good pedigree bulls are selected on the basis of draught ability and permitted to graze with the cows to bring about random breeding. Bulls not selected for breeding are castrated when young and converted to bullocks. They are the main source of animal draught power in India.
  • Mature cattle more than 3 years of age should be used for breeding. The best local cows with a good milk yield should be mated with a pure breed exotic bull which should have high genetic potential. One bull is usually enough for 60 to 70 cows.
  • About 10-60% cows are artificially inseminated by semen collected from high-quality bulls. Artificial in- semination ensures good quality progeny and is also economical as semen from a single bull can inseminate several thousand cows. Average gestation period of the cow is 280 days. The length of gestation of buffaloes varies, influenced by breed and environment, between 276 and 340 days, but on an average, it lasts for 310 days (or 10 months), in contrast to the cow with an average gestation of 280 days (or 9 months).
  • An average cow or buffalo produces 8-10 calves during its productive lifetime. Generally, only one ovum is fertilized at a time. Selective breeding and progeny testing and improvement take longer time in the live-stock than in annual food crops. With the exception of certain Indian breeds which have been maintained for good yield, the majority of Indian cattle has been on marginal inputs and is infertile and a poor milk yielder. Reasearch on the cause of infertility led to the use of pregnant mare serum gonadotropin to augment fertility in sterile cows and to induce lactation immature females by implantation of stilbesterol tablets.
  • Artificial insemination (AI): It involves the insemination of the semen of superior bulls of exotic or indigenous breeds into native cows. The semen should be deposited either deep in the cervix or at the beginning of the body of the uterus. When insemination is performed deep in the cervix, the spermatozoa are likely to live longer in the cervix than in the uterus. The deposition of semen in the vagina results in dilution, contamination, and lowered conception rate. When a bull inseminates a cow naturally, approximately 5-10 billion spermatozoa are deposited in the vagina.
  • However, when semen is deposited artificially into the cervix, considerably fewer sperms are required to achieve conception. Therefore, artificial insemination is very economical. Semen collected from a single superior bull can be used for fertilizing many cows. Semen from a desired bull located at a distant place can be used. The spread of certain diseases can be controlled by this method. Artificial insemination was first introduced in India at the Indian Veterinary Research Institute, Izatnagar, near Bareilly, Uttar Pradesh.
  • To increase the milk yield, Indian cows are cross-bred with European breeds such as Holstein, Brown Swiss, Jersey, Red Dane, and others. Karan Swiss and Sunandini are the breeds developed through cross-breeding at the National Dairy Research Institute, Karnal, and in Kerala, respectively.
  • Super ovulation and embryo transplantation: It is also called MOET (multiple ovulation and embryo transfer). A pedigreed bull and a high-production cow are chosen to produce super milch cows. Super ovulation is induced by hormone injection. After artifical insemination, 4 to 10 embryos are collected at a time. Each embryo is then transplanted into a “carrier” cow (surrogate mother).
  • Such embryo transplants can also be carried out in sheep, goats, and other livestock. By deep freezing (-196 ̊C), it is possible to preserve seven days old fetuses for several years to be used when needed. An embryo can be cut into two, to obtain homozygotic twins. The most beneficial outcome of embryo transplantation is the selection of high-quality bulls for genetic upgrading. India has launched research using the above-mentioned techniques.

Use of Buffaloes

Buffaloes provide milk with all the essential nutrients. The milk has big-sized fat globules. It is rich in calcium and phosphorus and is low in sodium and potassium. Buffalo milk is almost free from carotenoids (golden yellow in color) due to the conversion of all carotenoid materials into vitamin A (colorless by the liver cells). Buffalo milk and ghee are white whereas ghee made from cow milk is golden yellow in color because of incomplete conversion of carotenoids into vitamin A inside the liver cells which ultimately appears in cow’s milk.

Cattle Diseases

  • Most zebu cattle (domesticated cattle, Bos indicus) are resistant to diseases such as rinderpest or cattle plague and foot and mouth and other bacterial and viral diseases.
  • Rinderpest has been controlled through a National Program.
  • Vaccination is given to highly productive herds.
  • Domesticated animals suffer from a variety of diseases.
  • In animals, a disease may be defined as a state of discomfort associated with an abnormal function of the animals’ body.
  • Diseases may be caused by mutant genes (genetic diseases), due to improper nutrition, or by pathogens.
  • Genetic diseases are strictly selected against animal breeding.
  • Generally, animals are raised on properly balanced diets to avoid nutritional disorders and to ensure optimum performance.
  • Domesticated animals suffer from diseases caused by (a) viruses, (b) bacteria, (c) protozoa, (d) fungi, and (e) animals such as worms.
  • Such diseases are commonly known as infectious dis- eases because these are caused by pathogenic infections.
  • Many infectious diseases are known as contagious dis- eases since these spread to healthy animals by contact with diseased animals or with materials that were in direct contact with the diseased animals.
  • Some infectious diseases may spread to humans from animals, e.g., anthrax.
  • Infections can occur through skin, digestive tract, respiratory tract, conjunctiva, urogenital tract, placenta, umbilicus, udder, teats, and egg.
  • It is a good policy to implement measures for the prevention of infectious diseases, some of which are as follows.
    • Isolation of animals suffering from or suspected to be infected with an infectious disease.
    • Proper disposal of the carcass and all materials that were in contact with the diseased animal(s).
    • Proper cleaning and disinfection of the animal house and other materials that were in contact with diseased animal(s).
    • Transfer of healthy animals to a pasture other than that used by diseased animal(s).
    • Vaccination of animals.
    • Injection of antiserum into healthy animals when- ever an epidemic is expected.
    • The authorities of the veterinary department should be immediately informed of cases of in- fectious diseases. This will allow them to initiate measures to prevent the spread of these diseases.

Bacterial Diseases

Animals suffer from several bacterial diseases. For example, cattle suffer from anthrax, mastitis, pneumonia, etc.

Anthrax

  • Anthrax is caused by the bacterium, Bacillus anthracis.
  • This disease is contagious and affects cattle, buffaloes, horse, sheep, and goats; it can also spread to human beings.
  • In animals, anthrax spreads through contaminated food, water, and pastures.

Symptoms and Diagnosis

  • In very acute cases, there is increased respiration and blood-mixed foamy discharge from mouth, nose, and anus.
  • In such cases, the infected animals may die within minutes.
  • But in subacute and chronic cases, the infected animals have high fever (up to 41.1°C) and increased pulse and respiration rates.
  • There is discharge of black, shiny, and foamy material from the natural openings of animals.
  • The infected animals die within 2 to 3 days.
  • The anthrax bacterium uses up the oxygen carried by the animal blood.
  • As a result, the animals die due to lack of oxygen.
  • Disease diagnosis can be confirmed by microscopic observation of the bacterium in the blood of patients or by culturing the bacterium present in the blood on a suitable medium.

Treatment

  • In case of human beings, a suitable antibiotic such as ciprofloxacin is quite effective, particularly if used in the initial stages of the disease.
  • But in cattle, ciprofloxacin may be effective only in chronic cases.
  • Anthrax antiserum can also be used with good results. In any case, antiserum should be given to all healthy animals to protect them from the disease.

Prevention and Control

  • The general measures for the prevention of infectious diseases should be followed.
  • Healthy animals should be vaccinated.
  • Animals that have come in contact with diseased animals should be given anthrax antiserum to protect them from the disease.

Mastitis

Mastitis is the inflammation of udder that often occurs in dry cows due to the infection of bacterium Corynebacterium pyogenes.

Viral Diseases

Animals suffer from a variety of viral diseases. For example, cattle suffer from rinderpest, foot and mouth disease, cowpox, etc. In this section, rinderpest is discussed in detail.

Rinderpest

Rinderpest is caused by a virus. It is highly contagious. The virus is present in all the fluids and secretions of the body of the diseased animal. The disease spreads rapidly by direct contact with the diseased animal, through contaminated food and water, workers and their clothes, and by flies.

Symptoms

  • Initially, the infected animal develops fever (40.0-42.2°C), loses appetite, develops constipation, and passes hard feces that are often covered with blood. In the final stages of the disease, the animal suffers from loose motions which give off offensive odor. The body temperature declines and may go down be- low normal. The animal usually dies in about 7 days.

Treatment

Treatment is effective only when it is started in the initial stages of the disease. The injection of sulfamethazine sodium is often effective. The injection of rinderpest antiserum is highly effec- tive, especially when combined with the injection of sulfamethazine sodium.

Prevention

All the measures for the prevention of infectious diseases should be implemented. It is highly desirable to vaccinate the animals against rinderpest. In 1954, a massive vaccination program was initiated in India. This project has been highly successful and rinderpest is no longer a dreaded disease.

Foot and Mouth Disease

  • Foot and mouth disease affects cattle, sheep, goats, pigs, and other ruminants. It is caused by ssRNA Aphthovirus and is characterized by the eruption of vesicles over the lips; inside buccal cavity; and over legs, feet, udder, and even teats.
  • There is a loss of appetite but dribbling of saliva is present. Lameness occurs.
  • The infected animals should be separated immediately and the animal house should be thoroughly disinfected.

class 12 biology chapter 9 notes

Cowpox

  • Cowpox is a mild self-limiting eruptive skin disease of cows caused by cowpox virus. The infection is confined to udder and teats.
  • It spreads to humans accidently while milking infected animals.
  • Inoculum from cowpox lesions was used by Edward Jenner in 1798 as vaccine against smallpox.

NEET Biology Notes For Strategies For Enhancement In Food Production Poultry

  • Poultry-farming deals with the rearing of fowls (chicken), ducks, turkeys, and pheasants for their eggs and meat. India and the neighboring countries are recognized as the original home of the red jungle fowl (Gallus gallus). There is evidence that Aseel or Malay fowl were carried to Europe through the Middle East about 2,000 years ago. These have given rise to the present-day European breeds.
  • Poultry and poultry products are a rich source of animal protein and other nutrients such as fats, vitamins, and minerals. The consumption of eggs would pave the way for overcoming protein malnutrition prevalent especially among the children in India.
  • Poultry-farming has definite advantages over live- stock-rearing. Poultry birds are easy to raise, can be acclimatized to a wide range of climatic conditions, have short lifespan, and are prolific breeders. Hens have an average yield of 60 eggs per year (up to 240 eggs in high-yielding varieties). Poultry-farming requires less space, is easier to manage and maintain, and brings fast returns within a span of 6 months. In a poultry-farm, comfortable, well-ventilated, and illuminated dry houses are built. Birds of different ages are kept in separate houses. In regions with moderate climate, they are kept in cages (coops).
  • The floor is littered with chopped straw, paddy husk, dry leaves, or groundnut hulls. It is made rat-proof and is provided with water channels with proper drainage. Minerals that are important for poultry diets are calcium, phos- phorous, sodium, copper, iodine, iron, manganese, and zinc. The vitamins required are vitamin A, B, E, pyridoxine, riboflavin, pantothenic acid, niacin, folic acid, B12, and choline. The male breeder’s diet should contain extra calcium, manganese, and vitamin E to ensure proper fertility. Thus, a balanced diet is the re- quirement so that utilization for the building of tissues and egg production is maximized. Clean and fresh water is very essential for birds.
  • Light management: Light is essential for high egg production. 14 to 16 h of light including daylight is required for optimum production. When the pullets (young hens, especially at the time they begin to lay eggs) come into production, start giving additional light if the daylight is less than 12 h. Gradually increase the light 20 min every week till 16 h of total light is there. One tube-light of 40 W is sufficient for 36 m2 area while 40-W-bulb is sufficient for 18 m2 floor area. Light should spread uniformly. It should not be provided for the whole night.
  • Fowls are widely distributed as domestic animals. The most common species of jungle fowls are Gallus gallus, G. lafayetti, and G. sonneratti
  • Poultry feed includes all the nutrients. It is made of cereals and millets, oil cake, protein concentrates, fish and meat meal, minerals, and green vegetables. The domestic fowl (Gallus domesticus) population of our country can be roughly classified into two types:
    • Indigenous (desi type)
    • Exotic (improved type)
  • Some indigenous breeds such as Aseel, Karaknath, Ghagus, Brahma, and Busra are the best table birds. The Aseel fowls are used in cock-fighting. The exotic breeds are classified, according to their source of origin, into American class, English class, Mediterranean class, and Asiatic class. Some examples are White Leghorn, Rhode Island Red, Plymouth Rock, and New Hampshire. These are now completely acclimatized to Indian conditions. Some of them are excellent egg- layers whereas others give good meat.

NEET Biology Stratagies For Enhancement In Food Production Breads of chicken

The indigenous breeds are crossed with the exotic breeds for improving egg production. Heterosis has been utilized for producing better egg layers and broilers (birds grown for meat) with high nutritive value.

Some diseases such as fowlpox, Ranikhet, coryza, fowl cholera, and aspergillosis take a heavy toll on poultry. But with better management, proper housing and nutrition, and timely vaccination of the chicks, these diseases can be controlled.

Ducks comprise 6% of the total poultry population in In- dia. They are abundant in the southern and eastern parts of India. There are 20 breeds of duck of which Muscori, Pekin, Aylesbury, and Campbell are popular exotic breeds; indigenous breeds include Indian Runner, Syhelt Meta, etc. Brown and white geese are common in India. Turkeys which are in demand during Christmas time belong to breeds Narfold, British White, Broad Breasted Bronze, and Beltsville Small White.

Poultry Diseases

  • Encephalomalacia: Deficiency of vitamin E causes softening of brain tissue in young poultry.
  • Coccidiosis: Protozoan Eimeria causes coccidiosis in fowls. It causes bloody diarrhea.
  • Bacterial diseases: These are listed in Table 9.4.

NEET Biology Stratagies For Enhancement In Food Production Bacterial diseases

NEET Biology Notes For Strategies For Enhancement In Food Production Apiculture

  • Apiculture is the care and management of honey bees. Honey bees give us honey and wax. They are good pollinators.
  • The common breeds of honey bee are as follows:
    • Apis dorsata (rock bee)
    • Apis indica (Indian bee)
    • Apis florea (little bee)
    • Apis mellifera (Italian bee)
  • Honey produced by the honey bee Apis species is probably the oldest sweetening agent in our civilization. Honey contains two sugars-dextrose and levulose and a mixture of several other substances. It is tasty, health-giving, and also medicinally useful. Honey bees also yield wax, which has multiple uses. A large quantity of honey is still collected from wild sources. However, bee-keeping (apiculture) using domesticated bees has been practiced in many parts of the world, including India (using 4. dorsata, A. florae, and A. indica).
  • Social organization (castes) of honey bee: The nest of honey bee is known as bee-hive. The hive consists of 32 to 60 thousand individuals, showing a highly organized division of labor in the colony. Bees are polymorphic, consisting of three types of individuals (castes) viz. queen, drone, and worker.

NEET Biology Stratagies For Enhancement In Food Production Queen

NEET Biology Stratagies For Enhancement In Food Production Apiculture

  • From its mandibular gland, the developing queen secretes antiqueen substances or antiqueen pheromones which inhibit the worker bees from building brood chambers and developing ovaries.
  • Drones are male honey bees. They develop from unfertilized eggs. The phenomenon is called arrhenotoky. Drones and virgin queens take part in nuptial flight. After copulation, the drones are not allowed to come back into hive.
  • The queen stores the sperm in her spermatheca. The material is sufficient to fertilize all the eggs that are laid by her.
  • Females develop from fertilized eggs. Workers are sterile females. Scout bees search for food and intimate the same to worker bees by dances-round dance for less than 75 m and tail wagging dance for longer distances (Frisch).
  • Workers have a pollen collecting apparatus in hind legs called corbicula and nectar storing mechanism in crop and wax secreting glands in abdomen.
  • Young workers secrete royal jelly and are called nurse bees. Royal jelly is given to queen or potential queens. Apiculture is the rearing of bees or bee-keeping for collecting honey and wax.
  • Honey is a near neutral sugary syrup with 6.8 pH, hav- ing 17-25% water, 3.3% minerals, abundant vitamins (B1, B6, C, D), L-fructose (laevulose, 41%), glucose (35%), sucrose (1.9%), and dextrin (1.5%). It is a tonic, a laxative, and a sweetening agent. Bee wax is secreted by the abdominal wax glands of the worker bees. It possesses a hardening substance from cephalic gland and a resin called propolis from pollen grains.

NEET Biology Notes For Strategies For Enhancement In Food Production Fishery

  • A large section of the Indian population uses fish as food. Fish is an easily available source of protein. It is highly nutritious and easily digestible. In India, edible fishes are abundantly available from sea, rivers, lakes, ponds, and marshes. Fish is also an item of ex- port trade.
  • Fishes are reared in small rivers, lakes, and canals.
  • Fish eggs are introduced into nurseries (hatcheries).
  • The young ones hatched from the eggs are fed, tended, nursed, and harvested when full grown.
  • Aquaculture techniques of induced breeding by the administration of pituitary hormones have helped in the production of seed fish in pure form.
  • Hatcheries with circulating water have ensured almost 100% hatching of fertilized eggs.
  • Culturing fish in fresh water is known as Inland fisheries.
  • Fish industry also includes trapping and capturing fishes from estuaries, sea coast, and even from within the sea by using sophisticated electronic locaters, baits, nets, and trawlers.
  • A large number of fishermen living in the coastal re- gions of India still use catamarans and various traditionally built boats.
  • Mechanized fishing boats have now made deep-sea fishing possible.
  • Catching, processing, and packaging of marine fishes have been developed on a scientific footing in our country.
  • India exports marine food to several countries.
  • Besides serving as table food, fishes are of medicinal value.
  • Shark liver oil and cod liver oil are the natural sources of vitamins A, C, and D.
  • Oils from sardines, herrings, and salmon are used in the manufacture of soaps and paints.
  • Pisciculture is rearing, catching, and management of fishes.
  • Culture fishery is the raising of fishes in tanks and ponds while capture fishery is the management of catching of fish without actually raising them.
  • India has 1.6 million hectares of inland water (annual yield 2.242 million ton, 1996 data) and over 2.59 km2 of continental shelf for fishing (annual yield 2.7 million ton, 1996 data).

NEET Biology Stratagies For Enhancement In Food Production Important edible fishes of India

  • Culture fishery: In this method, the pituitary hormone extract is injected into the male and female breeder fishes.
  • Two males and one female are then kept in a breeding hapa a bamboo and cloth container.
  • Spawning takes place in 3-6 h.
  • Fertilized eggs are removed and kept in hatchery, where they hatch in 15-18 h.
  • The hatchlings are kept in glass-jar hatcheries.
  • A mouth is formed on the third day; the young fishes are now called fry.
  • They are kept in rearing ponds for about 3 months where they grow into 4″-6″ long fingerlings.
  • The fingerlings are then released into stocking ponds where they grow to the required size.
  • In composite fish culture, different species of fish such as catla, rohu, and mrigal are cultured together.
  • Types of ponds: Three types of ponds are required for the culture of the Indian major carps: nursery, rearing, and stocking ponds.
    • Nursery ponds: Efficient pond fish culture requires special preparation of nurseries to receive tender hatchlings at spawn. Small and seasonal nurseries are preferred as they facilitate effective control of the environmental conditions. The steps adopted towards the preparation of nurseries are the control of predatory fishes and weeds. There should be the production of zooplankton to serve as food for spawn and control of algal blooms.
    • Rearing ponds: The fries (sing. fry: young one of fish) are collected from the nursery ponds and are released in rearing ponds where they develop into fingerlings.
    • Stocking ponds: The fingerlings are netted out from the rearing ponds to the stocking ponds where they change to fishes. In the stocking ponds, the fishes are kept for stocking.
  • Marine fisheries: Marine fisheries are divided into coastal fisheries (about 3 miles from the coast line) and deep sea fisheries (which have different fauna of fish). In India, about 75% of the marine fish catch is from the Western coast.
  • The main marine fisheries are sardines (26%), mackerel (9.7%), and the Bombay duck (11%).
  • Crustacean fisheries, i.e., prawns, lobsters, crabs, and Penaeus sp. are dominant on the West coast. Mollusc fisheries include oysters, clams, mussels, squids, cuttlefish, and octopus.
  • Estuarine fisheries: The place where the fresh water of rivers meets the salt water of the sea is called an estuary. It contains brackish water.
  • At estuary, only those fishes of fresh water and sea can survive that can tolerate a change of salinity.
  • Estuary also forms the nursery ground for several marine and fresh water species.
  • Fishing on large scale from such places results in the death of a number of young and immature fishes.
  • Bag nets are most commonly used in estuarine fishery.
  • The major estuarine systems in India are (a) Hooghly estuary in West Bengal, (b) Mahanadi estuary in Orissa, (c) Cauvery estuary in Tamil Nadu, (d) Narmada and Tapti estuary in Gujarat, and (e) Godavari-Krishna estuary in Andhra Pradesh.
  • Carp fishes such as catla (theila), Labeo rohita (rohu), Cirrhinus mrigala (mrigal), and Labeo calbasu (kalbasu) are commonly cultured together in our country.
  • Such a practice of culturing together of fishes is called polyculture or composite culture.
  • Important edible fishes are as follows:
    • Fresh water fishes: Rohu (Labeo rohita), Calbasu (Labeo calbasu), Catla (Catla catla), Singhara (Mystus singhala), Magur (Clarias batrachus), and Singhi (Heteropneustes).
    • Marine fishes: Bombay duck (Harpodon sp.), Hilsa (Hilsa sp.), Eel (Anguilla sp.), Pomphret (Stromatetis sp.), Salmon (Aluitheronema sp.), and Sardine (Sardinella sp.).

NEET Biology Notes For Strategies For Enhancement In Food Production Plant Breeding

  • There are 12 mega-diversity centers in the world including India, having more than 65% global diversity. India has 7.7% genetic resources of the world.
  • Agriculture originated in the Mesolithic age in New World and Old World.
  • N.I. Vavilov, a Russian scientist, proposed eight cent- ers of origin of agriculture (now-a-days 12) called natural homes.
  • India is the center of origin of 167 cultivated species and about 320 wild relatives of crop plants. A primary crop is a crop which came under domestication from the very beginning, e.g., wheat. Secondary crop was originally a wild relative of primary crop which was domesticated when primary crops failed.
  • Monkombu Sambasivan Swaminathan (father of Green Revolution in India) initiated collaboration with Dr. Borlaug (father of Green Revolution) which reached the highest point (into the “Green Revolution”) through the introduction of Mexican varieties of wheat in India.
  • Plant breeding is defined as the genetic improvement of a crop in order to create desired plant types that are better suited for cultivation, give better yields, and are disease resistant. Conventional plant breeding has been in practice since 9,000-11,000 years.

Main Steps in Plant Breeding

Following are the main steps in breeding a new genetic variety of a crop:

  • Collection of variability: Collection and preservation of all distinct wild varieties, species, and relatives of cultivated species is a pre-requisite for the effective exploitation of natural genes available in the population. Germplasm is the sum total of all alleles of the genes present in a crop and its related species.
    The entire collection (of plants/seeds) having all diverse alleles of all genes in a given crop is called germplasm collection. A good germplasm collection is essential for a successful breeding program. Therefore, germplasm collection is the most practical and effective answer to problems such as loss of germplasm due to expansion of agriculture, industries, and other hu- man activities.
  • Evaluation and selection of parents: The germplasm is evaluated to identify plants with desirable combination of characters. The selection of parents is done by picking up the seeds of only those plants for multiplication which have the desired traits.
  • Common methods of crop improvement
    • Selection: It is of three types:
      • Mass selection: It is the simplest and the oldest method mainly for cross-pollinated crops and is based on phenotypic characters. The varieties produced by this method loose desirable qualities.
      • Pure line/inbred selection: It involves isolating desirable homozygous individuals and is done for self-pollinating crops, e.g., wheat varieties PV-18, HUW-468, and Kalyan Sona.
      • Clonal selection: It is used for vegetatively reproducing crops, e.g., Kufri Safed potato.
    • Hybridization: It may be of the following five types:
      • Intravarietal (useful for self-pollinated crops)
      • Intervarictal (intra-specific), e.g., Ganga and Ranjit varieties of maize
      • Interspecific: Rice variety ADT-37 (Oryza ja- ponica Oryza indices)
      • Intergeneric, e.g., triticale, Raphanobrassica
      • No new characters are created by hybridiza- tion.
    • Mutation breeding: Various chemicals such as HNO2, base analogs, alkylating agents, acridine dyes, X rays, UV rays, and gamma rays are used to induce mutations which produce desirable qualities. It has been used commonly in self- pollinating crops. A number of new varieties have been developed such as the following:
      • Sharbati Sonora and Pusa Lerma varieties of wheat (formed the basis of Green Revolution in India).
      • Reimei and Atomita-2 varieties of rice.
      • Erectiferum and Erectoids varieties of barley.
      • Aruna variety of castor.
      • Thick shell in ground nut (TGI).
      • Wheat-NP 836
      • Rice-Jagannath
      • Cotton-Indore-2
      • In mung bean, resistance to yellow mosaic virus and powdery mildew.
      • Peppermint (Menthe piperita); Todd’s Mitcham variety (high oil content and disease resistant)
    • Polyploid breeding: Induced polyploidy is used by plant breeders for improving the yield of for- age and other crops. Many modern day crops such as wheat, rice, sugarcane, and cotton are natural polyploids. Allopolyploids have been used for obtaining fertile hybrid between different species and genera. Allopolyploidy leads to the immediate formation of new species. For example, durum wheat, bread wheat, and triticale.
  • Selection and testing of superior recombinations: The selection process yields plants that are superior to both the parents. These plants are self-pollinated for several generations till they come to a state of uniformity (homozygosity), so that the characters will not separate in the progeny.

NEET Biology Stratagies For Enhancement In Food Production Origin of bread and durum wheat

  • Test, release, and commercialization of new cultivars: The newly selected lines are evaluated for their yield and other agronomic traits of quality, disease resistance, etc. This evaluation is done by growing these in the research field and recording their performance in ideal fertilizer, irrigation, etc. The testing of materials is done in the farmer’s fields, for at least three growing seasons at different locations in the country, representing all agroclimatic zones.
    India is an agricultural country. Agriculture contributes about 33% of India’s GDP and gives employment to about 62% of the population. The development of several high yielding varieties of wheat and rice in 1960 increased the yields per unit area. This phase is often called Green Revolution.

    • Wheat and rice: From 1960 to 2000, wheat pro- duction increased from 11 million ton to 75 million ton while rice production increased from 35 million ton to 89.5 million ton. This was due to the development of semi-dwarf varieties of wheat and rice.
      • Dwarf wheat: A dwarfing gene, Norin-10, was reported in Japan. American plant breeders produced single dwarf wheat. N. Borlaug of Mexico produced triple dwarf wheats, popularly known as Mexican wheats. These had high yield, resistance for lodging and common pathogens and pests, and smaller growth period. Sonora-64 and Lerma Rojo-64 were brought to India and modified through gamma mutations to make them the part of Indian agriculture. In 1963, many lines like Sonalika and Kalyan Sona were also selected as high yielding and disease resistant varieties.
      • Dwarf rice: A dwarfing gene, dee-geo- woo-gen, was reported in Taiwan. It was introduced in the rice varieties by IRRI, Philippines, in varieties IR-8 and IR-24. Taichung Native-1 developed from Taiwan Jaya and Ratna were developed in India.
    • Sugarcane: Saccharum barberi was originally grown in North India, but had poor sugar content and yield. Saccharum officinarum had higher sugar content and thicker stems but did not grow well in North India. These two species were crossed to obtain sugarcane varieties combining the desirable qualities of high sugar, high yield, thick stems, and ability to grow in the sugarcane belt of North India.
    • Millets: Hybrid bajara, jowar, and maize have been developed in India. From hybrid varieties, the development of several high yielding varieties resistant to water stress has been possible.

NEET Biology Notes For Strategies For Enhancement In Food Production Plant Breeding For Disease Resistance

Fungal, bacterial, viral, and nematode pathogens attack cultivated crops. Due to this, there is 20-30% loss in crop yield. In such situation, if the crops are made disease resistant, food pro- duction will increase and the use of fungicides and bactericides would be reduced.

Some Important Fungal Diseases of Economically Important Plants

  • Phycomycetes
    • Peronospora – Downy mildew
    • Pythium aphanidermatum – Damping off of seed- lings
    • Phytophthora infestans – Late blight of potato
    • Sclerospora graminicola – Green ear disease of bajra
  • Ascomycetes
    • Claviceps purpurea – Ergot of bajra
    • Erysiphe Powdery mildew
  • Basidiomycetes
    • Puccinia graminis tritici – Stem rust or black rust of wheat
    • Puccinia recondite – Leaf rust or brown rust of wheat
    • Ustilago hordei – Covered smut of barley
  • Deuteromycetes
    • Alternaria solani – Early blight of potato
    • Cercospora personata – Tikka disease of groundnut
    • Colletotrichum falcatum – Red rot of sugarcane 14. Fusarium udum – Wilt of arhar
    • Helminthosporium oryzae – Sesame leaf spot or brown leaf spot of rice

NEET Biology Stratagies For Enhancement In Food Production Some important bacterial diseases of economically important plants

NEET Biology Stratagies For Enhancement In Food Production Some important viral diseases of economically important plants

Methods of Breeding for Disease Resistance

Breeding is carried out either by conventional breeding techniques described earlier or by mutation breeding. The conventional method of breeding for disease resistance is hybridization and selection. The various sequential steps are as follows:

  • Screening germplasm for resistance sources
  • Hybridization of selected parents
  • Selection and evaluation of hybrids
  • Testing and release of new varieties

NEET Biology Stratagies For Enhancement In Food Production Some released crop varieties bred by hybridization and selection of disease

New varieties having these desirable characters can either be multiplied directly or can be used in breeding. Other breeding methods that are used are mutation, selection among soma- clonal variants, and genetic engineering.

Plant Breeding for Developing Resistance to Insect Pests

Insect and pest infections are two major causes of destruction of crop plants and crops. Insect resistance in host crop plants is due to morphological, biochemical, or physiological characters. For example, solid stem in wheat leads to non-preference by the stem sawfly; smooth leaved and nectarless cotton varieties do not attract bollworms; and low nitrogen, sugar, and high aspartic acid in maize develops resistance to maize stem.

NEET Biology Stratagies For Enhancement In Food Production Some released crop varieties bred by hybridization

The sources of resistance genes may be cultivated varieties, germplasm collections of the crop, or wild relatives of the crop.

Plant Breeding for Improved Food Quality

It is estimated that more than 840 million people in the world do not have adequate food to meet their daily requirements. Three billion people suffer from proteins, vitamins, and micronutrient deficiencies because they cannot afford to buy adequate vegetables, fruits, legumes, fish, and meat. Breeding of crops with higher levels of vitamins and minerals or higher protein and healthier fats is called biofortification.

Plant breeding is undertaken for improving the nutritional quality of plants. The objectives are as follows:

  • Protein content and quality
  • Oil content and quality
  • Vitamin content
  • Micronutrient and mineral content

Wheat variety with high protein content (Atlas 66) has been used as a donor for improving cultivated wheat.

Indian Agricultural Research Institute (TARO), New Delhi, has developed many vegetable crops that are rich in minerals and vitamins. For example, vitamin A enriched carrots, pump- kin, and spinach; vitamin C enriched bitter gourd, bathua, to- mato, mustard, and calcium; iron enriched spinach and bathua; and protein enriched beans (broad lablab and French and gar- den peas).

Breeding for Anti-Nutritional Factors

Anti-nutritional factors are compounds present in foods that have adverse effect on animal and human growth. Some exam- ples are as follows:

  • Glucosinolates are present in oils obtained from Brassica napus and are not liked by animals. Similarly, crude acid (long-chain saturated fatty acids) produces heart ailments.
  • A neurotoxin, cyanoalanine, present in khesari (Lathyrus sativus) produces muscular cramps and causes lathyrism (a type of paralysis).

Crops should be free from such anti-nutritional factors. Canola is a variety of rapeseed in which genes for glucosinolates and erucic acid have been deleted.

Single-Cell Proteins

Some microorganisms such as bacteria, blue green algae, yeasts, and filamentous algae are used as food. These are called single- cell proteins (SCP). These are processed to remove excess nu- cleic acid, e.g., Spirulina, Fusarium graminearum, Chldella, Methylophilus methylotropus (source of Pruteen; 250 g of this microorganism can be expected to produce 25 ton of protein), Scenedesmus.

Tissue Culture

Plant cells and organs can be cultured in vitro on a suitable medium. Haberlandt started the technique of plant tissue culture in 1902.

The culture medium can be liquid, semi-solid, or solid. It contains source of carbon and energy (sucrose), minerals, glycine, vitamins, and growth regulators (auxin such as 2-4 D and cytokinin such as BAP).

The plant part used for tissue culture is called explant. The explant and media are sterilized before culturing. Explants are sterilized by specific antimicrobial chemicals (surface sterilization) and vessels, and media instrument with steam, dry heat, or alcohol.

Callus Culture

A small piece of parenchymatous tissue is introduced over cul-ture medium in a tube or flask in dark at 200-25°C. Within 4-6 weeks, it forms actively growing irregular and undifferentiated mass called callus. It is divided into several small sections and is sub-cultured. Each piece is then allowed to “differentiate into plantlets by providing light and morphogenetic growth hormones.

Multiple Shoot Production

It is used for raising numerous pathogen-free copies of rare plants, hybrids, and sterile plants. A shoot tip or bud with 1-4 leaf primordia is sterilized and introduced over the cul- ture medium with high salt content and naphthalene acetic acid (NAA). At an interval of 4-6 weeks, the shoot tip is given cuts or shaken to form more buds. When new plants are required, the buds are transferred to low-salt culture medium devoid of NAA. Each bud gives rise to a small plantlet.

Suspension Culture

In this technique, an explant is suspended into liquid medium containing growth regulator and is constantly agitated at the speed of 100-250 rpm (revolutions per minute). Agitation serves the following three purposes:

  • Aeration of culture
  • Constant mixing of medium
  • Breakage of cell aggregates into smaller groups

Suspension cultures grow much faster than callus cultures. In both types of tissue cultures, with passage of time, cell/tis- sue dry matter increases and the level of nutrient decreases. To prevent the damage of newly-formed cells, parts of the cultures are regularly transferred to new culture vessels containing fresh media. This process is termed as sub-culturing.

Shoot Tip Culture or Production of Disease-Free Plants

Pathogen-free clones of plants can be obtained through shoot- tip culture because shoot apical meristem is usually free of pathogens (including virus) due to high concentration of auxins and rapid rate of cell division.. Apical meristem accompanied by 1-2 leaf primordia is taken. For this, the apical bud is steri- lized. The shoot tip is now placed over the culture medium-un- der aseptic conditions.

Somatic Embryo Regeneration

Somatic embryos are those that arise from somatic cells in tissue culture. The pattern of development of a somatic embryo proceeds through globular, heart-shaped, and torpedshaped stages and mimics the development of sexually produced embryos. Somatic embryo regeneration is induced by high con- centration of auxin. These embryos are also used to produce synthetic/artificial seeds by encapsulating them in alginate.

Embryo Culture

Embryo culture involves the exclusion of young embryo from seeds and their cultivation through tissue culture. Embryo culture has the following applications:

  • In embryo rescue: Interspecific hybrids are often sterile because of embryo mortality and seed collapse. In such cases, the hybrid embryo is excised from the female parent in early stage and is cultured, e.g., common bean (Phaseolus vulpris) and wild bean (P. augustissimus).
  • Embryo culture allows seeding development in plants whose seeds lack stored nutrients required for seedling growth, e.g., orchid.
  • It is also used in some rare plants such as makapunonuts.

