NEET Biology Multiple Choice Questions – Neural Control And Coordination

Neural Control And Coordination Multiple Choice Questions Answers

Question 1. Cranial and spinal nerves can be included under

  1. Central nervous system
  2. Autonomic nervous system
  3. Peripheral nervous system
  4. Visceral nervous system

Answer: 3. Peripheral nervous system

Question 2. Odd one out w.r.t. origin.

  1. Astrocyte
  2. Microglial cells
  3. Oligodendrocytes
  4. Ependyma cells

Answer: 2. Microglial cells

Question 3. In human beings, a typical nerve cell is

  1. Bipolar
  2. Apolar
  3. Multipolar
  4. Pseudounipolar

Answer: 3. Multipolar

Question 4. The rapid movement of Na+ ions from extracellular fluid into the nerve cell leads to

  1. Polarization
  2. Depolarization
  3. Repolarization
  4. All of these

Answer: 2. Depolarization

Question 5. Depolarization is an/a

  1. Active process
  2. Passive process
  3. Both active and passive process
  4. First, it is passive and then it becomes active

Answer: 2. Passive process

Question 6. If the Na+-K+ pump stops working, then

  1. Na+ and K+ will be in excess in extracellular fluid
  2. Na+ will be in excess in extracellular fluid
  3. K+ will be excess in intracellular fluid
  4. Na+ will be in excess in intracellular fluid

Answer: 4. Na+ will be in excess in intracellular fluid

Question 7. If the receptors are removed from the post-synaptic membrane, then

  1. Synaptic transmission will be faster
  2. The chemical synaptic transmission will become slow
  3. Chemical synaptic transmission will not occur
  4. Synaptic transmission will be not affected

Answer: 3. Chemical synaptic transmission will not occur

Question 8. For most excitable cells, the threshold stimulus is

  1. +40 mV
  2. -55 to -60 mV
  3. +60 mV
  4. -70 mV

Answer: 2. -55 to -60 mV

Question 9. The rate of conduction of impulse will be faster in the case of

  1. Myelinated nerve fibers
  2. Thicker nerve fibers
  3. Non-myelinated nerve fibers
  4. Both 1 and 2

Answer: 4. Both 1 and 2

Question 10. The synaptic cleft, an intercellular gap separating the axon tip and target neuron, is

  1. 10-20 nm
  2. 10-20 μm
  3. 1 dm
  4. 1-10 mm

Answer: 1. 10-20 nm

Question 11. Axon endings release from their synaptic vesicles a neurotransmitter substance known as

  1. Acetylcholine
  2. Acetylcholinesterase
  3. Inositol-3 phosphate
  4. Diacylglycerol

Answer: 1. Acetylcholine

Question 12. What is common about serotonin, acetylcholine, adrenaline, and noradrenaline?

  1. All are antidiuretic drugs.
  2. All are pain-relieving drugs.
  3. All are chemical transmitters or neurohormones.
  4. All are blood pressure-lowering drugs.

Answer: 3. All are chemical transmitters or neurohormones.

Question 13.In the presence of Ca2+ channel blockers, which of the following will be true?

  1. Neurotransmitter is released but the Na+ channel of post-synaptic neuron will not open.
  2. Neurotransmitter is not released but the Na+ channel of the post-synaptic neuron will open up.
  3. Neurotransmitter is released but the K+ channel of post-synaptic neuron opens up.
  4. Neither neurotransmitter is released nor the Na+ channel of post-synaptic neuron open up.

Answer: 4. Neither neurotransmitter is released nor the Na4 channel of the post-synaptic neuron opens up.

Question 14. The largest number of cell bodies of neurons in our body is found in

  1. Brain
  2. Retina
  3. Spinal cord
  4. Tongue

Answer: 1. Brain

Question 15. One of the following is not the lobe of the cerebral hemisphere.

  1. Parietal lobe
  2. Occipital lobe
  3. Temporal lobe
  4. Olfactory lobe

Answer: 4. Olfactory lobe

Question 16. A highly vascular and closely investing protective coat around the brain is known as

  1. Arachnoid
  2. Pia mater
  3. Dura mater
  4. Sub-arachnoid space

Answer: 2. Pia mater

Question 17. Corpus callosum is the link between

  1. Cerebellar hemispheres
  2. Midbrain and hindbrain
  3. Cerebral hemisphere
  4. Brain and cranium

Answer: 3. Cerebral hemisphere

Question 18. The genu and splenium in the brain are associated with

  1. Cerebellum
  2. Cerebrum
  3. Medulla oblongata
  4. Vermis

Answer: 2. Cerebrum

Question 19. Due to the presence of gyri and sulci, the surface area of the cerebral cortex almost

  1. Doubles
  2. Becomes three times
  3. Becomes four times
  4. Becomes six times

Answer: 2. Becomes three times

Question 20. Which part of the brain is involved in organizing the behavior of an organism related to its survival?

  1. Amygdala lobe
  2. Cerebral cortex
  3. Corpus callosum
  4. Hypothalamus

Answer: 4. Hypothalamus

Question 21. Which part of the limbic system converts information from short-term to long-term memory, essential in learning?

  1. Amygdala
  2. Basal ganglia
  3. Hippocampus
  4. Hypothalamus

Answer: 3. Hippocampus

Question 22. Characteristically large large-flask-shaped Purkinje cells are associated with

  1. Cerebral cortex
  2. Cerebellar cortex
  3. Pons
  4. Hypothalamus

Answer: 2. Cerebellar cortex

Question 23. Which part is involved in the movement of the head to locate and detect the source of a sound?

  1. Superior colliculi
  2. Inferior colliculi
  3. Pons
  4. Medulla oblongata

Answer: 2. Inferior colliculi

Question 24. Activities of the cerebellum are

  1. AH is involuntary but may involve learning in the early stage
  2. All are voluntary and may involve learning in their early stage
  3. All are voluntary and do not involve learning in their early stage
  4. All are involuntary and do not involve learning in their early stage

Answer: 1. AH is involuntary but may involve learning in the early stage

Question 25. Basal ganglion is a collection of subcortical nuclei in the forebrain, at the base of the cortex. A primary function of the basal ganglia is

  1. Sensory integration
  2. Short term memory
  3. Planning stereotyped movements
  4. Neuroendocrine control

Answer: 3. Planning stereotyped movements

Question 26. Which part of the brain is like a defense castle controlling moods and plays an important role in emotional behavior such as aggression and remembering fear?

  1. Hippocampus
  2. Amygdala
  3. Limbic system
  4. Thalamus

Answer: 2. Amygdala

Question 27. The link between parallel and diaconal is through

  1. Foramina Luschka
  2. Foramina Magendie
  3. Foramen of Monro
  4. Aqueduct of Sylvius

Answer: 3. Foramen of Monro

Question 28. Pallium is

  1. Lateral walls of the diencephalon
  2. Lateral walls of the cerebrum
  3. Floor walls of paracoel
  4. Roof of paracoel

Answer: 4. Roof of paracoel

Question 29. The brain stem consists of

  1. Medulla oblongata, pons Varolii, cerebellum
  2. The cerebellum, diencephalon, and midbrain
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Medulla, pons, midbrain

Answer: 4. Medulla, pons, midbrain

Question 30. The function of the choroid plexus is

  1. To produce lymph
  2. To produce blood
  3. To produce cerebrospinal fluid
  4. To produce endolymph

Answer: 3. To produce cerebrospinal fluid

Question 31. The pneumonitis center in the body is present in

  1. Heart
  2. Lungs
  3. Pons Varolii
  4. Medulla

Answer: 3. Pons Varolii

Question 32. One of the following transmits impulses from one side of the cerebellum to the other

  1. Pons Varolii
  2. Crura cerebri
  3. Corpora quadrigeminal
  4. Cerebellum

Answer: 1. Pons Varolii

Question 33. A branched tree-like structure present in the cerebellum is

  1. Arboreal
  2. Areole
  3. Arbor vitae
  4. Archenteron

Answer: 3. Arbor vitae

Question 34. Vermis is

  1. A tiny worm
  2. Cavity of medulla
  3. The small median lobe of the cerebellum in mammals
  4. A portion of the midbrain

Answer: 3. The small median lobe of the cerebellum in mammals

Question 35. The vomiting center is situated in

  1. Cerebrum
  2. Cerebellum
  3. Medulla
  4. Hypothalamus

Answer: 3. Medulla

Question 36. The CSF moves from the ventricle of the brain to the subarachnoid space through

  1. Foramina Magendie
  2. Foramina Luschka
  3. Foramen of Monro
  4. Both 1 and 2

Answer: 4. Both 1 and 2

Question 37. The end of the spinal cord is

  1. Cauda equina
  2. Foramina Luschka
  3. Filum terminals
  4. Both 1 and 2

Answer: 2. Foramina Luschka

Question 38. Brachial swelling of the spinal cord extends from

  1. 4th cervical to the 1st thoracic vertebrae
  2. 1st cervical to the 4th cervical vertebrae
  3. 5th cervical to the 8th cervical vertebrae
  4. 1st thoracic to the 4th thoracic vertebrae

Answer: 1. 4th cervical to the 1st thoracic vertebrae

Question 39. Those nerves which carry impulses from the central nervous system to the muscles and glands are known as

  1. Sensory nerves
  2. Motor nerves
  3. Mixed nerves
  4. Afferent nerves

Answer: 2. Motor nerves

Question 40. The trigeminal nerve arises from the brain in the region of

  1. Pons varolii and divides into palatine, chorda tym-pani, and hyomandibular
  2. Medulla and divides into palatine, hyomandibular, and chorda tympani
  3. The cerebellum divides into ophthalmic, maxillary, and mandibular
  4. Pons Varolii and divides into ophthalmic, maxillary, and mandibular

Answer: 4. Pons Varolii divides into ophthalmic, maxillary, and mandibular

Question 41. The nerve related to eyeball movement, accommodation, and contraction of the pupil is

  1. Optic
  2. Auditory
  3. Oculomotor
  4. Trochlear

Answer: 3. Oculomotor

Question 42. How many pairs of cranial nerves are purely sensory?

  1. Five
  2. Four
  3. Six
  4. Three

Answer: 4. Three

Question 43. Gastric and pancreatic secretion, gastrointestinal movements, respiratory reflexes, and visceral reflexes are controlled by

  1. Vagus
  2. Abducens
  3. Oculomotor
  4. Trochlear

Answer: 1. Vagus

Question 44. Which one of the following pairs is the motor nerve?

  1. Oculomotor and facial
  2. Vagus and trigeminal
  3. Optic and olfactory
  4. Trochlear and hypoglossal

Answer: 4. Trochlear and hypoglossal

Question 45. The lateral rectus muscle of the eye is provided with which cranial nerve?

  1. 3
  2. 4
  3. 5
  4. 6

Answer: 4. 6

Question 46. Paralysis of jaw muscles is due to the loss of function of which cranial nerve?

  1. 3
  2. 5
  3. 7
  4. 10

Answer: 2. 5

Question 47. Which of the following cranial nerves in man is both sensory and motor?