Haploid Culture/Androgenic Haploid Culture/Pollen Grain Culture

Haploid culture technique was developed by Guha and Maheshwari (1964) in Datura innoxia. Floral buds which are very young and unopened are first sterilized in Clorox for 20-40 min. These are then opened to remove anthers. Anthers are introduced over culture medium. Within 4-6 weeks, each anther gives rise to a number of haploid embryoids. Normally haploid culture produces sterile haploid plants. Colchicine treatment results in chromosome doubling and produces homozygous diploids for each and every trait. Gynogenic haploids are also possible by using unfertilized ovules.

Winter wheat Jinghua-1 and rice Guan-18 are two important varieties that are produced by this and are now under cultivation.

Uses of Androgenic Haploid

  • It is useful in mutation breeding.
  • Androgenic haploid is pure for its characters.
  • Every gene can express in the plant.

Protoplast Fusion/Somatic Hybridization/Parasexual Hybridization

Protoplast fusion is the fusion of cells of two plants belonging to different varieties, species, and even genera. The cells are first treated with enzymes pectinase and cellulase.

These enzymes dissolve the cell walls and, as a result, naked protoplasts are produced. These protoplasts are fused by electrofusion (high-frequency alternating electric field with short current pulses) and chemofusion [through sodium nitrate or PEG (polyethyleneglycol)]. This results in hybrid protoplasts. The hybrid cell may have a synkaryon (single fused nucleus) or a heterokaryon (having two unfused nuclei).

The hybrid protoplast is called cytoplasmic hybrid or cybrid if one of its two nuclei gets degenerated. The first somatic hybrid was obtained by Carlson et. al. (1972) between Nicotiana glauca and N. langsdorfi species of tobacco. The intergeneric somatic hybrids are pomato (potato x tomato) and bomato (brinjal x tomato).

Applications of Tissue Culture

  • Tissue culture can be applied for crop improvement.
  • It can be applied for the rapid multiplication of desirable and rare plants.
  • It can be applied to obtain indefinite number of plants.
  • It can be applied to obtain virus-free plants from shoot арех.
  • Somaclonal variations: These variations are produced during tissue culture. Some of these may be useful and stable, e.g., better yield and quality, male sterility, early maturation, resistance to diseases and pests, etc. Significant variations that have been taken up in plant breeding are high protein content and resistance to late blight in potato, increased shelf life in tomato, resist- ance to rust and high temperature tolerance in wheat, resistance to tungro virus and leaf hopper in rice, short duration in sugarcane, etc.

NEET Biology Stratagies For Enhancement In Food Production Tissue Culture

 

NEET Biology Notes For Strategies For Enhancement In Food Production Assertion-Reasoning Questions

In the following questions, a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R).

  1. If both Assertion and Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion, then mark (1).
  2. If both Assertion and Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion, then mark (2).
  3. If Assertion is true but Reason is false, then mark (3).
  4. If both Assertion and Reason are false, then mark (4).

Question 1. Assertion: Bulls not selected for breeding are castrated when young and converted to bullocks.

Reason: They are the main source of animal drought power in India.

Answer. 2. If both Assertion and Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion, then mark (2).

Question 2. Assertion: Anthrax is caused by a bacterium.

Reason: Anthrax develops only in buffaloes and cannot be transferred to humans.

Answer. 3. If Assertion is true but Reason is false, then mark (3).

Question 3. Assertion: In anthrax, the animal dies due to lack of oxygen.

Reason: The anthrax bacterium uses up the oxygen carried by the animal blood.

Answer. 1. If both Assertion and Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion, then mark (1).

Question 4. Assertion: Cattle breeds can be improved by super ovulation and embryo transplantation.

Reason: Super ovulation in high milk yielding cows is induced by hormonal injection.

Answer. 2. If both Assertion and Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion, then mark (2).

Question 5. Assertion: Honey is an animal product produced by honey bee.

Reason: Honey contains only sugar, nothing else.

Answer. 3. If Assertion is true but Reason is false, then mark (3).

Question 6. Assertion: India ranks fifth in the world in catile population but figures poorly in milk production.

Reason: Buffaloes give more milk with higher fat and mineral contents than cows.

Answer. 2. If both Assertion and Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion, then mark (2).

Question 7. Assertion: Poultry farming has definite advantage over livestock rearing.

Reason: Poultry birds are easy to raise, can be acclimatized to a wide range of climatic conditions, have short lifespan, and are prolific breeders.

Answer. 1. If both Assertion and Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion, then mark (1).

Question 8. Assertion: Encephalomalacia, a disease of poultry, is caused by the protozoan Eimeria.

Reason: Encephalomalacia causes bloody diarrhea in poultry.

Answer. 4. If both Assertion and Reason are false, then mark (4).

Question 9. Assertion: Fish meal is a rich source of protein for cattle and poultry.

Reason: Fish meal is prepared from the non-edible parts of fishes such as tails, fins, and bones.

Answer. 2. If both Assertion and Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion, then mark (2).

Question 10. Assertion: Somatic hybrids may be used for the production of useful plants.

Reason: Genetic manipulation can be carried out more rapidly when plant cells are in protoplast state.

Answer. 1. If both Assertion and Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion, then mark (1).

Question 11. Assertion: Callus is obtained within 2-3 weeks.

Reason: Suspension culture grows much faster than callus culture.

Answer. 2. If both Assertion and Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion, then mark (2).

Question 12. Assertion: Genetic improvement of the crop is plant breeding.

Reason: It creates desired plant types that are better suited for cultivation.

Answer. 2. If both Assertion and Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion, then mark (2).

Question 13. Assertion: The phase between 1960-1970 is often called the Green Revolution.

Reason: The development of several high yielding varieties of wheat and rice in 1960’s increased yields per unit area.

Answer. 1. If both Assertion and Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion, then mark (1).

Question 14. Assertion: The maize having high nitrogen, sugar, and aspartic acid is resistant to pest.

Reason: It develops resistance to maize root borers.

Answer. 4. If both Assertion and Reason are false, then mark (4).

NEET Biology Multiple Choice Questions – Strategies For Enhancement In Food Production

NEET Biology Strategies For Enhancement In Food Production Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. Babesia bigemina causes

  1. Rhinderpest
  2. Tick fever
  3. Anthrax
  4. Diarrhea

Answer. 2. Tick fever

Question 2. A viral disease of poultry is

  1. Coryza
  2. New castle disease
  3. Pasteurellosis
  4. Salmonellosis

Answer. 2. New castle disease

Question 3. Bull semen for artificial insemination is stored in

  1. Ice
  2. Liquid carbon dioxide
  3. Liquid oxygen
  4. Liquid nitrogen

Answer. 4. Liquid nitrogen

Question 4. Zebu is

  1. Bos indicus
  2. Gallus gallus
  3. Bubalus bubalus
  4. Bombyx mori

Answer. 1. Bos indicus

Question 5. A disease of poultry is

  1. Anthrax
  2. Ranikhet
  3. Foot and mouth disease
  4. Pébrine

Answer. 2. Ranikhet

Question 6. One of the earliest animals to be domesticated was

  1. Cow
  2. Sheep
  3. Dog
  4. Elephant

Answer. 3. Dog

” strategies for enhancement in food production ncert”

Question 7. The approximate number of cattle breeds in India is

  1. 6
  2. 16
  3. 12
  4. 26

Answer. 4. 26

Question 8. Jaffrabadi is a breed of

  1. Sheep
  2. Cattle
  3. Horse
  4. Buffalo

Answer. 4. Buffalo

Question 9. Lactation in sterile cows is induced by

  1. Gonadotropin
  2. Folic acid
  3. Oxytocin
  4. Stilbesterol

Answer. 4. Stilbesterol

Question 10. A draught breed of cattle is

  1. Gir
  2. Malvi
  3. Deoni
  4. Kankrej

Answer. 2. Malvi

Question 11. Surrogate mother is used for

  1. Future mother with transplanted embryo
  2. Artificial insemination
  3. Induction of lactation
  4. Artificially inseminated female

Answer. 1. Future mother with transplanted embryo

Question 12. National Dairy Research Institute is situated in

  1. Lucknow
  2. Patna
  3. Karnal
  4. Ludhiana

Answer. 3. Karnal

Question 13. Which of the following country is the lowest in milk yield per cow?

  1. India
  2. UK
  3. Switzerland
  4. Netherlands

Answer. 1. India

Question 14. Draught breeds produce

  1. Good milk producing cows
  2. Good working bullocks
  3. Both (1) and (2)
  4. General utility cattle

Answer. 2. Good working bullocks

Question 15. Super ovulation and embryo transplantation are meant for improving

  1. Poultry
  2. Human race
  3. Livestock
  4. Plants

Answer. 3. Livestock

Question 16. High milk-yielding varieties of cows are obtained by

  1. Artificial insemination
  2. Super ovulation
  3. Use of surrogate mothers
  4. All of these

Answer. 4. All of these

Question 17. MOET is a method of

  1. Fish cultivation
  2. Cloning in sheep
  3. Hybridization in cattles
  4. Birth control in humans

Answer. 3. Hybridization in cattles

Question 18. Gestation period for buffalo is

  1. 9 months
  2. 14 months
  3. 10 months
  4. 21-22 months

Answer. 3. 10 months

Question 19. The best milk breed in the world is

  1. Sahiwal
  2. Deani
  3. Holstein Friesian
  4. Sindhi

Answer. 3. Holstein Friesian

Question 20. The disease rinderpest is also called

  1. Blue tongue
  2. Cattle plague
  3. Ring worm
  4. Both (1) and (3)

Answer. 2. Cattle plague

Question 21. Which of the following breed of buffaloes is mostly demanded?

  1. Surti
  2. Murrah
  3. Jaffrabadi
  4. Bhadawari

Answer. 2. Murrah

Question 22. To increase the milk yield, Indian cows are cross-bred with European breeds which are

  1. Holstein
  2. Brown Swiss
  3. Red Dane
  4. All of these

Answer. 4. All of these

Question 23. Lohi is a breed of

  1. Goat
  2. Sheep
  3. Horse
  4. Buffalo

Answer. 2. Sheep

Question 24. Which of the following statement is correct for honey bees?

  1. Queen is sterile haploid female.
  2. Workers are diploid males and females.
  3. Bee hive has four types of bees.
  4. Drones are haploid fertile males.

Answer. 4. Drones are haploid fertile males.

Question 25. Apis dorsata refers to

  1. Little bee
  2. Indian bee
  3. Rock bee
  4. European bee

Answer. 3. Rock bee

Question 26. A queen honey bee lays eggs of

  1. One type from which all castes develop
  2. Two types, one forming queen and workers and second forming drones
  3. Three types forming queen, drones, and workers
  4. Unfertilized eggs die while fertilized ones form all castes

Answer. 2. Two types, one forming queen and workers and second forming drones

Question 27. Who amongst the following got a noble prize for decoding the language of “bee dances”?

  1. Trembley
  2. Wilson
  3. Karl Von Frish
  4. Morgan

Answer. 3. Karl Von Frish

Question 28. Honey bees exhibit a dance to communicate the location of food. It is

  1. Break-dance
  2. Wagging dance
  3. Top dance
  4. Round and wagging dance

Answer. 4. Round and wagging dance

Question 29. A colony of honey bee consists of

  1. One queen and a few drones
  2. One queen, 10-100 drones, and 20,000-60,000 workers
  3. Two queens, 5-10 drones, and 20,000 workers
  4. No queen, 10-20 drones, and 60,000 workers

Answer. 2. One queen, 10-100 drones, and 20,000-60,000 workers

Question 30. Honey is

  1. Alkaline
  2. Acidic
  3. Almost neutral
  4. Basic after some days

Answer. 3. Almost neutral

Question 31. Which among the following is the real product of honey bee?

  1. Honey
  2. Pollen
  3. Bee wax
  4. Propolis

Answer. 3. Bee wax

Question 32. Worker bees are

  1. Fertile males
  2. Fertile females
  3. Sterile females
  4. Sterile males

Answer. 3. Sterile females

Question 33. Rearing of bees is

  1. Horticulture
  2. Apiary
  3. Apiculture
  4. Poultry

Answer. 3. Apiary

Question 34. Honey mainly consists of

  1. Monosaccharides
  2. Disaccharides
  3. Polysaccharides
  4. Fats

Answer. 1. Monosaccharides

Question 35. Wax gland occurs in which honey bee?

  1. Queen
  2. Drones
  3. Workers
  4. Queen and workers

Answer. 3. Workers

Question 36. What is wrong about bee colony?

  1. Sex determination is based on haplodiploidy.
  2. Female dominated society.
  3. Domesticated species are A. indica and A. mellifera.
  4. Fertilized eggs develop into sterile females only.

Answer. 4. Fertilized eggs develop into sterile females only.

Question 37. The young chickens raised specifically for meat are called

  1. Broilers
  2. Cockerels
  3. Pellets
  4. Hen

Answer. 1. Broilers

Question 38. Ranikhet disease is connected with

  1. Honey bee
  2. Hens
  3. Fishes
  4. Pigs

Answer. 2. Hens

Question 39. Induced breeding is carried out in case of

  1. Pisciculture
  2. Apiculture
  3. Sericulture
  4. Lacculture

Answer. 1. Pisciculture

Question 40. The most common species of Indian jungle fowl is

  1. Gallus lafayetti
  2. Gallus sonneratti
  3. Gallus gallus
  4. Plymouth rock

Answer. 3. Gallus gallus

Question 41. Some improved cross-breed strains of poultry birds are

  1. HH-260
  2. IBL-80
  3. B-77
  4. All of these

Answer. 4. All of these

Question 42. Which amongst the following indigenous fowls is used in cock fighting and is called as Indian game?

  1. Aseel
  2. Busra
  3. Chittagong
  4. Ghagus

Answer. 1. Aseel

Question 43. Exotic breeds popularly used in our country are

  1. White Leghorn and Rhode Island Red
  2. Rhode Island Red and Andalusian
  3. Plymouth Rock and Andalusian
  4. White Leghom and Andalusian

Answer. 1. White Leghorn and Rhode Island Red

Question 44. Three carp fishes, Catla, Labeo, and Cirrhina, can be grown together in the same pond more economically as they have

  1. Positive interactions
  2. Commensalism
  3. Symbiosis
  4. No competition for food

Answer. 4. No competition for food

Question 45. The best aquarium is located at

  1. Vishakhapatnam
  2. Chennai
  3. Tarapur, Mumbai
  4. ZSI, Kolkata

Answer. 3. Tarapur, Mumbai

Question 46. Inland fisheries are

  1. Deep sea fishing
  2. Capturing fishes from sea coast
  3. Raising and capturing fishes in fresh water
  4. Oil extraction from fish

Answer. 3. Raising and capturing fishes in fresh water

Question 47. Pisciculture is the rearing and production of

  1. Fishes
  2. Birds
  3. Reptiles
  4. Wool yielding animals

Answer. 1. Fishes

Question 48. Crustacean fishery is connected with the exploitation of

  1. Oysters and crabs
  2. Mussels and squids
  3. Shells and cuttle fish
  4. Lobster and prawn

Answer. 4. Lobster and prawn

Question 49. Ponds are used for rearing

  1. Spawns
  2. Fingerlings
  3. Frils
  4. Juveniles

Answer. 2. Fingerlings

Question 50. VHS (viral hemorrhagic septicemia) is a well known infectious disease of

  1. Honey bees
  2. Silk worm
  3. Fishes
  4. Poultry birds

Answer. 3. Fishes

Question 51. Tick mark the incorrect match with respect to infectious diseases:

  1. Coryza-Poultry birds
  2. Pébrine-Silk worm
  3. IPN (infectious pancreatic necrosis)-Fishes
  4. Muscardine-Honey bees

Answer. 4. Muscardine-Honey bees

Question 52. Fish meat is better than the meat of other animals because it contains more

  1. Water
  2. Fat
  3. Oil
  4. Proteins

Answer. 4. Proteins

” class 12 biology ch 9 notes”

Question 53. The latest technique to produce the child is GIFT. The full form is

  1. Gametic internal fertilization and transfer
  2. Gametic intra fallopian transfer
  3. Gametic internal fallopian transfer
  4. General internal fallopian transfer

Answer. 2. Gametic intra fallopian transfer

Question 54. Which one is a fungal disease in silkworm?

  1. Flacherie
  2. Maggot disease
  3. Muscardine
  4. None of these

Answer. 3. Muscardine

Question 55. Hybrid breed of cattle is

  1. Sunandini
  2. Holstein
  3. Brown Swiss
  4. Kankrej

Answer. 1. Sunandini

Question 56. Livestock refers to

  1. Pet animals
  2. Poultry and pet animals
  3. Domestic animals which are kept for use or profit
  4. Sheep and goat only

Answer. 3. Domestic animals which are kept for use or profit

Question 57. Cattle breeds in India are classified into

  1. Milch and draught breeds
  2. Draught and general utility breed
  3. Milch, draught, and general utility breeds
  4. General utility and milch breeds

Answer. 3. Milch, draught, and general utility breeds

Question 58. Tick mark the incorrect match:

  1. Gir, Red Sindhi, and Deoni-Milch breeds
  2. Malvi, Nagari, and Halliker-Draught breeds
  3. Haryana, Ongole, and Kankrej-Draught breeds
  4. Tharparkar, Kankraj, and Ongole-General utility breeds

Answer. 3. Haryana, Ongole, and Kankrej-Draught breeds

Question 59. An improved variety of cattle produced by controlled breeding in our country is

  1. Jersey
  2. Ayrshire
  3. Brown Swiss-Sahiwal
  4. Red Dane

Answer. 3. Brown Swiss-Sahiwal

Question 60. Which of the following is a disease-resistant high-yielding breed of poultry developed in Karnataka?

  1. Aseel
  2. White leghorn
  3. Giriraja
  4. Plymouth rock

Answer. 1. Aseel

Question 61. The scientific name of zebu is

  1. Bos indicus
  2. Bombyx mori
  3. Bubalus bubalus
  4. Gallus gallus

Answer. 1. Bos indicus

Question 62. Fish introduced in India by foreigners is

  1. Labeo rohita
  2. Pomphret
  3. Clarius
  4. Mystus singhala

Answer. 2. Pomphret

Question 63. New strains of bird flu virus originate in the Far East because

  1. They are overpopulated areas
  2. They lack adequate sanitation
  3. The various hosts (birds, pigs, and ducks) live in close proximity of man
  4. They arise due to mutation

Answer. 3. The various hosts (birds, pigs, and ducks) live in close proximity of man

Question 64. Avian pneumonia is also called

  1. Bird flu
  2. Newcastle’s disease (Ranikhet disease)
  3. Pullorum
  4. Coccidiosis

Answer. 2. Newcastle’s disease (Ranikhet disease)

Question 65. Babesia species causes tick fever in which of the following?

A. Cattle (cow and buffalo)

B. Dogs

C.Birds

D. Man

  1. (A) only
  2. (A) and (B)
  3. (A), (B), and (C)
  4. (A), (B), (C), and (D)

Answer. 4. (A), (B), (C), and (D)

Question 66. Which of the following animal diseases is caused by a virus?

  1. Anthrax
  2. Rinderpest
  3. Tick fever
  4. Coccidiosis

Answer. 2. Rinderpest

Question 67. Following are the steps in the MOET program for herd improvement, in which a cow has been administered hormones with FSH-like activity. What is the correct sequence of steps from A to D?

A. Instead of one egg which it normally produces per cycle, the female cow with hormones injected in it produces 6 to 8 eggs.

B. Transferred to surrogate mother.

C. It is either mated with elite bull or is artificially inseminated.

D. Fertilized eggs at 8-32 celled stage are recovered non-surgically.

  1. (A), (C), (D), (B)
  2. (C), (A), (B), (D)
  3. (C), (A), (D), (B)
  4. (A), (C), (B), (D)

Answer. 1. (A), (C), (D), (B)

Question 68. In which part of the body honey bee keeps the nectar for some time?

  1. Crop
  2. Mouth
  3. Gizzard
  4. Pollen basket

Answer. 1. Crop

Question 69. Honey has a high content of

  1. Levulose
  2. Glucose
  3. Sucrose
  4. Fructose

Answer. 1. Levulose

” class 12 biology chapter 9 notes”

Question 70. The term “livestock” means

  1. Domestic animals
  2. Poultry animals
  3. Pet animals
  4. Both (2) and (3)

Answer. 1. Domestic animals

Question 71. Worker honey bee lives for

  1. One week
  2. Five weeks
  3. Ten weeks
  4. Fifteen days

Answer. 2. Five weeks

Question 72. The study of fishes is called

  1. Ornithology
  2. Herpetology
  3. Ichthyology
  4. Conchology

Answer. 3. Ichthyology

Question 73. Fish culture is called

  1. Pisciculture
  2. Aquaculture
  3. Apiculture
  4. Inland fisheries

Answer. 1. Pisciculture

Question 74. Which of the following is a freshwater edible fish?

  1. Ele
  2. Rohu
  3. Hilsa
  4. Sardine

Answer. 2. Rohu

Question 75. Inland fisheries means the culturing of fishes in

  1. Sea
  2. Space
  3. Fresh water
  4. Marine water

Answer. 3. Fresh water

Question 76. Which of the following is a marine fish?

  1. Eel
  2. Catla
  3. Rohu
  4. Magur

Answer. 1. Eel

Question 77. If a honey bee is conveying an information by round dance, then the distance of source will be about

  1. 1000 m
  2. 50 m
  3. 2000 m
  4. 150 m

Answer. 2. 50 m

Question 78. Fish rohu widely used for high biological values is rich in

  1. Thymine, creatine, and tryosine
  2. Lecithin and cholesterol
  3. Vitamins B, C, D, and E
  4. All of the above

Answer. 4. All of the above

Question 79. Honey bee is of the greatest use to man due to which reason?

  1. We get honey from it.
  2. Helps in cross-pollination.
  3. Because of medicinal value.
  4. Entertains.

Answer. 2. Helps in cross-pollination.

Question 80. Inland fisheries is

  1. Deep sea fishing
  2. Capturing fishes from sea coast
  3. Raising and capturing fishes in fresh water
  4. Oil extraction from fish

Answer. 3. Raising and capturing fishes in fresh water

Question 81. In poultry, “broiler finish mash” is fed to the chicks from _________ weeks.

  1. 1 to 6
  2. 7 to 10
  3. 10 to 15
  4. 15 to 20

Answer. 1. 1 to 6

Question 82. Milk yield of cattle in India is low due to

  1. Inadequate food
  2. Inferior breed
  3. Both of these
  4. None of these

Answer. 3. Both of these

Question 83. Whose milk is nutritionally superior?

  1. Cow
  2. Camel
  3. Goat
  4. Buffalo

Answer. 4. Buffalo

Question 84. Fish meat is considered to be good because

  1. It has more proteins
  2. It has more fats
  3. It has lesser carbohydrates
  4. None of the above

Answer. 1. It has more proteins

Question 85. Frieswal is a cross-breed of

  1. Brown Swiss and Sahiwal
  2. Tharparkar and Holstein-Friesian
  3. Holstein-Friesian x Sahiwal
  4. Jersey Sahiwal

Answer. 3. Holstein-Friesian x Sahiwal

Question 86. In poultry, coccidiosis is caused by

  1. Virus
  2. Fungus
  3. Helminth parasite
  4. Protozoan

Answer. 4. Protozoan

Question 87. Animal husbandry is

  1. Agricultural practice of breeding and raising the livestock
  2. Dealing with care and breeding of livestock such as buffaloes, cows, pigs, horses, sheep, and goat.
  3. A vital skill for farmers and is as much science as it is an art
  4. All of these

Answer. 4. All of these

Question 88. Hisardale, a new breed of sheep developed in Punjab by crossing Bikaneri ewes and Marino rams, is an example of

  1. Outcrossing
  2. Cross-breeding
  3. Interspecific hybridization
  4. Outbreeding

Answer. 2. Cross-breeding

Question 89. Inbreeding depression can be overcome by

  1. Mating of animals of same breed, but having no common ancestors on either side of their pedigree upto 4-6 generations
  2. Mating males of one breed with superior females of another breed
  3. Interspecific hybridization
  4. All of these

Answer. 1. Mating of animals of same breed, but having no common ancestors on either side of their pedigree upto 4-6 generations

Question 90. The most common species of honey bee reared in hives is

  1. Apis florea
  2. Apis dorsata
  3. Apis indica
  4. Apis mellifera

Answer. 3. Apis indica

Question 91. Which of the following industry is devoted to the catching, processing, or selling of fish, shellfish, or other aquatic animals?

  1. Aquaculture
  2. Inland fishery
  3. Fishery
  4. Pisciculture

Answer. 3. Fishery

Question 92. Which of the following are edible marine water fishes?

  1. Catla, Rohu, Clarias
  2. Hilsa, Mackerels, Pompfrets
  3. Heteropneustes, Wallago, Catla
  4. Labeo, Calbasu, Singhi

Answer. 2. Hilsa, Mackerels, Pompfrets

Question 93. Which of the following points are important for successful bee-keeping?

  1. Knowledge of the nature and habits of bees
  2. Catching and hiving swarms
  3. Management of bee-hives during different seasons
  4. All of these

Answer. 4. All of these

Question 94. Isinglass in used for

  1. Production of insulin
  2. Feeding cattle, pig, and poultry
  3. Preparation of paints and varnishes
  4. Clarification of vinegar, wines, and beer

Answer. 4. Clarification of vinegar, wines, and beer

Question 95. Cod liver oil is rich in

  1. Vitamin 8
  2. Vitamin K
  3. Vitamins A and D
  4. Vitamin C

Answer. 3. Vitamins A and D

Question 96. Smoking is used as a techniques of

  1. Fish preservation
  2. Mushroom cultivation
  3. Crystallization of sugar
  4. Crop harvesting

Answer. 1. Fish preservation

Question 97. The term aquaculture means

  1. Inland fisheries
  2. Aspergillosis
  3. Marine fisheries
  4. Both (1) and (3)

Answer. 4. Both (1) and (3)

Question 98. Which of the following is not true?

  1. Fish meal is rich source of protein for cattle and poultry.
  2. Fish meal is produced from the non-edible parts of fishes.
  3. Silver revolution is increase in fish production.
  4. Shagreen is the skin of shark.

Answer. 3. Silver revolution is increase in fish production.

Question 99. Fish flour is rich in

  1. Fat
  2. Proteins
  3. Vitamins
  4. Minerals

Answer. 2. Proteins

Question 100. An improved variety is

  1. Always superior to the other existing varieties
  2. Always inferior to the other existing varieties
  3. May be superior to the other existing varieties
  4. More than one answer is correct

Answer. 1. Always superior to the other existing varieties

Question 101. A pure line is obtained through

  1. Mass selection
  2. Clonal selection
  3. Domestication
  4. Inbreeding

Answer. 4. Inbreeding

Question 102. Pure line variety of wheat is

  1. Sonara 63
  2. Sonara 64
  3. HUW 468
  4. All of these

Answer. 3. HUW 468

Question 103. Wheat variety which was earlier resistant to leaf rust disease but now has become susceptible to the same is known as

  1. Kalyan Sona
  2. Lerma Rojo
  3. Sonara 64
  4. Sarbati

Answer. 1. Kalyan Sona

Question 104. Picking up cross-pollinating plants with superior phenotype for further propagation is

  1. Mass selection
  2. Pure line selection
  3. Hybrid vigor
  4. Introduction

Answer. 1. Mass selection

Question 105. Emasculation (removal of anthem) is required for

  1. Pure lines
  2. Selective hybridization
  3. Self-pollination
  4. Inbreeding

Answer. 2. Selective hybridization

Question 106. Which was first Indian dwarf amber grained variety of wheat made from Sonora 64 by rays?

  1. Sonalika
  2. Sharbati Sonora
  3. Kalyan Sona
  4. HUW-468

Answer. 2. Sharbati Sonora

Question 107. The evaluation of a new variety in India is done by

  1. IARI
  2. IVRI
  3. ICAR
  4. RRI

Answer. 3. ICAR

Question 108. Gene responsible for dwarfing in wheat is

  1. Dee-geo-woo-gen
  2. Norin-10
  3. Cry gene
  4. Nod gene

Answer. 2. Norin-10

Question 109. The crop in which hybrid vigor has been utilized the most is

  1. Rice
  2. Maize
  3. Barley
  4. Oat

Answer. 2. Maize

Question 110. Which of the following is a chemical mutagen?

  1. Ethyl methane sulfonate and X rays
  2. Sodium azide and UV rays
  3. Ethyl methane sulfonate and sodium azide
  4. X rays, gamma rays, and UV rays

Answer. 3. Ethyl methane sulfonate and sodium azide

Question 111. Scented basmati rice is the contribution of

  1. Dr. Borlaug
  2. Dr. B.P. Paul
  3. Dr. M.S. Swaminathan
  4. Dr. A.K. Singh

Answer. 3. Dr. M.S. Swaminathan

Question 112. Which of the following is an example of intergeneric hybridization?

  1. Triticale
  2. Raphanobrassica
  3. Gossypium hirsutum
  4. More than one is correct

Answer. 4. More than one is correct

Question 113. The dwarf wheat varieties brought from Mexico to India were

  1. Sonalika
  2. Sharbati Sonara and Pusa Lerma
  3. Sonara-64 and Lerma Rojo-64
  4. Sonara-64 and Sonalika

Answer. 3. Sonara-64 and Lerma Rojo-64

Question 114. Maize is rich in

  1. Thiamine
  2. Lysine
  3. Tryptophan
  4. Alanine

Answer. 1. Thiamine

Question 115. Bread wheat is

  1. Diploid
  2. Tetraploid
  3. Hexaploid
  4. Triploid

Answer. 3. Hexaploid

Question 116. Antinutritional factor neurotoxic cyanoalanine is found in

  1. Brassica oleracea
  2. Almond
  3. Seeds of khesari
  4. Kidney bean

Answer. 3. Seeds of khesari

Question 117. Atlas 66 variety of wheat was developed for

  1. High protein content
  2. Scented grains
  3. Checking grassy stunt virus
  4. Vitamin C

Answer. 1. High protein content

Question 118. Viruses enter their host through

  1. Wounds made by insect vectors
  2. Natural openings
  3. Direct penetration
  4. Wounds made mechanically or by insect vectors

Answer. 3. Direct penetration

Question 119. Late blight of potato is caused by the fungus

  1. Fusarium udum
  2. Phytophthora infestans
  3. Plasmopara viticola
  4. Alternaria solani

Answer. 2. Phytophthora infestans

Question 120. Red rot of sugarcane is caused by

  1. Anguina tritici
  2. Meloidogyne incognita
  3. Colletotrichum falcatum
  4. Sugarcane mosaic virus

Answer. 3. Colletotrichum falcatum

Question 121. Turnip mosaic and black rot of crucifers are due to

  1. Viruses and bacteria, respectively
  2. Bacteria and viruses, respectively
  3. Bacteria and nematodes, respectively
  4. Virus and nematodes, respectively

Answer. 1. Viruses and bacteria, respectively

Question 122. Cereals and millets are mainly deficient in which amino acid?

  1. Sulfur-containing amino acids-methionine and cysteine
  2. Lysine
  3. Tryptophan
  4. Both (2) and (3)

Answer. 4. Both (2) and (3)

Question 123. The use of colchicines is involved in the production of

  1. Somaclonal variation
  2. Haploids
  3. Polyploids
  4. Hybrids

Answer. 3. Polyploids

Question 124. An important germplasm-storing center in India is

  1. CDRI
  2. FRI
  3. ICRISAT
  4. NEERI

Answer. 3. ICRISAT

Question 125. Clonal selection for crop improvement is done in

  1. Aruna and NP 836
  2. PV-18 and Kalyan Sona
  3. HUW-468 and Atomita-2
  4. Kufri Sated potato and Bombay Navel

Answer. 4. Kufri Sated potato and Bombay Navel

Question 126. The highest yielding grain crop of the world is

  1. Maize
  2. Barley
  3. Wheat
  4. Rice

Answer. 1. Maize

Question 127. Tissue culture is recommended for

  1. Production of virus-free plants
  2. Induction of polyploidy
  3. Phytoremediation
  4. Gene cloning

Answer. 1. Production of virus-free plants

Question 128. Which one of the following is a natural culture media?

  1. Agar-agar
  2. Coconut milk
  3. Corn extract
  4. All of these

Answer. 2. Coconut milk

Question 129. An embryoid is

  1. Somatic embryo developed in culture
  2. A microscopic embryo
  3. A monozygotic embryo formed in in vitro culture
  4. Haploid embryo

Answer. 1. Somatic embryo developed in culture

Question 130. Embryo culture is used for

  1. Establishing suspension culture
  2. Recovery of interspecific hybrids
  3. Somatic hybridization
  4. Haploid production

Answer. 2. Recovery of interspecific hybrids

Question 131. Protoplasts of two different cells can be made with the help of

  1. Polyethylene glycol (PEG)
  2. Calcium chloride
  3. Sodium bicarbonate
  4. HCI

Answer. 1. Polyethylene glycol (PEG)

Question 132. Protoplast fusion performs

  1. Rapid growth of offspring
  2. Somatic hybridization
  3. Hybridization
  4. Acclimatization

Answer. 2. Somatic hybridization

Question 133. A technique of androgenic haploid formation was developed by

  1. Carlson et. al.
  2. Guha and Maheshwari
  3. Halperin and Wetherell
  4. Steward et. al.

Answer. 2. Guha and Maheshwari

Question 134. An example of a somaclonal variation is

  1. Bhikohin dye
  2. Short crop duration in sugarcane
  3. Male sterility
  4. White rust resistance in crucifers

Answer. 2. Short crop duration in sugarcane

Question 135. Cybrid is a result of

  1. Fusion of cytoplasm and nuclei of the two somatic cells
  2. Fusion of cytoplasm of two somatic cells but the nuclei remain unfused
  3. Fusion of cytoplasm of two somatic cells, but the nucleus of one cell persists and the nucleus of the second cell degenerates
  4. Fusion of cytoplasm of two somatic cells, but one part of the nucleus of one cell fuses with the entire nucleus of the second cell

Answer. 3. Fusion of cytoplasm of two somatic cells, but the nucleus of one cell persists and the nucleus of the second cell degenerates

Question 136. Perfect homozygous individuals are produced by

  1. Meristem culture
  2. Anther culture
  3. Protoplast culture
  4. Somatic hybridization

Answer. 2. Anther culture

Question 137. Bomato is an example of

  1. Parasexual hybrid
  2. Interspecific hybrid
  3. Sexual hybrid
  4. Intrageneric hybrid

Answer. 1. Parasexual hybrid

Question 138. SOP has to be processed to remove excess of

  1. Proteins
  2. Nucleic acids
  3. Minerals
  4. Carbohydrates

Answer. 2. Nucleic acids

Question 139. Which one of the following is not an improved variety of flat bean?

  1. Pusa Sem 2
  2. Pusa Sem 3
  3. Pusa Sawani
  4. Both (1) and (2)

Answer. 3. Pusa Sawani

Question 140. Nagpuri buffalo is

  1. Milker
  2. Drought cattle
  3. Dual purpose
  4. Grazer

Answer. 1. Milker

Question 141. To increase milk yield, cow is given

  1. Sorbitol
  2. Stilbesterol
  3. Prolactin
  4. Gonadotrophin

Answer. 2. Stilbesterol

Question 142. The term aquaculture means

  1. Inland fisheries
  2. Aspergillosis
  3. Marine fisheries
  4. Both (1) and (3)

Answer. 4. Both (1) and (3)

Question 143. Fishes reared in the cultured fishery in India are

  1. Salmon and Rohu
  2. Salmon and Catla
  3. Catla and Magur
  4. Rohu and Catla

Answer. 4. Rohu and Catla

Question 144. The best milk breed in the world is

  1. Chittagong
  2. Deoni
  3. Holstein-Friesian
  4. Sindhi

Answer. 3. Holstein-Friesian

Question 145. Which one of the following is a disease of poultry?

  1. Anthrax
  2. Pebrine disease
  3. Ranikhet disease
  4. Foot and mouth disease

Answer. 3. Ranikhet disease

Question 146. The yellow-colored milk secreted by cattle soon after the birth of a calf is called

  1. Chyme
  2. Chyle
  3. Cholesterol
  4. Colostrum

Answer. 4. Colostrum

Question 147. Bee keeping is known as

  1. Pearl culture
  2. Pisciculture
  3. Sericulture
  4. Apiculture

Answer. 4. Apiculture

Question 148. The culturable fishes should

  1. Have the ability to feed on natural as well as artificial food diet
  2. Be able to tolerate a sudden change in climatic condition
  3. Be omnivorous in nature
  4. Be slow growing

Answer. 2. Be able to tolerate a sudden change in climatic condition

Question 149. Honey that has a high concentration of sugar does not decay because

  1. It contains natural antioxidants that prevent bacterial attack
  2. Bacteria cannot survive in an active state in a solution of high osmotic strength as water is drawn out of honey
  3. In honey, bacteria are totally deprived of oxygen
  4. None of the above

Answer. 1. It contains natural antioxidants that prevent bacterial attack

Question 150. The most commonly maintained species of bee by bee-keepers is

  1. Apis mellifera
  2. Apis dorsata
  3. Apis indica
  4. Apis florea

Answer. 1. Apis mellifera

Question 151. Which statement is correct?

  1. A. indica is the largest wild honey bee.
  2. Wax is the waste material of honey bee.
  3. C.V. Fries discovered the transmission methods in honey bee.
  4. The drone of honey bee is diploid.

Answer. 2. Wax is the waste material of honey bee.

Question 152. Which one of the following is a viral disease of poultry?

  1. Coryza
  2. Newcastle disease
  3. Pasteurellosis
  4. Salmonellosis

Answer. 2. Newcastle disease

Question 153. To yield milk, cow is given

  1. Stilbestrol
  2. Sorbitol
  3. Gonadotropin
  4. Prolactin

Answer. 4. Prolactin

Question 154. Pure line breed refers to

  1. Heterozygosity only
  2. Heterozygosity and linkage
  3. Homozygosity only
  4. Homozygosity and self-assortment

Answer. 3. Homozygosity only

Question 155. Cattle fed with spoilt hay of sweet clover which contains dicumarol

  1. Are healthier due to a good diet
  2. Catch infections easily
  3. May suffer from vitamin K deficiency and prolonged bleeding
  4. May suffer from beriberi due to the deficiency of vitamin B

Answer. 3. May suffer from vitamin K deficiency and prolonged bleeding

Question 156. Drones in a colony of honey bee originate by

  1. Thelotoky
  2. Cyclic parthenogenesis
  3. Arrhenotoky
  4. Diploid parthenogenesis

Answer. 3. Arrhenotoky

Question 157. In poultry industry, the production of hatching eggs is more expensive than the production of market eggs mainly because

  1. The cost of males and their depreciation in value is high
  2. The number of eggs produced by hatchery flock is to be sold only as market eggs
  3. Mortality among females is usually lower when they are mated with males
  4. Some of the eggs produced by hatchery flocks are not acceptable for incubation

Answer. 4. Some of the eggs produced by hatchery flocks are not acceptable for incubation

Question 158. In India, which of the following species of honey bee is reared in artificial hives?

  1. Apis indica
  2. Apis florea
  3. Apis dorsata
  4. None of these

Answer. 1. Apis indica

Question 159. A fungal disease of the poultry is

  1. Coccidioss
  2. Coryza
  3. Moniliasis
  4. Marck’s disease

Answer. 3. Moniliasis

Question 160. In a colony of honey bee family, there are

  1. Lots of workers, one drone, one queen
  2. Lots of workers, few drones, one queen
  3. Few workers, few drones, one queen
  4. Lots of workers, lots of drones, one queen

Answer. 2. Lots of workers, few drones, one queen

Question 161. Coccidiosis in poultry is caused by

  1. Virus
  2. Protozoa
  3. Nematoda
  4. Bacteria

Answer. 2. Protozoa

Question 162. The best milk breed in the world is

  1. Chittagong
  2. Deoni
  3. Holstein-Friesian
  4. Sindhi

Answer. 3. Holstein-Friesian

Question 163. Inland fisheries is

  1. In freshwater
  2. Fishing in island
  3. Fish culture in pond
  4. Fishing inside water

Answer. 1. In freshwater

Question 164. The drug used for de-worming in poultry is

  1. Antihistamine
  2. Antiviral
  3. Antihelminthic
  4. Antibiotic

Answer. 3. Antihelminthic

Question 165. High milk yielding cross-breed, the Frieswal cow, is a product of

  1. Friesian and Sahiwal
  2. Holstein and Tharpaikar
  3. Brown Swiss and Sahiwal
  4. Brown Swiss and Red Sindhi

Answer. 1. Friesian and Sahiwal

Question 166. Choose the minor carp from the following:

  1. Labeo bata
  2. Labeo calbasu
  3. Cyprinus carpio
  4. Ctenopharyngodon idella

Answer. 1. Labeo bata

NEET Biology Notes – Respiration In Plants

NEET Biology Notes  Respiration In Plants Cellular Respiration

Cellular respiration (the term given by Dutrochet) is essentially a catabolic process, that involves the biological oxidation of organic molecules, and results in the release of energy in the form of ATP. ATP (adenosine triphosphate) is a derivative of AMP (adenosine monophosphate) to which two additional phosphate groups are attached through an anhydride linkage. The two bonds are indicated by the symbol (-). When the first high-energy phosphate bond is hydrolyzed, 8.9 kcal of energy is released.

  • When the second phosphate bond is broken, 6.5 kcal of energy is released. However, if the third phosphate group (i.e., of AMP) is hydrolyzed, only 3.4 kcal of energy is liberated. The energy released by the breaking down of phosphate groups in ATP and ADP (adenosine diphosphate) is much more than the energy released on the hydrolysis of most of the other covalent bonds.
  • ATP is an instant source of energy within the cell. It is mobile and transports chemical energy to the energy-requiring processes within the cell. Since ATP is found in all living cells, it is called the “universal enemy carrier” or “energy currency” of cells.

Aerobic Respiration

Aerobic respiration takes place in the presence of oxygen. Complete oxidation of the substrate results in the formation of CO2 and water accompanied by the release of energy, for example, In most forms of life, respiration occurs aerobically.

NEET Biology Respiration In Plants Aerobic Respiration

NEET Biology Respiration In Plants Pfeffer Kostylchev Scheme Represesenting Interrelationship Between Aerobic And Anaerobic Respiration

Anaerobic Respiration

Anaerobic respiration takes place in the absence of oxygen and results in incomplete degradation of the substrate to CO2 and organic compounds such as ethyl alcohol, lactic acid, etc., accompanied by the release of some energy. Water is not a product of this reaction.

NEET Biology Respiration In Plants Anaerobic Respiration

” respiration in plants class 11 handwritten notes”

  • Usually, anaerobic respiration occurs in the deep-seated tissues of plants and animals, in germinating seeds, in fruits, and among many microorganisms, for example, yeasts and bacteria.
  • A large variety of organisms (anaerobic) employ anaerobic respiration as their major energy-yielding process. Some bacteria are even killed if exposed to a substantial amount of oxygen. These are termed obligate anaerobes. The organisms which can respire both in the presence and absence of oxygen are called facultative anaerobes.

Read and Learn More NEET Biology Notes

NEET Biology Notes  Respiration In Plants Respiratory Quotient

Respiratory quotient (RQ) is the ratio of CO2 volume released to oxygen volume absorbed during respiration and is written as:

NEET Biology Respiration In Plants Respiratory Quotient

  • The value of RQ varies with the substrate. Thus, the measurement of RQ gives some idea about the nature of the substrate being respired in a particular tissue. The value of RQ is usually measured by Ganong’s respirometer.
  • When carbohydrates act as respiration substrates (germinating wheat, oats, barley, paddy grains, green leaves kept in the dark, tubers, rhizomes, etc.).

NEET Biology Respiration In Plants When Carbohydrated Acts As Respiratory Substrate

When fats act as respiratory substrate (germinating castor, mustard, linseed, til seeds, etc.): Fats are poorer in O2.

NEET Biology Respiration In Plants When Fats Acts As Respiratory Substrate

When proteins act as respiratory substrates (germinating gram, pea, bean, mung seeds, etc.). The value of RQ is less than unity (0.5- 0.9): Proteins are also poor in O2. When an organic acid acts as a respiratory substrate: Organic acids are rich in O2.

NEET Biology Respiration In Plants When An Organic Acid Act As Respiratory Substrate

Incomplete oxidation of carbohydrates occurs during the night when stomata are open.

NEET Biology Respiration In Plants Stomata Are Open

In the absence of O2 (anaerobic respiration).

NEET Biology Respiration In Plants Anaerobic Respiration.

RQ of maturing fatty seed is greater than 1.  The RQ of a mixed diet is 0.85. The RQ of starved leaves is less than 1. The RQ of colored petals is less than 1.

NEET Biology Notes  Respiration In Plants Glycolysis Or Emp Pathway

In aerobic as well as anaerobic respiration, the initial sequence of events is the same, collectively tanned as glycolysis. Glycolysis (splitting of sugar) results in the breakdown of one molecule of glucose into two molecules of pyruvic acid. It is completed in the cytoplasm of the living cells, not in the mitochondria, and also does not require the presence of oxygen. It is also known as the Embden Meyerhof Pamas (EMP) pathway after the names of three German scientists who discovered it.

“respiration notes “

  • The first half of this pathway activates glucose (glucose activation phase; The second half extracts the energy (energy extraction phase). Glycolysis yields only 5% of the total ATP production and 2% of the total energy content of glucose.
  • All the reactions of EMF are reversible except for those catalyzed by hexokinase, phosphofructokinase, and pyruvate kinase. Nearly all enzymes require Mg2+ as a cofactor. The brain, retina, skin, and gastrointestinal tract derive most of their energy from glycolysis. It is the only source of energy in RBC.

NEET Biology Respiration In Plants Glycolysis Or EMP Pathway

Reactants Used And The End Products During Glycolysis:

NEET Biology Respiration In Plants Reactants Used And The End Products During Glycolysis

NEET Biology Notes  Respiration In Plants Fate Of Pyruvic Acid

In aerobic oxidation, each pyruvic acid molecule enters mitochondria where its oxidation is completed. It is carried out in the following phases: oxidative decarboxylation (formation of acetyl CoA) and Krebs cycle.

Oxidative Decarboxylation (Formation of Acetyl Coenzyme A)

  • Pyruvic acid molecules produced during glycolysis move into the mitochondria and all reactions of cellular respiration take place within these tiny powerhouses. Here each three-carbon molecule of pyruvic acid is decarboxylated (i.e., CO2 is released) and dehydrogenated (i.e., hydrogen atoms are removed).
  • Due to the release of CO2, the three-carbon molecule of pyruvic acid is converted to a two-carbon acetyl group which reacts with a large complex coenzyme called coenzyme A. This results in the formation of a compound called acetyl coenzyme A.
  • This process requires five cofactors, namely, Mg++, thiamine pyrophosphate (TPP), NAD, coenzyme A, lipoic acid, and a huge enzymatic complex of three enzymes called pyruvate dehydrogenase

NEET Biology Respiration In Plants Oxidative Decarboxylation

Acetyl coenzyme A is often called the substrate entrant of the TCA cycle and is a link between glycolysis and the TCA cycle. It is also linked with fat metabolism.

TCA Cycle (Krebs Cycle Or Citric Acid Cycle): The reactions of this cycle were worked out by Sir Hans Adolf Krebs in the flight muscles of pigeons. In these reactions, hydrogen atoms are removed from acetyl CoA and transferred to coenzymes for further processing in the electron transport system.

  • The cycle is called the citric acid cycle (because of the formation of citric acid in the first step in this cycle) or the TCA cycle (tricarboxylic acid cycle, because many intermediate compounds formed in the cycle have three carboxyl groups).
  • The reactions of the Krebs cycle require the presence of oxygen and are confined to the mitochondrial matrix. This cycle serves as a common oxidative pathway for carbohydrates, fats, and proteins.
  • All enzymes are soluble in the mitochondrial matrix but succinate dehydrogenase is found attached to the inner mitochondrial membrane. One molecule of ATP (via GTP), three NADH2, one FADH2, and two molecules of CO2 are released per molecule of costly CoA oxidized; however, as two molecules of pyruvic acid are formed from one glucose molecule, the TCA cycle must occur twice for each molecule of glucose respired.
  • Therefore, two ATP, six NADH2, and two FADH2 are formed from two molecules of acetyl CoA (coming from one molecule of glucose). Some intermediates of the cycle are moreover used in synthesizing important biomolecules such as glutamate and aspartate. Krebs cycle involves a total of nine steps. The reactants and products per acetyl coenzyme A in the Krebs cycle.

NEET Biology Respiration In Plants Krebs Cycle

Reactants used and end products in the Krebs cycle:

NEET Biology Respiration In Plants Reactants Used And End Products In Krebs Cycle

The TCA cycle has both catabolic and anabolic pathways (amphibolic). Various intermediates of the cycle are precursors of various compounds, for example.

  • Acetyl CoA → Raw material for carotenoids, terpenes, gibberellins, etc.
  • Succinyl CoA → Raw material for chlorophyll, cytochromes
  • Oxaloacetic Acid → Raw material for alkaloids, pyrimidines

NEET Biology Notes  Respiration In Plants Electron Transport System

Reduced coenzymes (NADH2, FADH2,) generated in glycolysis (2 NADH2), oxidative decarboxylation (2 NADH2), and TCA cycle (6 NADH2, 2 FADH2) are transferred to the electron transport system (ETS) embedded in the inner mitochondrial membrane.

  • They are oxidized in the presence of O2 liberating energy and regenerating NAD and FAD. ETS comprises several electron-carrying proteins divisible into five multiprotein complexes. Four of these complexes are concerned with electron transfer while the fifth complex is concerned with ATP synthesis.

ETS has seven electrons and an H+ carrier, viz., FAD, FMN, CoQ, cyt b, cyt c, cyt a, and cyt a3. Two mobile electron carriers CoQ and cyt c. These complexes are:

  1. NADH-dehydrogenase complex: Have prosthetic group FMN, FeS.
  2. Succinate dehydrogenase complex: Have prosthetic group FAD, FeS
  3. Cyt c-reductase complex: Have cyt b, c
  4. Cyt c-oxidase complex: Have cyt a Cua, Cub, cyt a3.
  5. ATPase (F0-F1 particle).

“respiration in plants diagram “

NEET Biology Respiration In Plants Electron Flow In Electron Transport System

Electron and Proton Flow in ETS

O2 reacts with terminal H+ and finally, eacceptor in ETS to form metabolic water. Reduced coenzyme NADH2 helps in pushing three pairs of H+ to the outer chamber of mitochondria while FADH2 sends two pairs of HT to the outer chamber.

Oxidative Phosphorylation: It is the synthesis of ATP (from ADP and inorganic phosphate) which occurs with the help of energy obtained from the oxidation of reduced coenzymes formed in cellular respiration. ATP synthesis is explained by the chemi-osmotic theory of Mitchell (1961, Nobel Prize 1978).

  • The energy liberated during electron transport is used in building a proton gradient or proton motive force (PMF) in the outer chamber—three pairs of protons during the oxidation of each NADH + H+ and two pairs of protons during the oxidation of each FADH2.
  • The inner mitochondrial membrane has F0-F1 or ATPase or elementary particles for proton transport. The F0 parts of elementary particles function as proton tunnels.
  • The stalk part of elementary particles has coupling factors while heads have ATPase proper for ATP synthesis.
  • Two protons entering an elementary particle knock out one oxygen of inorganic phosphate and convert the latter into energy-rich or active phosphate which combines with ADP to form ATP. The complete oxidation of NADH forms three ATP molecules while one FADH2 forms two ATP molecules.

” ch 14 bio class 11 notes”

NEET Biology Respiration In Plants Proton Driven ATP Synthesis Over Elementary Particle

Electron Transport System: Reactants And Products:

NEET Biology Respiration In Plants Reactants Used And Products

NEET Biology Notes  Respiration In Plants Pentose Phosphate Pathway

Pentose phosphate pathway (PPP) Warburg-Lipman-Dickens cycle or hexose monophosphate shunt (HMS) is an alternative pathway occurring in cytoplasm and chloroplast in the presence of O2 and is found both in prokaryotes and eukaryotes. It was first studied by Warburg et al. (1935) and Dickens (1938). It is favored by the presence of NDP. It acts as a safety valve and a shunt to DAP. The important characteristics are:

  1. Hexoses are converted to pentoses.
  2. Direct oxidation of glucose to CO2 and H2O.
  3. Synthesis of important intermediates such as NADPH2, ribose, and erythrose 4-phosphate.
  4. Important in tissues such as the liver, ovary, testes, adipose tissue, and germinating seeds.
  5. Low activity in skeletal muscles.

In this cycle, out of six glucose 6-phosphate molecules entering, only one is completely oxidized, while the other five are regenerated. The complete degradation of one glucose molecule leads to the formation of 12 molecules of NADPH2, which ultimately yields 36 ATP molecules, while the net yield is 35 ATP molecules.

NEET Biology Notes  Respiration In Plants Types Of Anaerobic Respiration And Fermentation

Different types of anaerobic respiration and fermentation (also called intramolecular respiration) are as follows:

  • Alcoholic fermentation/anaerobic respiration: It is the most common type of fermentation taking place in yeast and bacteria and parts of higher plants. The term fermentation was first of used by Pasteur in 1857 for the alcoholic fermentation of yeast. Buchner (1897) extracted zymase complex enzymes from yeast cells.
  • Fermentation takes place in the solution of large numbers of sugar, fructose, galactose, mannose, and disaccharides. In fermentation by yeast, when the percentage of alcohol in the sugar solution is 9-18%, yeast cells are killed, and fermentation stops.
  • At the time of germination of seeds, the amount of sugar increases so that fermentation takes place in barley germinating grains. Alcoholic fermentation takes place in two steps. In the first step, pyruvic acid is decarboxylated resulting in the formation of acetaldehyde and CO2.

NEET Biology Respiration In Plants Anaerobic Respiration And Fermentation

Lactic acid fermentation: Pyruvic acid formed at the end of glycolysis is converted to lactic acid by homofermentative lactic acid bacteria (Lactobacillus lactis).

NEET Biology Respiration In Plants Lactic Acid Fermentation

Lactic acid and ethyl alcohol fermentation

NEET Biology Respiration In Plants Lactic Acid And Ethyl Alcohol Fermentation

NEET Biology Notes  Respiration In Plants Respiratory Inhibitors

Cyanide (CN) and azide (N3) are effective inhibitors of respiration. However, in plants, this effect is minor. The respiration that continues in this situation is called cyanide-resistant respiration.

The reason that respiration can continue in plants, even when cytochrome oxidase is blocked, is that such mitochondria have an alternative route allowing the transport of electrons to oxygen from ubiquinone to a flavoprotein to oxidase. Phosphorylation is coupled to the pathway. Therefore, it leads mainly to the production of other inhibitors, not ATP. Other inhibitors are rotenone, CO, H2S, barbiturates, malonate, etc.

NEET Biology Notes  Respiration In Plants Respiratory Inhibitors Points To Remember

  1. 264 g of CO2 is liberated during the complete oxidation of 1 80 g of glucose.
  2. α-ketoglutaric acid is the first dicarboxylic acid formed during the Krebs cycle.
  3. The number of ATP molecules formed by the complete oxidation of pyruvic acid is 15.
  4. Mercury is used in anaerobic respiration experiments because it does not react with CO2.
  5. The rate of respiration is measured by a respirometer.
  6. Fermentation was discovered by Gay Lussac
  7. Fruits and seeds are stored at low temperatures to reduce the rate of respiration.
  8. If a leaf is immersed in a sugar solution, the rate of respiration increases.
  9. Pasteur effect: A change from anaerobic to aerobic condition decreases the rate of sugar breakdown and CO2 evolution.
  10. Dinitrophenol inhibits ATP synthesis (uncoupler).
  11. Oligomycin inhibits oxidative phosphorylation (energy transfer inhibitor).
  12. Abnormal rise in the respiratory rate of ripening fruits is called climacteric. For example, bananas.
  13. Higher concentrations of CO2 and the absence of O2 adversely affect the rate of respiration (except in anaerobic respiration).
  14. One molecule of glucose or fructose produces a total of 38 ATP molecules out of which two are used, and therefore, the net gain of ATP is 36. Out of these 38 ATPs, four are formed by direct (substrate) phosphorylation 32 ATPs by oxidative phosphorylation through ETS, and two by GTP.
  15. One molecule of NADH2 forms three ATPs, and one FADH2 forms two ATPs through ETS.
  16. One turn of the Krebs cycle produces 12 ATPs, 11 ATPs through ETS, and one ATP by substrate phosphorylation.
  17. ATP formation is an endergonic process and occurs in chloroplast and mitochondria.
  18. Muscles get energy by glycolysis.
  19. The ratio of CO2 formation in aerobic and anaerobic respiration is 3:1.
  20. The ratio of ATP in aerobic and anaerobic respiration is 18:1.
  21. Krebs cycle is basically a catabolic cycle but also functions as an anabolic cycle, hence called an amphibolic cycle. Its starting product is citric acid which is a tricarboxylic acid. It undergoes four oxidations and two decarboxylations to produce CO2 and H2O.
  22. Cytochromes are Fe+2-rich intrinsic proteins and were discovered by MacMunn. Cyt a3 has both Cu+2 and Fe+2 and acts as cytochrome oxidase.
  23. Respiration using proteins as substrate is called protoplasmic respiration, while it is called floating respiration when the substrate is carbohydrate or fat.
  24. Water produced due to the oxidation of reduced coenzymes with the help of O2 is called metabolic water.
  25. The glyoxylate cycle occurs in seeds that possess tissues rich in fats and enables stored fats to be converted into carbohydrates. Enzymes for the cycle are present in glyoxysomes.

” respiratory balance sheet class 11″

NEET Biology Notes  Respiration In Plants Respiration In Plants Assertion-Reasoning Questions

In the following questions, an Assertion (A) is followed by a corresponding Reason (R). Mark the correct answer.

  1. If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
  2. If both Assertion and Reason are true, but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
  3. If Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
  4. If both Assertion and Reason are false.

Question 1.

Assertion: 2,4 DNP is an uncoupling agent in ETS.

Reason: It is soluble in lipids.

Answer: 2. If both Assertion and Reason are true, but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.

Question 2.

Assertion: Glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency impairs PPP (HMS).

Reason: It is an X-linked recessive disorder.

Answer: 2. If both Assertion and Reason are true, but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.

Question 3.

Assertion: The RQ of maturing fatty seeds is greater than 1.

Reason: Fats are preferred as energy fuel.

Answer: 3. If Assertion is true, but Reason is false.

Question 4.

Assertion: In cellular respiration, ETS electron movement is a downhill journey.

Reason: Electrons move from high redox potential to low redox potential.

Answer: 3. If Assertion is true, but Reason is false.

Question 5.

Assertion: Succinyl CoA is the precursor of pyrrole group-containing compounds.

Reason: Succinyl CoA is an intermediate of the TCA cycle.

Answer: 2. If both Assertion and Reason are true, but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.

NEET Biology Multiple Choice Questions – Respiration In Plants

NEET Biology For Respiration In Plants Multiple Choice Question And Answers

Question 1. RQ of fats and proteins is generally

  1. 1
  2. Less than 1
  3. Greater than 1
  4. Zero

Answer: 2. Less than 1

Question 2. The value of RQ, when the respiratory substance is poor in oxygen, is

  1. Zero
  2. Infinity
  3. Greater than 1
  4. Less than 1

Answer: 4. Less than 1

Question 3. The term protoplasmic respiration is used for the respiration of

  1. Fats
  2. Proteins
  3. Carbohydrates
  4. Organic acids

Answer: 3. Carbohydrates

Question 4. Common pathways of aerobic and anaerobic respiration is

  1. PPP
  2. Glycolysis
  3. TCA cycle
  4. ETS

Answer: 2. Glycolysis

Question 5. Anaerobic respiration in the presence of microorganisms is known as

  1. Pasteurization
  2. Decay
  3. Fermentation
  4. Putrefaction

Answer: 3. Fermentation

Question 6. The term anaerobic respiration was coined by

  1. Kostylchev
  2. Henry Beevers
  3. Dickens
  4. Cmickshank

Answer: 1. Kostylchev

respiration in plants

Question 7. In anaerobic glycolysis, a net gain of ATP is

  1. 2 ATP
  2. 6 ATP
  3. 8 ATP
  4. 1 ATP

Answer: 1. 2 ATP

Question 8. Which is not a product of fermentation?

  1. CO2
  2. H2O
  3. ATP
  4. Alcohol

Answer: 2. H2O

Question 9. The site of EMP in eukaryotes is

  1. Inner mitochondrial membrane
  2. Cytoplasm
  3. Mitochondrial matrix
  4. Both 2 and 3

Answer: 2. Cytoplasm

Question 10. The pacemaker enzyme of glycolysis is

  1. Hexokiimse
  2. Hnolnsc
  3. Phosphofructokinase
  4. Pyruvate kinase

Answer: 3. Phosphofructokinase

Question 11. The number of NADH molecules produced in EMP is

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4

Answer: 2. 2

Question 12. BTS in Baeleria Lakes place at

  1. Cell wall
  2. Plasma membrane
  3. Nucleus
  4. Cytoplasm

Answer: 2. Plasma membrane

Question 13. The path of glucose breakdown to pyruvic acid was discovered by

  1. Embden, Meyerhof, and Parnas
  2. Warburg and Dickon
  3. Sir Hans Kreb
  4. Calvin

Answer: 1. Embden, Meyerhof, and Parnas

Question 14. ATPs generated by 1 NADH2 and 1 FADH2 are, respectively,

  1. 3,2
  2. 2,3
  3. 3. 5
  4. 5, 3

Answer: 1. 3,2

Question 15. The connecting link between glycolysis and the TCA cycle is

  1. Acetyl CoA
  2. OAK
  3. Pyruvic acid
  4. Citric acid

Answer: 1. Acetyl CoA

Question 16. The primary acceptor of the TCA cycle is

  1. OAA
  2. Acetyl CoA
  3. Citric acid
  4. Pyruvic acid

Answer: 1. OAA

Question 17. In the TCA cycle, how many reduced co-enzymes are produced from one acetyl CoA?

  1. 3 NADH2, 1 FADH2
  2. 2 NADH2, 1 FADH2
  3. 4 NADH2, 2 FADH2
  4. 5 NADH2, 1 FADH2

Answer: 1. 3 NADH2, 1 FADH2

Question 18. The first 5-C acid in the TCA cycle is

  1. Citric acid
  2. Succinyl CoA
  3. a-ketoglutaric acid
  4. Fumaric acid

Answer: 3. a-ketoglutaric acid

” fate of pyruvate “

Question 19. The number of total ATP generated in the TCA cycle per acetyl CoA molecule is

  1. 10
  2. 12
  3. 14
  4. 24

Answer: 2. 12

Question 20. One molecule of FADH2 upon oxidative phosphorylation yields

  1. 2 ATP
  2. 3 ATP
  3. 4 ATP
  4. 5 ATP

Answer: 1. 2 ATP

Question 21. The element required for the activation of the aconitase enzyme is.

  1. Fe2+
  2. Mn2+
  3. Mg2+
  4. All of these

Answer: 1. Fe2+

Question 22. A characteristic feature of the ripening of some fruits (such as bananas) is a sudden increase in respiration, which is known as

  1. Climactic
  2. Photorespiration
  3. Anthesis
  4. Climacteric

Answer: 4. Climacteric

Question 23. Substrate phosphorylation in TCA occurs when

  1. Succinic acid changes to fumaric acid
  2. Fumaric acid changes to malic acid
  3. Succinyl CoA changes to succinic acid
  4. Oxalosuccinic acid changes to ketoglutaric acid

Answer: 3. Succinyl CoA changes to succinic acid

Question 24. The mineral activator needed for the enzyme isocitrate dehydrogenase of the TCA cycle is

  1. Fe
  2. Mg
  3. Mn
  4. Cu

Answer: 3. Mn

Question 25. A single turn of the Krebs cycle yields

  1. 1 FADH2, 2 NADH2, and 1 ATP
  2. 2 FADH2, 2 NADH2, and 2 ATP
  3. 1 FADH2, 3 NADH2, and 1 ATP
  4. 1 FADH2, 1 NADH2, and 1 ATP

Answer: 3. 1 FADH2, 3 NADH2, and 1 ATP

Question 26. Fumarase enzyme converts

  1. Succinic acid to malic acid
  2. Succinic acid to fumaric acid
  3. Fumaric acid to malic acid
  4. Fumaric acid to citric acid

Answer: 3. Fumaric acid to malic acid

Question 27. ETS (electron transport system) is found in

  1. Cytoplasm
  2. Mitochondrial matrix
  3. Inner mitochondrial membrane
  4. Outer mitochondrial membrane

Answer: 3. Inner mitochondrial membrane

Question 28. The number of multiprotein complexes in ETS in mitochondria is

  1. 3
  2. 4
  3. 5
  4. 6

Answer: 3. 5

Question 29. The complex concerned with oxidative phosphorylation in the inner mitochondrial membrane is

  1. Complex 4
  2. Complex 5
  3. Complex 3
  4. Complex 2

Answer: 2. Complex 5

Question 30. Mobile electron carriers in ETS in the mitochondrial membrane are

  1. PQ, PC
  2. CoQ, Cyt c
  3. PQ, Cyt c
  4. PC, CoQ

Answer: 2. CoQ, Cyt c

Question 31. The Proton channel is found in

  1. F0 of ATPase
  2. F1 of ATPase
  3. Cyt c
  4. CoQ

Answer: 1. F0 of ATPase

Question 32. In prokaryotic cells, the number of ATPs generated from one glucose molecule is

  1. 36
  2. 38
  3. 34
  4. 32

Answer: 2. 38

Question 33. Inhibition of sugar breakdown due to the presence of O2 under aerobic conditions is called

  1. Pasteur effect
  2. Warburg effect
  3. Gibbs effect
  4. Kutusky effect

Answer: 1. Pasteur effect

Question 34. The number of shuttles for transporting extra mitochondrial NADH, into mitochondria is

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 0

Answer: 2. 2

Question 35. Which acid of the TCA cycle is connecting the link with nitrogen metabolism?

  1. Succinic acid
  2. Malic acid
  3. a-ketoglutaric acid
  4. Citric acid

Answer: 3. a-ketoglutaric acid

Question 36. According to the chemiosmotic mechanism for ATP synthesis given by P. Mitchell, the force/factor responsible for ATP synthesis is

  1. Membrane potential across the membrane
  2. Proton motive force
  3. Electron motive force
  4. Redox potential

Answer: 2. Proton motive force

Question 37. The intermediate common to fatty acid and carbohydrate oxidation is

  1. Pyruvate
  2. Acetyl CoA
  3. Oxaloacetate
  4. Succinate

Answer: 2. Acetyl CoA

Question 38. From the oxidation of one molecule of palmitic acid (fatty acid), the number of ATP molecules gained are

  1. 131
  2. 129
  3. 38
  4. 142

Answer: 2. 129

” end product of oxidative phosphorylation “

Question 39. β-oxidation occurs in

  1. Pea seeds
  2. Gram seeds
  3. Wheat grains
  4. Cotton seeds

Answer: 4. Cotton seeds

Question 40. The number of dehydrogenations in pentose phosphate pathways is

  1. 2
  2. 1
  3. 3
  4. 4

Answer: 1. 2

Question 41. The  ATP cycle was given by

  1. Karl Lohman
  2. Warburg and Lipman
  3. Peter Mitchel
  4. Fritz Lipman

Answer: 4. Fritz Lipman

Question 42. In cyanide-resistant respiration, the electrons are passed from ubiquinone to

  1. Cyt b
  2. Fe-S protein
  3. Flavoprotein
  4. FMN protein

Answer: 3. Flavoprotein

Question 43. In PPP, the net gain of ATP molecules for one glucose molecule is

  1. 34 ATPs
  2. 35 ATPs
  3. 36 ATPs
  4. 38 ATPs

Answer: 2. 35 ATPs

Question 44. A shunt to EMP or a safety valve is called

  1. Pentose phosphate pathways
  2. Cyanide resistance pathways
  3. ED pathway
  4. ETS

Answer: 1. Pentose phosphate pathways

Question 45. Which is not an important intermediate of PPP (HMS)?

  1. NADPH2,
  2. Erythrose 4phosphate
  3. Ribulose
  4. Aromatic compounds

Answer: 4. Aromatic compounds

Question 46. The first step of ethyl alcohol fermentation requires

  1. Dehydrogenation
  2. Decarboxylation
  3. FMN
  4. Zn2+

Answer: 2. Decarboxylation

Question 47. Hexose monophosphate shunt is

  1. The pentose phosphate pathway is a set of reactions that bypasses the glycolysis and Krebs cycle routes for glucose oxidation in the cell.
  2. Conversion of glucose into pyruvic acid.
  3. The sum of all chemical transformations.
  4. A process by which starch is synthesized.

Answer: 1. Pentose phosphate pathway or a set of reactions that bypasses the glycolysis and Krebs cycle routes for glucose oxidation in the cell.

Question 48. The efficiency of respiration is approximately

  1. 45%
  2. 50%
  3. 90%
  4. 30%

Answer: 1. 45%

” respiration in plant”

Question 49. Cytochromes are

  1. Simple proteins
  2. S-containing proteins
  3. Conjugated proteins
  4. Cu-containing proteins

Answer: 3. Conjugated proteins

Question 50. The most appropriate reason for storing green-colored apples at low temperatures is

  1. The rate of photosynthesis is reduced.
  2. Respiration and photosynthesis are completely inhibited.
  3. The rate of respiration is reduced.
  4. The rate of photosynthesis and respiration are reduced.

Answer: 3. The rate of respiration is reduced.

Question 51. The Respiratory Quotient (RQ) is defined as

  1. Volume of O2/Vblume of CO2
  2. Volume of CO2/Volume of O2
  3. Volume of O2/Volume of N2
  4. Volume of N2/Volume of CO2

Answer: 2. Volume of CO2 /Volume of O2

Question 52. Pyruvic acid is formed during

  1. Krebs cycle
  2. Glycolysis
  3. Ornithine cycle
  4. Calvin cycle

Answer: 2. Glycolysis

Question 53. The correct sequence of electron acceptor in ATP synthesis is

  1. cyt, a, a3 b, c
  2. cyt b, c, a, a3
  3. cyt b, c3, a, a3
  4. cyt c, b, a, a3

Answer: 2. cyt b, c, a, a3

Question 54. Which one of the following contains copper besides iron?

  1. Cytochrome-f
  2. Cytochrome oxidase
  3. Platoquinone
  4. Cytochrome-C1

Answer: 2. Cytochrome oxidase

Question 55. Where does the formation of acetyl CoA from pyruvic acid take place?

  1. Mitochondria
  2. Chloroplast
  3. Cytoplasm
  4. Golgi body

Answer: 1. Mitochondria

Question 56. The number of ATP molecules produced by the electron  transport system from Krebs cycle intermediates in a single turn is

  1. H
  2. 14
  3. 12
  4. 16

Answer: 1. H

Question 57. In anaerobic respiration, the number of ATP molecules  produced are

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 8

Answer: 2. 2

Question 58. In which of the following steps of the Krebs cycle, CO2 is evolved?

  1. Isocitric acid → Oxalosuccinic acid
  2. Oxalosuccinic acid → α-ketoglutaric acid
  3. Succinic acid → Fumaric acid
  4. Malic acid → Oxaloacetic acid

Answer: 2. Oxalosuccinic acid → α-ketoglutaric acid

Question 59. Which of the following enzymes is not used in the Krebs  cycle?