  1. Optic
  2. Olfactory
  3. Trigeminal
  4. Auditory

Answer: 3. Trigeminal

Question 48. Which of the following cranial nerves arc linked with taste buds?

  1. 7 and 3
  2. 9 and 2
  3. 4 and 8
  4. 7 and 9

Answer: 4. 7 and 9

Question 49. The smallest cranial nerve in the body is

  1. Trigeminal
  2. Abducens
  3. Ophthalmic
  4. Trochlear

Answer: 4. Trochlear

Question 50. The fourth cranial nerve of man is

  1. Abducens
  2. Trochlear
  3. Auditory
  4. Oculomotor

Answer: 2. Trochlear

Question 51. The spinal nerve plexus involving the 1st thoracic spinal nerve is

  1. Cervical plexus
  2. Brachial plexus
  3. Lumbar plexus
  4. Sacral plexus

Answer: 2. Brachial plexus

Question 52. The number of spinal nerves in man is

  1. 31
  2. 62
  3. 12
  4. 24

Answer: 2. 62

Question 53. What is the function of the parasympathetic nervous system?

  1. Acceleration of heartbeat
  2. Constriction of pupil
  3. Stimulation of sweat gland
  4. Contraction of erector pili

Answer: 2. Constriction of the pupil

Question 54. The ganglia that lie nearer to the tissues and away from the chain and in which preganglionic fibers terminate are known as

  1. Autonomic ganglion
  2. Collateral ganglion
  3. Paratonic ganglion
  4. None of these

Answer: 2. Collateral ganglion

Question 55. Which of the following cranial nerves is involved in the sympathetic nervous system?

  1. 3
  2. 7
  3. Both of these
  4. None of these

Answer: 4. None of these

Question 56. The neurotransmitter with the sympathetic postganglionic nerve fiber terminating at the sweat gland is

  1. Epinephrine
  2. Acetylcholine
  3. Adrenaline
  4. Both 1 and 3

Answer: 2. Acetylcholine

Question 57. Reflex action is exhibited by

  1. Sympathetic nerves
  2. Sensory nerves
  3. Automatic response
  4. Motor nerves

Answer: 3. Automatic response

Question 58. In reflex action, the reflex arc is formed by

  1. Brain-spinal cord-muscles
  2. Receptor-spinal cord-muscles
  3. Muscles-receptor-muscles
  4. Muscles-spinal cord-receptor

Answer: 2. Receptor-spinal cord-muscles

Question 59. Which one is not a reflex action?

  1. Closing the eyelids suddenly
  2. Release of saliva
  3. Obeying the order
  4. None of these

Answer: 3. Obeying the order

Question 60. Receptors of pain are

  1. Free nerve endings
  2. Merkel’sdiscs
  3. Meissner’s corpuscles
  4. Pacinian corpuscles

Answer: 1. Free nerve endings

Question 61. Krause’s end bulbs arc the skin receptors which are concerned with the sense of

  1. Touch
  2. Heat
  3. Cold
  4. Pressure

Answer: 3. Cold

Question 62. Meissner’s corpuscles are located in

  1. Pancreas secrete trypsinogen
  2. Adrenal and secrete trypsinogen
  3. Spleen and destroy erythrocytes
  4. Skin and perceive gentle pressure

Answer: 4. Skin and perceive gentle pressure

Question 63. Tactile organs at the root of the hair are

  1. Free nerve endings (nerve basket)
  2. Epidermis and dermis
  3. Dorsal branches of spinal nerves
  4. Touch corpuscles

Answer: 1. Free nerve endings (nerve basket)

Question 64. The receptors located in muscles, joints, and tendons are known as

  1. Exteroceptors
  2. Proprioceptors
  3. Interoceptors
  4. External receptors

Answer: 2. Proprioceptors

Question 65. The corpuscles lying deep in the dermis and responsible for deep pressure are known as

  1. Pacinian corpuscles
  2. Meissner’s corpuscles
  3. Merkel’s discs
  4. Ruffini’s endings

Answer: 1. Pacinian corpuscles

Question 66. White of the eye is

  1. Cornea
  2. Sclera
  3. Choroid
  4. Conjunctiva

Answer: 2. Sclera

Question 67. Pupil is regulated by

  1. Radial muscles
  2. Circular muscles
  3. Meridional muscles
  4. Radial and circular muscles

Answer: 4. Radial and circular muscles

Question 68. The exposed transparent region of the eyeball represents

  1. Fovea
  2. Cornea and conjuctiva
  3. Fibrous coat
  4. Cornea

Answer: 2. Cornea and conjunctiva

Question 69. Macula lutea is a part of

  1. Optic nerve
  2. Sclerotic
  3. Choroid
  4. Retina

Answer: 4. Retina

Question 70. Color to the eye is imparted by

  1. Lens
  2. Pupil
  3. Iris
  4. Vitreous humor

Answer: 3. Iris

Question 71. Eye muscles are attached with

  1. Sclerotic
  2. Cornea
  3. Choroid
  4. Retina

Answer: 1. Sclerotic

Question 72. The eye rotates in the orbit by

  1. Six muscles
  2. Three muscles
  3. Four muscles
  4. Five muscles

Answer: 1. Six muscles

Question 73. Cornea transplantation is especially successful because

  1. Its technique is very simple.
  2. The preservation of the cornea is very simple.
  3. Cornea has no relation with blood circulation and immunization.
  4. The cornea is available easily.

Answer: 3. Cornea has no relation with blood circulation and immunization.

Question 74. When the object is at a distance of more than 6 m, at that time

  1. Ciliary muscles arc fully contracted
  2. The convexity of a lens is the maximum
  3. Eyes are fully relaxed
  4. All of these

Answer: 3. Eyes arc fully relaxed

Question 75. The part of the eye which acts like a diaphragm of a photographic camera is

  1. Pupil
  2. Iris
  3. Lens
  4. Cornea

Answer: 2. Iris

Question 76. The ciliary body is located

  1. Near the ciliary muscles
  2. Near the blind spot
  3. Just behind the cornea
  4. At the junction of the iris and choroid

Answer: 4. At the junction of the iris and choroid

Question 77. Cyanopsin pigment is sensitive to

  1. Green color
  2. Red color
  3. Blue color
  4. Dim light

Answer: 3. Blue color

Question 78. The chamber between the iris and lens in the cavity of the eyeball is known as

  1. Vitreous chamber
  2. Aqueous chamber
  3. Posterior part of vitreous chamber
  4. Posterior part of an aqueous chamber

Answer: 4. Posterior part of aqueous chamber

Question 79. In old age, the vision of the eye becomes dim. It is due to

  1. Myopia
  2. Hypermetropia
  3. Cataract
  4. Astigmatism

Answer: 3. Cataract

Question 80. In hypermetropia, the image is formed

  1. Before the retina is corrected by a convex lens
  2. Behind the retina and is corrected by a convex lens
  3. Before the retina is corrected by the concave lens
  4. Behind the retina and is corrected by the concave lens

Answer: 2. Behind the retina and is corrected by a convex lens

Question 81. In presbyopia,

  1. The eyeball becomes short
  2. The lens becomes opaque
  3. The retina gets damaged
  4. Diminution of accommodation of lens due to loss of elasticity

Answer: 4. Diminution of accommodation of lens due to loss of elasticity

Question 82. In myopia, light rays from far-off objects converge

  1. Behind the retina
  2. In front of the retina
  3. On the retina
  4. In the retina

Answer: 2. In front of the retina

Question 83. The overproduction of aqueous humor results in

  1. Astigmatism
  2. Fovea centralis
  3. Macula lutea or yellow spot
  4. Glaucoma

Answer: 4. Glaucoma

Question 84. Short-sightedness or myopic vision is corrected by wearing

  1. Convex lenses
  2. Concave lenses
  3. Convex mirrors
  4. Concave mirrors

Answer: 2. Concave lenses

Question 85. During the transmission of impulse from the tympanum to the internal ear, amplification of sound waves occurs. The amplification due to the difference in the size of the tympanum and fenestra ovalis is about

  1. 10 times
  2. 22 times
  3. 2.2 times
  4. 40 times

Answer: 3. 2.2 times

Question 86. In the tympanic cavity, there is an aperture in which stapes are fitted. It is

  1. Foramen rotundus
  2. Foramen triosseum
  3. Foramen of Monro
  4. Fenestra ovalis

Answer: 4. Fenestra ovalis

Question 87. The upper aperture which puts the tympanic cavity in communication with a narrow space around the internal ear is known as

  1. Fenestra ovalis
  2. Fenestra rotundus
  3. Fossa ovalis
  4. Foramen ovale

Answer: 1. Fenestra ovalis

Question 88. Which of the following structures is not filled with endolymph?

  1. Utriculus
  2. Tympanic cavity
  3. Sacculus
  4. Semicircular canal

Answer: 2. Tympanic cavity

Question 89. One of the following is a stirrup-shaped bone.

  1. Incus
  2. Malleus
  3. Stapes
  4. Tongue shaped

Answer: 3. Stapes

Question 90. Which part of the internal ear receives sound waves in man?

  1. Cochlea
  2. Lagena and utriculus
  3. Ampullae and utriculus
  4. None of these

Answer: 1. Cochlea

Question 91. One of the following is not a part of the membranous labyrinth.

  1. Semicircular canal
  2. Cochlear duct
  3. Vestibule
  4. Bony labyrinth

Answer: 4. Bony labyrinth

Question 92. The membranous labyrinth is found in

  1. Columella auris
  2. Occipitals
  3. Parietals
  4. Periotic

Answer: 4. Periotic

Question 93. The equilibrium is maintained by

  1. Semicircular ducts
  2. Ampulla
  3. Crista
  4. Cupula

Answer: 3. Crista

Question 94. The roof of scala media is called

  1. Reissner’s membrane
  2. Basilar membrane
  3. Tectorial membrane
  4. Organ of Corti

Answer: 1. Reissner’s membrane

Question 95. The tectorial membrane is found in the

  1. Eye of frog
  2. Eye of mammals
  3. Ear of mammals
  4. Tongue of frog

Answer: 3. Ear of mammals

Question 96. A molecule cannot be tasted or smelled until it has been

  1. Converted into protein
  2. Converted into transmitter
  3. Grouped into multimolecular complex
  4. Dissolved in a liquid

Answer: 4. Dissolved in a liquid

Question 97. Bowman’s glands are associated with

  1. Olfactory epithelium
  2. Taste buds
  3. Organ of Corti
  4. Vallate papillae

Answer: 1. Olfactory epithelium

Question 98.The activity of which cranial nerve can protect by warning about harmful chemicals in the air?

  1. 5
  2. 9
  3. 6
  4. 10

Answer: 1. 5

Question 99. The total number of taste buds in the human tongue is approximately

  1. 1000
  2. 10,000
  3. 100,000
  4. 50,000

Answer: 2. 10,000

Question 100. Which of the following cranial nerves is involved in causing the movement of the tongue?