  1. Aconitase
  2. Decarboxylase
  3. Aldolase
  4. Fumarase

Answer: 3.  Aldolase

Question 60. The end product of fermentation is

  1. O2,
  2. N2O
  3. H2O
  4. C2H5OH

Answer: 4. C2H5OH

Question 61. Gluconeogenesis is the

  1. Formation of glucose from other than carbohydrate
  2. Formation of glycogen
  3. Breakdown of glucose
  4. Formation of ammonia from glucose

Answer: 1. Formation of glucose from other than carbohydrate

Question 62. β-oxidation takes place in

  1. Matrix of mitochondria
  2. Cell cytoplasm
  3. Inter mitochondrial chamber
  4. Ribosomes

Answer: 3. Intermitochondrial chamber

Question 63. In the TCA cycle, the conversion of succinyl CoA to succinic  acid requires

  1. Acetyl CoA+GTP + iP
  2. Acetyl CoA + GDP + IP
  3. CoA+GTP + iP
  4. GDP + iP

Answer: 4. GDP + iP

Question 64. Yeast is used in the formation of

  1. Ammonia
  2. Alcohol
  3. Curd
  4. Petrol

Answer: 2. Alcohol

Question 65. The equation represents fermentation

NEET Biology Respiration In Plants Fermentation Is Representation By Formula

Answer: 2. C6H12O6 → 2C2H5OH + 2CO2

Question 66. Which of the following is formed during respiration?

  1. O2 (oxygen)
  2. CO2 (carbon dioxide)
  3. NO2 (nitrogen dioxide)
  4. SO2 (sulfur dioxide)

Answer: 2. CO2 (carbon dioxide)

Question 67. The pyruvic acid formed in glycolysis is oxidized to CO2 and H2O in a cycle called

  1. Calvin cycle
  2. Hill reaction
  3. Starch
  4. Vitamins

Answer: 3. Starch

Question 68. The end product of glycolysis is

  1. Glucose
  2. Fructose
  3. Pyruvic acid
  4. Ethyl alcohol

Answer: 3. Pyruvic acid

Question 69. R.Q. is more than 1 in case of

  1. Fat
  2. Fructose
  3. Glucose
  4. Organic acid

Answer: 4. Organic acid

Question 70. The total yield in one Krebs cycle is

  1. 3 FADH2, 2 NADH2 1 ATP
  2. 2 FADH2, 2 NADH2, 2 ATP
  3. 2 NADH2, 1 FADH2 2ATP
  4. 3 NADH2, 1 FADH2, 1 ATP

Answer: 4. 3 NADH2, 1 FADH2, 1 ATP

Question 71. How much ATP will be produced during the production of 1 molecule of acetyl CoA from 1 molecule of pyruvic acid?

  1. 3 ATP
  2. 5 ATP
  3. 8 ATP
  4. 38 ATP

Answer: 1. 3 ATP

Question 72. The sequence of cytochromes is

  1. Cyt a, b, c, a3
  2. Cyt b, c, a, a3
  3. Cyt b, a, a3, c
  4. Cyt b, c, a3, a

Answer: 2. Cyt b, c, a, a3

Question 73. Cytochrome is a

  1. Mg pyrrole ring
  2. Fe porphyrin ring
  3. Nucleotide
  4. Alloy of nichrome

Answer: 2. Fe porphyrin ring

Question 74. Krebs cycle takes place in

  1. Mitochondrial matrix
  2. Cytoplasm
  3. Lysosome
  4. Nucleus

Answer: 1. Mitochondrial matrix

Question 75. Cellular respiration occurs in

  1. Chloroplast
  2. Golgi bodies
  3. Mitochondria
  4. Nucleus

Answer: 3. Mitochondria

Question 76. Maximum amount of energy/ATP is liberated on the oxidation of

  1. Fats
  2. Proteins

Answer: 1. Fats

Question 77. More CO2 is evolved than the volume of oxygen consumed when the respiratory substrate is

  1. Fat
  2. Sucrose
  3. Glucose
  4. Organic acid

Answer: 4. Organic acid

Question 78. Krebs cycle begins with the reaction [Jharkhand 2004]

  1. Citric acid + Acetyl CoA
  2. Oxaloacetic acid + Pyruvic acid
  3. Oxaloacetic acid + Citric acid
  4. Oxaloacetate + Acetyl CoA

Answer: 4. Oxaloacetate + Acetyl CoA

Question 79. Hydrolysis of fat yields

  1. Fatty acids
  2. Fatty acids and glycerol
  3. Mannose and glycerol
  4. Maltose and fatty acid

Answer: 2. Fatty acids and glycerol

Question 80. Respiratory quotient of which diet is less than unity?

  1. Carbohydrate
  2. Fats
  3. Organic acid
  4. Sugar

Answer: 2. Fats

Question 81. The richest energy compound is

  1. Creatinine phosphate
  2. protein
  3. Carbohydrate
  4. Fat

Answer: 4. Fat

Question 82. The stage up to which glycolysis and fermentation are common is

  1. Dihydroxyacetone
  2. 3-Phosphoglyceraldehyde
  3. Pyruvate
  4. Glucose-6-phosphate

Answer: 3. Pyruvate

Question 83. The respiratory quotient of carbohydrate is

  1. Unity
  2. Greater than unity
  3. Less than unity
  4. Equal to five

Answer: 1. Less than unity

Question 84. During the conversion of pyruvic acid into acetyl CoA,  pyruvic acid is

  1. Oxidized
  2. Reduced
  3. Isomerized
  4. Condensed

Answer: 1. Oxidized

Question 85. In the Krebs cycle,

  1. ADP is converted into CO2
  2. Pyruvic acid is converted into CO2 and H2O
  3. Glucose is converted into CO2
  4. Pyruvic acid is converted into ATP

Answer: 2. Pyruvic acid is converted into CO2 and H2O

Question 86. Incomplete breakdown of sugar in anaerobic respiration forms

  1. Glucose and CO2
  2. Alcohol and CO2
  3. Water and CO2
  4. Fructose and water

Answer: 2. Alcohol and CO2

Question 87. The significance of the Krebs cycle is the

  1. Synthesis of ATP
  2. Synthesis of amino acid
  3. Synthesis of chlorophyll
  4. All of the above

Answer: 4. All of the above

Question 88. In plants, respiration takes place

  1. During day only
  2. During night only
  3. All 24 hours
  4. At dusk

Answer: 3. All 24-hours

Question 89. Glycolysis takes place in

  1. Cytoplasm
  2. Nucleus
  3. Plastid
  4. Mitochondria

Answer: 1. Cytoplasm

Question 90. In respiration, the largest amount of energy is produced in

  1. Anaerobic respiration
  2. Krebs cycle
  3. Glycolysis
  4. None of the above

Answer: 2. Krebs cycle

Question 91. Which of the following is not an intermediate in the Krebs  cycle?

  1. Acetic acid
  2. Succinyl coenzyme-A
  3. Malic acid
  4. Citric acid

Answer: 1. Acetic acid

Question 92. The pyruvic acid is formed during

  1. Krebs cycle
  2. Glycolysis
  3. Ornithine cycle
  4. Photophosphorylation

Answer: 2. Glycolysis

Question 93. The number of ATP molecules gained during aerobic respiration of 1 mole of glucose is

  1. 12
  2. 18
  3. 30
  4. 38

Answer: 4. 38

Question 94. Alcoholic fermentation takes place in the presence of

  1. Maltase
  2. Zymase
  3. Amylase
  4. Invertase

Answer: 2. Zymase

Question 95. The site of the EMP pathway in the cell is

  1. Peroxisome
  2. Cytoplasm
  3. Matrix of mitochondria
  4. The inner membrane of mitochondria

Answer: 2. Cytoplasm

Question 96. The steps of respiration are controlled by

  1. Substrates
  2. Enzymes
  3. Hormone
  4. Bile juice

Answer: 2. Enzymes

Question 97. Enzymes of the electron transport system are present in

  1. Inner mitochondrial membrane
  2. Matrix
  3. Intermembranous space
  4. Endoplasmic reticulum

Answer: 1. Inner mitochondrial membrane

Question 98. Which of the following connects glycolysis to Krebs cycle?

  1. Acetyl Co A
  2. Ribozyme
  3. Cytochrome oxidase
  4. N-acetyl glucosamine

Answer: 1. Acetyl Co A

Question 99. Pyruvic acid is the end product of

  1. Krebs cycle
  2. Electron transport system
  3. Photosynthesis
  4. Glycolysis

Answer: 4. Glycolysis

Question 100. Which of the following accepts terminal electrons during aerobic respiration?

  1. Molecular O2
  2. Molecular H2
  3. Molecular CO2
  4. NADPH2

Answer: 1. Molecular O2

Question 101. Glycolysis occurs in

  1. Cytoplasm
  2. Nucleus
  3. Mitochondria
  4. Both 1 and 3

Answer: 1. Cytoplasm

Question 102. Which one of the following is the first step of glycolysis?

  1. Breakdown of glucose
  2. Phosphorylation of glucose
  3. Conversion of glucose into fructose
  4. Dehydrogenation of glucose

Answer: 2. Phosphorylation of glucose

Question 103. How many ATP molecules are released when 1 molecule of glucose is oxidized in our liver cells?

  1. 36
  2. 38
  3. 2
  4. 8

Answer: 2. 38

Question 104. The sequence of food materials consumed during starvation is

  1. Carbohydrates→ Fats → Proteins
  2. Carbohydrates → Proteins → Fats
  3. Proteins → Fats → Carbohydrates
  4. Fats → proteins → Carbohydrates

Answer: 1. Carbohydrates → Fats → Proteins

Question 105. How many ATPs are produced during the glycolysis of one molecule of glucose?

  1. 4
  2. 2
  3. 36
  4. 38

Answer: 2. 2

Question 106. The final electron acceptor in ETS is

  1. NAD
  2. FAD
  3. Oxygen
  4. Hydrogen

Answer: 3. Oxygen

Question 107. The respiratory cycle where NADH2 is produced is

  1. Calvin cycle
  2. Krebs cycle
  3. EMP pathway
  4. HMP shunt

Answer: 2. Krebs cycle

Question 108. Most of the enzymes that participate in the Krebs cycle are found in

  1. Matrix of mitochondria
  2. The inner membrane of mitochondria
  3. The outer membrane of mitochondria
  4. Stroma of chloroplast

Answer: 1. Matrix of mitochondria

Question 109. The connecting link between glycolysis and the Krebs cycle is

  1. Acetyl CoA
  2. CoQ
  3. Coenzyme
  4. CoA

Answer: 1. Acetyl CoA

Question 110. The process of oxidative phosphorylation takes place in

  1. Mitochondria
  2. Chloroplasts
  3. Ribosomes
  4. Cytoplasm

Answer: 1. Mitochondria

Question 111. Glycolysis is the conversion of

  1. Glucose to glycogen
  2. Glycogen to glucose
  3. Glucose to pyruvic acid
  4. Glucose to citric acid

Answer: 3. Glucose to pyruvic acid

Question 112. Anaerobic respiration takes place in

  1. Ribosome
  2. Nucleus
  3. Cytoplasm
  4. Vacuole

Answer: 3. Cytoplasm

Question 113. Which of the following is the product of glucose fermentation by yeast?

  1. C6H12O6
  2. C2H5OH
  3. (C6H10O5)n
  4. CH2OH

Answer: 2. C2H5OH

Question 114. Fermentation is an

  1. Anaerobic respiration
  2. Incomplete oxidation
  3. Excretory process
  4. None of the above

Answer: 2. Incomplete oxidation

Question 115. Organelles that are regarded as the house of the cell and in which oxidative reactions of the respiratory process take place are known as 

  1. Chloroplast
  2. Ribosomes
  3. Mitochondria
  4. Endoplasmic reticulum

Answer: 3. Mitochondria

Question 116. In which of the following, respiration in the absence of oxygen also takes place?

  1. Man
  2. Potato
  3. Yeast
  4. Spirogyra

Answer: 3. Yeast

Question 117.CO2 is liberated during

  1. Ascent of sap
  2. Respiration
  3. Photosynthesis
  4. Transpiration

Answer: 2. Respiration

Question 118. ATP stands for which of the following?

  1. Adenine tetraphosphate
  2. Adenine triphosphate
  3. Adenosine diphosphate
  4. Adenosine triphosphate

Answer: 4. Adenosine triphosphate

Question 119. Glycolysis occurs in

  1. Vacuoles
  2. Nucleolus
  3. Mitochondria
  4. Cytoplasm

Answer: 4. Cytoplasm

Question 120. The number of ATP produced during the production of 1 molecule of acetyl CoA from 1 molecule of pyruvic acid is

  1. 3 ATP
  2. 8 ATP
  3. 36 ATP
  4. 38 ATP

Answer: 1. 3 ATP

Question 121. The energy produced by one ATP molecule is

  1. 7.6 kcal
  2. 12kcal
  3. 20 kcal
  4. 100 kcal

Answer: 1. 7.6 kcal

Question 122. Which of the following shows anaerobic respiration?

  1. Earthworms
  2. Rabbit
  3. Echinoderras
  4. Tapeworms

Answer: 4. Tapeworms

Question 123. It is believed that the organisms that first inhabited the earth’s surface were

  1. Autotrophs
  2. Mixotrophs
  3. Chemoautotrophs
  4. Heterotrophs

Answer: 3. Chemoautotrophs

Question 124. Pyruvic acid before combining with the oxaloacetic acid of the Krebs cycle becomes

  1. Citric acid
  2. Acetoacetic acid
  3. Cis-aconitic acid
  4. Acetyl CoA

Answer: 4. Acetyl CoA

Question 125. Anaerobic respiration takes place in

  1. Ribosome
  2. Nucleus
  3. Cytoplasm
  4. Vacuole

Answer: 3. Cytoplasm

Question 126. What is the energy coin of a cell?

  1. DNA
  2. RNA
  3. ATP
  4. Minerals

Answer: 3. ATP

Question 127. The process of oxidative phosphorylation takes place in

  1. Mitochondria
  2. Chloroplasts
  3. Ribosomes
  4. Cytoplasm

Answer: 1. Mitochondria

Question 128. RQ of which diet is less than unity?

  1. Carbohydrate
  2. Fats
  3. Organic acid
  4. Sugar

Answer: 2. Fats

Question 129. Pyruvic acid is the end product of which process?

  1. Krebs cycle
  2. Calvin cycle
  3. Pentose phosphate pathway
  4. Glycolysis

Answer: 4. Glycolysis

Question 130. 1 molecule glucose, 6 molecules of O2, and 38 ADP combine to form 6H2O, 6CO2, and

  1. 38 molecules of ATP
  2. 28 ATP
  3. 38 ADP
  4. 28 ADP

Answer: 1. 38 molecules of ATP

Question 131. The number of ATP obtained at the end of the Krebs cycle

  1. 2 ATP
  2. 4 ATP
  3. 8 ATP
  4. 38 ATP

Answer: 4. 8 ATP

Question 132. During the formation of bread, it becomes porous due to  the release of CO2 by the action of

  1. Yeast
  2. Bacterial
  3. Virus
  4. Protozoans

Answer: 1. Yeast

Question 133. How many ATP molecules are produced by the aerobic oxidation of one molecule of glucose?

  1. 2
  2. 4
  3. 38
  4. 34

Answer: 3. 38

Question 134. In which one of the following do the two names refer to the same thing?

  1. Krebs cycle and Calvin cycle
  2. Tricarboxylic acid cycle and citric acid cycle
  3. Citric acid cycle and Calvin cycle
  4. Tricarboxylic acid cycle and urea cycle

Answer: 2. Tricarboxylic acid cycle and citric acid cycle

Question 135. In alcohol fermentation,

  1. Triosephosphate is the electron donor, while acetaldehyde is the electron acceptor.
  2. Triosephosphate is the electron donor, while pyruvic acid is the electron acceptor.
  3. There is no electron donor.
  4. Oxygen is the electron acceptor.

Answer: 1. Triosephosphate is the electron donor, while acetaldehyde is the electron acceptor.

Question 136. In glycolysis, during oxidation, electrons are removed by

  1. Molecular oxygen
  2. ATP
  3. Glyceraldehyde
  4. NAD+

Answer: 4. NAD+

Question 137. Aerobic respiration is how many times more useful than anaerobic respiration

  1. 2
  2. 8
  3. 9
  4. 38

Answer: 3. 9

Question 138. For the retting of jute, the fermenting microbe used is

  1. Helicobacter pylori
  2. Methanophilic bacteria
  3. Streptococcus lactic
  4. Butyric acid bacteria

Answer: 4. Butyric acid bacteria

Question 139. During which stage in the complete oxidation of glucose are the greatest number of ATP molecules formed from ADP?

  1. Conversion of pyruvic acid to acetyl CoA
  2. Electron transport chain
  3. Glycolysis
  4. Krebs cycle

Answer: 2. Electron transport chain

Question 140. The deficiencies of micronutrients affect not only the growth of plants but also vital functions such as photosynthetic and mitochondrial electron flow. Among the list given below, which group of three elements shall affect the most, both photosynthetic and mitochondrial electron transport?

  1. Cu, Mn Fe
  2. Co, Ni, Mo
  3. Mn Co, Ca
  4. Ca, K, Na

Answer: 1. Cu, Mn Fe

Question 141. The chemiosmotic theory of ATP synthesis in the chloro- plast and mitochondria is based on

  1. Proton gradient
  2. Accumulation of K ions
  3. Accumulation of Na ions
  4. Membrane potential

Answer: 1. Proton gradient

Question 142. Respiration is which type of process?

  1. Catabolic
  2. Metabolic
  3. Anabolic
  4. None

Answer: 1. Catabolic

Question 143. RQ is represented by

  1. O2 /CO2
  2. CO2 /O2 ,
  3. V2 /(V2 -V)
  4. O2 taken in

Answer: 2. CO2 /O,

Question 144. Which is the site of the Krebs cycle?

  1. Chloroplast
  2. Golgi body
  3. Mitochondria
  4. Endoplasmic reticulum

Answer: 3. Mitochondria

Question 145. The curing of tea leaves is brought about by the activity of

  1. Viruses
  2. Fungi
  3. Bacteria
  4. Mycorrhiza

Answer: 3. Bacteria

Question 146. Which of the following statements regarding mitochondrial membrane is NOT correct?

  1. The inner membrane is highly convoluted forming a series of infolding.
  2. The outer membrane resembles a sieve.
  3. The outer membrane is permeable to all kinds of molecules.
  4. The enzymes of the electron transfer chain are embedded in the outer membrane.

Answer: 4. The enzymes of the electron transfer chain are embedded in the outer membrane.

Question 147. How many ATP molecules could maximally be generated from one molecule of glucose, if the complete oxidation of one mole of glucose to C02 and H20 yields 686 kcal and the useful chemical energy available in the high energy phosphate bond of 1 mole of ATP is 2 kcal?

  1. 57
  2. 2
  3. 30
  4. 28

Answer: 1. 57

Question 148. The overall goal of glycolysis, the Krebs cycle, and the electron transport system is the formation of

  1. Nucleic acids
  2. ATP in small stepwise units
  3. ATP in one large oxidation reaction
  4. Sugars

Answer: 2. ATP in small stepwise units

Question 149. All enzymes of the TCA cycle are located in the mitochondrial matrix except one which is located in the iimer mitochondrial membrane in eukaryotes and cytosol in prokaryotes. This enzyme is

  1. Succinate dehydrogenase
  2. Lactate dehydrogenase
  3. Isocitrate dehydrogenase
  4. Malate dehydrogenase

Answer: 1. Succinate dehydrogenase

Question 150. Which one of the following mammalian cells is not capable of metabolizing glucose to carbon dioxide aerobically?

  1. Red blood cells
  2. White blood cells
  3. Unstriated muscle cells
  4. Liver cells

Answer: 1. Red blood cells

Question 151. A competitive inhibitor of succinic dehydrogenase is

  1. μ-ketoglutarate
  2. Malate
  3. Malonate
  4. Oxaloacetate

Answer: 3. Malonate

Question 152. The chemiosmotic coupling hypothesis of oxidative  phosphorylation proposes that adenosine triphosphate (ATP) is formed because

  1. A proton gradient forms across the inner membrane
  2. There is a change in the permeability of the inner mitochondrial membrane towards adenosine diphosphate (ADP)
  3. Hich-energy bonds are formed in mitochondrial proteins
  4. ADP is pumped out of the matrix into the intermembrane space

Answer: 1. A proton gradient forms across the inner membrane

Question 153. The energy-releasing process in which the substrate is oxidized without an external electron acceptor is called

  1. Aerobic respiration
  2. Glycolysis
  3. Fermentation
  4. Photorespiration

Answer: 3. Fermentation

Question 154. In germinating seeds, fatty acids are degraded exclusively in the

  1. Peroxisomes
  2. Mitochondria
  3. Proplastids
  4. Glyoxysomes

Answer: 4. Glyoxysomes

Question 155. The energy-releasing metabolic process in which the substrate is oxidized without an external electron acceptor is called(Pre)

  1. Aerobic respiration
  2. Photorespiration
  3. Glycolysis
  4. Fermentation

Answer: 4. Fermentation

NEET Biology Notes – Neural Control And Coordination Introduction

Neural Control And Coordination Introduction

Different activities of an animal’s body are controlled and coordinated through two systems—the nervous system (neural system) and the endocrine system.

Nervous System

The nervous system of all animals is composed of highly specialized cells called neurons, which can detect, receive, and transmit different kinds of stimuli.

  • The neural organization is very simple in lower invertebrates. For example, Hydra is composed of a network of neurons.
  • The nervous system is better organized in insects, where a brain is present along with the number of ganglia and neural tissues.
  • The vertebrates have a more developed neural system.
  • The human nervous system is divided into two parts: The central nervous system (CNS) and the peripheral nervous system (PNS).
  • The CNS includes the brain and spinal cord and is the site of information processing and control.
  • The PNS comprises all the body nerves associated with the CNS (brain and spinal cord).
  • The nerve fibers of PNS are of two types: afferent- fibers and efferent fibers. Afferent fibers transmit impulses from tissues/organs to the CNS and efferent fibers transmit regulatory impulses from the CNS to concerned peripheral tissues/organs.
  • The PNS is divided into two divisions called somatic and autonomic neural systems.
  • The somatic neural system relays impulses from the CNS to skeletal muscles while the autonomic neural system transmits impulses from the CNS to involuntary organs and smooth muscles of the body.
  • The autonomic neural system is further classified into sympathetic and parasympathetic neural systems.

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Types Of Neuron

Nerve cells or neurons are the functional units of the nervous system. These include multipolar nerve cells, with many short dendrites and one long axon (for example, pyramidal cells in the cerebral cortex), bipolar nerve cells, where the long axon extends on either side of the cell body (for example, bipolar neurons in the retina of the eye), and pseudounipolar nerve cells, with cell body on a side-branch of the main axon (for example, cells of dorsal root ganglion).

  • Surrounding neurons are special companion cells, known as glia (Gk: glue).
  • The glial cells perform many housekeeping functions; astrocytes provide nutritional support to neurons; microglia (phagocytic or scavenger cells) consume waste products.
  • Oligodendrocytes insulate by forming myelin sheath in CNG, separating each neuron from others.
  • In the PNS, Schwann cells or neurolemmocytes, a type of glial cell, wrap around the axons of neurons, thereby covering the axon with concentric layers of insulating plasma membrane, i.e., the myelin sheath.

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Nerve Impulse And Its Transmission

Nerve cells have polarized membranes, i.e., they have electrical potential difference or membrane potential. This is because of a variety of ion channels (pores formed by proteins) specific to a particular type of ion.

  • Some ion channels remain open while most of them open under one condition and close under another condition.
  • Because of such regulated or voltage-gated channels, membranes become excitable as these channels respond to different types of stimuli, for example, light, touch, sound, etc.
  • When a neuron is not sending any signal, it is said to be at rest and its membrane has resting membrane potential.

Resting Membrane Potential: In a resting nerve fiber, the cytoplasm just beneath its membrane is electronegative relative to the layer of extracellular fluid (ECF) just outside the membrane.

If the two sides of the membrane are connected by a galvanometer (double beam cathode ray oscilloscope), the inner side is seen to possess a negative potential of about 70 mV relative to the outer side. This is called the resting membrane potential. This results from two factors:

Epithelium

  1. The resting membrane has a poor permeability for Na% although it has a higher permeability for K+. Therefore, K+ can cross more easily while Cl and Na+ have more difficulty in crossing.
  2. A negatively charged protein molecule inside the neuron cannot cross the plasma membrane because of its semipermeability.
  • The differential flow of the positively charged ions and the fact that the negatively charged organic ions within the nerve fiber cannot pass out cause an increasing positive charge on the outer side of the membrane and a negative charge on the inner side of the membrane.
  • This makes the membrane of the resting nerve fiber polarized (i.e., its outer side is positively charged with respect to its inner side). Such electrochemical gradients are maintained by the active transport of ions involving the Na+-K+ ion transmembrane pump. It pumps out 3Na+ for every 2K+ ions passed inwardly.
  • K+ concentration is 30 times more inside a neuron than outside and Na+ concentration is 10 times more in interstitial fluid as compared to the inner side of neuron.

NEET Biology Neural Control And Coordination Transmission Of Nerve Impulse

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class 11 neural control and coordination

Conduction of Nerve Impulse: It involves initiation of the impulse followed by conduction along the axon to be transferred to the target muscle/tissue.

Initiation of Impulse: When stimulated, voltage-gated Na+ channels open which causes a rapid, very localized, temporary inflow of Na+ into the cell, which further causes the development of the net positive charge on the inner side of the membrane in that area.

  • This is called depolarization. It occurs at a particular region of the neuron called the trigger zone. Voltage-gated ion channels are clustered in the area of the trigger zone.
  • The stimulus of the threshold value causes the stoppage of the Na+-K+ ATPase pump.
  • Continued passage of Na+ ions into the neuron creates a reverse potential of +20 mV to +30 mV, rarely to +60 mV.
  • The total change occurs in a spike-like fashion which is also called spike potential.
  • Na+ ion channels open for about 0.5 ms. This creates a potential that sets in a wave of depolarization through the nerve fiber.

NEET Biology Neural Control And Coordination Record Of Potential Changes Of A Nerve Impulse

  • The membrane potential that sets in a wave of depolarization is called action potential.
  • For most excitable cells, the threshold is about -55 mV to -60 mV.

Conduction Of Impulse: In the area of depolarization, the potential difference across the membrane is small while its nearby region has a large difference in membrane potential. This produces a small local current in the area.

  • The local current becomes a stimulus and causes the gated Na+ channels of the next region to open and depolarize the area to produce a fresh action potential.
  • The process continues till the impulse reaches the end of the neuron.

NEET Biology Neural Control And Coordination Diagrammatic Representation Of Impulse Conduction

Repolarization: As Na+ channels close, after 0.5 ms, the membrane becomes extra permeable to K+ ions due to the opening of the K+ ion gates.

  • With the pumping out of K+ ions, the neuron interior becomes negative and the potential falls back to the resting potential.
  • The phenomenon of change of membrane potential from an excited state to a resting state is called repolarization. However, K+ ion channels remain open for a bit longer period so that the membrane potential becomes more negative than -70 mV. This is called hyperpolarization.
  • It takes about 1-5 ms for repolarization.

Difference between non-myelinated and myelinated fibers:

NEET Biology Neural Control And Coordination Difference Between Non Myelinated And Myelinated Fibers

Synaptic Transmission

Synapses are the neuronal junctions through which information from one neuron can pass to the other. There are mainly two types of synapses depending upon the nature of the transfer of information across the synapse: electrical and chemical.

Electrical Synapses: At an electrical synapse, ionic current spreads directly from one cell to another through gap junctions.

  1. Each gap junction contains a hundred or so tubular protein structures called connexons that form a tunnel to connect the cytosol of the two cells. This provides a path for ionic current flow.
  2. Gap junctions are common in visceral (single-unit) smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and a developing embryo.
  3. They also occur in the CNS.

Epithelium

Electrical synapses have three obvious advantages:

  1. They allow faster communication than do chemical synapses since impulses conduct across gap junctions.
  2. They can synchronize the activity of a group of neurons or muscle fibers. The value of synchronized action potentials in the heart or in visceral smooth muscles is to achieve coordinated contraction of these fibers.
  3. They may allow two-way transmission of impulses in contrast to chemical synapses, which function as one-way points of communication.

Chemical Synapses: Chemical synapses have a 10-20 nm gap which is too great a distance for such direct electrical coupling.

  • Chemical synapses are the most common type of synapses. These consist of a bulbous expansion of a nerve terminal called a synaptic knob lying in close proximity to the membrane of a dendrite or other part of a neuron.
  • The cytoplasm of the synaptic knob contains numerous tiny, round sacs, called synaptic vesicles.
  • Each vesicle has a diameter of approximately 50 nm and contains as many as 10,000 molecules of a neurotransmitter substance responsible for the transmission of nerve impulses across the synapse.
  • The membrane of the synaptic knob on the axon side, thickened as a result of cytoplasmic condensation, is called the presynaptic membrane.
  • The mechanism of transmission of nerve impulses through chemical synapse is as follows:

NEET Biology Neural Control And Coordination Mechanism Of Transmission Of Nerve Impulse Through Chemical Synapse

Examples Of Excitatory And Inhibitory Neurotransmitters:

NEET Biology Neural Control And Coordination Examples Of Excitatory And Inhibitory Neurotransmitter

NEET Biology Neural Control And Coordination Transmission Of Nerve Impulse At A Chemical Synapse

Points To Remember

  • Acetylcholinesterase is present in the muscle cell or post-synaptic neuron. It breaks down acetylcholine into acetate and choline and terminates the action of the transmitter.
  • Nor-epinephrine secreted by the sympathetic neural system and also by some neurons of the central neural system is inactivated by the enzyme monamine oxidase.

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Central Nervous System Of Humans

The structures of the CNS arise from their embryological components.

  • Prosencephalon: Becomes thalamus and hypothalamus (diencephalon); cerebral cortex, corpus striatum, hippocampus, and amygdala (telencephalon).
  • Mesencephalon: Becomes midbrain.
  • Rhombencephalon: Develops into the medulla (myelencephalon) and pons and cerebellum (metencephalon).

Brain

Meninges: The brain is surrounded by three protective coats of connective tissue besides the bony cranium. These are known as meninges (singular, meninx).

  1. Pia mater: It is the inner meninx. It is very thin, highly vascular, and closely invests the brain. It is covered by simple squamous epithelium.
  2. Arachnoid mater or membrane: It is the middle meninx. It is also thin but is non-vascular. It is covered with simple squamous epithelium on both (internal and external) surfaces. There is a narrow space between the pia mater and the arachnoid membrane. It is called the subarachnoid space. It contains cerebrospinal fluid and is crossed by a number of connective tissue strands.
  3. Dura mater: It is the outer meninx. It is thick, and tough, and lines the cranial cavity. Its internal surface is covered with simple squamous epithelium. A very narrow space also exists between the dura mater and the arachnoid membrane. It is called the subdural space. It contains a little fluid which is not the cerebrospinal fluid.

An adult human brain contains more than 100 billion neurons and almost 10 times neuroglia cells. The brain is divided into three main sections: (I) forebrain, midbrain, and hindbrain.

Epithelium

Different Regions of the Brain

Forebrain: It consists of two main parts, cerebrum and diencephalon.

Cerebrum: By far the largest and most highly developed part of the brain is the cerebrum. It is divided into two hemispheres by a prominent longitudinal fissure. The two hemispheres are connected by a bundle of transverse fibers called the corpus callosum. The anterior part of the corpus callosum is curved and is called genu, while the posterior part is called splenium. Each cerebral hemisphere is divided into four lobes. These are frontal at the front, parietal toward the top of the head, temporal on the side, and occipital at the rear.

Cerebral Lobes And Their Major Functions:

NEET Biology Neural Control And Coordination Cerebral Lobes And Their Major Functions

NEET Biology Neural Control And Coordination Human Brain In Side View

Cerebral cortex: The outer surface of the cerebrum, called the cortex, is a layer only 2-4 mm thick.

  • Because the six layers are packed with 10 billion pyramidal, spindle, and stellate neurons with a greyish-brown appearance, it is referred to as grey matter.
  • The cerebral cortex contains roughly 10% of all neurons of the brain.
  • Much of the neural activities occur here, for example, from the touch of a feature to the movement of an arm.
  • Unlike the mouse brain, the human brain is greatly convoluted.
  • These convolutions or folds consist of sulci (sing, sulcus: small groove), fissures (large grooves), and gyri (sing, gyrus: bulge between adjacent sulci or fissures).

NEET Biology Neural Control And Coordination Convulsions Showing Gyri and Sulci

  • These greatly enlarge the surface area of the cortex.
  • In fact, two-thirds of the surface of the cortex is hidden in sulci and fissures. Thus, their presence triples the area of the cerebral cortex.
  • Beneath this run millions of axons comprising nerve fiber tracts, connecting the neurons of the cerebral cortex with those located elsewhere in the brain.
  • The large concentration of myelin gives this tissue an opaque white appearance. Hence, they are referred to by the term white matter.
  • By examining the effect of injuries or lesions and the effect of electrical stimulation on the behavior, it has been possible to map roughly the location of its various associative activities on the cerebral cortex.
  • Each area is referred to as a specialized cortex.
  • There are three general kinds of cortex: sensory, motor, and associative.

Diencephalon: The diencephalon contains epithalamus, thalamus, and hypothalamus.

  • The epithalamus is a thin, non-nervous roof of the diencephalon.
  • Its anterior region is folded and fused with pia mater to form the anterior choroid plexus. This is responsible for the formation of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF).
  • Above it is present pineal stalk bearing the pineal body at the top of it.
  • The pineal body is an endocrine gland and is also taken as a vestige of the third eye.
  • The thalamus directs sensory impulses from the lower parts of the brain and spinal cord to appropriate parts of the cerebrum.
  • Limited sensory awareness of pain, temperature, touch, and pressure is provided by the thalamus.

Hypothalamus: As the name implies, the hypothalamus nestles at the base of the thalamus, and so of the brain.

  • Although relatively small, just 4 g, about 1/300 of the total brain mass is highly vascularized.
  • It integrates and controls visceral activities.
  • The hypothalamus, through its connection with the brain stem, maintains homeostasis and the body’s internal equilibrium, specializing in involuntary behavior control.
  • The nuclei in it signal the body to eat, drink, get angry, keep cool, etc.
  • The hypothalamus organizes behavior related to the survival of species: fighting, feeding, fleeing, and mating.
  • It keeps the body temperature at roughly 37°C by means of a complex thermostat system.
  • It also influences respiration and heartbeat and sends, out signals to correct them when they are wrong.
  • Through connections with the pituitary gland, it controls growth and sexual behavior.

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Basal ganglia: The inside of the human brain is not so densely packed, but there are all kinds of different collections of neurons, called nuclei, each with its specific functions.

  • These control different body activities automatically.
  • Basal ganglia are a collection of subcortical nuclei in the forebrain, at the base of the cortex.
  • The largest nucleus in it is the corpus striatum.
  • It regulates the planning and execution of stereotyped movements.
  • Other basal ganglia perform at a subconscious level learned patterns of movements such as slow and fast pedaling, slow and fast writing/typing, etc.
  • Destruction of the dopamine-secreting par compacta part of the basal nucleus called substantia nigra leads to paralysis agitans, Parkinson’s disease. Huntington’s chorea is due to the degeneration of GABA-secreting neurons of the corpus striatum and acetylcholine-secreting neurons of other parts.

Limbic system: Flared like a wishbone, a ring or fork through extensive neural links with the cerebrum and the brain stem below constitute what is called limbic system (meaning lip-like).

  • The limbic system sends out signals to the rest of the brain and the body which have a great effect on your behavior.
  • It includes the hypothalamus, amygdala, hippocampus, septum, anterior nucleus of the thalamus, and a portion of basal ganglia.

Amygdala: above the hypothalamus, attached to the inner lips of both forks, is like an almond-shaped amygdala. This bulge of neurons is like a defense castle controlling moods, especially anger and rage. Various regions of the amygdala play important roles in emotional behavior such as aggression and remembering fear.

This remarkable organ deals with a strange mix of signals about smells and memories.

The hippocampus functions as a kind of index for the recall of an event with its associated memory.

It converts information from short-term to long-term memory, essential in learning.

The septum linked to the hypothalamus contains yet another emotional center for sexual arousal.

Epithelium

Midhniln: It has two structures: corpora quadrigemina and crura cerebri.

Corpora Quadrigemina: It contains four lobes, therefore, corpora quadrigemina.

  • Its principal structures are superior and inferior colliculi.
  • The superior pair of colliculi receives sensory impulses from the eyes and muscles of the head and controls visual reflexes. For example, they control and coordinate the movement of the head and eyes, to fix and focus on an object.
  • The inferior pair of colliculi receives sensory impulses from the ears and muscles of the head and controls auditory reflexes such as the movement of the head to locate and detect the source of a sound.

NEET Biology Neural Control And Coordination Median Section Of Human Brain

Crura cerebri (cerebral peduncle): These are two heavy fibrous tracts on the inferior side of the midbrain and connect the hindbrain with the forebrain.

  • Crura cerebri is involved in controlling muscle tone and modifying some motor activities.
  • These relay sensory as well as motor impulses between forebrain and hindbrain.

Hindbrain: It consists of the cerebellum, pons, and medulla.

  1. Cerebellum
    • To the rear of the brain and placed under the cerebrum, the cerebellum is the second largest part of the brain, which means simply “little cerebrum.
    • Wedged between cerebral hemispheres and the brainstem, the cerebellum is made up of two cerebellar hemispheres.
    • Like the cerebrum, the cerebellum has its grey matter on the outside, comprising three layers of cells and fibers.
    • The middle layer contains characteristically large flask-shaped Ptirkinje cells.
    • Tree-like structure with a myriad of dendrites, Purkinje cells rank among the most complex of all neurons.
    • The white and grey matter form arbor vitae.
    • The central portion of the cerebellum has a worm-like appearance as it is narrow and furrowed. It is called vermis.
    • Three paired bundles of myelinated nerve fibers, called cerebellar peduncles, form communication pathways between the cerebellum and other parts of the CNS.
    • The superior cerebellar peduncles connect the cerebellum to the midbrain, middle cerebellar peduncles communicate with pons, and inferior cerebellar peduncles consist of pathways between the cerebellum and medulla oblongata as well as the spinal cord.
    • The cerebellum does not initiate movement but modulates or reorganizes motor commands.
    • The cerebellum’s unconscious directions and cerebrum’s conscious instructions determine how and when to move body parts.
    • The cerebellum is vital to the control of rapid muscular activities such as running, typing, and even talking.
    • All the activities of the cerebellum are involuntary but may involve learning in their early stages.
  2. Pons: Pons (Latin: bridge) forms the floor of the brain stem.
    • It serves as a neuronal link between the cerebral cortex and cerebellum.
    • It has a pneumatic center and a switch-off center for inspiration.
  3. Medulla oblongata: Literally meaning oblong mar- mu-, medulla oblongata is the posteriormost part that connects the spinal cord and various parts of the brain.
    • It lies with its breathing center, cardiovascular center, and vomiting center.
    • The Vagus nerve arises from the medulla.
    • Its roof is thin and non-nervous and constitutes posterior choroid plexus.
    • Below the plexus, the roof has three openings, a pair of lateral apertures called foramina Luschka, and a single median foramina Magendie.
    • These apertures connect the external and internal components of the CSF of the brain.
    • Most of the sensory as well as motor nerve tracts cross over to the other side of the medulla. Therefore, the right half of the cerebrum controls the left half of the body and vice versa.

The reticular formation that connects to the thalamus and major nerves in the spinal cord is the gatekeeper to consciousness.

Brain stem: It is the area of the brain between the thalamus and spinal cord and includes the medulla, pons, and midbrain. Diencephalon may or may not be included.

Ventricles of the Brain and Cerebrospinal Fluid:

  • The ventricles consist of four hollow, fluid-filled spaces inside the brain.
  • A lateral ventricle lies inside each hemisphere of the cerebrum.
  • Each lateral ventricle is connected to the third ventricle by an interventricular foramen (foramen of Monro).
  • The third ventricle consists of a narrow channel between the hemispheres through the area of the thalamus.
  • It is connected by a cerebral aqueduct or aqueduct of Sylvius or iter in the midbrain portion of the brain stem to the fourth ventricle in the pons and medulla.
  • The fourth ventricle continues with the central canal of the spinal cord.

NEET Biology Neural Control And Coordination Schematic Representation Of The Ventricles Of Human Brain

  • Three openings in the roof of the fourth ventricle, a pair of lateral apertures (foramina or Luschka), and a median aperture (foramen of Magendie) allow CSF to move upward to the subarachnoid space that surrounds the brain and spinal cord.
  • The CSF is secreted by the anterior choroid plexus and posterior choroid plexus and is found inside the ventricles of the brain, the central canal of the spinal cord.
  • The CSF acts as a shock absorber for the brain and spinal cord and may also contribute to nourishing brain tissue. It contains protein, glucose, chloride, and water.

Spinal Cord: It is an elongated cylindrical structure that lies in the neural canal of the vertebral column and is continued with the medulla oblongata through the foramen magnum to the skull.

NEET Biology Neural Control And Coordination Transverse Section Of Human Spinal Cord

  • It measures about 45 cm in length.
  • It extends down up to the first lumbar vertebra where it tapers to a point called conus modular/conus termi-nalis. However, the meninges of the spinal cord continue as the film terminates starting from the conus and running up to the coccygeal region.
  • The spinal cord shows two enlargements: brachial swelling (from 4th cervical to 1st thoracic vertebrae) and lumbar swelling (from 9th thoracic to 12th thoracic vertebrae).
  • The spinal cord possesses an anterior and a posterior median fissure running along its length.
  • The grey matter of the spinal cord is internal and present around the central canal.
  • It is produced into posterior and anterior pairs of grey columns/roots.
  • Each dorsal root has a ganglion called dorsal root ganglion.
  • The dorsal root is sensory and the ventral root is motor in nature. Both get combined before coming out of the vertebral column through intervertebral foramina.
  • The white muter is outer and is divided into four funiculi one dorsal, one ventral, and two lateral
  • The spinal cord conducts impulses to and from the brain.
  • The dorsal funiculus has an ascending nerve tract for conducting sensor impulses toward the brain.
  • Latetal and ventral funiculi conduct motor impulse Hour brain to spinal coni.
  • It controls most of the reflex activities.

Peripheral Nervous System Of Humans

The PNS is constituted by the nerves that arise from the brain and spinal cord. They are, respectively, called cranial (cerebral! and spinal nerves, PNS is subdivided into the somatic neural system and the autonomic nervous system.

Cranial nerves:

  • There are 12 pairs of cranial nerves in man.
  • They leave the cranium through foramina and mainly innervate the head region.
  • Their origin, supply, and nature are given in

Origin, Supply, And Nature Of Cranial Name Nerves:

NEET Biology Neural Control And Coordination Origin Supply And Nature Of Cranial Nerves 1

NEET Biology Neural Control And Coordination Origin Supply And Nature Of Cranial Nerves 2

Spinal Nerves:

  • In man, there are 31 pairs of spinal nerves. They are classified into live groups.
  • They include eight pairs of cervical nerves, 12 pairs of thoracic nerves, five pairs of lumbar nerves, five pairs of sacral nerves, and one pair of coccygeal.
  • They leave the vertebral column through intervertebral foramina, and all of them are mixed. It is divided in the way into three to four branches.
  • Posterior or dorsal branch: It supplies muscles and skin of the back.
    • Anterior or ventral branch: It supplies organs in the front and sides of the body. It forms the main spinal nerve.
    • Meningeal or recurrent branch: It supplies meninges, ligaments, blood vessels, and other parts of the vertebral column.
    • Visceral or ramus communicans: It occurs from the first thoracic to third lumbar nerves. It joins the sympathetic chain of its side.
  • The main spinal nerves are anterior or ventral branches of spinal nerves joined at places to form plexuses. These plexuses are five in number.
    • Cervical plexus: It occurs in the neck region. The cervical plexus is formed by the first four cervical spinal nerves and the phrenic nerve. The plexus innervates the neck and diaphragm.
    • Brachial plexus: It is formed by the fifth, sixth, seventh, and eighth cervical spinal nerves and the first thoracic spinal nerve. The plexus innervates the chest and arms.
    • Lumbar plexus: It is formed by the first four lumbar spinal nerves. It supplies nerves to the legs.
    • Sacral plexus: The plexus is formed by a branch of each of the fourth and fifth lumbar nerves and the first four sacral nerves. It innervates the hip joint and a part of the pelvis.
    • Coccygeal plexus: It is formed by the fourth and fifth sacral spinal nerves and the coccygeal nerve for innervating skin and parts of the pelvis.

Peripheral Nervous System Of Humans Points To Remember

Spinal accessory (XI) and hypoglossal (XII) are lacking in amniotes (cyclostomes, fishes, and amphibians)

Wrist drop: Due to injury in the brachial plexus.

Foot drop: Due to injury in the sciatic nerve.

Autonomic (or Visceral) Nervous System

The autonomic nervous system consists of two antagonistic components—sympathetic and parasympathetic.

  1. Sympathetic nervous system
    • The sympathetic nervous system is represented by a chain of 21 sympathetic ganglia on either side of the spinal cord.
    • It receives preganglionic sympathetic fibers from the spinal cord, which make their exit along with thoracic and lumbar nerves and constitute thoracolumbar outflow.
    • These fibers synapse with the neurons present in the sympathetic ganglia.
    • From the sympathetic ganglia arise postganglionic fibers which terminate on the viscera.
    • Each sympathetic ganglion is connected to the spinal cord by white communicants and the spinal nerve by gray communicants.
    • Some preganglionic fibers pass through the sympathetic chain without synapsing and then join to form splanchnic nerves emanating in some collateral ganglia which include a celiac ganglion, an anterior mesenteric ganglion, and a posterior mesenteric ganglion.
    • The postganglionic fibers arising from collateral ganglia supply the digestive system and urinogenital system.
  2. Parasympathetic nervous system
    • It consists of preganglionic parasympathetic fibers, parasympathetic ganglia, and postganglionic parasympathetic fibers.
    • Preganglionic parasympathetic fibers make their exit along with the 3, 4, 9, and 10 cranial nerves, and 2, 3, and 4 sacral nerves.
    • They together form craniosacral outflow.
    • The parasympathetic ganglia do not form any chains and instead lie on or near the viscera.
    • The postganglionic parasympathetic fibers arise from these ganglia and supply the viscera.
    • The neurotransmitter within the ganglion is acetylcholine for both sympathetic and parasympathetic nerves. However, the neurotransmitter between the terminal autonomic neuron axon and the target organ is different in the two antagonistic autonomic nervous systems.
    • In the parasympathetic system, the neurotransmitter at the terminal synapse is acetylcholine, just as it is in the ganglion. In the sympathetic system, the neurotransmitter at the terminal synapse is either adrenaline or noradrenaline, both of which have an effect opposite to that of acetylcholine.
    • There is one exception: the sympathetic postganglionic neuron that terminates on sweat glands uses acetylcholine. Thus, depending on which of the two paths is selected by the CNS, an arriving signal will either stimulate or inhibit the organ. Thus, an organ receiving nerves from both visceral nervous systems is subjected to the effects of two opposing neurotransmitters.
    • If the sympathetic nerve ending excites a particular organ, the parasympathetic usually inhibits it.
    • With few exceptions, organs of the body are innervated by “dual innervations,” and each has a different effect.

NEET Biology Neural Control And Coordination Diagram Representation Of Parasympathetic Nervous System

NEET Biology Neural Control And Coordination Diagram Representation Of Sympathetic Nervous System

  • The function of the autonomic nervous system is to control and coordinate the activities of visceral organs. The two components work against one another.
  •  The roles of sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems are mentioned

Antagonistic Role Of Sympathetic And Parasympathetic Nervous Systems:

NEET Biology Neural Control And Coordination Antagonistic Role Of Sympathetic And Parasympathetic Nervous Systems

Nervous System Points To Remember

  1. A gasserian ganglion is associated with the trigeminal nerve.
  2. Geniculate ganglion is the swelling of the facial nerve.
  3. Parasympathetic fibers do not travel in the dorsal and ventral rami of the spinal nerve.
  4. As a result, the effector in the skin, sweat gland, arrector pili muscle, and cutaneous blood vessels receive no parasympathetic innervation.

Reflex Action

Reflex action is the simplest kind of activity which can be defined as an integrated activity occurring involuntarily in response to a stimulus applied to a receptor. The reflex arc is composed of the following: a receptor organ, an afferent neuron, synapse involving some cells in the CNS.

NEET Biology Neural Control And Coordination A Reflex Arc To Show Reflex Action

Reflexes can be classified as unconditioned and conditioned reflexes. Unconditioned reflexes are inborn, for example, knee jerk, salivation on tasting the food, peristalsis, and closing of eyes on being approached by an object. Conditioned reflexes are acquired, i.e., developed after birth through conditioning or learning. For example, playing a musical instrument, knitting without looking, writing as well as reading.

NEET Biology Neural Control And Coordination Diagrammatic Presentation Of Reflex Action

Reflexes can also be classified according to the number of synapses in the reflex path. These are as follows:

  1. Monosynaptic reflexes: When there is only one synapse in the reflex path. For example, knee jerk.
  2. Polysnaptic reflexes: When there is more than one synapse in the reflex path.

Reflex Action Points To Remember

Salivation on seeing hearing or smelling delicious food is an example of cerebral reflex action, whereas withdrawal of legs when a drop of HCl is dropped over the sciatic nerve of a decapitated frog is an example of spinal reflex action.

  • Characteristics Of Reflexes: Although the reflexes are involuntary functions, they have certain features that make them highly complicated. Some important characteristics are as follows:
  • Predictability: Once the response of an organ to a specific stimulus is observed, one can predict that the same stimulus will always elicit the same response.
  • Purposefulness: Generally all reflex actions are useful to the organism and are performed with a definite purpose.
  • Localization: In performing a reflex action, a specific effector is involved in response to the stimulus applied to a specific receptor.
  • Delay: Reflex time is the interval between the application of the stimulus to a receptor and the beginning of a response by an effector organ. A synaptic delay occurs due to latent period and reflex time at the synapse. This depends upon the number of synapses in the nerve pathway.
  • Unlearned: To activate spinal effector mechanisms, no experience is needed to bring them into operation.
  • Adjustive and protective: Reflexes serve adjustive and protective purposes and become an important part of animal behavior.
  • Fatigue: Reflex responses arc readily fatigued after prolonged and continuous work. As a consequence, the latent period of contraction becomes longer and the rise of tension smaller and more gradual.

Sense Organs

Stimuli are received by certain structures in the body. These are called receptors or sense organs. A receptor may be extremely simple such as those of touch, taste, and smell, or they may be highly complex in their structure as well as working, for example, the sense organs of sight and hearing. Sense organs can be classified based on the following criteria:

  1. According to their position
    • Exteroceptors: The external sense organs that receive the stimuli from the outer environment.
    • Proprioceptors: Simple receptors present in joints, skeletal muscles, tendons, etc. They are not in direct contact with the environment but are affected by the changes in the environment.
    • Visceroceptors or internal receptors: The receptors present within the viscera. They receive stimuli originating within the body itself. They are simple and mostly represented by free nerve endings. Perception is conscious awareness and interpretation of sensation.
  2. According to the form of stimulus they receive: The sense organs are classified on this basis.

Different Types Of Receptors And The Form Of Stimulus They Receive:

NEET Biology Neural Control And Coordination Different Types Of Receptors And The Form Of Stimulus They Receive

Tangoreceptors: These are the sense organs for touch, pressure, and pain. heat, or cold. They are located in the skin and include:

Meissner’s corpuscles: They are present immediately below the epidermis and receive the stimulus of touch/gentle pressure.

Pacinian corpuscles: Situated deep in the dermis of skin, joints, tendons, and muscles. Each corpuscle has a nerve ending surrounded by connective tissue. They respond to pressure changes.

NEET Biology Neural Control And Coordination Various Skin Receptors

Merkel’s disc: Occurs in the epidermis and is responsible for touch.

Skin is often called hypothermic because it has more cold receptors. The regulation of temperature in the human body is mediated by the hypothalamus which has a “set point” (96.4°F or 37°C) around which the core temperature oscillates.

Smell Receptors (Olfactoreceptors): The receptors of smell occur in a small patch of olfactory epithelium (pseudostratified epithelium) located in the roof of the nasal cavity. Smell receptors are of the following types:

  • Olfactory receptor cells: They act as sensory receptors as well as conducting neurons. The olfactory receptor cells are “unusual” bipolar neurons. Each cell is spindle-shaped and has a thin apical dendrite that terminates in a knob that bears non-motile cilia called olfactory hairs. Olfactory receptor cells are unique in that they are the only neurons that undergo turnover throughout adult life.
  • Supporting cells: These are columnar cells that lie between the olfactory receptor cells to support them. They have brownish-yellow pigment (similar to lipofuscin) which gives the olfactory epithelium its yellowish color.
  • Basal cells: These are small cells that do not reach the surface. They give rise to new olfactory receptor cells to replace the worn-out ones. This is an exception to the fact that neurons are not formed in the postnatal (after birth) life. The olfactory receptor cells survive only for about two months.
  • Olfactory glands (Bowman’s glands): Many olfactory glands occur below the olfactory epithelium that secrete mucus to spread over the epithelium to keep it moist. The mucus also protects the cells from dust and bacteria.
  • Working on smell receptors: The dissolved chemicals stimulate the olfactory receptors by binding to protein receptors in the olfactory hairs (cilia) membranes and opening specific Na+ and K channels. This leads ultimately to an action potential that is conducted to the first relay station in the olfactory bulb.

The fibers of the olfactory nerves synapse with mitral cells (second-order neurons) in complex structures called glomeruli (balls of yam). When mitral cells are activated, impulses travel from the olfactory bulbs via olfactory tracts to main destinations (for example, the temporal lobe of the cerebrum).

NEET Biology Neural Control And Coordination Olfactory Epithelium Ethmoid Bone And Olfactory Lobe

Sense Organs Points To Remember

  1. Women often have a keener sense of smell than men, especially at the time of ovulation.
  2. Smoking damages the olfactory receptors.
  3. With aging, the sense of smell deteriorates.
  4. Hyposmia (hypo: less, osmi: smell) is a reduced ability to smell.
  5. In addition to smell receptors, the nose, mouth, and tongue contain a network of nerves that form the trigeminal nerve (fifth cranial nerve) also known as the dentist’s nerve reacts to messages of path,
  6. The brain combines the trigeminal signals with those of smell to identify some odors when exposed to irritants such as ammonia or vinegar.
  7. The trigeminal can protect by warning about harmful chemicals in the air. Bowman’s glands inside the nose release fluids to get rid of the irritating substances.

Taste Receptors (Gustatoreceptors)

Location: The receptors for taste are found in the taste buds, mostly located on the tongue, but are also found on the palate, pharynx, epiglottis, and even in the proximal part of the esophagus. The number of taste buds declines with age.

Structures: Each taste bud is an oval body consisting of three kinds of cells.

Gustatory receptor cells: They bear at the free end microvilli projecting into the taste pore. The microvilli have special protein receptor sites for taste-producing molecules and come in contact with the food being eaten. Nerve fibers of the cranial nerves 7 (facial),9 (glossopharyngeal), or 10 (vagus) end around the gustatory receptor cells, forming synapses with them. The gustatory receptor cells (taste cells) survive only about 10 days and are then replaced by new cells.

NEET Biology Neural Control And Coordination Vertical Section Through A Taste Bud

Supporting cells: These cells lie between the gustatory receptor cells in the taste bud. They bear microvilli but lack nerve endings.

Basal Cells: These cells are found at the periphery of the taste bud. They produce supporting cells, which then develop into gustatory receptor cells.

NEET Biology Neural Control And Coordination Superior View Of The Transverse Section Of Right Eyeball

Working: Specific chemicals in solution pass into the taste bud through the taste pore to come in contact with the protein receptor sites on the microvilli of the gustatory receptor cells. The latter set up nerve impulses in the sensory nerve fibers. The nerve fibers transmit the impulses to the taste center in the brain (for example, the parietal lobe of the cerebrum) where the sensation of taste arises.

The facial nerve (8) serves the anterior two-thirds of the tongue, the glossopharyngeal nerve (9) serves the posterior one-third of the tongue and the vagus nerve (10) serves the pharynx and epiglottis but not the tongue.

Organs of Sight (Eye)

Location: The organs of sight in man are a pair of eyes located in the eye orbits of the skull.

Structure: The exposed part of the eye is protected by an upper and a lower eyelid which are provided with eyelashes. Each eye is represented in the form of a spherical eyeball which is moved in the eye orbit with the help of six eye muscles, namely, superior oblique, inferior oblique, superior rectus, inferior rectus, external rectus, and internal rectus. An eyeball measures about 2.5 cm in diameter and is hollow. Its wall is formed of three layers or coats. The outermost is called the fibrous coat, the middle one is a vascular coat, and the inner one is a retina.

  1. Fibrous coat: The outer coat of the eyeball is thick and tough. It provides form and shape to the eyeball. The fibrous coat consists of two parts, sclera and cornea.
    • The sclera constitutes about five-sixth of the outer coat. It is white (made up of tough but clastic sheath of fibrous connective tissue containing collagen fibers) and opaque, popularly called white of the eye. Most the of sclera is concealed in the orbit.
    • The cornea is the anterior transparent part of the sclera and constitutes about one-sixth of the fibrous coat, ft is non-vascular and convex anteriorly. The cornea is covered by a thin and transparent membrane called conjunctiva composed of stratified epithelium and continued over the inner surface of lids.
  2. Vascular coat: The middle coat of the eyeball is differentiated into three regions, namely, choroid, ciliary body, and iris.
    • The choroid is a delicate, highly vascular, and pigmented part that lies in contact with the sclera. It provides a dark color to the interior of the eyeball, it is black in color. It prevents internally reflected light within the eye. The blood vessels of the choroid nourish the retina.
    • The ciliary body is the part of the vascular coat immediately behind the peripheral margin of the iris. The ciliary body is thicker and less vascular than the choroid. Its inner surface is folded to form ciliary processes. Present within the ciliary body are ciliary muscles.

NEET Biology Neural Control And Coordination Radial Section Of The Ciliary Part Of Mammalian Eye

Iris is the anterior part vascular coat that lies behind the cornea. It is centrally perforated by the pupil, the size of which is regulated by iridial muscles arranged radially and circularly. The iris, being pigmented, provides color to the eye.

Mirror-like tapetum layer of carnivores such as cats, etc.. increases sensitivity by reflecting unabsorbed light through the photoreceptor layer to shine in the dark.

Retina (nervous tunic):

  • The third and inner coat of the eyeball, the retina (nervous tunic), lines the posterior three-quarters of the eyeball and is the beginning of the visual pathway.
  • The optic disc is the site where the optic nerve exits the eyeball.
  • Bundled together with the optic nerve are the central retinal artery, a branch of the ophthalmic artery, and the central retinal vein.
  • Branches of the central retinal artery fan out to nourish the anterior surface of the retina.
  • The central retinal vein drains blood from the retina through the optic disc.
  • The retina consists of a pigment epithelium (nonvisual portion) and a neural portion (visual portion).
  • The pigment epithelium is a sheet of melanin-containing epithelial cells that lays between the choroid and the neural portion of the retina some histologists classify it as part of the choroid rather than the retina.
  • Melanin in the choroid and pigment epithelium absorbs stray light rays which prevent reflection and scattering of light within the eyeball. This enables the image cast on the retina by the cornea and the lens to remain sharp and clear.
  • The pigmented layer is continuous over the choroid, ciliary body, and iris, while the nervous layer terminates just before the ciliary body. This point is called orra serrata.
  • Albinos lack melanin pigment in all parts of the body, including the eye.
  • The neural portion of the retina is a multilayered outgrowth of the brain.
  • It processes visual data extensively before transmitting nerve impulses to the thalamus, which then relays nerve impulses to the primary visual cortex.
  • Three distinct layers of retinal neurons are separated by two zones where synaptic contacts arc made—inner and outer synaptic layers.
  • The three layers of retinal neurons, in the order in which they process visual input, are the photoreceptor layer, bipolar cell layer, and ganglion cell layer.
  • Note that light passes through the ganglion and bipolar eel! layers before reaching the photoreceptor layer.
  • Two other types of cells present in the retina are called horizontal cells and endocrine cells. These cells form laterally directed pathways that modify the signals being transmitted along the pathway from photoreceptors to bipolar cells to ganglion cells.

NEET Biology Neural Control And Coordination Schematic Diagram To Show The Layer Of Retina

  • Photoreceptors are specialized to transduce light rays into receptor potentials.
  • The two types of photoreceptors are rods and cones.
  • Each retina has about 6 million cones and 120 million rods.
  • Rods are the most important for seeing shades of grey in dim light.
  • They also allow us to see shapes and movement.
  • Cones provide color vision in bright light.
  • The visual pigments for color vision are erythropsin (sensitive to red), chloropsin (sensitive to green), and cyanopsin (sensitive to blue).
  • In moonlight, we cannot see colors because only the rods are functioning.
  • Due to the low light level cones are not functioning.
  • The macula lutea is in the exact center of the posterior portion of the retina, at the visual axis of the eye.
  • The central fovea, a small depression in the center of the macula lutea, contains only cone photoreceptors.
  • In addition, the layers of bipolar and ganglion cells, which scatter light to some extent do not cover the cones here; these layers are displaced to the periphery of the fovea.
  • As a result, the central fovea is the area of highest visual acuity or resolution (sharpness of vision).
  • Rods are absent from the fovea and macula and increase in number towards the periphery of the retina.
  • From photoreceptors, information flows to bipolar cells through the outer synaptic, layer and then from bipolar cells through the inner synaptic layer to ganglion cells.
  • The axons of ganglion cells extend posteriorly to the optic disc and exit the eyeball as optic nerves.
  • The optic disc is also called the blind spot since it contains no rods or cones.

Accommodation:

  • Accommodation (focusing) is the reflex mechanism by which light rays from objects at various locations in the near visual field are brought to focus on the retina.
  • Altering the shape of the lens does this. In bright light, the circular muscle of the iris contracts, the radial muscle relaxes, the pupil becomes smaller, and less light enters the eye, preventing damage to the retina.
  • In dim light, the opposite muscular contractions and relaxations occur.
  • In the dark of night, your pupil may become up to 16 times bigger.
  • The added advantage of reducing the pupil size is that it increases the depth of focus of the eye so that any displacement of the photosensors in the retina will not impair the focus.
  • Light rays from distant objects (>6 m) are parallel when they strike the eye.
  • Light rays from near objects (<6 m) are diverging when they reach the eye.
  • In both cases, the light rays must be refracted or bent to focus on the retina and refraction must be greater for light from near objects.
  • The normal eye can accommodate light from objects from about 25 cm to infinity.
  • With the involuntary ciliary muscles at rest, the flatter lens has the correct optical properties to focus distant images on the retina, but not close images.
  • The state of contraction of the ciliary muscles changes the tension of suspensory ligaments. This acts on the natural elasticity of the lens, which causes it to change its radius of curvature and, thus, the degree of refraction.
  • As the radius of curvature of the lens decreases, it becomes thicker, and rounds up, and the amount of refraction increases.
  • It is the tension of the suspensory ligaments applied to the lens that determines the shape of the lens.
  • When the circular ciliary muscles are relaxed and the suspensory ligament becomes tout, the lens is pulled into a flattened shape suitable for focusing distant objects, decreasing the refraction.
  • When the tension is decreased, the circular ciliary muscles are contracted and the suspensory ligaments slack. Consequently, the lens becomes a more spherical shape suitable for focusing objects.
  • The image produced by the lens of the eye on the retina is inverted and reversed. However, objects are perceived the right way up because of the way in which the brain interprets the images.
  • The region of the environment from which each eye collects light is called the visual field.
  • Since both our eyes are frontally placed, there is an overlap between the visual fields of each eye. This is called binocular vision.

Image formation is a refractive process; maximum refraction takes place at the cornea.

Extra-ocular muscle of the eye: The eye is rotated in the orbit by six strap-shaped muscles inserted on the sclera. These are arranged in two groups—rectus and oblique.

NEET Biology Neural Control And Coordination Extra Ocular Muscle Of Eye

Chambers of Eyeball

  • The lens and suspensory ligament divide the interior of the eyeball into two chambers, the anterior small aqueous chamber containing a watery fluid, the aqueous humor, and the posterior larger vitreous chamber containing viscous fluid, the vitreous humor.
  • Aqueous humor maintains intra-ocular pressure mainly whereas vitreous humor is responsible for the shaping of eyeballs.

Mechanism Of Vision

NEET Biology Neural Control And Coordination Mechanism Of Vision

Protective Devices of Eye:

  • Eyebrows: Two arched eminences of skin having numerous hairs project obliquely from the surface of the skin. The function of the eyebrows is to protect the anterior aspect of the eyeball from sweat, dust, and other foreign bodies.
  • Eyelids (palpebrae) and eyelashes: The eyelids are two movable folds and have hairs on their free edges—the eyelashes. The third eyelid is vestigial and is called plica semilunaris (nictitating membrane). The inner surface of each eyelid and parts of the eyeball are covered with a mucous membrane, called the conjunctiva.
  • Glands of Zeis: These are modified sebaceous glands that are associated with the follicles of eyelashes. They open into the follicles of eyelashes. Meibomian or tarsal glands arc also modified sebaceous glands (oil glands) which are present along the edges of eyelids. They produce an oily secretion that serves to lubricate the corneal surface and hold a thin layer of tears over the cornea.
  • Glands of Moll: These are modified sweat glands at the edge of the eyelid.
  • Conjunctiva: The palpebral conjunctiva is very vascular and has numerous papillae. Over the sclera the ocular conjunctiva is loosely connected to the eyeball; here it is thin, transparent, without papillae, and slightly vascular. Reaching the cornea, it continues as the corneal epithelium. The epithelium of the palpebral conjunctiva near the margin of the lids is a non-keratin-nized squamous stratified epithelium. The conjunctiva helps to protect the eyeball and keeps it moist. It is this membrane that becomes inflamed in conjunctivitis or “pink eye.”
  • Lacrimal apparatus: The lacrimal apparatus of each eye consists of a lacrimal gland and its numerous ducts, the superior and inferior canaliculi, a lacrimal sac, and a nasolacrimal duct. The lacrimal gland secretes tears which are composed of water, salts, and a bactericidal protein called lysozyme. Lysozyme dc- stroys microorganisms present on the front of the eyeball.
  • Adipose tissue (fat): A layer of adipose tissue surrounds the eyeball in the orbit. It serves as a soft, shockproof pad.

Disorders of Eye

  • Myopia or nearsightedness: In this case, the eyeball is too posteriorly elongated so that the image of distant objects is formed in front of the yellow spot. The defect can be removed by using concave glasses.
  • Hypermetropia or longsightedness: The person can see distant objects clearly, but not those which are closer. This is due to the Antero-posterior shortening of the eyeball. Hence, the image forms behind the yellow spot. The defect can be overcome by using a convex lens.
  • Presbyopia: A common defect in old age people due to the loss of elasticity of the lens and reduced power of accommodation. The disorder can be corrected by convex lenses.
  • Astigmatism: The disorder due to the rough curvature of the cornea or lens which can be corrected by the use of cylindrical glasses.
  • Cataract: The sight is impaired due to the lens becoming opaque (said motia). The defect can be cured by surgical removal of the defective lens.
  • Glaucoma: It occurs due to an increase in intra-ocular pressure as it may develop due to the blockage of the canal of Schlemm. It exerts pressure on the optic nerve causing its damage. It leads to permanent blindness (kala motia).

Organs of Hearing (Ear)

The organs (phonoreceptors) in man are a pair of ears situated on the head. Apart from their auditory function, the ears are also the organs of balance. Each ear has three portions: external ear, middle ear, and internal ear.

1. External ear

  • It consists of a pinna and an external auditory canal. The latter is a curved passage that is lined by a profusion of hair and about 4,000 ceruminous glands.
  • The glands secrete cerumen, a waxy material that entraps dust and also lubricates the tympanum.
  • The tympanum or eardrum is a circular membrane present on the inner end of the external auditory canal and parts it from the tympanic cavity.

NEET Biology Neural Control And Coordination Part Of Ear

2. Middle ear

  • The middle ear is represented by an air-filled tympanic cavity which communicates with the pharynx by a passage called the Eustachian canal.
  • Present in the inner wall of the tympanic cavity are two openings, the upper fenestra ovalis and the lower fenestra rotunda, each covered by a membrane.
  • The tympanic cavity contains three small bones, the ear ossicles, which from outside to inside include malleus, incus, and stapes.

NEET Biology Neural Control And Coordination Ear Ossicles

  • The malleus is hammer-shaped; the incus is anvil-shaped, and the stapes are stirrup-shaped.
  • The outer arm of the malleus is in contact with the inner surface of the tympanum, while the inner end of the stapes forms contact with the membrane on the fenestra ovalis.
  • The middle ear is responsible for the amplification of the signal due to the leverage system of ossicle (10 times) by ear ossicles and 2.2 times by the smaller size of membrane covering fenestra ovalis. The oval window is the door to the internal ear.

3. Internal car

  • It is also called a membranous labyrinth and is surrounded by a bony labyrinth of almost similar shape.
  • The space between the membranous labyrinth and the bony labyrinth is filled with a watery fluid, perilymph. The membranous labyrinth contains emdo- lymph.
  • The internal ear is a delicate organ and is differentiated into vestibule, semicircular canals, and cochlear ducts.
  • The vestibule is the central body and is formed of two chambers, the upper utriculus and the lower succulents.
  • Semicircular canals are three-arched structures that emerge from the utriculus and open back into it. They include anterior and posterior vertical canals and a horizontal canal.
  • The vertical canals join to form a common passage crus commune before they open into utriculus.
  • Each semicircular canal is dilated at the base to form an ampulla which contains a sensory spot called a crista formed of receptor cells and supporting cells.
  • The receptor cells bear sensory hair, which is embedded into a gelatinous cupitle above.
  • The vestibule also contains two sensory spots called maculae, one in the sacculus and another in the utriculus.

NEET Biology Neural Control And Coordination Membranous Labyrinth

  • Maculae are similar to cristae, but there is no cupule.
  • The sensory hair is embedded in an otolith membrane containing calcareous bodies called otoliths.
  • Cristae and maculae are the receptors of balance.
  • The auditory region of the internal ear is represented by a spirally coiled structure called the cochlea.
  • lt consists of a cochlear duct arising from the sacculus, which is surrounded by a similarly shaped cochlear canal, a part of a bony labyrinth.
  • The cochlear duets is fused with the cochlear canal on lateral sides, but is free laterally, therefore, in TS, the cochlea shows three chambers, upper scala vestibuli, middle scala media, and scala tympam.
  • The scala media is partitioned from the live scala vestibuli by Reissner’s membrane and from the scala tympani by the basilar membrane.
  • Scala vestibule and scala tympam contain perilymph while scala media is filled with endolymph.
  • The upper and lower chambers communicate through lielicotrema, a narrow opening present at the distal end of the cochlea.
  • The basilar membrane, sensory hair cells, and tectorial membrane make up live smallest unit of the ear, called the organ of Corti, first described by Italian microscopist, Alfonso Corti (1822 1888).