  1. 7
  2. 9
  3. 10
  4. 11

Answer: 4. 11

Question 101. In right-handed individuals,

  1. The left cerebral hemisphere is poorly developed
  2. The right hemisphere is the dominant hemisphere
  3. The left cerebral hemisphere is the dominant hemisphere
  4. Both cerebral hemispheres are dominant

Answer: 3. The left cerebral hemisphere is the dominant hemisphere

Question 102. Stimulation of parasympathetic nerves is likely to produce all of the following except

  1. Decreased insulin secretion
  2. Increased exocrine pancreatic secretion
  3. Increased bile synthesis
  4. Increased gastric secretion

Answer: 1. Decreased insulin secretion

Question 103. The hypothalamus is involved in the regulation of

1. Circadian rhythm

2. Water balance

3. Respiration and heartbeat

4. Maintenance of homeostasis

5. Appetite and Satiety

Mark the correct one.

  1. (1), (2), (3), (4), and (5)
  2. (2) and (4) only
  3. (1), (2), (3), and (4) only
  4. (1), (2), and (4) only

Answer: 1. (1), (2), (3), (4), and (5)

Question 104. Which of the following do not occur during accommodation reflex?

  1. Contraction in ciliary muscles
  2. Suspensory ligaments become loose
  3. Decrease in radius of curvature
  4. Decreasing refraction

Answer: 4. Decreasing refraction

Question 105. Broca’s area (motor speech) is located in

  1. Frontal lobe
  2. Parietal lobe
  3. Temporal lobe
  4. Occipital lobe

Answer: 1. Frontal lobe

Question 106. Mark the incorrect match.

  1. Parkinson’s—Deficiency of dopamine disease
  2. Schizophrenia—Excess of dopamine
  3. Excess of Alzheimer’s disease—Acetylcholine
  4. Multiple sclerosis—Degeneration myelin sheath

Answer: 3. Excess of Alzheimer’s disease—Acetylcholine

Question 107. A person is unable to speak fluent sentences, although he has no problem understanding written or spoken words due to damage to the

  1. Broca’s area
  2. Wernicke’sarea
  3. Visual area
  4. Auditory area

Answer: 1. Broca’s area

Question 108. When the visual field of both eyes overlaps, it is called

  1. Binocular vision
  2. Monocular vision
  3. Stereoscopic vision
  4. Both 1 and 3

Answer: 1. Binocular vision

Question 109. If we accidentally focus on intense light sources such as the sun. it will damage

  1. Macula lutea
  2. Lens
  3. Blind spot
  4. Cornea

Answer: 1. Macula lutea

Question 110. If we put water in the eye. there will be blurred images due to

  1. Decrease in refraction as cornea forms plane surface
  2. Increase in refraction as cornea forms plane surface
  3. Decrease in refraction as cornea forms a concave surface
  4. Increase in refraction as cornea forms concave surface.

Answer: 1. Decrease in refraction as cornea forms plane surface

Question 111. The correct sequence of meninges from inner to outer side is

  1. Arachnoid → Dura mater → Pia mater
  2. Arachnoid → Pia mater → Dura mater
  3. Pia mater → Dura mater → Arachnoid
  4. Pia mater → Arachnoid → Dura mater

Answer: 4. Pia mater → Arachnoid → Dura mater

Question 112. The Vagus nerve is composed mainly of parasympathetic fibers. The preganglionic fibers form a network known as

  1. Choroid plexus
  2. Nervousplexus
  3. Auerbach’s plexus
  4. Brachialplexus

Answer: 3. Auerbach’s plexus

Question 113. During nerve impulse transmission, the permeability of the membrane is greater for

  1. Na+
  2. K+
  3. Equal for both 1 and 2
  4. Ca2+

Answer: 1. Na+

Question 114. In mammals, the brain center, which regulates body temperature, is situated in

  1. Cerebrum
  2. Olfactory lobe
  3. Cerebellum
  4. Medulla oblongata

Answer: 1. Cerebrum

Question 115. The junction between the axon of one neuron and the dendrite of the next is called

  1. A joint
  2. A synapse
  3. Constant bridge
  4. Junction point

Answer: 2. A synapse

Question 116. Which one of the following is a motor nerve?

  1. Auditoty
  2. Abducens
  3. Optic nerve
  4. Trigeminal nerve

Answer: 2. Abducens

Question 117. NissI granules are absent in

  1. Axon
  2. Cyton
  3. Dendron
  4. Schwann cells

Answer: 1. Axon

Question 118. Which of the following is a purely motor cranial nerve?

  1. Olfactory
  2. Optic
  3. Abducens
  4. Vagus

Answer: 3. Abducens

Question 119. The trigeminal nerve in the case of frogs is

  1. 1 cranial nerve
  2. 2 cranial nerve
  3. 4 cranial nerve
  4. 5 cranial nerve

Answer: 4. 5 cranial nerve

Question 110. In the human body, muscular coordination is controlled by

  1. Spinal cord
  2. Cortex
  3. Cerebellum
  4. Cerebral hemisphere

Answer: 3. Cerebellum

Question 111. The sense of smell is controlled by

  1. Cerebrum
  2. Cerebellum
  3. Olfactory lobe
  4. Hypothalamus

Answer: 1. Cerebrum

Question 112. The third ventricle connects to lateral ventricles through

  1. Foramen magnum
  2. Foramen monro
  3. Foramen magnetic
  4. Foramen Anuschka

Answer: 2. Foramen monro

Question 113. The connection between axon and dendrite is

  1. Synapse
  2. Synapse
  3. Desmosome
  4. Tight junction

Answer: 1. Synapse

Question 114. Depolarization of axolemma during nerve conduction takes place because of

  1. Equal amounts of Na+ and K+ move out across axon- lemma
  2. Na+ move inside
  3. More Na+ outside
  4. None

Answer: 2. Na+ move inside

Question 115. Which of the following statements is correct for the node of Ranvier of nerve

  1. Neurilemma is discontinuous.
  2. Myelin sheath is discontinuous.
  3. Both neurilemma and myelin sheath are discontinuous.
  4. Covered by myelin sheath.

Answer: 2. Myelin sheath is discontinuous.

Question 116. What used to be described as Nissl granules in a nerve cell are now identified as

  1. Cell metabolites
  2. Fat granules
  3. Ribosomes
  4. Mitochondria

Answer: 3. Ribosomes

Question 117. In the resting state of the neural membrane, diffusion due to concentration gradients, if allowed, would drive

  1. K+ and Na+ out of the cell
  2. Na+ into the cell
  3. Na+ out of the cell
  4. K+ into the cell

Answer: 2. Na+ into the cell

Question 118. Unidirectional transmission of a nerve impulse through nerve fibers is because

  1. Nerve fiber is insulated by a medullary sheath.
  2. The sodium pump starts operating only at the cyton and then continues into the nerve fiber.
  3. Neurotransmitters are released by dendrites and not by axon endings.
  4. Neurotransmitters are released by axon endings and not by dendrites.

Answer: 4. Neurotransmitters are released by axon endings and not by dendrites.

Question 119. Nerve cells do not possess

  1. Neurilemma
  2. Sarcolemma
  3. Dendrites
  4. Axon

Answer: 2. Sarcolemma

Question 120. Dendrites are associated with which system?

  1. Nervous system
  2. Digestive system
  3. Muscular system
  4. Blood vascular system

Answer: 1. Nervous system

Question 121. During the transmission of nerve impulses through a nerve fiber, the potential on the inner side of the plasma membrane has which type of electric charge?

  1. First positive, then negative, and continue to be negative
  2. First negative, then positive, and continue to be positive
  3. First positive, then negative, and again back to positive
  4. First negative, then positive, and again back to negative

Answer: 4. First negative, then positive, and again back to negative

Question 122. Arbor vitae is a part of

  1. Cerebrum
  2. Cerebellum
  3. Midbrain
  4. Forebrain

Answer: 2. Cerebellum

Question 123. Which has H-shaped gray matter?

  1. Cerebrum
  2. Spinal cord
  3. Cerebellum
  4. Medulla oblongata

Answer: 2. Spinal cord

Question 124. Which of the following is the part of the midbrain of the rabbit?

  1. Cerebrum
  2. Diencephalon
  3. Corpora quadrigemina
  4. None of these

Answer: 3. Corpora quadrigemina

Question 125. The function of cerebrospinal fluid does not include

  1. Protection of the brain and spinal cord by containing antibody
  2. Protection of delicate brain and spinal cord from shock
  3. As a medium for the excretion of waste product
  4. Buoyancy to brain

Answer: 1. Protection of the brain and spinal cord by containing antibody

Question 126. The third ventricle lies in

  1. Medulla oblongata
  2. Midbrain
  3. Diencephalon
  4. Cerebrum

Answer: 3. Diencephalon

Question 127. Which part of the brain is supposed to be damaged if, in an accident, a person loses control of water balance, hunger, and body temperature?

  1. Cerebellum
  2. Hypothalamus
  3. Medula oblongata
  4. Corpora quadrigemina

Answer: 2. Hypothalamus

Question 128. Column 1 lists the parts of the human brain and column 2 lists the function. Match the two columns and identify the correct choice from those given.

NEET Biology Neural Control And Coordination Column A Lists The Parts Of Human Brain And Column 2

Answer: 4.

Question 129. Which of the following destroys acetylcholinesterase?

  1. Malathion
  2. CO
  3. KCN
  4. Colchicine

Answer: 1. Malathion

Question 130. Botulism affects

  1. Digestive system
  2. Blood vascular system
  3. Nervous system
  4. Respiratory system

Answer: 3. Nervous system

Question 131. Nor-epinephrine leads to an increase in

  1. Blood pressure
  2. Urine production
  3. Cellular respiration
  4. Release of epinephrine

Answer: 1. Blood pressure

Question 132. Injury to the vagus nerve in humans is not likely to affect

  1. Gastrointestinal movements
  2. Pancreatic secretion
  3. Cardiac movements
  4. Tongue movements

Answer: 4. Tongue movements

Question 133. In a man, the abducens nerve is injured. Which one of the following functions will be affected?

  1. Movement of the neck
  2. Movement of the tongue
  3. Movement of the eyeball
  4. Swallowing

Answer: 3. Movement of the eyeball

Question 134. One of the examples of the action of the autonomous nervous system is

  1. Pupillary reflex
  2. Swallowing of food
  3. Peristalsis of the intestines
  4. Knee-jerk response

Answer: 3. Peristalsis of the intestines

Question 135. Excessive stimulation of the vagus nerve in humans may lead to

  1. Hoarse voice
  2. Peptic ulcers
  3. Efficient digestion of protein
  4. Irregular contractions of the diaphragm

Answer: 2. Peptic ulcers

Question 136. Mulch the following human spinal nerves in column 1 with 2 and choose the correct options:

NEET Biology Neural Control And Coordination Match The Following Human Spinal Nerves In Column A And B

  1. 1→ B, 2 → D, 3 → A, 4 → C
  2. 1 → D, 2 → C, 3→ A, 4 → B
  3. 1 → D, 2 → B, 3 → A, 4 → D
  4. 1→ A, 2 → D, 3 → B, 4 → C

Answer: 2. 1 → D, 2 → C, 3→ A, 4 → B

Question 137. The ninth pair of cranial nerves in frog is

  1. Vagus
  2. Trigeminal
  3. Hypoglossal
  4. Glossopharyngeal

Answer: 4. Glossopharyngeal

Question 138. Which of the following is not under the control of the vagus nerve?

  1. Gastrointestinal movement
  2. Respiratory movement
  3. Salivation
  4. None of these

Answer: 3. Salivation

Question 139. Which of the following is released by the parasympathetic nervous system?

  1. Serotonin
  2. Acetylcholine
  3. Epinephrine
  4. Nor-epinephrine

Answer: 2. Acetylcholine

Question 140. The mandibular nerve is the branch of which cranial nerve?

  1. 2
  2. 3
  3. 5
  4. 6

Answer: 3. 5

Question 141. The Vagus nerve is composed mainly of parasympathetic fibers. The preganglionic fibers form a network in the walls of the gut. This network is known as

  1. Choroid plexus
  2. Nervous plexus
  3. Auerbach’s plexus
  4. Brachial plexus

Answer: 3. Auerbach’s plexus

Question 142. Given below is a table comparing the effects of sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system for four features (1-4). Which one feature is correctly matched?

NEET Biology Neural Control And Coordination Given Below Is A Table Comparing The Effects Of Sympathetic

Answer: 2.

Question 143. Effect of anesthetics on the body

  1. Inhibits Na-K pump
  2. Kills nerves
  3. Stops brain functions
  4. Inactivates skin cells

Answer: 1. Inhibits Na-K pump

Question 144. A deficiency of oxygen affects mainly the

  1. Brain
  2. Skin
  3. Kidney
  4. Intestine

Answer: 1. Brain

Question 145. Neuroglial cells associated with

  1. Heart
  2. Kidney
  3. Brain
  4. Eyes

Answer: 3. Brain

Question 146. Adrenaline directly affects on

  1. S A node
  2. β-cells of Langerhans
  3. Dorsal root of the spinal cord
  4. Epithelial cells of the stomach

Answer: 1. S A node

Question 147. In which animal, nerve cell is present but brain is absent?

  1. Sponge
  2. Earthworm
  3. Cockroach
  4. Hydra

Answer: 4. Hydra

Question 148. Which of the following is the dominant intracellular anion?

  1. Potassium
  2. Chloride
  3. Phosphate
  4. Calcium

Answer: 3. Phosphate

Question 149. The nervous system develops from

  1. Ectoderm
  2. Mesoderm
  3. Ectomesoderm
  4. Endomesoderm

Answer: 1. Ectoderm

Question 150. Which of the following is not correctly matched?

  1. Rhinencephalon—Olfaction
  2. Hypothalamus—Pituitary
  3. Cerebellum—Balance
  4. Medulla oblongata—Temperature regulation

Answer: 4. Medulla oblongata—Temperature regulation

Question 151. The internal carotid artery supplies blood to

  1. Kidney
  2. Liver
  3. Heart
  4. Brain

Answer: 4. Brain

Question 152. Which one of the following characters is not typical of the class Mammalia?

  1. Seven cervical vertebrae
  2. Thecodont dentition
  3. Alveolar lungsnerves
  4. Ten pairs of cranial

Answer: 4. Ten pairs of cranial

Question 153. Parkinson’s disease (characterized by tremors and progressive rigidity of limbs) is caused by the degeneration of brain neurons that are involved in movement control and make use of neurotransmitter

  1. Acetylcholine
  2. Nor-epinephrine
  3. Dopamine
  4. GABA

Answer: 3. Dopamine

Question 154. Which one of the following statements is correct?

  1. Neither hormones control neural activity, nor the nervous control endocrine activity
  2. Endocrine glands regulate neural activity, but not vice versa
  3. Neurons regulate endocrine activity, but not vice versa
  4. Endocrine glands regulate neural activity and the nervous system regulates endocrine glands

Answer: 4. Endocrine glands regulate neural activity and the nervous system regulates endocrine glands

Question 155. Which one of the following does not act as a neurotransmitter?

  1. Nor-epinephrine
  2. Cortisone
  3. Acetylcholine
  4. Epinephrine

Answer: 2. Cortisone

Question 156. Which of the following two systems are opposite in action to each other?

  1. Nervous, sensory
  2. Nervous, endocrine
  3. Sensory, Endocrine
  4. Parasympathetic, sympathetic

Answer: 4. Parasympathetic, sympathetic

Question 157. Which of the following structures is present only in the mammalian brain?

  1. Corpus luteum
  2. Corpus striatum
  3. Corpus fibrosum
  4. Corpuscallosum

Answer: 4. Corpuscallosum

Question 158. You are watching a horror movie and you notice your heart is beating fast and your mouth is dry. It is because of

  1. Fight and flight response
  2. Autonomic nervous system
  3. Sympathetic nervous system
  4. Both 1 and 3

Answer: 2. Autonomic nervous system

Question 159. Tongue is under the control of

  1. Trigeminal
  2. Facial
  3. Autonomic system
  4. Glossopharyngeal

Answer: 4. Glossopharyngeal

Question 160. The number of cranial nerves in frogs is

  1. 10
  2. 12
  3. 10 pairs
  4. 12 pairs

Answer: 3. 10 pairs

Question 161. Intercellular communication in multicellular organisms occurs through

  1. Nervous system only
  2. Digestive system only
  3. Respiratory system only
  4. Both the nervous and endocrine systems

Answer: 4. Both the nervous and endocrine systems

Question 162. Which of the following substances leads to the inhibition of the central nervous system?

  1. Glycine
  2. GABA
  3. Nor-epinephrine
  4. Both 1 and 2

Answer: 4. Both 1 and 2

Question 163. Which one of the following pairs of structures distinguishes a nerve cell from other types of cells?

  1. Vacuoles and fibers
  2. Flagellum and medullary sheath
  3. Nucleus and mitochondria
  4. Perikaryon and dendrites

Answer: 4. Perikaryon and dendrites

Question 164. The fifth cranial nerve of a frog is called

  1. Optic nerve
  2. Vagus
  3. Trigeminal
  4. Ophthalmic

Answer: 3. Trigeminal

Question 165. If the dorsal root of the spinal cord is broken down, then its effect is

  1. No effect on impulse
  2. Impulse is transmitted fast
  3. Impulse is transmitted but slowly
  4. No impulse is transmitted from the receptor

Answer: 4. No impulse is transmitted from the receptor

Question 166. The acetylcholinesterase enzyme splits acetylcholine into

  1. Acetone and choline
  2. Acetic acid and choline
  3. Amino acid and choline
  4. Aspartic acid and acetylcholine

Answer: 2. Acetic acid and choline

Question 167. The olfactory area is present in :

  1. Frontal lobe
  2. Parietal lobe
  3. Temporal lobe
  4. Occipital lobe

Answer: 3. Temporal lobe

Question 168. Somesthetic or post-central area is responsible for

  1. Initiation of motor impulses for voluntary muscles
  2. Initiation of motor impulses for involuntary muscles
  3. Perception of pain, touch, and temperature
  4. Coordination of speech

Answer: 3. Perception of pain, touch, and temperature

Question 169. Dilation of the pupil of the human eye is caused by

  1. Parathormone
  2. Sympathetic
  3. Parasympathetic nerve system
  4. Autonomic nervous

Answer: 2. Sympathetic

Question 170. The nerve impulse is generated when nerve cell undergoes

  1. Depolarization
  2. Repolarization
  3. Hyperpolarization
  4. Pscudopolarization

Answer: 1. Depolarization

Question 171. Nerve impulse initiates with the movements of

  1. K+
  2. Na+
  3. Ca2+
  4. Mg2+

Answer: 2. Na+

Question 172. Which part of the brain controls intellectual ability?

  1. Frontal lobe
  2. Parietal lobe
  3. Temporal lobe
  4. Occipital lobe

Answer: 1. Frontal lobe

Question 173. The occipital lobe is connected with

  1. Smell
  2. Vision
  3. Speech
  4. Hearing

Answer: 2. Vision

Question 174. A: The imbalance in the concentration of Na+, K+, and proteins generates resting potential. R: To maintain the unequal distribution of Na+ and K+, the neurons use electrical energy.

  1. Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  2. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  3. (A) is a true statement, but (R) is false.
  4. Both (A) and (R) are false.

Answer: 2. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Question 175. During the conduction of nerve impulses, the action potential is the result of the movement of

  1. Na+ from intracellular fluid to extracellular fluid
  2. Na+ from extracellular fluid to intracellular fluid
  3. Na+ toward both directions
  4. None of the above

Answer: 2. Na+ from extracellular fluid to intracellular fluid

Question 176. Which of the damaged cells cannot be repaired?

  1. Liver cells
  2. Brain cells
  3. Bone cells
  4. Epidermal cells

Answer: 2. Brain cells

Question 177. The 4 cranial nerve is

  1. Facial
  2. Trochlear
  3. Olfactory
  4. Oculomotor

Answer: 2. Trochlear

Question 178. Adrenaline is equivalent to which neurotransmitter?

  1. GABA
  2. Serotonin
  3. Epinephrine
  4. Nor-epinephrine

Answer: 3. Epinephrine

Question 179. All sensory pathways to the cerebral cortex synapse at

  1. Pons
  2. Thalamus
  3. Cerebellum
  4. Hypothalamus

Answer: 1. Pons

Question 180. A man is admitted to a hospital. He is suffering from an abnormally low body temperature, loss of appetite, and extreme thirst. His brain scan would probably show a tumor in

  1. Pons
  2. Cerebellum
  3. Hypothalamus
  4. Medulla oblongata

Answer: 3. Hypothalamus

Question 181. The nerve centers which control the body temperature and the urge to eat are contained in

  1. Pons
  2. Thalamus
  3. Cerebellum
  4. Hypothalamus

Answer: 4. Hypothalamus

Question 182. The optic lobes in humans are represented by corpora

  1. Bigemina
  2. Arenacea
  3. Striata
  4. Quadrigemina

Answer: 4. Quadrigemina

Question 183. In a medullated nerve fiber, the conduction of impulses is faster due to the presence of

  1. Pericytes
  2. Nissl granules
  3. Endoneurium and Epineurium
  4. Myelin sheath and node of Ranvier

Answer: 4. Myelin sheath and node of Ranvier

Question 184. Which of the following is not an effect of the sympathetic nervous system?