NEET Biology Neural Control And Coordination T S Cochlea

  • Sensory hair cells inside the car resemble tracts left in the sand by truck tires.
  • The cochlea contains 16,000-24,000 hair cells arranged in four rows.
  • In three of the rows, the hairs form V-shaped patterns. In the fourth row, the hairs stand in a straight line.
  • Each hair cell has up to 100 hairs.
  • When sound vibrations pass through the oval window, hairs create waves in the lymph fluid of the cochlea such as a sea wave in a tidal current.
  • The waves cause the basilar membrane to ripple. This movement bends the hair cells, pressing against the tectorial membrane and setting off nerve impulses in their associated afferent neurons.
  • More than 30,000 neurons and nerve fibers emerging from these convey electrical signals to the brain.
  • just 2 cm away via the auditory (vestibulocochlear) nerve.
  • The basal ends of hair cells synapse with the fibers of a cochlear branch.
  • When the waves reach the round windows of the cochlea, they die away.

Mechanism Of Hearing

NEET Biology Neural Control And Coordination Mechanism Of Hearing

  • The high-frequency resonance of the basilar membrane occurs near the base, where the sound waves enter the cochlea, while low-frequency resonance occurs near the apex mainly because of the stillness of the fibers of the basilar membrane.
  • The three internal ossicles of car are malleus, incus, and stapes.
  • In the case of non-mammals (amphibians, reptiles, birds), there is just one bone called columella auris.

Physiology Of Equilibrium

There are two kinds of equilibrium (balance):

  1. One is called static equilibrium, which refers to the maintenance of the body position (mainly the head) relative to the force of gravity.
  2. The second is dynamic equilibrium, which is the maintenance of body position (mainly the head) in response to sudden movements such as rotation, acceleration, and deceleration.

Collectively, the receptor organs for the equilibrium arc are called vestibular apparatus, which includes saccule, utricle, and semicircular ducts.

1. Static Equilibrium

  • The walls of both utricle and saccule contain a small, thickened region called macula (plural maculae)
  • Maculae are the receptors for static equilibrium and also contribute to some aspects of dynamic equilibrium.

NEET Biology Neural Control And Coordination Diagram Showing The Conduction Of Sound Vibrations In The Ear

NEET Biology Neural Control And Coordination Structure Of A Macula

  • Static equilibrium provides sensory information on the position of the head and is essential for maintaining appropriate posture and balance.
  • For dynamic equilibrium, they provide information about linear acceleration and deceleration. For example, the sensation you feel while in an elevator or a car that is speeding up or slowing down.

2. Dynamic equilibrium

  • The vestibular apparatus contains three semicircular canals positioned at right angles to one another.
  • The dilated portion of each duct, the ampulla, contains a small elevation called a crista.
  • Each crista is composed of a group of hair cells, supporting cells covered by a mass of gelatinous material called cupula.
  • Cristae in the three semicircular canals maintain dynamic equilibrium.

NEET Biology Neural Control And Coordination Structure Of Crista

Diseases of the Ear

  • Meniere’s disease: Due to increased amount of the fluid of internal ear, loss of hearing.
  • Myringitis: inflammation of the tympanic membrane.
  • Otitis media: Acute infection in the middle car.
  • Vertigo: A type of dizziness where there is a feeling of motion when one is stationary.
  • Cobyrinthine diseases: Improper functioning of the internal car.
  1. Most domestic mammals and sharks lack color vision.
  2. Tapetum lucidum: It is a part of the choroid adjacent to the retina in the eyes of a large number of elasmobranchs (cartilaginous fish). It possesses cells containing light-reflecting guanine crystals. It reflects light and causes the eyes to shine in the dark. It also reflects additional light on the retinal cells to enable the fish to see in water where light is poor.
  3. Accommodation: Fishes can see objects at different distances by changing the size of the eyeball.
  4. Pecten: It is a remarkable, highly vascular, and pigmented structure projecting into the vitreous chamber from the blind spot normally. It occurs in all birds except Kiwi (Apteryx). It is also found in some reptiles (e.g. Uromastix) but is absent in mammals. In Uromastix, it is like a cushion; however, in a pigeon, it is comb-like and folded like a fan. The actual function of pecten is unknown, but possibly it aids in the nutrition of the eyeball. In birds, it also helps in accommodation which is remarkably well developed in birds, by pressing the lens forward.
  5. Phaco-emulsification technique in cataract surgery is a “stitchless” technique. A foldable intraocular lens (IOL) is used.
  6. Most birds have only day vision as their retina has mainly cones.
  7. Owls have much better night vision as they contain a large number of rods and few cones in their retina.
  8. The taste of chilies is not a true sensation. It is mainly the sensation of burning pain produced by the stimulation of pain receptors of the tongue.
  9. Hordeolum: Inflammation of sebaceous glands of the eyelid.
  10. Owls and cats see only with the help of available light from the stars or moon at night.
  11. Frogs are short-sighted in air and long-sighted in water.
  12. Many insects such as honeybees possess gustatory receptors on their feet.
  13. Largest cranial nerve —trigeminal.
  14. Smallest/thinnest cranial nerve —pathetic/trochlear.
  15. Other names of various parts of the brain:
    • Forebrain = Prosencephalon
    • Midbrain = Mesencephalon
    • Hindbrain* Rhombencephalon
    • Olfactory lobes = Rhinencephalon
    • Cerebrum = Telencephalon
    • Diencephalon = Thalamencephalon
    • Cerebellum and Pons = Metencephalon
    • Medulla oblongata = Myelcncephalon
    • Fourth ventricle = Metacoel
    • Third ventricle = Diocoel
    • Iter = Mesocoel and aqueduct ofsylvius.
    • Lateral ventricle = Paracoel
    • Spinal canal = Myelocoel
    • The cavity of the olfactory lobe = Rhinocoel (absent in humans)
  16. The origin of CNS develops from a neural tube that is formed by the infolding of the ectoderm in the early embryo.
  17. Neopallium: The dorsal wall of the cerebrum/cerebral cortex of the brain.
  18. Monosynaptic/simple reflex involves a single sensory fiber and a single motor fiber, for example, knee jerk. No interneuron. Polysynaptic/compound reflex involves one (or more) sensory and more than one motor nerve fiber. A number of interneurons are present. Polysynaptic reflexes are more common. All our visceral reflexes are polysynaptic.

 

Neural Control And Coordination Assertion-Reasoning Questions

In the following questions, an Assertion (A) is followed by a corresponding Reason (R). Mark the correct answer.

  1. If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
  2. If both Assertion and Reason are true, but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
  3. If Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
  4. If both Assertion and Reason are false.

Question 1.

Assertion: In the nervous system, the generation of an action potential depends upon the influx of sodium ions into the axoplasm.

Reason: The influx of sodium ions during nerve impulse generation is due to the efflux of potassium ions.

Answer: 3. If Assertion is true, but Reason is false.

Question 2.

Assertion: The presence of myelin sheath increases the rate of conduction of nerve impulses.

Reason: Ionic channels are absent in the area covered by the myelin sheath. Therefore, depolarization occurs only at the nodes of Ranvier, resulting in saltatory or jumping conduction.

Answer: 3. If Assertion is true, but Reason is false.

Question 3.

Assertion: Receptors in the tendon, and joints give information regarding the position and movements of different parts of the body.

Reason: These are termed as noci-receptors.

Answer: 3. If Assertion is true, but Reason is false.

Question 4.

Assertion: The sharpest vision is in fovea centralis.

Reason: The relationship of receptor to bipolar cells to ganglion cells is 1: 1: 1 within fovea centralis.

Answer: 2. If both Assertion and Reason are true, but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.

Question 5.

Assertion: The postganglionic nerve fiber of the parasympathetic nervous system has acetylcholine while the sympathetic nervous system has adrenaline as the neurotransmitter.

Reason: The sympathetic nervous system inhibits intestinal peristalsis while the parasympathetic stimulates peristalsis.

Answer: 2. If both Assertion and Reason are true, but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.

Question 6.

Assertion: The brain and spinal cord have a common covering.

Reason: Both the brain and spinal cord possess meninges.

Answer: 1. If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.

Question 7.

Assertion: Cerebrospinal fluid is present throughout the central nervous system.

Reason: CSF has no such function.

Answer: 3. If Assertion is true, but Reason is false.

Question 8.

Assertion: The brain stem contains centers for controlling activities.

Reason: The brain stem is very sensitive.

Answer: 2. If both Assertion and Reason are true, but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.

Question 9.

Assertion: The spinal cord has a column of both grey and white matter.

Reason: Grey matter forms the central spinal canal.

Answer: 3. If Assertion is true, but Reason is false.

Question 10.

Assertion: The motor end plate is a neuromuscular junction.

Reason: The motor end plate is the junction between motor neurons and muscle fibers.

Answer: 1. If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.

Question 11.

Assertion: Corpus callosum is present in the space between the pia and arachnoid maters.

Reason: It serves to maintain a constant pressure inside the cranium.

Answer: 4. If both Assertion and Reason are false.

Question 12.

Assertion: With the evolution of multicellularity, it became imperative to develop a nervous system.

Reason: Special senses such as vision, and hearing are produced by sense organs associated with the nervous system.

Answer: 2. If both Assertion and Reason are true, but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.

Question 13.

Assertion: The auditory ossicles help in hearing.

Reason: Auditory ossicles maintain the balance of air pressure between two sides of the eardrum.

Answer: 3. If Assertion is true, but Reason is false.

Question 14.

Assertion: The image focused on the fovea is seen most accurately.

Reason: The Fovea of the retina contains numerous photoreceptor rod cells.

Answer: 3. If Assertion is true, but Reason is false.

Question 15.

Assertion: A blind spot on the retina of the eye is devoid of the ability for vision.

Reason: The photoreceptor cone cells are absent at the blind spot.

Answer: 2. If both Assertion and Reason are true, but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.

NEET Biology Multiple Choice Questions – Neural Control And Coordination

NEET Biology Neural Control And Coordination Multiple Choice Questions Answers

Question 1. Cranial and spinal nerves can be included under

  1. Central nervous system
  2. Autonomic nervous system
  3. Peripheral nervous system
  4. Visceral nervous system

Answer: 3. Peripheral nervous system

Question 2. Odd one out w.r.t. origin.

  1. Astrocyte
  2. Microglial cells
  3. Oligodendrocytes
  4. Ependyma cells

Answer: 2. Microglial cells

Question 3. In human beings, a typical nerve cell is

  1. Bipolar
  2. Apolar
  3. Multipolar
  4. Pseudounipolar

Answer: 3. Multipolar

Question 4. The rapid movement of Na+ ions from extracellular fluid into the nerve cell leads to

  1. Polarization
  2. Depolarization
  3. Repolarization
  4. All of these

Answer: 2. Depolarization

Question 5. Depolarization is an/a

  1. Active process
  2. Passive process
  3. Both active and passive process
  4. First, it is passive and then it becomes active

Answer: 2. Passive process

” nervous system questions and answers pdf “

Question 6. If the Na+-K+ pump stops working, then

  1. Na+ and K+ will be in excess in extracellular fluid
  2. Na+ will be in excess in extracellular fluid
  3. K+ will be excess in intracellular fluid
  4. Na+ will be in excess in intracellular fluid

Answer: 4. Na+ will be in excess in intracellular fluid

Question 7. If the receptors are removed from the post-synaptic membrane, then

  1. Synaptic transmission will be faster
  2. The chemical synaptic transmission will become slow
  3. Chemical synaptic transmission will not occur
  4. Synaptic transmission will be not affected

Answer: 3. Chemical synaptic transmission will not occur

Question 8. For most excitable cells, the threshold stimulus is

  1. +40 mV
  2. -55 to -60 mV
  3. +60 mV
  4. -70 mV

Answer: 2. -55 to -60 mV

Question 9. The rate of conduction of impulse will be faster in the case of

  1. Myelinated nerve fibers
  2. Thicker nerve fibers
  3. Non-myelinated nerve fibers
  4. Both 1 and 2

Answer: 4. Both 1 and 2

Question 10. The synaptic cleft, an intercellular gap separating the axon tip and target neuron, is

  1. 10-20 nm
  2. 10-20 μm
  3. 1 dm
  4. 1-10 mm

Answer: 1. 10-20 nm

Question 11. Axon endings release from their synaptic vesicles a neurotransmitter substance known as

  1. Acetylcholine
  2. Acetylcholinesterase
  3. Inositol-3 phosphate
  4. Diacylglycerol

Answer: 1. Acetylcholine

Question 12. What is common about serotonin, acetylcholine, adrenaline, and noradrenaline?

  1. All are antidiuretic drugs.
  2. All are pain-relieving drugs.
  3. All are chemical transmitters or neurohormones.
  4. All are blood pressure-lowering drugs.

Answer: 3. All are chemical transmitters or neurohormones.

Question 13.In the presence of Ca2+ channel blockers, which of the following will be true?

  1. Neurotransmitter is released but the Na+ channel of post-synaptic neuron will not open.
  2. Neurotransmitter is not released but the Na+ channel of the post-synaptic neuron will open up.
  3. Neurotransmitter is released but the K+ channel of post-synaptic neuron opens up.
  4. Neither neurotransmitter is released nor the Na+ channel of post-synaptic neuron open up.

Answer: 4. Neither neurotransmitter is released nor the Na4 channel of the post-synaptic neuron opens up.

Question 14. The largest number of cell bodies of neurons in our body is found in

  1. Brain
  2. Retina
  3. Spinal cord
  4. Tongue

Answer: 1. Brain

Question 15. One of the following is not the lobe of the cerebral hemisphere.

  1. Parietal lobe
  2. Occipital lobe
  3. Temporal lobe
  4. Olfactory lobe

Answer: 4. Olfactory lobe

Question 16. A highly vascular and closely investing protective coat around the brain is known as

  1. Arachnoid
  2. Pia mater
  3. Dura mater
  4. Sub-arachnoid space

Answer: 2. Pia mater

Question 17. Corpus callosum is the link between

  1. Cerebellar hemispheres
  2. Midbrain and hindbrain
  3. Cerebral hemisphere
  4. Brain and cranium

Answer: 3. Cerebral hemisphere

Question 18. The genu and splenium in the brain are associated with

  1. Cerebellum
  2. Cerebrum
  3. Medulla oblongata
  4. Vermis

Answer: 2. Cerebrum

Question 19. Due to the presence of gyri and sulci, the surface area of the cerebral cortex almost

  1. Doubles
  2. Becomes three times
  3. Becomes four times
  4. Becomes six times

Answer: 2. Becomes three times

Question 20. Which part of the brain is involved in organizing the behavior of an organism related to its survival?

  1. Amygdala lobe
  2. Cerebral cortex
  3. Corpus callosum
  4. Hypothalamus

Answer: 4. Hypothalamus

Question 21. Which part of the limbic system converts information from short-term to long-term memory, essential in learning?

  1. Amygdala
  2. Basal ganglia
  3. Hippocampus
  4. Hypothalamus

Answer: 3. Hippocampus

Question 22. Characteristically large large-flask-shaped Purkinje cells are associated with

  1. Cerebral cortex
  2. Cerebellar cortex
  3. Pons
  4. Hypothalamus

Answer: 2. Cerebellar cortex

Question 23. Which part is involved in the movement of the head to locate and detect the source of a sound?

  1. Superior colliculi
  2. Inferior colliculi
  3. Pons
  4. Medulla oblongata

Answer: 2. Inferior colliculi

Question 24. Activities of the cerebellum are

  1. AH is involuntary but may involve learning in the early stage
  2. All are voluntary and may involve learning in their early stage
  3. All are voluntary and do not involve learning in their early stage
  4. All are involuntary and do not involve learning in their early stage

Answer: 1. AH is involuntary but may involve learning in the early stage

Question 25. Basal ganglion is a collection of subcortical nuclei in the forebrain, at the base of the cortex. A primary function of the basal ganglia is

  1. Sensory integration
  2. Short term memory
  3. Planning stereotyped movements
  4. Neuroendocrine control

Answer: 3. Planning stereotyped movements

Question 26. Which part of the brain is like a defense castle controlling moods and plays an important role in emotional behavior such as aggression and remembering fear?

  1. Hippocampus
  2. Amygdala
  3. Limbic system
  4. Thalamus

Answer: 2. Amygdala

Question 27. The link between parallel and diaconal is through

  1. Foramina Luschka
  2. Foramina Magendie
  3. Foramen of Monro
  4. Aqueduct of Sylvius

Answer: 3. Foramen of Monro

Question 28. Pallium is

  1. Lateral walls of the diencephalon
  2. Lateral walls of the cerebrum
  3. Floor walls of paracoel
  4. Roof of paracoel

Answer: 4. Roof of paracoel

Question 29. The brain stem consists of

  1. Medulla oblongata, pons Varolii, cerebellum
  2. The cerebellum, diencephalon, and midbrain
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Medulla, pons, midbrain

Answer: 4. Medulla, pons, midbrain

Question 30. The function of the choroid plexus is

  1. To produce lymph
  2. To produce blood
  3. To produce cerebrospinal fluid
  4. To produce endolymph

Answer: 3. To produce cerebrospinal fluid

Question 31. The pneumonitis center in the body is present in

  1. Heart
  2. Lungs
  3. Pons Varolii
  4. Medulla

Answer: 3. Pons Varolii

Question 32. One of the following transmits impulses from one side of the cerebellum to the other

  1. Pons Varolii
  2. Crura cerebri
  3. Corpora quadrigeminal
  4. Cerebellum

Answer: 1. Pons Varolii

Question 33. A branched tree-like structure present in the cerebellum is

  1. Arboreal
  2. Areole
  3. Arbor vitae
  4. Archenteron

Answer: 3. Arbor vitae

Question 34. Vermis is

  1. A tiny worm
  2. Cavity of medulla
  3. The small median lobe of the cerebellum in mammals
  4. A portion of the midbrain

Answer: 3. The small median lobe of the cerebellum in mammals

Question 35. The vomiting center is situated in

  1. Cerebrum
  2. Cerebellum
  3. Medulla
  4. Hypothalamus

Answer: 3. Medulla

Question 36. The CSF moves from the ventricle of the brain to the subarachnoid space through

  1. Foramina Magendie
  2. Foramina Luschka
  3. Foramen of Monro
  4. Both 1 and 2

Answer: 4. Both 1 and 2

Question 37. The end of the spinal cord is

  1. Cauda equina
  2. Foramina Luschka
  3. Filum terminals
  4. Both 1 and 2

Answer: 2. Foramina Luschka

Question 38. Brachial swelling of the spinal cord extends from

  1. 4th cervical to the 1st thoracic vertebrae
  2. 1st cervical to the 4th cervical vertebrae
  3. 5th cervical to the 8th cervical vertebrae
  4. 1st thoracic to the 4th thoracic vertebrae

Answer: 1. 4th cervical to the 1st thoracic vertebrae

Question 39. Those nerves which carry impulses from the central nervous system to the muscles and glands are known as

  1. Sensory nerves
  2. Motor nerves
  3. Mixed nerves
  4. Afferent nerves

Answer: 2. Motor nerves

Question 40. The trigeminal nerve arises from the brain in the region of

  1. Pons varolii and divides into palatine, chorda tym-pani, and hyomandibular
  2. Medulla and divides into palatine, hyomandibular, and chorda tympani
  3. The cerebellum divides into ophthalmic, maxillary, and mandibular
  4. Pons Varolii and divides into ophthalmic, maxillary, and mandibular

Answer: 4. Pons Varolii divides into ophthalmic, maxillary, and mandibular

Question 41. The nerve related to eyeball movement, accommodation, and contraction of the pupil is

  1. Optic
  2. Auditory
  3. Oculomotor
  4. Trochlear

Answer: 3. Oculomotor

Question 42. How many pairs of cranial nerves are purely sensory?

  1. Five
  2. Four
  3. Six
  4. Three

Answer: 4. Three

Question 43. Gastric and pancreatic secretion, gastrointestinal movements, respiratory reflexes, and visceral reflexes are controlled by

  1. Vagus
  2. Abducens
  3. Oculomotor
  4. Trochlear

Answer: 1. Vagus

“nervous system questions “

Question 44. Which one of the following pairs is the motor nerve?

  1. Oculomotor and facial
  2. Vagus and trigeminal
  3. Optic and olfactory
  4. Trochlear and hypoglossal

Answer: 4. Trochlear and hypoglossal

Question 45. The lateral rectus muscle of the eye is provided with which cranial nerve?

  1. 3
  2. 4
  3. 5
  4. 6

Answer: 4. 6

Question 46. Paralysis of jaw muscles is due to the loss of function of which cranial nerve?

  1. 3
  2. 5
  3. 7
  4. 10

Answer: 2. 5

Question 47. Which of the following cranial nerves in man is both sensory and motor?

  1. Optic
  2. Olfactory
  3. Trigeminal
  4. Auditory

Answer: 3. Trigeminal

Question 48. Which of the following cranial nerves arc linked with taste buds?

  1. 7 and 3
  2. 9 and 2
  3. 4 and 8
  4. 7 and 9

Answer: 4. 7 and 9

Question 49. The smallest cranial nerve in the body is

  1. Trigeminal
  2. Abducens
  3. Ophthalmic
  4. Trochlear

Answer: 4. Trochlear

Question 50. The fourth cranial nerve of man is

  1. Abducens
  2. Trochlear
  3. Auditory
  4. Oculomotor

Answer: 2. Trochlear

Question 51. The spinal nerve plexus involving the 1st thoracic spinal nerve is

  1. Cervical plexus
  2. Brachial plexus
  3. Lumbar plexus
  4. Sacral plexus

Answer: 2. Brachial plexus

Question 52. The number of spinal nerves in man is

  1. 31
  2. 62
  3. 12
  4. 24

Answer: 2. 62

Question 53. What is the function of the parasympathetic nervous system?

  1. Acceleration of heartbeat
  2. Constriction of pupil
  3. Stimulation of sweat gland
  4. Contraction of erector pili

Answer: 2. Constriction of the pupil

Question 54. The ganglia that lie nearer to the tissues and away from the chain and in which preganglionic fibers terminate are known as

  1. Autonomic ganglion
  2. Collateral ganglion
  3. Paratonic ganglion
  4. None of these

Answer: 2. Collateral ganglion

Question 55. Which of the following cranial nerves is involved in the sympathetic nervous system?

  1. 3
  2. 7
  3. Both of these
  4. None of these

Answer: 4. None of these

Question 56. The neurotransmitter with the sympathetic postganglionic nerve fiber terminating at the sweat gland is

  1. Epinephrine
  2. Acetylcholine
  3. Adrenaline
  4. Both 1 and 3

Answer: 2. Acetylcholine

Question 57. Reflex action is exhibited by

  1. Sympathetic nerves
  2. Sensory nerves
  3. Automatic response
  4. Motor nerves

Answer: 3. Automatic response

Question 58. In reflex action, the reflex arc is formed by

  1. Brain-spinal cord-muscles
  2. Receptor-spinal cord-muscles
  3. Muscles-receptor-muscles
  4. Muscles-spinal cord-receptor

Answer: 2. Receptor-spinal cord-muscles

Question 59. Which one is not a reflex action?

  1. Closing the eyelids suddenly
  2. Release of saliva
  3. Obeying the order
  4. None of these

Answer: 3. Obeying the order

Question 60. Receptors of pain are

  1. Free nerve endings
  2. Merkel’sdiscs
  3. Meissner’s corpuscles
  4. Pacinian corpuscles

Answer: 1. Free nerve endings

Question 61. Krause’s end bulbs arc the skin receptors which are concerned with the sense of

  1. Touch
  2. Heat
  3. Cold
  4. Pressure

Answer: 3. Cold

Question 62. Meissner’s corpuscles are located in

  1. Pancreas secrete trypsinogen
  2. Adrenal and secrete trypsinogen
  3. Spleen and destroy erythrocytes
  4. Skin and perceive gentle pressure

Answer: 4. Skin and perceive gentle pressure

Question 63. Tactile organs at the root of the hair are

  1. Free nerve endings (nerve basket)
  2. Epidermis and dermis
  3. Dorsal branches of spinal nerves
  4. Touch corpuscles

Answer: 1. Free nerve endings (nerve basket)

Question 64. The receptors located in muscles, joints, and tendons are known as

  1. Exteroceptors
  2. Proprioceptors
  3. Interoceptors
  4. External receptors

Answer: 2. Proprioceptors

Question 65. The corpuscles lying deep in the dermis and responsible for deep pressure are known as

  1. Pacinian corpuscles
  2. Meissner’s corpuscles
  3. Merkel’s discs
  4. Ruffini’s endings

Answer: 1. Pacinian corpuscles

Question 66. White of the eye is

  1. Cornea
  2. Sclera
  3. Choroid
  4. Conjunctiva

Answer: 2. Sclera

Question 67. Pupil is regulated by

  1. Radial muscles
  2. Circular muscles
  3. Meridional muscles
  4. Radial and circular muscles

Answer: 4. Radial and circular muscles

“control and coordination questions “

Question 68. The exposed transparent region of the eyeball represents

  1. Fovea
  2. Cornea and conjuctiva
  3. Fibrous coat
  4. Cornea

Answer: 2. Cornea and conjunctiva

Question 69. Macula lutea is a part of

  1. Optic nerve
  2. Sclerotic
  3. Choroid
  4. Retina

Answer: 4. Retina

Question 70. Color to the eye is imparted by

  1. Lens
  2. Pupil
  3. Iris
  4. Vitreous humor

Answer: 3. Iris

Question 71. Eye muscles are attached with

  1. Sclerotic
  2. Cornea
  3. Choroid
  4. Retina

Answer: 1. Sclerotic

Question 72. The eye rotates in the orbit by

  1. Six muscles
  2. Three muscles
  3. Four muscles
  4. Five muscles

Answer: 1. Six muscles

Question 73. Cornea transplantation is especially successful because

  1. Its technique is very simple.
  2. The preservation of the cornea is very simple.
  3. Cornea has no relation with blood circulation and immunization.
  4. The cornea is available easily.

Answer: 3. Cornea has no relation with blood circulation and immunization.

Question 74. When the object is at a distance of more than 6 m, at that time

  1. Ciliary muscles arc fully contracted
  2. The convexity of a lens is the maximum
  3. Eyes are fully relaxed
  4. All of these

Answer: 3. Eyes arc fully relaxed

Question 75. The part of the eye which acts like a diaphragm of a photographic camera is

  1. Pupil
  2. Iris
  3. Lens
  4. Cornea

Answer: 2. Iris

Question 76. The ciliary body is located

  1. Near the ciliary muscles
  2. Near the blind spot
  3. Just behind the cornea
  4. At the junction of the iris and choroid

Answer: 4. At the junction of the iris and choroid

Question 77. Cyanopsin pigment is sensitive to

  1. Green color
  2. Red color
  3. Blue color
  4. Dim light

Answer: 3. Blue color

Question 78. The chamber between the iris and lens in the cavity of the eyeball is known as

  1. Vitreous chamber
  2. Aqueous chamber
  3. Posterior part of vitreous chamber
  4. Posterior part of an aqueous chamber

Answer: 4. Posterior part of aqueous chamber

Question 79. In old age, the vision of the eye becomes dim. It is due to

  1. Myopia
  2. Hypermetropia
  3. Cataract
  4. Astigmatism

Answer: 3. Cataract

Question 80. In hypermetropia, the image is formed

  1. Before the retina is corrected by a convex lens
  2. Behind the retina and is corrected by a convex lens
  3. Before the retina is corrected by the concave lens
  4. Behind the retina and is corrected by the concave lens

Answer: 2. Behind the retina and is corrected by a convex lens

Question 81. In presbyopia,

  1. The eyeball becomes short
  2. The lens becomes opaque
  3. The retina gets damaged
  4. Diminution of accommodation of lens due to loss of elasticity

Answer: 4. Diminution of accommodation of lens due to loss of elasticity

Question 82. In myopia, light rays from far-off objects converge

  1. Behind the retina
  2. In front of the retina
  3. On the retina
  4. In the retina

Answer: 2. In front of the retina

Question 83. The overproduction of aqueous humor results in

  1. Astigmatism
  2. Fovea centralis
  3. Macula lutea or yellow spot
  4. Glaucoma

Answer: 4. Glaucoma

Question 84. Short-sightedness or myopic vision is corrected by wearing

  1. Convex lenses
  2. Concave lenses
  3. Convex mirrors
  4. Concave mirrors

Answer: 2. Concave lenses

Question 85. During the transmission of impulse from the tympanum to the internal ear, amplification of sound waves occurs. The amplification due to the difference in the size of the tympanum and fenestra ovalis is about

  1. 10 times
  2. 22 times
  3. 2.2 times
  4. 40 times

Answer: 3. 2.2 times

Question 86. In the tympanic cavity, there is an aperture in which stapes are fitted. It is

  1. Foramen rotundus
  2. Foramen triosseum
  3. Foramen of Monro
  4. Fenestra ovalis

Answer: 4. Fenestra ovalis

Question 87. The upper aperture which puts the tympanic cavity in communication with a narrow space around the internal ear is known as

  1. Fenestra ovalis
  2. Fenestra rotundus
  3. Fossa ovalis
  4. Foramen ovale

Answer: 1. Fenestra ovalis

Question 88. Which of the following structures is not filled with endolymph?

  1. Utriculus
  2. Tympanic cavity
  3. Sacculus
  4. Semicircular canal

Answer: 2. Tympanic cavity

Question 89. One of the following is a stirrup-shaped bone.

  1. Incus
  2. Malleus
  3. Stapes
  4. Tongue shaped

Answer: 3. Stapes

Question 90. Which part of the internal ear receives sound waves in man?

  1. Cochlea
  2. Lagena and utriculus
  3. Ampullae and utriculus
  4. None of these

Answer: 1. Cochlea

Question 91. One of the following is not a part of the membranous labyrinth.

  1. Semicircular canal
  2. Cochlear duct
  3. Vestibule
  4. Bony labyrinth

Answer: 4. Bony labyrinth

“class 11 neural control and coordination “

Question 92. The membranous labyrinth is found in

  1. Columella auris
  2. Occipitals
  3. Parietals
  4. Periotic

Answer: 4. Periotic

Question 93. The equilibrium is maintained by

  1. Semicircular ducts
  2. Ampulla
  3. Crista
  4. Cupula

Answer: 3. Crista

Question 94. The roof of scala media is called

  1. Reissner’s membrane
  2. Basilar membrane
  3. Tectorial membrane
  4. Organ of Corti

Answer: 1. Reissner’s membrane

Question 95. The tectorial membrane is found in the

  1. Eye of frog
  2. Eye of mammals
  3. Ear of mammals
  4. Tongue of frog

Answer: 3. Ear of mammals

Question 96. A molecule cannot be tasted or smelled until it has been

  1. Converted into protein
  2. Converted into transmitter
  3. Grouped into multimolecular complex
  4. Dissolved in a liquid

Answer: 4. Dissolved in a liquid

Question 97. Bowman’s glands are associated with

  1. Olfactory epithelium
  2. Taste buds
  3. Organ of Corti
  4. Vallate papillae

Answer: 1. Olfactory epithelium

Question 98.The activity of which cranial nerve can protect by warning about harmful chemicals in the air?

  1. 5
  2. 9
  3. 6
  4. 10

Answer: 1. 5

Question 99. The total number of taste buds in the human tongue is approximately

  1. 1000
  2. 10,000
  3. 100,000
  4. 50,000

Answer: 2. 10,000

Question 100. Which of the following cranial nerves is involved in causing the movement of the tongue?

  1. 7
  2. 9
  3. 10
  4. 11

Answer: 4. 11

Question 101. In right-handed individuals,

  1. The left cerebral hemisphere is poorly developed
  2. The right hemisphere is the dominant hemisphere
  3. The left cerebral hemisphere is the dominant hemisphere
  4. Both cerebral hemispheres are dominant

Answer: 3. The left cerebral hemisphere is the dominant hemisphere

Question 102. Stimulation of parasympathetic nerves is likely to produce all of the following except

  1. Decreased insulin secretion
  2. Increased exocrine pancreatic secretion
  3. Increased bile synthesis
  4. Increased gastric secretion

Answer: 1. Decreased insulin secretion

Question 103. The hypothalamus is involved in the regulation of

1. Circadian rhythm

2. Water balance

3. Respiration and heartbeat

4. Maintenance of homeostasis

5. Appetite and Satiety

Mark the correct one.

  1. (1), (2), (3), (4), and (5)
  2. (2) and (4) only
  3. (1), (2), (3), and (4) only
  4. (1), (2), and (4) only

Answer: 1. (1), (2), (3), (4), and (5)

Question 104. Which of the following do not occur during accommodation reflex?

  1. Contraction in ciliary muscles
  2. Suspensory ligaments become loose
  3. Decrease in radius of curvature
  4. Decreasing refraction

Answer: 4. Decreasing refraction

Question 105. Broca’s area (motor speech) is located in

  1. Frontal lobe
  2. Parietal lobe
  3. Temporal lobe
  4. Occipital lobe

Answer: 1. Frontal lobe

Question 106. Mark the incorrect match.

  1. Parkinson’s—Deficiency of dopamine disease
  2. Schizophrenia—Excess of dopamine
  3. Excess of Alzheimer’s disease—Acetylcholine
  4. Multiple sclerosis—Degeneration myelin sheath

Answer: 3. Excess of Alzheimer’s disease—Acetylcholine

Question 107. A person is unable to speak fluent sentences, although he has no problem understanding written or spoken words due to damage to the

  1. Broca’s area
  2. Wernicke’sarea
  3. Visual area
  4. Auditory area

Answer: 1. Broca’s area

Question 108. When the visual field of both eyes overlaps, it is called

  1. Binocular vision
  2. Monocular vision
  3. Stereoscopic vision
  4. Both 1 and 3

Answer: 1. Binocular vision

Question 109. If we accidentally focus on intense light sources such as the sun. it will damage

  1. Macula lutea
  2. Lens
  3. Blind spot
  4. Cornea

Answer: 1. Macula lutea

Question 110. If we put water in the eye. there will be blurred images due to

  1. Decrease in refraction as cornea forms plane surface
  2. Increase in refraction as cornea forms plane surface
  3. Decrease in refraction as cornea forms a concave surface
  4. Increase in refraction as cornea forms concave surface.

Answer: 1. Decrease in refraction as cornea forms plane surface

Question 111. The correct sequence of meninges from inner to outer side is

  1. Arachnoid → Dura mater → Pia mater
  2. Arachnoid → Pia mater → Dura mater
  3. Pia mater → Dura mater → Arachnoid
  4. Pia mater → Arachnoid → Dura mater

Answer: 4. Pia mater → Arachnoid → Dura mater

Question 112. The Vagus nerve is composed mainly of parasympathetic fibers. The preganglionic fibers form a network known as

  1. Choroid plexus
  2. Nervousplexus
  3. Auerbach’s plexus
  4. Brachialplexus

Answer: 3. Auerbach’s plexus

Question 113. During nerve impulse transmission, the permeability of the membrane is greater for

  1. Na+
  2. K+
  3. Equal for both 1 and 2
  4. Ca2+

Answer: 1. Na+

Question 114. In mammals, the brain center, which regulates body temperature, is situated in

  1. Cerebrum
  2. Olfactory lobe
  3. Cerebellum
  4. Medulla oblongata

Answer: 1. Cerebrum

Question 115. The junction between the axon of one neuron and the dendrite of the next is called

  1. A joint
  2. A synapse
  3. Constant bridge
  4. Junction point

Answer: 2. A synapse

Question 116. Which one of the following is a motor nerve?

  1. Auditoty
  2. Abducens
  3. Optic nerve
  4. Trigeminal nerve

Answer: 2. Abducens

Question 117. NissI granules are absent in

  1. Axon
  2. Cyton
  3. Dendron
  4. Schwann cells

Answer: 1. Axon

Question 118. Which of the following is a purely motor cranial nerve?

  1. Olfactory
  2. Optic
  3. Abducens
  4. Vagus

Answer: 3. Abducens

Question 119. The trigeminal nerve in the case of frogs is

  1. 1 cranial nerve
  2. 2 cranial nerve
  3. 4 cranial nerve
  4. 5 cranial nerve

Answer: 4. 5 cranial nerve

Question 110. In the human body, muscular coordination is controlled by

  1. Spinal cord
  2. Cortex
  3. Cerebellum
  4. Cerebral hemisphere

Answer: 3. Cerebellum

Question 111. The sense of smell is controlled by

  1. Cerebrum
  2. Cerebellum
  3. Olfactory lobe
  4. Hypothalamus

Answer: 1. Cerebrum

Question 112. The third ventricle connects to lateral ventricles through

  1. Foramen magnum
  2. Foramen monro
  3. Foramen magnetic
  4. Foramen Anuschka

Answer: 2. Foramen monro

Question 113. The connection between axon and dendrite is

  1. Synapse
  2. Synapse
  3. Desmosome
  4. Tight junction

Answer: 1. Synapse

Question 114. Depolarization of axolemma during nerve conduction takes place because of

  1. Equal amounts of Na+ and K+ move out across axon- lemma
  2. Na+ move inside
  3. More Na+ outside
  4. None

Answer: 2. Na+ move inside

“questions about the nervous system “

Question 115. Which of the following statements is correct for the node of Ranvier of nerve

  1. Neurilemma is discontinuous.
  2. Myelin sheath is discontinuous.
  3. Both neurilemma and myelin sheath are discontinuous.
  4. Covered by myelin sheath.

Answer: 2. Myelin sheath is discontinuous.

Question 116. What used to be described as Nissl granules in a nerve cell are now identified as

  1. Cell metabolites
  2. Fat granules
  3. Ribosomes
  4. Mitochondria

Answer: 3. Ribosomes

Question 117. In the resting state of the neural membrane, diffusion due to concentration gradients, if allowed, would drive

  1. K+ and Na+ out of the cell
  2. Na+ into the cell
  3. Na+ out of the cell
  4. K+ into the cell

Answer: 2. Na+ into the cell

Question 118. Unidirectional transmission of a nerve impulse through nerve fibers is because

  1. Nerve fiber is insulated by a medullary sheath.
  2. The sodium pump starts operating only at the cyton and then continues into the nerve fiber.
  3. Neurotransmitters are released by dendrites and not by axon endings.
  4. Neurotransmitters are released by axon endings and not by dendrites.

Answer: 4. Neurotransmitters are released by axon endings and not by dendrites.

Question 119. Nerve cells do not possess

  1. Neurilemma
  2. Sarcolemma
  3. Dendrites
  4. Axon

Answer: 2. Sarcolemma

Question 120. Dendrites are associated with which system?

  1. Nervous system
  2. Digestive system
  3. Muscular system
  4. Blood vascular system

Answer: 1. Nervous system

Question 121. During the transmission of nerve impulses through a nerve fiber, the potential on the inner side of the plasma membrane has which type of electric charge?

  1. First positive, then negative, and continue to be negative
  2. First negative, then positive, and continue to be positive
  3. First positive, then negative, and again back to positive
  4. First negative, then positive, and again back to negative

Answer: 4. First negative, then positive, and again back to negative

Question 122. Arbor vitae is a part of

  1. Cerebrum
  2. Cerebellum
  3. Midbrain
  4. Forebrain

Answer: 2. Cerebellum

Question 123. Which has H-shaped gray matter?

  1. Cerebrum
  2. Spinal cord
  3. Cerebellum
  4. Medulla oblongata

Answer: 2. Spinal cord

Question 124. Which of the following is the part of the midbrain of the rabbit?

  1. Cerebrum
  2. Diencephalon
  3. Corpora quadrigemina
  4. None of these

Answer: 3. Corpora quadrigemina

Question 125. The function of cerebrospinal fluid does not include

  1. Protection of the brain and spinal cord by containing antibody
  2. Protection of delicate brain and spinal cord from shock
  3. As a medium for the excretion of waste product
  4. Buoyancy to brain

Answer: 1. Protection of the brain and spinal cord by containing antibody

Question 126. The third ventricle lies in

  1. Medulla oblongata
  2. Midbrain
  3. Diencephalon
  4. Cerebrum

Answer: 3. Diencephalon

Question 127. Which part of the brain is supposed to be damaged if, in an accident, a person loses control of water balance, hunger, and body temperature?

  1. Cerebellum
  2. Hypothalamus
  3. Medula oblongata
  4. Corpora quadrigemina

Answer: 2. Hypothalamus

Question 128. Column 1 lists the parts of the human brain and column 2 lists the function. Match the two columns and identify the correct choice from those given.

NEET Biology Neural Control And Coordination Column A Lists The Parts Of Human Brain And Column 2

Answer: 4.

Question 129. Which of the following destroys acetylcholinesterase?

  1. Malathion
  2. CO
  3. KCN
  4. Colchicine

Answer: 1. Malathion

Question 130. Botulism affects

  1. Digestive system
  2. Blood vascular system
  3. Nervous system
  4. Respiratory system

Answer: 3. Nervous system

Question 131. Nor-epinephrine leads to an increase in

  1. Blood pressure
  2. Urine production
  3. Cellular respiration
  4. Release of epinephrine

Answer: 1. Blood pressure

Question 132. Injury to the vagus nerve in humans is not likely to affect

  1. Gastrointestinal movements
  2. Pancreatic secretion
  3. Cardiac movements
  4. Tongue movements

Answer: 4. Tongue movements

Question 133. In a man, the abducens nerve is injured. Which one of the following functions will be affected?

  1. Movement of the neck
  2. Movement of the tongue
  3. Movement of the eyeball
  4. Swallowing

Answer: 3. Movement of the eyeball

Question 134. One of the examples of the action of the autonomous nervous system is

  1. Pupillary reflex
  2. Swallowing of food
  3. Peristalsis of the intestines
  4. Knee-jerk response

Answer: 3. Peristalsis of the intestines

Question 135. Excessive stimulation of the vagus nerve in humans may lead to

  1. Hoarse voice
  2. Peptic ulcers
  3. Efficient digestion of protein
  4. Irregular contractions of the diaphragm

Answer: 2. Peptic ulcers

Question 136. Mulch the following human spinal nerves in column 1 with 2 and choose the correct options:

NEET Biology Neural Control And Coordination Match The Following Human Spinal Nerves In Column A And B

  1. 1→ B, 2 → D, 3 → A, 4 → C
  2. 1 → D, 2 → C, 3→ A, 4 → B
  3. 1 → D, 2 → B, 3 → A, 4 → D
  4. 1→ A, 2 → D, 3 → B, 4 → C

Answer: 2. 1 → D, 2 → C, 3→ A, 4 → B

Question 137. The ninth pair of cranial nerves in frog is

  1. Vagus
  2. Trigeminal
  3. Hypoglossal
  4. Glossopharyngeal

Answer: 4. Glossopharyngeal

Question 138. Which of the following is not under the control of the vagus nerve?

  1. Gastrointestinal movement
  2. Respiratory movement
  3. Salivation
  4. None of these

Answer: 3. Salivation

Question 139. Which of the following is released by the parasympathetic nervous system?

  1. Serotonin
  2. Acetylcholine
  3. Epinephrine
  4. Nor-epinephrine

Answer: 2. Acetylcholine

“questions about nervous system “

Question 140. The mandibular nerve is the branch of which cranial nerve?

  1. 2
  2. 3
  3. 5
  4. 6

Answer: 3. 5

Question 141. The Vagus nerve is composed mainly of parasympathetic fibers. The preganglionic fibers form a network in the walls of the gut. This network is known as

  1. Choroid plexus
  2. Nervous plexus
  3. Auerbach’s plexus
  4. Brachial plexus

Answer: 3. Auerbach’s plexus

Question 142. Given below is a table comparing the effects of sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system for four features (1-4). Which one feature is correctly matched?

NEET Biology Neural Control And Coordination Given Below Is A Table Comparing The Effects Of Sympathetic

Answer: 2.

Question 143. Effect of anesthetics on the body

  1. Inhibits Na-K pump
  2. Kills nerves
  3. Stops brain functions
  4. Inactivates skin cells

Answer: 1. Inhibits Na-K pump

Question 144. A deficiency of oxygen affects mainly the

  1. Brain
  2. Skin
  3. Kidney
  4. Intestine

Answer: 1. Brain

Question 145. Neuroglial cells associated with

  1. Heart
  2. Kidney
  3. Brain
  4. Eyes

Answer: 3. Brain

Question 146. Adrenaline directly affects on

  1. S A node
  2. β-cells of Langerhans
  3. Dorsal root of the spinal cord
  4. Epithelial cells of the stomach

Answer: 1. S A node

Question 147. In which animal, nerve cell is present but brain is absent?

  1. Sponge
  2. Earthworm
  3. Cockroach
  4. Hydra

Answer: 4. Hydra

Question 148. Which of the following is the dominant intracellular anion?

  1. Potassium
  2. Chloride
  3. Phosphate
  4. Calcium

Answer: 3. Phosphate

Question 149. The nervous system develops from

  1. Ectoderm
  2. Mesoderm
  3. Ectomesoderm
  4. Endomesoderm

Answer: 1. Ectoderm

Question 150. Which of the following is not correctly matched?

  1. Rhinencephalon—Olfaction
  2. Hypothalamus—Pituitary
  3. Cerebellum—Balance
  4. Medulla oblongata—Temperature regulation

Answer: 4. Medulla oblongata—Temperature regulation

Question 151. The internal carotid artery supplies blood to

  1. Kidney
  2. Liver
  3. Heart
  4. Brain

Answer: 4. Brain

Question 152. Which one of the following characters is not typical of the class Mammalia?

  1. Seven cervical vertebrae
  2. Thecodont dentition
  3. Alveolar lungsnerves
  4. Ten pairs of cranial

Answer: 4. Ten pairs of cranial

Question 153. Parkinson’s disease (characterized by tremors and progressive rigidity of limbs) is caused by the degeneration of brain neurons that are involved in movement control and make use of neurotransmitter

  1. Acetylcholine
  2. Nor-epinephrine
  3. Dopamine
  4. GABA

Answer: 3. Dopamine

Question 154. Which one of the following statements is correct?

  1. Neither hormones control neural activity, nor the nervous control endocrine activity
  2. Endocrine glands regulate neural activity, but not vice versa
  3. Neurons regulate endocrine activity, but not vice versa
  4. Endocrine glands regulate neural activity and the nervous system regulates endocrine glands

Answer: 4. Endocrine glands regulate neural activity and the nervous system regulates endocrine glands

Question 155. Which one of the following does not act as a neurotransmitter?

  1. Nor-epinephrine
  2. Cortisone
  3. Acetylcholine
  4. Epinephrine

Answer: 2. Cortisone

Question 156. Which of the following two systems are opposite in action to each other?

  1. Nervous, sensory
  2. Nervous, endocrine
  3. Sensory, Endocrine
  4. Parasympathetic, sympathetic

Answer: 4. Parasympathetic, sympathetic

Question 157. Which of the following structures is present only in the mammalian brain?

  1. Corpus luteum
  2. Corpus striatum
  3. Corpus fibrosum
  4. Corpuscallosum

Answer: 4. Corpuscallosum

Question 158. You are watching a horror movie and you notice your heart is beating fast and your mouth is dry. It is because of

  1. Fight and flight response
  2. Autonomic nervous system
  3. Sympathetic nervous system
  4. Both 1 and 3

Answer: 2. Autonomic nervous system

Question 159. Tongue is under the control of

  1. Trigeminal
  2. Facial
  3. Autonomic system
  4. Glossopharyngeal

Answer: 4. Glossopharyngeal

Question 160. The number of cranial nerves in frogs is

  1. 10
  2. 12
  3. 10 pairs
  4. 12 pairs

Answer: 3. 10 pairs

Question 161. Intercellular communication in multicellular organisms occurs through

  1. Nervous system only
  2. Digestive system only
  3. Respiratory system only
  4. Both the nervous and endocrine systems

Answer: 4. Both the nervous and endocrine systems

Question 162. Which of the following substances leads to the inhibition of the central nervous system?

  1. Glycine
  2. GABA
  3. Nor-epinephrine
  4. Both 1 and 2

Answer: 4. Both 1 and 2

Question 163. Which one of the following pairs of structures distinguishes a nerve cell from other types of cells?

  1. Vacuoles and fibers
  2. Flagellum and medullary sheath
  3. Nucleus and mitochondria
  4. Perikaryon and dendrites

Answer: 4. Perikaryon and dendrites

Question 164. The fifth cranial nerve of a frog is called

  1. Optic nerve
  2. Vagus
  3. Trigeminal
  4. Ophthalmic

Answer: 3. Trigeminal

Question 165. If the dorsal root of the spinal cord is broken down, then its effect is

  1. No effect on impulse
  2. Impulse is transmitted fast
  3. Impulse is transmitted but slowly
  4. No impulse is transmitted from the receptor

Answer: 4. No impulse is transmitted from the receptor

Question 166. The acetylcholinesterase enzyme splits acetylcholine into

  1. Acetone and choline
  2. Acetic acid and choline
  3. Amino acid and choline
  4. Aspartic acid and acetylcholine

Answer: 2. Acetic acid and choline

Question 167. The olfactory area is present in :

  1. Frontal lobe
  2. Parietal lobe
  3. Temporal lobe
  4. Occipital lobe

Answer: 3. Temporal lobe

Question 168. Somesthetic or post-central area is responsible for

  1. Initiation of motor impulses for voluntary muscles
  2. Initiation of motor impulses for involuntary muscles
  3. Perception of pain, touch, and temperature
  4. Coordination of speech

Answer: 3. Perception of pain, touch, and temperature

Question 169. Dilation of the pupil of the human eye is caused by

  1. Parathormone
  2. Sympathetic
  3. Parasympathetic nerve system
  4. Autonomic nervous

Answer: 2. Sympathetic

Question 170. The nerve impulse is generated when nerve cell undergoes

  1. Depolarization
  2. Repolarization
  3. Hyperpolarization
  4. Pscudopolarization

Answer: 1. Depolarization

Question 171. Nerve impulse initiates with the movements of

  1. K+
  2. Na+
  3. Ca2+
  4. Mg2+

Answer: 2. Na+

Question 172. Which part of the brain controls intellectual ability?

  1. Frontal lobe
  2. Parietal lobe
  3. Temporal lobe
  4. Occipital lobe

Answer: 1. Frontal lobe

Question 173. The occipital lobe is connected with

  1. Smell
  2. Vision
  3. Speech
  4. Hearing

Answer: 2. Vision

Question 174. A: The imbalance in the concentration of Na+, K+, and proteins generates resting potential. R: To maintain the unequal distribution of Na+ and K+, the neurons use electrical energy.

  1. Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  2. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  3. (A) is a true statement, but (R) is false.
  4. Both (A) and (R) are false.

Answer: 2. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Question 175. During the conduction of nerve impulses, the action potential is the result of the movement of

  1. Na+ from intracellular fluid to extracellular fluid
  2. Na+ from extracellular fluid to intracellular fluid
  3. Na+ toward both directions
  4. None of the above

Answer: 2. Na+ from extracellular fluid to intracellular fluid

Question 176. Which of the damaged cells cannot be repaired?

  1. Liver cells
  2. Brain cells
  3. Bone cells
  4. Epidermal cells

Answer: 2. Brain cells

Question 177. The 4 cranial nerve is

  1. Facial
  2. Trochlear
  3. Olfactory
  4. Oculomotor

Answer: 2. Trochlear

Question 178. Adrenaline is equivalent to which neurotransmitter?

  1. GABA
  2. Serotonin
  3. Epinephrine
  4. Nor-epinephrine

Answer: 3. Epinephrine

Question 179. All sensory pathways to the cerebral cortex synapse at

  1. Pons
  2. Thalamus
  3. Cerebellum
  4. Hypothalamus

Answer: 1. Pons

Question 180. A man is admitted to a hospital. He is suffering from an abnormally low body temperature, loss of appetite, and extreme thirst. His brain scan would probably show a tumor in

  1. Pons
  2. Cerebellum
  3. Hypothalamus
  4. Medulla oblongata

Answer: 3. Hypothalamus

Question 181. The nerve centers which control the body temperature and the urge to eat are contained in

  1. Pons
  2. Thalamus
  3. Cerebellum
  4. Hypothalamus

Answer: 4. Hypothalamus

Question 182. The optic lobes in humans are represented by corpora

  1. Bigemina
  2. Arenacea
  3. Striata
  4. Quadrigemina

Answer: 4. Quadrigemina

Question 183. In a medullated nerve fiber, the conduction of impulses is faster due to the presence of

  1. Pericytes
  2. Nissl granules
  3. Endoneurium and Epineurium
  4. Myelin sheath and node of Ranvier

Answer: 4. Myelin sheath and node of Ranvier

Question 184. Which of the following is not an effect of the sympathetic nervous system?

  1. Dilation of the pupil
  2. Inhibition of peristalsis
  3. Elevation of blood pressure
  4. Stimulation of saliva secretion

Answer: 4. Stimulation of saliva secretion

Question 185. When a neuron is in a resting state, i.e., not conducting any impulse, the axonal membrane is

  1. Comparatively more permeable to Na+ ions and nearly impermeable to K+ ions
  2. Equally permeable to both Na+ and K+ ions
  3. Impermeable to both Na+ and K+ ions
  4. Comparatively more permeable to K+ ions and nearly impermeable to Na+ ions

Answer: 4. Comparatively more permeable to K+ ions and nearly impermeable to Na+ ions

Question 186. The human hindbrain comprises three parts, one of which is

  1. Corpus callosum
  2. Cerebellum
  3. Hypothalamus
  4. Spinal cord

Answer: 2. Cerebellum

Question 187. Diagrammatic cross-section of a single loop of human cochlea

NEET Biology Neural Control And Coordination Single Loop Of Human Cochlea

Which one of the following options correctly represents the names of the three different parts?

  1. D: Sensory hair cells, A: Endolymph, B: Tectorial membrane
  2. A: Perilymph, B: Tectorial membrane, C: Endolymph
  3. B: Tectorial membrane, C: Perilymph, D: Secretory cells
  4. C: Endolymph, D: Sensory hair cells, A: Serum

Answer: 2. A: Perilymph, B: Tectorial membrane, C: Endolymph

Question 188. Which one of the following is the correct difference between rod cells and cone cells of our retina?

NEET Biology Neural Control And Coordination Cells And Cone Cells Of Our Retina

Answer: 1

Question 189. A coma transplant in humans is almost never rejected. This is because

  1. It is composed of enucleated cells
  2. It is a non-living layer
  3. Its cells are least penetrable by bacteria
  4. It has no blood supply

Answer: 4. It has no blood supply

Question 190. Static equilibrium is maintained by

  1. Utriculus
  2. Sacculus
  3. Both of these
  4. Semicircular canals

Answer: 3. Both of these

Question 191. Organ of Corti helps in

  1. Maintaining equilibrium
  2. Formation of wax
  3. Hearing
  4. All of these

Answer: 3. Hearing

Question 192. Eustachian tube connects

  1. Pharynx to the middle ear
  2. Middle ear to external ear
  3. Left ventricle to right ventricle
  4. Left atrium to right atrium

Answer: 1. Pharynx to middle ear

Question 193. Which organ of the rabbit is concerned with equilibrium?

  1. Cochlea
  2. Ear ossicles
  3. Eustachian ducts
  4. Semicircular canals

Answer: 4. Semicircular canals

Question 194. Bowman’s glands are found in

  1. Olfactory epithelium
  2. External auditory canal
  3. Cortical nephrons only
  4. Juxtamedullary nephrons

Answer: 1. Olfactory epithelium

Question 195. The correct order of arrangement of ear ossicles starting from the tympanum is

  1. Incus, malleus, stapes
  2. Malleus, incus, stapes
  3. Stapes, malleus, incus
  4. Incus, stapes, malleus

Answer: 2. Malleus, incus, stapes

Question 196. In the following abnormalities of the eyes, which one is a serious condition that leads to blindness?

  1. Myopia
  2. Glaucoma
  3. Presbyopia
  4. Astigmatism
  5. Hypermetropia

Answer: 2. Glaucoma

Question 197. The lens and cornea do not have a blood supply. So the nutrients are supplied by

  1. Retina
  2. Eyelash
  3. Blind spot
  4. Aqueous humor

Answer: 4. Aqueous humor

Question 198. Which part of the human ear plays no role in hearing as such but is otherwise very much required?

  1. Organ of Corti
  2. Vestibular apparatus
  3. Ear ossicles
  4. Eustachian tube

Answer: 2. Vestibular apparatus

Question 199. Select the answer that correctly matches the endocrine gland with the hormone it secretes and its function/deficiency symptom.

NEET Biology Neural Control And Coordination Correctly Matches The Endocrinegland With The Hormone

Answer: 2.

Question 200. Parts A, B, C, and D of the human eye. Select the option which gives correct identification along with its functions/characteristics.:

NEET Biology Neural Control And Coordination Human Eye

  1. B—Blind spot—Has only a few rods and cones.
  2. C—Aqueous chamber—Reflects the light which does not pass through the lens.
  3. D—Choroid—Its anterior part forms the ciliary body.
  4. A—Retina—Contains photoreceptors: rods and cones.

Answer: 4. A—Retina—Contains photoreceptors: rods and cones.

Question 201. Axon terminal and synapse. Identify correctly at least two of A-D.

NEET Biology Neural Control And Coordination Axon Terminal And Synapse

  1. B – Synaptic connection, D – K+
  2. A – Neurotransmitter, B – Synaptic cleft
  3. C – Neurotransmitter, D – Ca++
  4. A – Receptor, C – Synaptic vesicles

Answer: 4. A – Receptor, C – Synaptic vesicles

NEET Biology Multiple Choice Questions – Plant Growth And Development

NEET Biology Plant Growth And Development Multiple Choice Questions And Answers

Question 1. The condition of suspended growth due to external environmental conditions is called

  1. Dormancy
  2. Rest
  3. Quiescence
  4. All of these

Answer: 4. All of these

Question 2. Seed dormancy in tomato seeds is due to

  1. Impermeable seed coat
  2. Immature embryo
  3. Presence of ferulic acid in pulp
  4. Abscisic acid in pulp

Answer: 2. Immature embryo

Question 3. A method to break the dormancy of seed by subjecting to low and high temperatures is called

  1. Scarification
  2. Pressure chamber method
  3. Stratification
  4. Impaction

Answer: 3. Stratification

Question 4. Which does not happen during seed germination?

  1. Emergence of radical
  2. Increase in the rate of respiration
  3. Hydrolysis of stored polysaccharides and proteins
  4. Photosynthesis by cotyledons

Answer: 4. Photosynthesis by cotyledons

Question 5. Real growth is

  1. Protoplasmic growth
  2. Cell wall growth
  3. Growth in size
  4. Growth in volume

Answer: 1. Protoplasmic growth

” plant growth and development neetprep”

Question 6. Growth in plant organs is

  1. Qualitative and extrinsic
  2. Quantitative and intrinsic
  3. Qualitative and intrinsic
  4. Quantitative and extrinsic

Answer: 3. Qualitative and intrinsic

Question 7. The point in the S-shaped growth curve where growth is maximum is called

  1. Inflection point
  2. Compensation point
  3. Extinction point
  4. Deflection point

Answer: 3. Extinction point

Question 8. The exponential phase in growth is characterized by

  1. Enlargements of cells
  2. Constant increase in growth rate
  3. Maturation of cells
  4. Both (1) and (2)

Answer: 4. Both (1) and (2)

Question 9. Which of the following is not a growth-measuring instrument?

  1. Auxanometer
  2. Crescograph
  3. Horizontal microscope
  4. Clinostat

Answer: 1. Auxanometer

Question 10. The plant growth is regulated by

  1. Climatic factor
  2. Growth hormones
  3. Both (1) and (2)
  4. None of these

Answer: 2. Growth hormones

Question 11. The growth in plants differs from the growth in animals

  1. Being localized and indefinite
  2. Being indefinite
  3. Having indefinite lifespan
  4. Having a definite lifespan

Answer: 1. Being localized and indefinite

Question 12. The scientist who suspected the presence of some growth substances was

  1. Linnaeus
  2. Mendel
  3. Charles Darwin
  4. Robert Brown

Answer: 3. Charles Darwin

Question 13. If an etiolated stem could be first saturated with auxin by spraying and then exposed to a streak of light from one side, it will

  1. Bend toward the light
  2. Bend away from the light
  3. Grow straight upward
  4. Be prevented from growing

Answer: 2. Bend away from the light

Question 14. The plant hormone which is basic in nature is

  1. Auxin
  2. Gibberellin
  3. Cytokinin
  4. Abscisic acid

Answer: 2. Gibberellin

Question 15. Which is not a physiological effect of auxins?

  1. Cell elongation
  2. Development of parthenocarpic fruits
  3. Prevention of abscission of leaves and fruits
  4. Reversal of genetic dwarfism

Answer: 2. Development of parthenocarpic fruits

Question 16. Transport of auxins is

  1. Polar
  2. Diffuse
  3. Through xylem
  4. Through phloem

Answer: 4. Through phloem

Question 17. The movement shown by a plant kept in a phototropic chamber is due to

  1. Differential synthesis of hormones
  2. Differential translocation of hormones
  3. None of these
  4. Both (1) and (2)

Answer: 2. Differential translocation of hormones

Question 18. Sprouting of potatoes can be prevented in storage by

  1. CH4
  2. GA3
  3. MH
  4. CK

Answer: 2. GA3

Question 19. A phytotron is a device by which

  1. Electron flow is measured
  2. Mutations are induced in plants
  3. The wind velocity is measured
  4. Plants are grown in a controlled environment

Answer: 2. Mutations are induced in plants

Question 20. Apical dominance in higher plants is due to

  1. The balance between auxins and cytokinins
  2. Enzyme activity
  3. Carbohydrates and nitrogen ratio
  4. Incorrect photoperiod

Answer: 2. Enzyme activity

Question 21. Cholodny-Went theory is related with

  1. Phototropism
  2. Photomorphogenesis
  3. Photorespiration
  4. Photosynthesis

Answer: 2. Photomorphogenesis

Question 22. Gibbane ring skeleton in structure and production of hydrolytic enzymes in barley endosperm is a characteristic of

  1. Cytokinin
  2. Auxins
  3. Gibberellins
  4. Ethylene

Answer: 3. Gibberellins

” plant questions”

Question 23. The Avena curvature test and dwarf maize test are bioassays of respectively,

  1. Auxins and gibberellins
  2. GA and CK
  3. Auxins and CK
  4. IAA and ethylene

Answer: 1. Auxins and gibberellins

Question 24. Specific property attributed to GA is

  1. Shortening of genetically tall plants
  2. Elongation of genetically dwarf plants
  3. Rooting or stem cuttings
  4. Promotion of leaf and fruit fall

Answer: 2. Elongation of genetically dwarf plants

Question 25. The synthesis of α-amylase in certain cereals is stimulated by

  1. IAA
  2. GA
  3. OK
  4. ABA

Answer: 4. ABA

Question 26. Cytokinins are considered a part of

  1. t-RNA
  2. r-RNA
  3. DNA
  4. Vascular tissues

Answer: 2. r-RNA

Question 27. An anti-ageing plant hormone from the following is

  1. IAA
  2. GA3
  3. Zeatin
  4. C2H4

Answer: 1. IAA

Question 28. The delay of senescence or Richmond-Lang effect is a physiological effect of

  1. IAA
  2. OK
  3. GA
  4. C2H4

Answer: 2. OK

Question 29. The number of female flowers can be increased by the application of

  1. IAA
  2. C2H4
  3. OK
  4. All of these

Answer: 1. IAA

Question 30. The triple response is shown by the hormone

  1. Ethylene
  2. CK
  3. 2, 4-D
  4. GA3

Answer: 4. GA3

Question 31. Which of the following is an anti-gibberellin as well as a stress hormone?

  1. ABA
  2. CK
  3. NAAM
  4. 2,4-D

Answer: 2. CK

Question 32. Which is not true for abscisic acid?

  1. Acts as an anti-transpirant
  2. Synthesized in chloroplast from carotenoids
  3. Increases stress tolerance in plants
  4. Induces epinasty of leaves and flowers

Answer: 1. Acts as an anti-transpirant

Question 33. CH2=CH2 is mainly responsible for

  1. Formation of root hair
  2. Formation of nodes
  3. Ripening of fruits
  4. Formation of intemodes

Answer: 4. Formation of internodes

Question 34. For flowering, the critical dark period should always be exceeded in

  1. Long day plants
  2. Short day plants
  3. Day-neutral plants
  4. All types of plants

Answer: 4. All types of plants

Question 35. Photoperiodic stimulus is perceived by

  1. Meristematic cells
  2. Leaves
  3. Flowers
  4. Seeds

Answer: 1. Meristematic cells

Question 36. Which of the following statements does not characterize photoperiodism?

  1. Mediated by florigen hormone.
  2. Conversion of shoot apex into reproductive apex.
  3. Red light is stimulatory in SDP, LDP, and DNP for flowering.
  4. The number of correct photoperiodic induction may be 1-25.

Answer: 2. Conversion of shoot apex into reproductive apex.

Question 37. Find the odd one (with respect to photoperiod) from the following.

  1. Rice
  2. Cosmos
  3. Chrysanthemum
  4. Larkspur

Answer: 4. Larkspur

Question 38. Hypothetical florigen could be produced prematurely in day plants by exposing it to

  1. Shortening light period
  2. Red light during the night
  3. Extending dark period
  4. Far-red light

Answer: 2. Red light during the night

Question 39. The acquisition of the ability to flower by chilling treatment is called

  1. Vernalization
  2. Yarovization
  3. Springification
  4. All of these

Answer:  3. Springification

Question 40. Which is not a requirement of vernalization?

  1. Aerobic condition
  2. Moisture
  3. Low temperature
  4. Differentiated tissues

Answer: 1. Aerobic condition

Question 41. The hormone that can replace the long days and low-temperature requirement for flowering in some plants is

  1. Gibberellin
  2. Cytokinin
  3. Vemalin
  4. Ethylene

Answer: 2. Cytokinin

Question 42. Senescence is

  1. Terminal irreversible phase of aging
  2. Combined deteriorative processes in mature plant
  3. A period between complete maturity and final death of an organ
  4. All of these

Answer: 2. Combined deteriorative processes in mature plant

neet related questions

Question 43. Shoot or top senescence occurs in

  1. Rice
  2. Gladiolus
  3. Mango
  4. Dalbergia

Answer: 2. Gladiolus

Question 44. The abscission zone is characterized by

  1. Presence of callose plugs
  2. The presence of a distinct layer
  3. Activity of celluloses and pectinases
  4. All of these

Answer: 1. Presence of callose plugs

Question 45. In which layer of the abscission zone, the breakdown of cells occur?

  1. Gonidial layer
  2. Protective layer
  3. Separation layers
  4. All of these

Answer: 4. All of these

Question 46. The leaves of Mimosa pudica (sensitive plant) droop down on touch because

  1. The plant has a nervous system
  2. The leaves are very tender
  3. The leaves are injured
  4. The turgor pressure of the leaf base changes

Answer: 3. The leaves are injured

Question 47. Plants growing under prolonged water stress conditions develop the phenomenon of leaf area adjustment which is

  1. Shortening of plastochron
  2. Reduction of leaf surface area
  3. Shortening of intermodal length
  4. Shedding of older leaves

Answer: 4. Shedding of older leaves

Question 48. The seasonal activity of cambium is promoted by

  1. Proline
  2. Auxin
  3. Ethylene
  4. Abscisic acid

Answer: 1. Proline

Question 49. Find the odd one (with respect to the cause of seed dormancy)

  1. Amaranthus
  2. Capsella
  3. Ginkgo
  4. Trigonella

Answer: 4. Trigonella

Question 50. The pigment concerned with various photomorphogenic processes in plants has

  1. Open tetrapyrrolic structure
  2. Absorption spectra different from that of chlorophyll
  3. Positive effects on membrane permeability
  4. All of these

Answer: 3. Positive effects on membrane permeability

Question 51. Plant hormones are

  1. Growth regulators
  2. Growth promoters
  3. Growth inhibitors
  4. None of above

Answer: 1. Growth regulators

Question 52. The most common auxin is

  1. GA
  2. ABA
  3. Kinetin
  4. IAA

Answer: 4. IAA

Question 53. Gibberellin promotes cell division and elongation in

  1. Leaves
  2. Roots
  3. Shoots
  4. All of these

Answer: 4. All of these

Question 54. The deteriorative processes in plants that naturally terminate their functional life are collectively called

  1. Wilting
  2. Abscission
  3. Plasmolysis
  4. Senescence

Answer: 4. Senescence

Question 55. Which of the following is

  1. Auxin
  2. ABA
  3. Ethylene gas
  4. Cytokinin

Answer: 3. Ethylene gas

Question 56. The induction of flowering treatment is called

  1. Vernalization
  2. Photoperiodism
  3. Cryobiology
  4. Chronology

Answer: 1. Vernalization

Question 57. Plant growth is

  1. Limited
  2. Unlimited
  3. Diffused
  4. Both (1) and (2)

Answer: 4. Both (1) and (2)

Question 58. Hormones produced during leaf fall is

  1. IAA
  2. ABA
  3. Florigen
  4. Kinetin

Answer: 2. ABA

Question 59. Climacteric fruit shows

  1. High respiration rate at ripening
  2. Sudden change in taste
  3. Sudden change in color and shape
  4. None of the above

Answer: 1. High respiration rate at ripening

Question 60. Phytochrome is present in

  1. Vascular cryptogams
  2. Prokaryotes
  3. Brain cell
  4. Kidney cell

Answer: 1. Vascular cryptogams

” which of the following is day neutral plant”

Question 61. Genetically, dwarf plants can be converted into a plant of normal height with the application of

  1. Auxin
  2. Gibberellin
  3. Cytokinins
  4. Auxin

Answer: 2. Gibberellin

Question 62. A phytohormone involved in the de novo synthesis of α-amylase in germinating seeds is

  1. Auxin
  2. Gibberellin
  3. Ethylene
  4. Cytokinin

Answer: 2. Gibberellin

Question 63. Phytochrome is responsible for

  1. Photosynthesis
  2. Flowering
  3. Fruit formation
  4. Respiration

Answer: 2. Flowering

Question 64. Which of the following is a gaseous hormone?

  1. Ethylene
  2. Cytokinin
  3. Both ethylene and auxin
  4. Gibberellin

Answer: 1. Ethylene

Question 65. The pineapple which under natural conditions is difficult to blossom has been made to produce fruits throughout the year by the application of

  1. IAA, IBA
  2. NAA, 2,4-D
  3. Phenyl mercuric acid
  4. Cytokinins

Answer: 1. IAA, IBA

Question 66. Most of the plants are seasonal due to

  1. Photoperiodism
  2. Phototropism
  3. Photosynthesis
  4. Photolysis

Answer: 1. Photoperiodism

Question 67. Certain chemical substances having profound effects on plant growth are called

  1. Catalytic agents
  2. Phytohormones
  3. Enzymes
  4. Compost

Answer: 2. Phytohormones

Question 68. Phytochrome was discovered by

  1. W. Went
  2. Gamer and Allard
  3. F.F. Blackman
  4. Borthwick and Hendricks

Answer: 4. Borthwick and Hendricks

Question 69. The activity of α-amylase in the endosperm of barley germinating seed is induced by

  1. Ethylene
  2. Cytokinin
  3. IAA
  4. Gibberellin

Answer: 4. Gibberellin

Question 70. A pigment concerned with floral induction is

  1. Florigen
  2. Chlorophyll
  3. Plastocyanin
  4. Phytochrome

Answer: 4. Phytochrome

Question 71. Gibberellins were first discovered in the fungal genus

  1. Mucor
  2. Rhizopus
  3. Agaricus
  4. Fusarhim

Answer: 4. Fusarhim

Question 72. The presence of auxins in a solution could be tested based on

  1. Avena sativa stem tip test
  2. Carbon tetrachloride test
  3. Iodine test
  4. Defoliation test

Answer: 1. Avena sativa stem tip test

Question 73. An auxanometer is used to measure

  1. Length
  2. Width
  3. Depth
  4. Growth

Answer: 4. Growth

Question 74. The pigment sensitivity for red and far-red light is

  1. Chlorophyll
  2. Phytochrome
  3. Cytochrome
  4. Carotene

Answer: 2. Phytochrome

Question 75. The hormone that breaks seed dormancy is

  1. Auxin
  2. Gibberellin
  3. Ethylene
  4. Cytokinin

Answer: 2. Gibberellin

Question 76. Which one of the following is not a synthetic auxin?