  1. Dilation of the pupil
  2. Inhibition of peristalsis
  3. Elevation of blood pressure
  4. Stimulation of saliva secretion

Answer: 4. Stimulation of saliva secretion

Question 185. When a neuron is in a resting state, i.e., not conducting any impulse, the axonal membrane is

  1. Comparatively more permeable to Na+ ions and nearly impermeable to K+ ions
  2. Equally permeable to both Na+ and K+ ions
  3. Impermeable to both Na+ and K+ ions
  4. Comparatively more permeable to K+ ions and nearly impermeable to Na+ ions

Answer: 4. Comparatively more permeable to K+ ions and nearly impermeable to Na+ ions

Question 186. The human hindbrain comprises three parts, one of which is

  1. Corpus callosum
  2. Cerebellum
  3. Hypothalamus
  4. Spinal cord

Answer: 2. Cerebellum

Question 187. Diagrammatic cross-section of a single loop of human cochlea

NEET Biology Neural Control And Coordination Single Loop Of Human Cochlea

Which one of the following options correctly represents the names of the three different parts?

  1. D: Sensory hair cells, A: Endolymph, B: Tectorial membrane
  2. A: Perilymph, B: Tectorial membrane, C: Endolymph
  3. B: Tectorial membrane, C: Perilymph, D: Secretory cells
  4. C: Endolymph, D: Sensory hair cells, A: Serum

Answer: 2. A: Perilymph, B: Tectorial membrane, C: Endolymph

Question 188. Which one of the following is the correct difference between rod cells and cone cells of our retina?

NEET Biology Neural Control And Coordination Cells And Cone Cells Of Our Retina

Answer: 1

Question 189. A coma transplant in humans is almost never rejected. This is because

  1. It is composed of enucleated cells
  2. It is a non-living layer
  3. Its cells are least penetrable by bacteria
  4. It has no blood supply

Answer: 4. It has no blood supply

Question 190. Static equilibrium is maintained by

  1. Utriculus
  2. Sacculus
  3. Both of these
  4. Semicircular canals

Answer: 3. Both of these

Question 191. Organ of Corti helps in

  1. Maintaining equilibrium
  2. Formation of wax
  3. Hearing
  4. All of these

Answer: 3. Hearing

Question 192. Eustachian tube connects

  1. Pharynx to the middle ear
  2. Middle ear to external ear
  3. Left ventricle to right ventricle
  4. Left atrium to right atrium

Answer: 1. Pharynx to middle ear

Question 193. Which organ of the rabbit is concerned with equilibrium?

  1. Cochlea
  2. Ear ossicles
  3. Eustachian ducts
  4. Semicircular canals

Answer: 4. Semicircular canals

Question 194. Bowman’s glands are found in

  1. Olfactory epithelium
  2. External auditory canal
  3. Cortical nephrons only
  4. Juxtamedullary nephrons

Answer: 1. Olfactory epithelium

Question 195. The correct order of arrangement of ear ossicles starting from the tympanum is

  1. Incus, malleus, stapes
  2. Malleus, incus, stapes
  3. Stapes, malleus, incus
  4. Incus, stapes, malleus

Answer: 2. Malleus, incus, stapes

Question 196. In the following abnormalities of the eyes, which one is a serious condition that leads to blindness?

  1. Myopia
  2. Glaucoma
  3. Presbyopia
  4. Astigmatism
  5. Hypermetropia

Answer: 2. Glaucoma

Question 197. The lens and cornea do not have a blood supply. So the nutrients are supplied by

  1. Retina
  2. Eyelash
  3. Blind spot
  4. Aqueous humor

Answer: 4. Aqueous humor

Question 198. Which part of the human ear plays no role in hearing as such but is otherwise very much required?

  1. Organ of Corti
  2. Vestibular apparatus
  3. Ear ossicles
  4. Eustachian tube

Answer: 2. Vestibular apparatus

Question 199. Select the answer that correctly matches the endocrine gland with the hormone it secretes and its function/deficiency symptom.

NEET Biology Neural Control And Coordination Correctly Matches The Endocrinegland With The Hormone

Answer: 2.

Question 200. Parts A, B, C, and D of the human eye. Select the option which gives correct identification along with its functions/characteristics.:

NEET Biology Neural Control And Coordination Human Eye

  1. B—Blind spot—Has only a few rods and cones.
  2. C—Aqueous chamber—Reflects the light which does not pass through the lens.
  3. D—Choroid—Its anterior part forms the ciliary body.
  4. A—Retina—Contains photoreceptors: rods and cones.

Answer: 4. A—Retina—Contains photoreceptors: rods and cones.

Question 201. Axon terminal and synapse. Identify correctly at least two of A-D.

NEET Biology Neural Control And Coordination Axon Terminal And Synapse

  1. B – Synaptic connection, D – K+
  2. A – Neurotransmitter, B – Synaptic cleft
  3. C – Neurotransmitter, D – Ca++
  4. A – Receptor, C – Synaptic vesicles

Answer: 4. A – Receptor, C – Synaptic vesicles

NEET Biology Multiple Choice Questions – Plant Growth And Development

Plant Growth And Development Multiple Choice Questions And Answers

Question 1. The condition of suspended growth due to external environmental conditions is called

  1. Dormancy
  2. Rest
  3. Quiescence
  4. All of these

Answer: 4. All of these

Question 2. Seed dormancy in tomato seeds is due to

  1. Impermeable seed coat
  2. Immature embryo
  3. Presence of ferulic acid in pulp
  4. Abscisic acid in pulp

Answer: 2. Immature embryo

Question 3. A method to break the dormancy of seed by subjecting to low and high temperatures is called

  1. Scarification
  2. Pressure chamber method
  3. Stratification
  4. Impaction

Answer: 3. Stratification

Question 4. Which does not happen during seed germination?

  1. Emergence of radical
  2. Increase in the rate of respiration
  3. Hydrolysis of stored polysaccharides and proteins
  4. Photosynthesis by cotyledons

Answer: 4. Photosynthesis by cotyledons

Question 5. Real growth is

  1. Protoplasmic growth
  2. Cell wall growth
  3. Growth in size
  4. Growth in volume

Answer: 1. Protoplasmic growth

Question 6. Growth in plant organs is

  1. Qualitative and extrinsic
  2. Quantitative and intrinsic
  3. Qualitative and intrinsic
  4. Quantitative and extrinsic

Answer: 3. Qualitative and intrinsic

Question 7. The point in the S-shaped growth curve where growth is maximum is called

  1. Inflection point
  2. Compensation point
  3. Extinction point
  4. Deflection point

Answer: 3. Extinction point

Question 8. The exponential phase in growth is characterized by

  1. Enlargements of cells
  2. Constant increase in growth rate
  3. Maturation of cells
  4. Both (1) and (2)

Answer: 4. Both (1) and (2)

Question 9. Which of the following is not a growth-measuring instrument?

  1. Auxanometer
  2. Crescograph
  3. Horizontal microscope
  4. Clinostat

Answer: 1. Auxanometer

Question 10. The plant growth is regulated by

  1. Climatic factor
  2. Growth hormones
  3. Both (1) and (2)
  4. None of these

Answer: 2. Growth hormones

Question 11. The growth in plants differs from the growth in animals

  1. Being localized and indefinite
  2. Being indefinite
  3. Having indefinite lifespan
  4. Having a definite lifespan

Answer: 1. Being localized and indefinite

Question 12. The scientist who suspected the presence of some growth substances was

  1. Linnaeus
  2. Mendel
  3. Charles Darwin
  4. Robert Brown

Answer: 3. Charles Darwin

Question 13. If an etiolated stem could be first saturated with auxin by spraying and then exposed to a streak of light from one side, it will

  1. Bend toward the light
  2. Bend away from the light
  3. Grow straight upward
  4. Be prevented from growing

Answer: 2. Bend away from the light

Question 14. The plant hormone which is basic in nature is

  1. Auxin
  2. Gibberellin
  3. Cytokinin
  4. Abscisic acid

Answer: 2. Gibberellin

Question 15. Which is not a physiological effect of auxins?

  1. Cell elongation
  2. Development of parthenocarpic fruits
  3. Prevention of abscission of leaves and fruits
  4. Reversal of genetic dwarfism

Answer: 2. Development of parthenocarpic fruits

Question 16. Transport of auxins is

  1. Polar
  2. Diffuse
  3. Through xylem
  4. Through phloem

Answer: 4. Through phloem

Question 17. The movement shown by a plant kept in a phototropic chamber is due to

  1. Differential synthesis of hormones
  2. Differential translocation of hormones
  3. None of these
  4. Both (1) and (2)

Answer: 2. Differential translocation of hormones

Question 18. Sprouting of potatoes can be prevented in storage by

  1. CH4
  2. GA3
  3. MH
  4. CK

Answer: 2. GA3

Question 19. A phytotron is a device by which

  1. Electron flow is measured
  2. Mutations are induced in plants
  3. The wind velocity is measured
  4. Plants are grown in a controlled environment

Answer: 2. Mutations are induced in plants

Question 20. Apical dominance in higher plants is due to

  1. The balance between auxins and cytokinins
  2. Enzyme activity
  3. Carbohydrates and nitrogen ratio
  4. Incorrect photoperiod

Answer: 2. Enzyme activity

Question 21. Cholodny-Went theory is related with

  1. Phototropism
  2. Photomorphogenesis
  3. Photorespiration
  4. Photosynthesis

Answer: 2. Photomorphogenesis

Question 22. Gibbane ring skeleton in structure and production of hydrolytic enzymes in barley endosperm is a characteristic of

  1. Cytokinin
  2. Auxins
  3. Gibberellins
  4. Ethylene

Answer: 3. Gibberellins

Question 23. The Avena curvature test and dwarf maize test are bioassays of respectively,

  1. Auxins and gibberellins
  2. GA and CK
  3. Auxins and CK
  4. IAA and ethylene

Answer: 1. Auxins and gibberellins

Question 24. Specific property attributed to GA is

  1. Shortening of genetically tall plants
  2. Elongation of genetically dwarf plants
  3. Rooting or stem cuttings
  4. Promotion of leaf and fruit fall

Answer: 2. Elongation of genetically dwarf plants

Question 25. The synthesis of α-amylase in certain cereals is stimulated by

  1. IAA
  2. GA
  3. OK
  4. ABA

Answer: 4. ABA

Question 26. Cytokinins are considered a part of

  1. t-RNA
  2. r-RNA
  3. DNA
  4. Vascular tissues

Answer: 2. r-RNA

Question 27. An anti-ageing plant hormone from the following is

  1. IAA
  2. GA3
  3. Zeatin
  4. C2H4

Answer: 1. IAA

Question 28. The delay of senescence or Richmond-Lang effect is a physiological effect of

  1. IAA
  2. OK
  3. GA
  4. C2H4

Answer: 2. OK

Question 29. The number of female flowers can be increased by the application of

  1. IAA
  2. C2H4
  3. OK
  4. All of these

Answer: 1. IAA

Question 30. The triple response is shown by the hormone

  1. Ethylene
  2. CK
  3. 2, 4-D
  4. GA3

Answer: 4. GA3

Question 31. Which of the following is an anti-gibberellin as well as a stress hormone?

  1. ABA
  2. CK
  3. NAAM
  4. 2,4-D

Answer: 2. CK

Question 32. Which is not true for abscisic acid?