  1. 2,4-D
  2. 2,4,5-T
  3. NAA
  4. IAA

Answer: 4. IAA

Question 77. Which plant hormone causes fruit ripening?

  1. IAA
  2. Cytokinin
  3. Ethylene
  4. GA

Answer: 3. Ethylene

Question 78. Which hormone is responsible for apical growth?

  1. IAA
  2. ABA
  3. GA
  4. All of these

Answer: 1. IAA

Question 79. Abscisic acid controls

  1. Cell elongation and cell wall formation
  2. Shoot elongation
  3. Leaf fall and dormancy
  4. Cell division

Answer: 3. Leaf fall and dormancy

Question 80. Which hormone is used to induce ripening in bananas?

  1. Cytokinin
  2. Ethylene
  3. ABA
  4. GA3

Answer: 2. Ethylene

Question 81. Which among the following is a synthesis plant hormone?

  1. IAA
  2. GA
  3. 2,4-D
  4. ABA

Answer: 3. 2,4-D

Question 82. Richmond-Lang effect is shown by

  1. Auxins
  2. Sugars
  3. Zeatin
  4. Gibberellins

Answer: 3. Zeatin

Question 83. Ethylene gas is used for

  1. Growth of plants
  2. Delaying fruit abscission
  3. Ripening of fruits
  4. Stopping the leaf abscission

Answer: 3. Ripening of fruits

Question 84. An auxanometer is used to detect

  1. Respiration
  2. Transpiration
  3. Plant movement
  4. Growth

Answer: 4. Growth

Question 85. Which of the following plant hormones is extracted from fungus?

  1. Ethylene
  2. Gibberellin
  3. Cytokinin
  4. 2,4-D

Answer: 2. Gibberellin

Question 86. The highest concentration of auxin is found in

  1. Root and shoot tips
  2. Leaves and fruits
  3. Mid stem portion
  4. None of these

Answer: 1. Root and shoot tips

Question 87. Ethylene is used for

  1. Decreasing the senescence
  2. Increasing the heights of the stem
  3. Ripening of fruits
  4. Prevention of leaf fall

Answer: 3. Ripening of fruits

Question 88. The movement of the pollen tube is called

  1. Chemotropism
  2. Thermotaxis
  3. Their monastic
  4. Hydrotropism

Answer: 1. Chemotropism

Question 89. Phytotron is

  1. A controlled condition chamber for plants
  2. Leaf culture process
  3. Special culture of seeds
  4. Root culture process

Answer: 1. A controlled condition chamber for plants

Question 90. Phytochrome occurs in two forms. Its stable form is

  1. Pfr form
  2. Pr form
  3. Both forms
  4. None of these

Answer: 2. Pr form

Question 91. Which pigment is responsible for flowering in plants?

  1. Phytochrome
  2. Cytochrome
  3. Anthocyanin
  4. Xanthophyll

Answer: 1. Xanthophyll

Question 92. The process of vernalization can be induced by

  1. Cytokinin
  2. Auxin
  3. Phototropin
  4. GA

Answer: 4. GA

Question 93. Which of the following plant is LDP?

  1. Xanthium
  2. Soyabean
  3. Wheat
  4. Tobacco

Answer: 3. Wheat

Question 94. Phototropism is due to the hormone

  1. IAA
  2. GA
  3. 2-4 D
  4. Cytokinin

Answer: 1. IAA

Question 95. Photoperiodism affects

  1. Vegetative growth
  2. Internode elongation
  3. Seed germination
  4. Reproductive growth

Answer: 4. Reproductive growth

Question 96. Apical dominance is not affected by

  1. Indoleacetic acid
  2. Gibberellins
  3. Indoleacetaldehyde
  4. Indolebutyric acid

Answer: 2. Gibberellins

Question 97. The activity of α-amylase in the endosperm of barley germinating seed is induced by

  1. Ethylene
  2. Cytokinin
  3. IAA
  4. Gibberellin

Answer: 4. Gibberellin

Question 98. A pigment concerned with both floral induction and seed germination is

  1. Florigen
  2. Chlorophyll
  3. Plastocyanin
  4. Phytochrome

Answer: 4. Phytochrome

Question 99. Which of the following may be the substitute of photoperiodism?

  1. Humidity
  2. Temperature
  3. Mineral nutrients
  4. Soil moisture

Answer: 2. Temperature

Question 100. Phytohormine commonly called stress hormone is

  1. Auxin
  2. Abscisic acid
  3. Gibberellin
  4. Cytokinins

Answer: 2. Abscisic acid

Question 101. Fruit ripening can be hastened by treatment with

  1. LAA
  2. Florigen
  3. Ethylene
  4. Cytokinin

Answer: 3. Ethylene

Question 102. Opening of floral bud is an example of

  1. Induced movement
  2. Hyponastic movement
  3. Epinastic movement
  4. Cleistogamous movement

Answer: 3. Hyponastic movement

Question 103. Pruning of plants promotes branching because the axillary buds get sensitized to

  1. Ethylene
  2. Gibberellin
  3. Cytokinin
  4. IAA

Answer: 3. Cytokinin

Question 104. Cell elongation in intermodal regions of the green plants takes place due to

  1. Ethylene
  2. Indole acetic acid
  3. Cytokinin
  4. Gibberellins

Answer: 4. Gibberellins

Question 105. One set of a plant was grown at 12-hour day and 12-hour night period cycles and it flowered. In the other set, the night phase was interrupted by a flash of light and it did not flower. Under which one of the following categories will you place this plant?

  1. Short day
  2. Long day
  3. Darkness neutral
  4. Day-neutral

Answer: 1. Short day

Question 106. The maximum growth rate occurs in

  1. Exponential phase
  2. Stationary phase
  3. Senescent phase
  4. Lag phase

Answer: 1. Exponential phase

Question 107. The ability of the Venus flytrap to capture insects is due to

  1. Chemical stimulation by the prey
  2. A passive process requiring no special ability on the part of the plant
  3. Specialized “muscle-like” cells
  4. Rapid turgor pressure changes

Answer: 2. A passive process requiring no special ability on the part of the plant

Question 108. Why is vivipary an undesirable character for annual crop plants?

  1. It reduces the vigor of the plant.
  2. The seeds cannot be stored under normal conditions for the next season.
  3. The seeds cannot exhibit long dormancy.
  4. It adversely affects the fertility of the plant.

Answer: 2. The seeds cannot be stored under normal conditions for the next season.

Question 109. Gibberellins can promote seed germination because of their influence on

  1. Rate of cell division
  2. Production of hydrolyzing enzymes
  3. Synthesis of abscisic acid
  4. Absorption of water through hard seed coat.

Answer: 2. Production of hydrolyzing enzymes

Question 110. IAA mainly inhibits the growth of

  1. Root
  2. Leaf
  3. Shoot
  4. Generally whole plant

Answer: 1. Root

Question 111. Movement due to external stimuli is known of

  1. Autonomic movement
  2. Paratonic movement
  3. Amoeboid movement
  4. Excretory movement

Answer: 2. Paratonic movement

Question 112. How does pruning help in making the hedge dense?

  1. The apical shoot grows faster after pruning.
  2. It releases wound hormones.
  3. It induces the differentiation of new shoots from the rootstock.
  4. It frees axillary buds from apical dominance.

Answer: 4. It frees axillary buds from apical dominance.

Question 113. Parthenocarpic tomato fruits can be produced by

  1. Raising the plants from vernalized seeds.
  2. Treating the plants with phenylmercury acetate.
  3. Removing androecium of flowers before pollen grains are released.
  4. Treating the plants with low concentrations of gibberellic acid and auxins.

Answer: 4. Treating the plants with low concentrations of gibberellic acid and auxins.

Question 114. An enzyme that can stimulate the germination of barley seeds is

  1. Protease
  2. Invertase
  3. α-amylase
  4. Lipase

Answer: 3. α-amylase

Question 115. The opening of floral buds into flowers is a type of

  1. Autonomic movement of growth
  2. Autonomic movement of locomotion
  3. Autonomic movement of variation
  4. Paratonic movement of growth

Answer: 1. Autonomic movement of growth

Question 116. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

  1. IAA—Cell wall elongation
  2. Abscisic acid—Stomatal closure
  3. Gibberellic acid—Leaf fall
  4. Cytokinin—Cell division

Answer: 3. Gibberellic acid—Leaf fall

Question 117. The wavelength of light that absorbed Pr form of phytochrome is

  1. 620 nm
  2. 640 nm
  3. 680 nm
  4. 720 nm

Answer: 2. 640 nm

Question 118. “Foolish seeding” disease of rice led to the discovery of

  1. IAA
  2. GA
  3. ABA
  4. 2,4-D

Answer: 2. GA

Question 119. Senescence as an active developmental cellular process in the growth and functioning of a flowering plant is indicated in

  1. Annual plants
  2. Floral parts
  3. Vessels and tracheid differentiation
  4. Leaf abscission

Answer: 4. Leaf abscission

Question 120. The importance of day length in the flowering of plants was first shown in

  1. Cotton
  2. Petunia
  3. Lemna
  4. Tobacco

Answer: 4. Tobacco

Question 121. One of the synthetic auxins is

  1. IBA
  2. NAA
  3. IAA
  4. GA

Answer: 2. NAA

Question 122. Which one of the following acids is a derivative of carotenoids?

  1. Abscisic acid
  2. Indole butyric acid
  3. Indole-3-acetic acid
  4. Gibberellic acid

Answer: 1. Abscisic acid

Question 123. Phototropic curvature is the result of uneven distribution of

  1. Cytokinins
  2. Auxin
  3. Gibberellin
  4. Phytochrome

Answer: 2. Auxin

Question 124. Photoperiodism was first characterized in

  1. Tomato
  2. Cotton
  3. Tobacco
  4. Potato

Answer: 3. Tobacco

Question 125. The coiling of garden pea tendrils around any support is an example of

  1. Thigmotropism
  2. Thermotaxis
  3. Thigmotaxis
  4. Thigmonasty

Answer: 1. Thigmotropism

Question 126. One of the commonly used plant growth hormones in tea plantations is

  1. Abscisic acid
  2. Zeatin
  3. Indole-3-acetic acid
  4. Ethylene

Answer: 2. Zeatin

Question 127. Root development is promoted by

  1. Auxin
  2. Gibberellin
  3. Ethylene
  4. Abscisic acid

Answer: 1. Auxin

Question 128. Through their effect on plant growth regulators, what is the role of temperature and light control in plants?

  1. Apical dominance
  2. Flowering
  3. Closure of stomata
  4. Fruit elongation

Answer: 2. Flowering

Question 129. Which one of the following generally acts as an antagonist to gibberellins?

  1. Zeatin
  2. Ethylene
  3. ABA
  4. IAA

Answer: 3. ABA

Question 130. Vernalization stimulates flowering in

  1. Zamikand
  2. Turmeric
  3. Carrot
  4. Ginger

Answer: 3. Carrot

NEET Biology Notes – Plant Growth And Development

NEET Biology Notes For Plant Growth And Development Growth

Growth is an irreversible increase in size, volume, and weight of a part or whole of an organism. An irreversible increase in size, volume, or weight is called apparent growth as it is the external manifestation of growth. Formation at cellular materials or protoplasm is the real growth. Growth is a measurable or quantitative phenomenon that can be measured in relation to time. The growth of living beings is internal or intrinsic.

Plant growth is diffused like that of animals only during the early embryonic stages. Later on, plants develop specific areas, called meristem, for growth. On account of meristems, plant growth is localized.

Characteristics Of Plant Growth

  1. Growth is localized.
  2. Growth continues throughout life.
  3. There is an increase in the number of parts.
  4. It is open-ended.
  5. The younger one or seedling can be quite different from an adult.
  6. The juvenile stage may have different traits.

Plant Growth Differentiation: Growth is invariably associated with differentiation. Differentiation is a permanent localized qualitative change in size, biochemistry, structure, and function of cells, tissues, or organs, for example, fiber, vessel, tracheid, sieve tube, mesophyll, leaf, etc. Some examples of differentiation are as follows

  1. Enlargement, lignocellulosic wall thickening, and emptying in case of tracheids
  2. Loss of end wall in case of vessel elements
  3. Loss of nucleus and perforation of end wall in sieve tube members
  4. Deposition of suberin and tannins in cells
  5. Differential wall thickening (in guard cells)
  6. Secretion of mucilage in root cap

Development is the sequence of changes that occur in the structure and functioning of an organism, organ, tissue, or cell involving its formation, growth differentiation, maturation, reproduction, senescence, and death.

Read and Learn More NEET Biology Notes

Characteristics Of Growth

  • Primary Growth: It is the formation of primary permanent tissues and organs. It is caused by the activity of apical and intercalary meristems.
  • Secondary Growth: It is an increase in girth. It occurs by two types of lateral meristems, vascular cambium and cork cambium.
  • Efficiency Index: It is the rate of growth. It is measured by calculating the increase in size, diameter, or area per unit time.

plant growth and development

NEET Biology Notes For Plant Growth And Development Growth Rate

An increase in growth per unit of time is called growth rate. Growth rate may result in arithmetic or geometric growth.

Arithmetic Growth: Arithmetic growth is a type of growth in which the rate of growth is constant and an increase in growth occurs in arithmetic progression 2, 4, 6, 8, 10, and 12. Arithmetic growth is found in root or shoot elongating at a constant rate.

The meristematic cells at the growing point divide in such a fashion that one daughter cell remains meristematic while the other cells grow and differentiate. The process continues. Mathematically, arithmetic growth is expressed as:

Lt = L0 + rt

where Lt is the length after time t, L0 is the length at the beginning, and r is the growth rate or elongation per unit time.

NEET Biology Plant Growth And Development Arithmetic Growth Curve

Geometric Growth: Geometric growth is quite common in unicellular organisms when grown in a nutrient-rich medium. Here, every cell divides. The daughter cells grow and divide. The granddaughters repeat the process and so on. The number of cells is initially small so the initial growth is slow. Later on, there is rapid growth at an exponential rate.

Geometric growth cannot be sustained for long. Some cells die. Limited nutrient availability causes a slowing down of growth. It leads to the stationary phase. (There may be actually a decline.) Plotting the growth against time will give a typical sigmoid or S-curve.

NEET Biology Plant Growth And Development Geometric Growth Curve

The S-curve of growth is typical of most living organisms in their natural environment. It also occurs in cells, tissues, and organs of plants.

Exponential Growth (Law Of Compound Interest): Growth is dependent on three factors: initial size (W0), rate of growth (r), and time interval (t) for which the rate of growth can be retained.

W1 = W0ert

Here W1 is the final size, W0 is the initial size, r is the growth rate, 1 is the time of growth, while e is the base on natural logarithms. The magnitude of r or the rate of growth has been called the efficiency index by Blackman (1919).

Absolute And Relative Growth Rate: Quantitative comparisons between the growths of various systems can be made by measuring their absolute and relative growth rates.

Absolute Growth Rate: The absolute growth curve is the actual growth curve obtained by plotting growth against time. It is commonly S-shaped. The absolute growth rate is the total growth per unit time. A graph plotted for absolute growth rates for various times of the grand period of growth appears bell-shaped.

” plant growth and development short notes”

The peak is formed when the growth rate is the fastest. The period of increasing growth is depicted by the first part of the curve while the period of decreasing growth rate is shown by the second part of the curve.

NEET Biology Plant Growth And Development Absolute Or Actual Growth Curve And Absolute Growth Rate Curve

Relative Growth Rate: It is the growth per unit time per unit initial growth.

Relative growth rate = \(\frac{\text{Growth in given time period}}{\text{Measurement at start of time period}}\)

Suppose two leaves have grown by 5 cm² in one day. The initial size of leaf A was 10 cm² while that of leaf B was 15 cm². Though their absolute growth is the same, the relative rate of growth is faster in leaf A.

NEET Biology Notes For Plant Growth And Development Measurement Of Growth

To measure growth, various methods/instruments are used.

  1. Direct method
  2. Horizontal microscope
  3. Auxanometer
    • Arc auxanometer
    • Pfeffer’s auxanometer
  4. Crescograph (Developed By J.C. Bose): A highly sensitive growth-measuring instrument that can magnify growth by 10000 times.

NEET Biology Notes For Plant Growth And Development Growth Hormones

In all plants, minute quantities of certain substances are found (plant growth regulators or phytohormones), which regulate growth and differentiation.

Five major types of growth substances are recognized: aux-ins, gibberellins, cytokinins, abscisic acid, and ethylene.

Auxins: Auxins are weak organic acids having unsaturated ring structures.

  • Charles Darwin conducted his experiments concerning growth on canary grass (Phalaris canariensis) and found that the bending movement of coleoptiles in uni-lateral light was due to a chemical.
  • Went is credited with the discovery of auxin.
  • Auxins are synthesized mainly in apices and exhibit polar transport through parenchyma.
  • KogI and Haagen Smith (1931) found that human urine contained a growth substance, which was isolated and given the name auxin-a (auxentriolic acid). In 1934, Kogl and coworkers isolated another compound, auxin-b (auxenolinic acid) from com germ oil and heteroauxin (now known as IAA or indole-3-acetic acid, C10H9O2N), from human urine. It is the only natural auxin.
  • The precursor of auxin is the tryptophan amino acid.
  • The optimum concentration in the stem apex is 10 ppm while in the root apex, it is 0.0001 ppm.
  • Auxin is active in a free state and can be easily extracted. Bound auxin is inactive and meant for storage. For example, IAA-aspartic acid, IAA-inositol, and IBA-alanine.

Functions Of Auxins

  • Auxins promote cell elongation by loosening cell wall microfibrils, solubilization of carbohydrate reserve, and increased respiration.
  • Responsible for phototropism and geotropism.
  • Promote apical dominance (in the presence of an apical bud, the growth of lateral buds are inhibited due to auxin secreted by the apical bud).
  • Promote root initiation in cuttings (by NAA, IBA).
  • Delay of abscission of leaves by preventing the formation of an abscission layer.
  • Prevention of lodging in cereals.
  • Induce parthenocarpy (production of seedless fruits).
  • Selective weedicide.
  • Have feminizing effect (increase number of female flowers in plants, for example, Cannabis).
  • Seasonal activity of cambium is promoted by auxin.
  • Healing of injury is effected through auxin-induced division in cells around the injured area.
  • Auxin induces negative potential in cell membranes.
  • In legumes, IAA stimulates nodule formation.

Antiauxins: They inhibit auxin activity. For example, triiodobenzoic acid (TIBA), PCIB (p-chlorophenoxy isobutyric acid)

Bioassay Of Auxins

  1. Avena curvature test
  2. Split pea test
  3. Root growth inhibition test

Applications Of Synthetic Auxins

  • Rooting: IBA, IBA-alanine, and NAA are used.
  • Parthenocarpy: IAA, IBA.
  • Weedicide: 2,4-D, 2,4-5-T are used for killing broad-leaved weeds (generally dicot).
  • Flowering: NAA and 2,4-D for litchi and pineapple.
  • Storage: Methyl ester of NAA for the storage of potato.
  • Pre-harvest Fruit Drop: 2,4-D for citrus fruits; NAA for tomato.
  • Prevention Of Lodging: Naphthalene acetamide (NAAM).
  • Vegetable Crops: Chlorophenoxypropionic acid is used to improve the quality of vegetable crops by inhibiting flower formation. For example, lettuce.

Dwarf Shoots: NAA is used for increasing dwarf shoots and a number of fruits in apples.

Gibberellins: In the early twentieth century, Japanese farmers noticed balance or foolish seedling disease of lice. As a result of the disease, certain rice seedlings grew excessively tall, the disease was caused by the fungus Gibherella fuikuroi (perfect state of Fusarium moniliform).

ch 15 biology class 11 notes

  • Yabuta and Suxniki (1930) isolated the growth-inducing hormone and called it gibberellin.
  • Chemically, all gibberellins are terpenes, a complex group of plant chemicals related to lipids. All are weak acids and have gibbane ring skeletons. GA3 is the commonest. GA24 and GA25 are found only in fungi. The precursor is acetyl CoA.
  • Gibberellins are synthesized in the apices of young leaves, embryos, buds, and roots and are transported through the xylem.

Applications Of Gibberellins

  • Internodal Elongation: Like auxins, the main effect of gibberellins is on stem elongation. Gibberellins stimulate stem elongation and leaf expansion but do not affect roots. Thus, gibberellins restore normal-size arid growth to genetically dwarf varieties of pear and maize.
  • Bolting: In many plants, leaf development is profuse, while internodal growth is retarded. This term of growth is called rosette, for example, cabbage, radish, and henbane. Just before the reproductive phase, internodes elongate enormously, causing a marked increase in height.

The stem sometimes elongates five to six times the original height of the plant. This is called bolting. Bolting requires either long days or cold nights and gibberellins treatment.

  • Germination Of Seeds: Gibberellins promote seed germination (especially in cereals).
  • Control Of Flowering: Gibberellins promote flowering in long-day plants and inhibit it in short-day plants. These also control sex expression in certain species. In general, the application of gibberellins promotes the production of male flowers in female plants of Cannabis.
  • Control Of Fruit Growth: Along with gibberellins, auxins control fruit growth and development. Gibberellins cause parthenocarpy in pome fruits (apple, pear, etc.).
  • Vernalization: Gibberellins can substitute vernalization.
  • Dormancy: Gibberellins overcome the natural dormancy of buds, tubers, seeds, etc.

Commercial Application Of Gibberellins

  • Fruit Growth: Increase the number and size of grapes, tomatoes, etc. Pomalin (a mixture of GA3 and BAP) is used for such purpose.
  • Malt: Increase the yield of malt from barley.
  • Overcoming Dormancy: In photoelastic seeds of tobacco and lettuce
  • Delay Ripening: in citrus.
  • Induce Flowering: In long-day plants, in non-inductive periods.

Antigibberellins: Certain chemicals are antagonistic to gibberellins. For example, Phosphan-D, Amo-1618, CCC, and maleic hydrazide.

Bioassay Of Gibberellins

  1. Induction of α-amylase in barley endosperm test
  2. Dwarf maize test
  3. Dwarf pea test

Cytokinins: They are basic hormones and are purine (adenine) derivatives. Cytokinins are substances that act primarily on cell division and have little or no effect on extension growth. In 1955, Miller et al. separated it from herring sperm DNA and yeast DNA and called it kinetin (because of its involvement in cell division, i.e., cytokinesis). Later on, the substance was identified as 6-furfuryl aminopurine. Subsequently, the term cytokinin was adopted by Letham.

  • The first naturally occurring cytokinin to be chemically identified was from young maize (Zea mays) grains in 1963 and was called zeatin, which is benzyl amino purine (BAP). Cytokinins are a part of t-RNA.
  • Cytokinins are mostly synthesized in roots, seeds, and developing fruits. Coconut milk and apple fruit extracts are rich in cytokinins. Some other cytokinins are dihydrozeatin, IPA (isopentanyl adenine).

Applications Of Cytokinins

  • Cell-division: Cytokinins are quite abundant wherever rapid cell division occurs, especially in growing tissues.
  • Morphogenesis: Cytokinins promote cell division. In the presence of auxins, cytokinins promote cell division even in non-meristematic tissues. In tissue cultures, mitotic divisions are accelerated when both auxin and cytokinin are present. The ratio of cytokinins to auxins also controls cell differentiation and morphogenesis.
  • Apical Dominance: Cytokinins and auxins act antagonistically in the control of apical dominance.
  • Delay In Senescence: Cytokinins delay the senescence of plant organs by controlling protein synthesis and mobilization of resources. This is called the Richmond-Lang effect. Cytokinins are also called anti-aging hormones.
  • Flowering: Cytokinins also induce flowering in certain species of plants such as Lemna and Wolffia and are also responsible for breaking the dormancy of seeds of some plants.
  • Favors Transport: Phloem transport is promoted.
  • Favors Salt Accumulation: Accumulation of salts in the cells is promoted.
  • Favors Sex-Expression: Promote femaleness.
  • Temperature/disease Resistance: Increase resistance to low and high temperatures and diseases.

Commercial Applications of Cytokinins

  1. Tissue culture
  2. The shelf life of vegetables and cut flowers is increased
  3. Overcoming senescence

Bioassay Of Cytokinins

  1. Chlorophyll preservation test.
  2. Cell division test

“plant growth “

Ethylene: Ethylene is the only natural plant growth regulator in gaseous form and is effective in the concentration of 0.01-10 ppm.

Ethylene is produced by most or all plant organs but maximum production occurs in ripening fruits and during senescence. High concentrations of auxin induce the formation of ethylene. Though it is a gas, it does not generally move through air spaces in plants. Rather, it escapes from the plant surface. The precursor of ethylene is methionine.

Applications Of Ethylene

  • Growth: Ethylene inhibits stem elongation and stimulates its transverse expansion. As a result, the stem looks swollen.
  • Abscission: It accelerates the abscission of leaves, flowers, and fruits.
  • Fruit Ripening: Its chief effects are on the ripening of fruits accompanied by a rise in the rate of respiration (climacteric). It causes the dehiscence of dry fruits.
  • Flowering: The application of ethylene induces flowering in pineapple.
  • A commercial compound “ethephon” breaks down to release ethylene in plants. It is particularly applied to rubber plants for the flow of latex.
  • It decreases the sensitivity to gravity. Roots become apogeotropic; seedling develops a tight epicotyl hook.
  • It has a feminizing effect.
  • Bioassay: Triple response test.

Growth Inhibitors

  • For a long time, it has been suspected that dormancy is caused by inhibitors. A group of scientists led by Wareing initiated studies to find them. In 1964, pure crystals of a substance were isolated called dormin. It was found to be similar to another compound isolated from young cotton fruits in 1963 by Addicott.
  • This substance accelerated abscission and was called abscission 2. In 1967, it was decided to call it abscissic acid (ABA). Since then, it has been found in all groups of plants (from mosses to higher plants). In liverworts and algae, a compound lunular acid has been found to have activities similar to ABA.
  • Chemically, ABA is a dextrorotatory cA-sesquiterpene. ABA is synthesized in leaves and transported through the xylem and phloem. It is a major inhibitor of growth in plants and is antagonistic to all three growth promoters. Its precursor is violaxanthin (in chloroplast).

Applications Of ABA

  • Stoppage Of Cambial Activity: It inhibits mitosis in vascular cambium.
  • Bud Dormancy: It induces axillary buds to become dormant as the winter approaches.
  • It plays a role in seed development, maturation, and dormancy.
  • Transpiration: It is a “stress hormone” and helps the plant to cope with adverse environmental conditions by closing stomata (antitranspirant).
  • It may be sprayed on tree crops to regulate fruit drop at the end of the season.
  • Application of ABA to green oranges turns them yellow by inducing the synthesis of carotenoids.
  • It induces flowering in some short-day plants such as strawberries and blackcurrant.

NEET Biology Notes For Plant Growth And Development Dormancy

In favorable conditions, if a viable seed fails to germinate, this condition is called dormancy and if the viable seed fails to germinate due to unfavorable conditions, it is called “quiescence.” Dormancy may be due to:

  1. Seed coat impermeable to gases, for example, apple, or water, for example, Trigonella; or seed coat mechanically resistant, for example, Capsella, Amaranthus.
  2. Immaturity of the embryo, for example, G. biloba.
  3. Specific light requirement: Some seeds require light for germination and are called positive photoblastic seeds (for example, Lactuca sativa, Nicotiana tobaccum, Lythrum, etc.). Lettuce (Lactuca) is induced by red light and inhibited by far red light. Some seeds show inhibition in germination due to light exposure and are called negative photoblastic, for example, onions, lily, phlox, etc.
  4. Dormancy due to chilling temperature requirement, for example, Polygonum.
  5. After-ripening: Some seeds have a mature embryo but do not germinate immediately due to the absence of growth hormone. They require a period of after-ripening during which they attain the power to germinate. For example, oats, barley, wheat, etc.
  6. Due To Germination Inhibitors: Some chemicals such as organic acids, phenolics, tannins, alkaloids, lactones, mustard oil, etc., inhibit germination (for example, ferulic acid in tomato pulp).

“plant growth and development neetprep “

Methods To Break Dormancy

  1. Scarification: It is a method of softening and weakening of seed coat by acids, alcohol, or knife.
  2. Stratification: After ripening treatment, low temperature (0-10°C) with O2.
  3. Light exposure.
  4. Low temperature + Gibbcrellin + O2 treatment, etc.

NEET Biology Notes For Plant Growth And Development Seed Germination

Seed germination is of two types:

  1. Epigeal: Hypocotyl grows first, cotyledons come out of the soil as in cucurbits, mustard, castor, onion, tamarind, etc.
  2. Hypodeal: Epicotyl grows first, cotyledons remain underground as in rice, maize, mango, Fabaceae, etc. Whenever a seed germinates inside the fruit, it is vivipary as in Rhizophora, Sonneralia, and Heritiera (mangrove plants).

NEET Biology Notes For Plant Growth And Development Cytochrome

Borthwick and Hendrick, in the 1950s, plotted the action spectrum of wavelengths showing their relative effectiveness in stimu¬lating seed germination. The wavelength most effective for promoting germination was 660 nm (red) and for inhibition of germination about 730 nm (far red). They also demonstrated that only brief exposures of light were necessary and that the effects of red light were reversed by far red fight and vice versa.

  • The pigment responsible for this was isolated in 1960 and was called phytochrome by Butler. It is a blue-green pigment existing in two interconvertible forms: PFR or P730 (absorbs far-red lights) and PR or P660 (absorbs red light).
  • By absorbing red light, PR is converted to PFR rapidly. PFR absorbing far-red light is converted to PR rapidly. PFR is the physiologically active form; PR is inactive. The table describes the effects of red light and far red light on plant growth.

NEET Biology Plant Growth And Development Cytochrome Formula

Effects Of Red Light And Far Red Light On Plant Growth

Effects Of Red Light And Far Red Light On Plant Growth

Phytochrome is responsible for various photomorphogenic processes in plants such as the growth and development of plant organs; germination of seed, pollen, and spores; flowering; differentiation of stomata; epinasty and abscission; etc.

NEET Biology Notes For Plant Growth And Development Photoperiiqdiibm

The response of plants to changes in the relative lengths of day and night is called photoperiodism.

Photoperiod: The relative lengths of dark and light periods in a day vary from place to place and from season to season. The length of the light period is called the photoperiod. At equators, the day length is of 12 hours duration throughout the year.

Types Of Plants According To Photoperiodic Requirements For Flowering

NEET Biology Plant Growth And Development Types Of Plants According To Photoperiodic Requirments For Flowering

For SDP, PR/PFR > 1 while for LDP, PFR/PR > 1 is critical for flowering.

Photoperiodic stimulus is perceived by the leaf. When proper photoperiod is perceived, a flowering hormone called florigen is synthesized in the leaf and is transported to the bud where flowering occurs. Florigen, a hypothetical hormone, is chemically similar to gibberellins.

Difference Between Long-Day And Short-Day Plants

NEET Biology Plant Growth And Development Differences Between Long Day And Short Day Plants

NEET Biology Notes For Plant Growth And Development Vernalization (Yarovization)

The term vernalization was coined by the Russian agronomist Lysenko to refer to the method of accelerating the flowering ability of biennials or winter annuals, by exposing their soaked seeds to low temperatures for a few weeks.

  • However, presently the term is used in a wider sense to include the promotion of flowering in plants by exposing them to low temperatures at any stage in their life cycle. It has been found that some plants especially biennials and perennials are stimulated to flower by exposure to low temperatures.
  • This promotive effect of temperature on flowering is called vernalization. The vernalization was first studied in Europe on the winter varieties of cereals such as wheat, barley, oats, and rye by Klippart.

Site Of Vernalization: The sites of vernalization are the shoot tip, embryo tip, and root apex. As a result of vernalization, a hormone called vemalin (by Melcher) is synthesized.

Requirements Of Vernalization

  1. Low temperature: 0°C-5°C
  2. Period of low temperature: A few hours to a few days
  3. Actively dividing cells (meristematic cells)
  4. Water
  5. Aerobic condition
  6. Proper nourishment

As a result of vernalization, the vegetative phase of the plant is shortened and flowering is initiated. Therefore, the duration of crops is reduced.

NEET Biology Notes For Plant Growth And Development Senescence

Senescence is the study of aging in plants. It is of the following types:

Sequential Senescence: In many perennial plants, the apical meristems continue to produce new buds and leaves, while the older leaves and lateral organs undergo senescence and die. For example, Eucalyptus, mango.

Shoot Senescence: In some perennials such as banana and Gladiolus, the aboveground part of the shoot dies every year after producing flowers and fruits. However, the underground parts survive and give rise to new shoots again in the following year.

Simultaneous Or Synchronous Senescence: In some trees such as elm, Dalbergia, and maples, all the leaves are shed in late autumn (October).

Whole Plant Senescence: In monocarpic plants that flower and produce fruits only once in life, for example, wheat, rice, mustard, etc.

NEET Biology Notes For Plant Growth And Development Abscission

It is a natural separation or shedding of leaves, foliage branches, fruits, floral parts, etc., from plants. It is generally seasonal. A special narrow zone develops in the area of abscission called as abscission zone. Two distinct layers develop in the abscission zone:

  1. Separation layer (upper layer) and
  2. Protective layer (lower suberized and lignitized layer).

NEET Biology Notes For Plant Growth And Development Points To Remember

Strasburger studied growth in roots by marking it at equal intervals with Indian ink.

  1. Ethylene causes respiratory climacteric.
  2. The most widely occurring cytokinin in plants is isopentenyl adenine (IPA).
  3. Sleep disease (enrolling of petals in opened flowers) is caused by ethylene. Even 1 ppm of ethylene prevents the opening of flower buds.
  4. Zinc is important for auxin synthesis.
  5. Clinostat is an instrument used for eliminating the effect of gravity.
  6. Phytochrome is a regulatory pigment. It regulates several light-dependent developmental processes in it called photomorphogenetic processes.
  7. Ethylene is the most widely used plant growth regulator in agriculture.

 

NEET Biology Notes For Plant Growth And Development Assertion Reasoning Questions And Answers

In the following questions, an Assertion (A) is followed by a corresponding Reason (R). Mark the correct answer.

  1. If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
  2. If both Assertion and Reason are true, but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
  3. If Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
  4. If both Assertion and Reason are false.

Question 1. Assertion: If a plant is kept horizontally, auxin accumulates on the lower surface.

Reason: The displacement of statoliths and other cell organelles to lower surfaces modifies the translocation pattern of auxins.

Answer: 1. If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Rea¬son is the correct explanation of the Assertion.

Question 2. Assertion: Only bud and embryo can be vernalized.

Reason: Vernalization requires dividing cells.

Answer: 3. If Assertion is true, but Reason is false.

Question 3. Assertion: Phytochrome, a protein, has regulatory functions.

Reason: Various morphogenetic processes are regulated by it.

Answer: 2. If both Assertion and Reason are true, but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.

Question 4. Assertion: Auxin treatment causes acidification of the cell wall and helps in cell elongation.

Reason: Loosening of cell wall microfibrils occurs.

Answer: 1. If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.

Question 5. Assertion: Cytokinins are anti-aging hormones.

Reason: They cause changes in osmotic potential by increasing the volume of mature cells.

Answer: 4. If both Assertion and Reason are false.