  1. Acts as an anti-transpirant
  2. Synthesized in chloroplast from carotenoids
  3. Increases stress tolerance in plants
  4. Induces epinasty of leaves and flowers

Answer: 1. Acts as an anti-transpirant

Question 33. CH2=CH2 is mainly responsible for

  1. Formation of root hair
  2. Formation of nodes
  3. Ripening of fruits
  4. Formation of intemodes

Answer: 4. Formation of internodes

Question 34. For flowering, the critical dark period should always be exceeded in

  1. Long day plants
  2. Short day plants
  3. Day-neutral plants
  4. All types of plants

Answer: 4. All types of plants

Question 35. Photoperiodic stimulus is perceived by

  1. Meristematic cells
  2. Leaves
  3. Flowers
  4. Seeds

Answer: 1. Meristematic cells

Question 36. Which of the following statements does not characterize photoperiodism?

  1. Mediated by florigen hormone.
  2. Conversion of shoot apex into reproductive apex.
  3. Red light is stimulatory in SDP, LDP, and DNP for flowering.
  4. The number of correct photoperiodic induction may be 1-25.

Answer: 2. Conversion of shoot apex into reproductive apex.

Question 37. Find the odd one (with respect to photoperiod) from the following.

  1. Rice
  2. Cosmos
  3. Chrysanthemum
  4. Larkspur

Answer: 4. Larkspur

Question 38. Hypothetical florigen could be produced prematurely in day plants by exposing it to

  1. Shortening light period
  2. Red light during the night
  3. Extending dark period
  4. Far-red light

Answer: 2. Red light during the night

Question 39. The acquisition of the ability to flower by chilling treatment is called

  1. Vernalization
  2. Yarovization
  3. Springification
  4. All of these

Answer:  3. Springification

Question 40. Which is not a requirement of vernalization?

  1. Aerobic condition
  2. Moisture
  3. Low temperature
  4. Differentiated tissues

Answer: 1. Aerobic condition

Question 41. The hormone that can replace the long days and low-temperature requirement for flowering in some plants is

  1. Gibberellin
  2. Cytokinin
  3. Vemalin
  4. Ethylene

Answer: 2. Cytokinin

Question 42. Senescence is

  1. Terminal irreversible phase of aging
  2. Combined deteriorative processes in mature plant
  3. A period between complete maturity and final death of an organ
  4. All of these

Answer: 2. Combined deteriorative processes in mature plant

Question 43. Shoot or top senescence occurs in

  1. Rice
  2. Gladiolus
  3. Mango
  4. Dalbergia

Answer: 2. Gladiolus

Question 44. The abscission zone is characterized by

  1. Presence of callose plugs
  2. The presence of a distinct layer
  3. Activity of celluloses and pectinases
  4. All of these

Answer: 1. Presence of callose plugs

Question 45. In which layer of the abscission zone, the breakdown of cells occur?

  1. Gonidial layer
  2. Protective layer
  3. Separation layers
  4. All of these

Answer: 4. All of these

Question 46. The leaves of Mimosa pudica (sensitive plant) droop down on touch because

  1. The plant has a nervous system
  2. The leaves are very tender
  3. The leaves are injured
  4. The turgor pressure of the leaf base changes

Answer: 3. The leaves are injured

Question 47. Plants growing under prolonged water stress conditions develop the phenomenon of leaf area adjustment which is

  1. Shortening of plastochron
  2. Reduction of leaf surface area
  3. Shortening of intermodal length
  4. Shedding of older leaves

Answer: 4. Shedding of older leaves

Question 48. The seasonal activity of cambium is promoted by

  1. Proline
  2. Auxin
  3. Ethylene
  4. Abscisic acid

Answer: 1. Proline

Question 49. Find the odd one (with respect to the cause of seed dormancy)

  1. Amaranthus
  2. Capsella
  3. Ginkgo
  4. Trigonella

Answer: 4. Trigonella

Question 50. The pigment concerned with various photomorphogenic processes in plants has

  1. Open tetrapyrrolic structure
  2. Absorption spectra different from that of chlorophyll
  3. Positive effects on membrane permeability
  4. All of these

Answer: 3. Positive effects on membrane permeability

Question 51. Plant hormones are

  1. Growth regulators
  2. Growth promoters
  3. Growth inhibitors
  4. None of above

Answer: 1. Growth regulators

Question 52. The most common auxin is

  1. GA
  2. ABA
  3. Kinetin
  4. IAA

Answer: 4. IAA

Question 53. Gibberellin promotes cell division and elongation in

  1. Leaves
  2. Roots
  3. Shoots
  4. All of these

Answer: 4. All of these

Question 54. The deteriorative processes in plants that naturally terminate their functional life are collectively called

  1. Wilting
  2. Abscission
  3. Plasmolysis
  4. Senescence

Answer: 4. Senescence

Question 55. Which of the following is

  1. Auxin
  2. ABA
  3. Ethylene gas
  4. Cytokinin

Answer: 3. Ethylene gas

Question 56. The induction of flowering treatment is called

  1. Vernalization
  2. Photoperiodism
  3. Cryobiology
  4. Chronology

Answer: 1. Vernalization

Question 57. Plant growth is

  1. Limited
  2. Unlimited
  3. Diffused
  4. Both (1) and (2)

Answer: 4. Both (1) and (2)

Question 58. Hormones produced during leaf fall is

  1. IAA
  2. ABA
  3. Florigen
  4. Kinetin

Answer: 2. ABA

Question 59. Climacteric fruit shows

  1. High respiration rate at ripening
  2. Sudden change in taste
  3. Sudden change in color and shape
  4. None of the above

Answer: 1. High respiration rate at ripening

Question 60. Phytochrome is present in

  1. Vascular cryptogams
  2. Prokaryotes
  3. Brain cell
  4. Kidney cell

Answer: 1. Vascular cryptogams

Question 61. Genetically, dwarf plants can be converted into a plant of normal height with the application of

  1. Auxin
  2. Gibberellin
  3. Cytokinins
  4. Auxin

Answer: 2. Gibberellin

Question 62. A phytohormone involved in the de novo synthesis of α-amylase in germinating seeds is

  1. Auxin
  2. Gibberellin
  3. Ethylene
  4. Cytokinin

Answer: 2. Gibberellin

Question 63. Phytochrome is responsible for

  1. Photosynthesis
  2. Flowering
  3. Fruit formation
  4. Respiration

Answer: 2. Flowering

Question 64. Which of the following is a gaseous hormone?

  1. Ethylene
  2. Cytokinin
  3. Both ethylene and auxin
  4. Gibberellin

Answer: 1. Ethylene

Question 65. The pineapple which under natural conditions is difficult to blossom has been made to produce fruits throughout the year by the application of

  1. IAA, IBA
  2. NAA, 2,4-D
  3. Phenyl mercuric acid
  4. Cytokinins

Answer: 1. IAA, IBA

Question 66. Most of the plants are seasonal due to

  1. Photoperiodism
  2. Phototropism
  3. Photosynthesis
  4. Photolysis

Answer: 1. Photoperiodism

Question 67. Certain chemical substances having profound effects on plant growth are called

  1. Catalytic agents
  2. Phytohormones
  3. Enzymes
  4. Compost

Answer: 2. Phytohormones

Question 68. Phytochrome was discovered by

  1. W. Went
  2. Gamer and Allard
  3. F.F. Blackman
  4. Borthwick and Hendricks

Answer: 4. Borthwick and Hendricks

Question 69. The activity of α-amylase in the endosperm of barley germinating seed is induced by

  1. Ethylene
  2. Cytokinin
  3. IAA
  4. Gibberellin

Answer: 4. Gibberellin

Question 70. A pigment concerned with floral induction is

  1. Florigen
  2. Chlorophyll
  3. Plastocyanin
  4. Phytochrome

Answer: 4. Phytochrome

Question 71. Gibberellins were first discovered in the fungal genus

  1. Mucor
  2. Rhizopus
  3. Agaricus
  4. Fusarhim

Answer: 4. Fusarhim

Question 72. The presence of auxins in a solution could be tested based on

  1. Avena sativa stem tip test
  2. Carbon tetrachloride test
  3. Iodine test
  4. Defoliation test

Answer: 1. Avena sativa stem tip test

Question 73. An auxanometer is used to measure

  1. Length
  2. Width
  3. Depth
  4. Growth

Answer: 4. Growth

Question 74. The pigment sensitivity for red and far-red light is

  1. Chlorophyll
  2. Phytochrome
  3. Cytochrome
  4. Carotene

Answer: 2. Phytochrome

Question 75. The hormone that breaks seed dormancy is

  1. Auxin
  2. Gibberellin
  3. Ethylene
  4. Cytokinin

Answer: 2. Gibberellin

Question 76. Which one of the following is not a synthetic auxin?

  1. 2,4-D
  2. 2,4,5-T
  3. NAA
  4. IAA

Answer: 4. IAA

Question 77. Which plant hormone causes fruit ripening?

  1. IAA
  2. Cytokinin
  3. Ethylene
  4. GA

Answer: 3. Ethylene

Question 78. Which hormone is responsible for apical growth?

  1. IAA
  2. ABA
  3. GA
  4. All of these

Answer: 1. IAA

Question 79. Abscisic acid controls

  1. Cell elongation and cell wall formation
  2. Shoot elongation
  3. Leaf fall and dormancy
  4. Cell division

Answer: 3. Leaf fall and dormancy

Question 80. Which hormone is used to induce ripening in bananas?

  1. Cytokinin
  2. Ethylene
  3. ABA
  4. GA3

Answer: 2. Ethylene

Question 81. Which among the following is a synthesis plant hormone?

  1. IAA
  2. GA
  3. 2,4-D
  4. ABA

Answer: 3. 2,4-D

Question 82. Richmond-Lang effect is shown by

  1. Auxins
  2. Sugars
  3. Zeatin
  4. Gibberellins

Answer: 3. Zeatin

Question 83. Ethylene gas is used for

  1. Growth of plants
  2. Delaying fruit abscission
  3. Ripening of fruits
  4. Stopping the leaf abscission

Answer: 3. Ripening of fruits

Question 84. An auxanometer is used to detect

  1. Respiration
  2. Transpiration
  3. Plant movement
  4. Growth

Answer: 4. Growth

Question 85. Which of the following plant hormones is extracted from fungus?

  1. Ethylene
  2. Gibberellin
  3. Cytokinin
  4. 2,4-D

Answer: 2. Gibberellin

Question 86. The highest concentration of auxin is found in

  1. Root and shoot tips
  2. Leaves and fruits
  3. Mid stem portion
  4. None of these

Answer: 1. Root and shoot tips

Question 87. Ethylene is used for

  1. Decreasing the senescence
  2. Increasing the heights of the stem
  3. Ripening of fruits
  4. Prevention of leaf fall

Answer: 3. Ripening of fruits

Question 88. The movement of the pollen tube is called

  1. Chemotropism
  2. Thermotaxis
  3. Their monastic
  4. Hydrotropism

Answer: 1. Chemotropism

Question 89. Phytotron is

  1. A controlled condition chamber for plants
  2. Leaf culture process
  3. Special culture of seeds
  4. Root culture process

Answer: 1. A controlled condition chamber for plants

Question 90. Phytochrome occurs in two forms. Its stable form is

  1. Pfr form
  2. Pr form
  3. Both forms
  4. None of these

Answer: 2. Pr form

Question 91. Which pigment is responsible for flowering in plants?

  1. Phytochrome
  2. Cytochrome
  3. Anthocyanin
  4. Xanthophyll

Answer: 1. Xanthophyll

Question 92. The process of vernalization can be induced by

  1. Cytokinin
  2. Auxin
  3. Phototropin
  4. GA

Answer: 4. GA

Question 93. Which of the following plant is LDP?

  1. Xanthium
  2. Soyabean
  3. Wheat
  4. Tobacco

Answer: 3. Wheat

Question 94. Phototropism is due to the hormone

  1. IAA
  2. GA
  3. 2-4 D
  4. Cytokinin

Answer: 1. IAA

Question 95. Photoperiodism affects

  1. Vegetative growth
  2. Internode elongation
  3. Seed germination
  4. Reproductive growth

Answer: 4. Reproductive growth

Question 96. Apical dominance is not affected by

  1. Indoleacetic acid
  2. Gibberellins
  3. Indoleacetaldehyde
  4. Indolebutyric acid

Answer: 2. Gibberellins

Question 97. The activity of α-amylase in the endosperm of barley germinating seed is induced by

  1. Ethylene
  2. Cytokinin
  3. IAA
  4. Gibberellin

Answer: 4. Gibberellin

Question 98. A pigment concerned with both floral induction and seed germination is

  1. Florigen
  2. Chlorophyll
  3. Plastocyanin
  4. Phytochrome

Answer: 4. Phytochrome

Question 99. Which of the following may be the substitute of photoperiodism?

  1. Humidity
  2. Temperature
  3. Mineral nutrients
  4. Soil moisture

Answer: 2. Temperature

Question 100. Phytohormine commonly called stress hormone is

  1. Auxin
  2. Abscisic acid
  3. Gibberellin
  4. Cytokinins

Answer: 2. Abscisic acid

Question 101. Fruit ripening can be hastened by treatment with

  1. LAA
  2. Florigen
  3. Ethylene
  4. Cytokinin

Answer: 3. Ethylene

Question 102. Opening of floral bud is an example of

  1. Induced movement
  2. Hyponastic movement
  3. Epinastic movement
  4. Cleistogamous movement

Answer: 3. Hyponastic movement

Question 103. Pruning of plants promotes branching because the axillary buds get sensitized to

  1. Ethylene
  2. Gibberellin
  3. Cytokinin
  4. IAA

Answer: 3. Cytokinin

Question 104. Cell elongation in intermodal regions of the green plants takes place due to

  1. Ethylene
  2. Indole acetic acid
  3. Cytokinin
  4. Gibberellins

Answer: 4. Gibberellins

Question 105. One set of a plant was grown at 12-hour day and 12-hour night period cycles and it flowered. In the other set, the night phase was interrupted by a flash of light and it did not flower. Under which one of the following categories will you place this plant?

  1. Short day
  2. Long day
  3. Darkness neutral
  4. Day-neutral

Answer: 1. Short day

Question 106. The maximum growth rate occurs in

  1. Exponential phase
  2. Stationary phase
  3. Senescent phase
  4. Lag phase

Answer: 1. Exponential phase

Question 107. The ability of the Venus flytrap to capture insects is due to

  1. Chemical stimulation by the prey
  2. A passive process requiring no special ability on the part of the plant
  3. Specialized “muscle-like” cells
  4. Rapid turgor pressure changes

Answer: 2. A passive process requiring no special ability on the part of the plant

Question 108. Why is vivipary an undesirable character for annual crop plants?

  1. It reduces the vigor of the plant.
  2. The seeds cannot be stored under normal conditions for the next season.
  3. The seeds cannot exhibit long dormancy.
  4. It adversely affects the fertility of the plant.

Answer: 2. The seeds cannot be stored under normal conditions for the next season.

Question 109. Gibberellins can promote seed germination because of their influence on

  1. Rate of cell division
  2. Production of hydrolyzing enzymes
  3. Synthesis of abscisic acid
  4. Absorption of water through hard seed coat.

Answer: 2. Production of hydrolyzing enzymes

Question 110. IAA mainly inhibits the growth of

  1. Root
  2. Leaf
  3. Shoot
  4. Generally whole plant

Answer: 1. Root

Question 111. Movement due to external stimuli is known of

  1. Autonomic movement
  2. Paratonic movement
  3. Amoeboid movement
  4. Excretory movement

Answer: 2. Paratonic movement

Question 112. How does pruning help in making the hedge dense?

  1. The apical shoot grows faster after pruning.
  2. It releases wound hormones.
  3. It induces the differentiation of new shoots from the rootstock.
  4. It frees axillary buds from apical dominance.

Answer: 4. It frees axillary buds from apical dominance.

Question 113. Parthenocarpic tomato fruits can be produced by

  1. Raising the plants from vernalized seeds.
  2. Treating the plants with phenylmercury acetate.
  3. Removing androecium of flowers before pollen grains are released.
  4. Treating the plants with low concentrations of gibberellic acid and auxins.

Answer: 4. Treating the plants with low concentrations of gibberellic acid and auxins.

Question 114. An enzyme that can stimulate the germination of barley seeds is

  1. Protease
  2. Invertase
  3. α-amylase
  4. Lipase

Answer: 3. α-amylase

Question 115. The opening of floral buds into flowers is a type of

  1. Autonomic movement of growth
  2. Autonomic movement of locomotion
  3. Autonomic movement of variation
  4. Paratonic movement of growth

Answer: 1. Autonomic movement of growth

Question 116. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

  1. IAA—Cell wall elongation
  2. Abscisic acid—Stomatal closure
  3. Gibberellic acid—Leaf fall
  4. Cytokinin—Cell division

Answer: 3. Gibberellic acid—Leaf fall

Question 117. The wavelength of light that absorbed Pr form of phytochrome is

  1. 620 nm
  2. 640 nm
  3. 680 nm
  4. 720 nm

Answer: 2. 640 nm

Question 118. “Foolish seeding” disease of rice led to the discovery of

  1. IAA
  2. GA
  3. ABA
  4. 2,4-D

Answer: 2. GA

Question 119. Senescence as an active developmental cellular process in the growth and functioning of a flowering plant is indicated in

  1. Annual plants
  2. Floral parts
  3. Vessels and tracheid differentiation
  4. Leaf abscission

Answer: 4. Leaf abscission

Question 120. The importance of day length in the flowering of plants was first shown in

  1. Cotton
  2. Petunia
  3. Lemna
  4. Tobacco

Answer: 4. Tobacco

Question 121. One of the synthetic auxins is

  1. IBA
  2. NAA
  3. IAA
  4. GA

Answer: 2. NAA

Question 122. Which one of the following acids is a derivative of carotenoids?

  1. Abscisic acid
  2. Indole butyric acid
  3. Indole-3-acetic acid
  4. Gibberellic acid

Answer: 1. Abscisic acid

Question 123. Phototropic curvature is the result of uneven distribution of

  1. Cytokinins
  2. Auxin
  3. Gibberellin
  4. Phytochrome

Answer: 2. Auxin

Question 124. Photoperiodism was first characterized in

  1. Tomato
  2. Cotton
  3. Tobacco
  4. Potato

Answer: 3. Tobacco

Question 125. The coiling of garden pea tendrils around any support is an example of

  1. Thigmotropism
  2. Thermotaxis
  3. Thigmotaxis
  4. Thigmonasty

Answer: 1. Thigmotropism

Question 126. One of the commonly used plant growth hormones in tea plantations is

  1. Abscisic acid
  2. Zeatin
  3. Indole-3-acetic acid
  4. Ethylene

Answer: 2. Zeatin

Question 127. Root development is promoted by

  1. Auxin
  2. Gibberellin
  3. Ethylene
  4. Abscisic acid

Answer: 1. Auxin

Question 128. Through their effect on plant growth regulators, what is the role of temperature and light control in plants?

  1. Apical dominance
  2. Flowering
  3. Closure of stomata
  4. Fruit elongation

Answer: 2. Flowering

Question 129. Which one of the following generally acts as an antagonist to gibberellins?

  1. Zeatin
  2. Ethylene
  3. ABA
  4. IAA

Answer: 3. ABA

Question 130. Vernalization stimulates flowering in

  1. Zamikand
  2. Turmeric
  3. Carrot
  4. Ginger

Answer: 3. Carrot

NEET Biology Notes – Plant Growth And Development

Plant Growth And Development

Growth

Growth is an irreversible increase in size, volume, and weight of a part or whole of an organism. An irreversible increase in size, volume, or weight is called apparent growth as it is the external manifestation of growth. Formation at cellular materials or protoplasm is the real growth. Growth is a measurable or quantitative phenomenon that can be measured in relation to time. The growth of living beings is internal or intrinsic.

Plant growth is diffused like that of animals only during the early embryonic stages. Later on, plants develop specific areas, called meristem, for growth. On account of meristems, plant growth is localized.

Characteristics Of Plant Growth

  1. Growth is localized.
  2. Growth continues throughout life.
  3. There is an increase in the number of parts.
  4. It is open-ended.
  5. The younger one or seedling can be quite different from an adult.
  6. The juvenile stage may have different traits.

Plant Growth Differentiation: Growth is invariably associated with differentiation. Differentiation is a permanent localized qualitative change in size, biochemistry, structure, and function of cells, tissues, or organs, for example, fiber, vessel, tracheid, sieve tube, mesophyll, leaf, etc. Some examples of differentiation are as follows

  1. Enlargement, lignocellulosic wall thickening, and emptying in case of tracheids
  2. Loss of end wall in case of vessel elements
  3. Loss of nucleus and perforation of end wall in sieve tube members
  4. Deposition of suberin and tannins in cells
  5. Differential wall thickening (in guard cells)
  6. Secretion of mucilage in root cap

Development is the sequence of changes that occur in the structure and functioning of an organism, organ, tissue, or cell involving its formation, growth differentiation, maturation, reproduction, senescence, and death.

Read and Learn More NEET Biology Notes

Characteristics Of Growth

  • Primary Growth: It is the formation of primary permanent tissues and organs. It is caused by the activity of apical and intercalary meristems.
  • Secondary Growth: It is an increase in girth. It occurs by two types of lateral meristems, vascular cambium and cork cambium.
  • Efficiency Index: It is the rate of growth. It is measured by calculating the increase in size, diameter, or area per unit time.

Growth Rate

An increase in growth per unit of time is called growth rate. Growth rate may result in arithmetic or geometric growth.

Arithmetic Growth: Arithmetic growth is a type of growth in which the rate of growth is constant and an increase in growth occurs in arithmetic progression 2, 4, 6, 8, 10, and 12. Arithmetic growth is found in root or shoot elongating at a constant rate.

The meristematic cells at the growing point divide in such a fashion that one daughter cell remains meristematic while the other cells grow and differentiate. The process continues. Mathematically, arithmetic growth is expressed as:

Lt = L0 + rt

where Lt is the length after time t, L0 is the length at the beginning, and r is the growth rate or elongation per unit time.

NEET Biology Plant Growth And Development Arithmetic Growth Curve

Geometric Growth: Geometric growth is quite common in unicellular organisms when grown in a nutrient-rich medium. Here, every cell divides. The daughter cells grow and divide. The granddaughters repeat the process and so on. The number of cells is initially small so the initial growth is slow. Later on, there is rapid growth at an exponential rate.

Geometric growth cannot be sustained for long. Some cells die. Limited nutrient availability causes a slowing down of growth. It leads to the stationary phase. (There may be actually a decline.) Plotting the growth against time will give a typical sigmoid or S-curve.

NEET Biology Plant Growth And Development Geometric Growth Curve

The S-curve of growth is typical of most living organisms in their natural environment. It also occurs in cells, tissues, and organs of plants.

Exponential Growth (Law Of Compound Interest): Growth is dependent on three factors: initial size (W0), rate of growth (r), and time interval (t) for which the rate of growth can be retained.

W1 = W0ert

Here W1 is the final size, W0 is the initial size, r is the growth rate, 1 is the time of growth, while e is the base on natural logarithms. The magnitude of r or the rate of growth has been called the efficiency index by Blackman (1919).

Absolute And Relative Growth Rate: Quantitative comparisons between the growths of various systems can be made by measuring their absolute and relative growth rates.

Absolute Growth Rate: The absolute growth curve is the actual growth curve obtained by plotting growth against time. It is commonly S-shaped. The absolute growth rate is the total growth per unit time. A graph plotted for absolute growth rates for various times of the grand period of growth appears bell-shaped.

The peak is formed when the growth rate is the fastest. The period of increasing growth is depicted by the first part of the curve while the period of decreasing growth rate is shown by the second part of the curve.

NEET Biology Plant Growth And Development Absolute Or Actual Growth Curve And Absolute Growth Rate Curve

Relative Growth Rate: It is the growth per unit time per unit initial growth.

Relative growth rate = \(\frac{\text{Growth in given time period}}{\text{Measurement at start of time period}}\)

Suppose two leaves have grown by 5 cm² in one day. The initial size of leaf A was 10 cm² while that of leaf B was 15 cm². Though their absolute growth is the same, the relative rate of growth is faster in leaf A.

Measurement Of Growth

To measure growth, various methods/instruments are used.

  1. Direct method
  2. Horizontal microscope
  3. Auxanometer
    • Arc auxanometer
    • Pfeffer’s auxanometer
  4. Crescograph (Developed By J.C. Bose): A highly sensitive growth-measuring instrument that can magnify growth by 10000 times.

Growth Hormones

In all plants, minute quantities of certain substances are found (plant growth regulators or phytohormones), which regulate growth and differentiation.

Five major types of growth substances are recognized: aux-ins, gibberellins, cytokinins, abscisic acid, and ethylene.

Auxins: Auxins are weak organic acids having unsaturated ring structures.

  • Charles Darwin conducted his experiments concerning growth on canary grass (Phalaris canariensis) and found that the bending movement of coleoptiles in uni-lateral light was due to a chemical.
  • Went is credited with the discovery of auxin.
  • Auxins are synthesized mainly in apices and exhibit polar transport through parenchyma.
  • KogI and Haagen Smith (1931) found that human urine contained a growth substance, which was isolated and given the name auxin-a (auxentriolic acid). In 1934, Kogl and coworkers isolated another compound, auxin-b (auxenolinic acid) from com germ oil and heteroauxin (now known as IAA or indole-3-acetic acid, C10H9O2N), from human urine. It is the only natural auxin.
  • The precursor of auxin is the tryptophan amino acid.
  • The optimum concentration in the stem apex is 10 ppm while in the root apex, it is 0.0001 ppm.
  • Auxin is active in a free state and can be easily extracted. Bound auxin is inactive and meant for storage. For example, IAA-aspartic acid, IAA-inositol, and IBA-alanine.

Functions Of Auxins

  • Auxins promote cell elongation by loosening cell wall microfibrils, solubilization of carbohydrate reserve, and increased respiration.
  • Responsible for phototropism and geotropism.
  • Promote apical dominance (in the presence of an apical bud, the growth of lateral buds are inhibited due to auxin secreted by the apical bud).
  • Promote root initiation in cuttings (by NAA, IBA).
  • Delay of abscission of leaves by preventing the formation of an abscission layer.
  • Prevention of lodging in cereals.
  • Induce parthenocarpy (production of seedless fruits).
  • Selective weedicide.
  • Have feminizing effect (increase number of female flowers in plants, for example, Cannabis).
  • Seasonal activity of cambium is promoted by auxin.
  • Healing of injury is effected through auxin-induced division in cells around the injured area.
  • Auxin induces negative potential in cell membranes.
  • In legumes, IAA stimulates nodule formation.

Antiauxins: They inhibit auxin activity. For example, triiodobenzoic acid (TIBA), PCIB (p-chlorophenoxy isobutyric acid)

Bioassay Of Auxins

  1. Avena curvature test
  2. Split pea test
  3. Root growth inhibition test

Applications Of Synthetic Auxins

  • Rooting: IBA, IBA-alanine, and NAA are used.
  • Parthenocarpy: IAA, IBA.
  • Weedicide: 2,4-D, 2,4-5-T are used for killing broad-leaved weeds (generally dicot).
  • Flowering: NAA and 2,4-D for litchi and pineapple.
  • Storage: Methyl ester of NAA for the storage of potato.
  • Pre-harvest Fruit Drop: 2,4-D for citrus fruits; NAA for tomato.
  • Prevention Of Lodging: Naphthalene acetamide (NAAM).
  • Vegetable Crops: Chlorophenoxypropionic acid is used to improve the quality of vegetable crops by inhibiting flower formation. For example, lettuce.

Dwarf Shoots: NAA is used for increasing dwarf shoots and a number of fruits in apples.

Gibberellins: In the early twentieth century, Japanese farmers noticed balance or foolish seedling disease of lice. As a result of the disease, certain rice seedlings grew excessively tall, the disease was caused by the fungus Gibherella fuikuroi (perfect state of Fusarium moniliform).

  • Yabuta and Suxniki (1930) isolated the growth-inducing hormone and called it gibberellin.
  • Chemically, all gibberellins are terpenes, a complex group of plant chemicals related to lipids. All are weak acids and have gibbane ring skeletons. GA3 is the commonest. GA24 and GA25 are found only in fungi. The precursor is acetyl CoA.
  • Gibberellins are synthesized in the apices of young leaves, embryos, buds, and roots and are transported through the xylem.

Applications Of Gibberellins

  • Internodal Elongation: Like auxins, the main effect of gibberellins is on stem elongation. Gibberellins stimulate stem elongation and leaf expansion but do not affect roots. Thus, gibberellins restore normal-size arid growth to genetically dwarf varieties of pear and maize.
  • Bolting: In many plants, leaf development is profuse, while internodal growth is retarded. This term of growth is called rosette, for example, cabbage, radish, and henbane. Just before the reproductive phase, internodes elongate enormously, causing a marked increase in height.

The stem sometimes elongates five to six times the original height of the plant. This is called bolting. Bolting requires either long days or cold nights and gibberellins treatment.

  • Germination Of Seeds: Gibberellins promote seed germination (especially in cereals).
  • Control Of Flowering: Gibberellins promote flowering in long-day plants and inhibit it in short-day plants. These also control sex expression in certain species. In general, the application of gibberellins promotes the production of male flowers in female plants of Cannabis.
  • Control Of Fruit Growth: Along with gibberellins, auxins control fruit growth and development. Gibberellins cause parthenocarpy in pome fruits (apple, pear, etc.).
  • Vernalization: Gibberellins can substitute vernalization.
  • Dormancy: Gibberellins overcome the natural dormancy of buds, tubers, seeds, etc.

Commercial Application Of Gibberellins

  • Fruit Growth: Increase the number and size of grapes, tomatoes, etc. Pomalin (a mixture of GA3 and BAP) is used for such purpose.
  • Malt: Increase the yield of malt from barley.
  • Overcoming Dormancy: In photoelastic seeds of tobacco and lettuce
  • Delay Ripening: in citrus.
  • Induce Flowering: In long-day plants, in non-inductive periods.

Antigibberellins: Certain chemicals are antagonistic to gibberellins. For example, Phosphan-D, Amo-1618, CCC, and maleic hydrazide.

Bioassay Of Gibberellins

  1. Induction of α-amylase in barley endosperm test
  2. Dwarf maize test
  3. Dwarf pea test

Cytokinins: They are basic hormones and are purine (adenine) derivatives. Cytokinins are substances that act primarily on cell division and have little or no effect on extension growth. In 1955, Miller et al. separated it from herring sperm DNA and yeast DNA and called it kinetin (because of its involvement in cell division, i.e., cytokinesis). Later on, the substance was identified as 6-furfuryl aminopurine. Subsequently, the term cytokinin was adopted by Letham.

  • The first naturally occurring cytokinin to be chemically identified was from young maize (Zea mays) grains in 1963 and was called zeatin, which is benzyl amino purine (BAP). Cytokinins are a part of t-RNA.
  • Cytokinins are mostly synthesized in roots, seeds, and developing fruits. Coconut milk and apple fruit extracts are rich in cytokinins. Some other cytokinins are dihydrozeatin, IPA (isopentanyl adenine).

Applications Of Cytokinins

  • Cell-division: Cytokinins are quite abundant wherever rapid cell division occurs, especially in growing tissues.
  • Morphogenesis: Cytokinins promote cell division. In the presence of auxins, cytokinins promote cell division even in non-meristematic tissues. In tissue cultures, mitotic divisions are accelerated when both auxin and cytokinin are present. The ratio of cytokinins to auxins also controls cell differentiation and morphogenesis.
  • Apical Dominance: Cytokinins and auxins act antagonistically in the control of apical dominance.
  • Delay In Senescence: Cytokinins delay the senescence of plant organs by controlling protein synthesis and mobilization of resources. This is called the Richmond-Lang effect. Cytokinins are also called anti-aging hormones.
  • Flowering: Cytokinins also induce flowering in certain species of plants such as Lemna and Wolffia and are also responsible for breaking the dormancy of seeds of some plants.
  • Favors Transport: Phloem transport is promoted.
  • Favors Salt Accumulation: Accumulation of salts in the cells is promoted.
  • Favors Sex-Expression: Promote femaleness.
  • Temperature/disease Resistance: Increase resistance to low and high temperatures and diseases.

Commercial Applications of Cytokinins

  1. Tissue culture
  2. The shelf life of vegetables and cut flowers is increased
  3. Overcoming senescence

Bioassay Of Cytokinins

  1. Chlorophyll preservation test.
  2. Cell division test

Ethylene: Ethylene is the only natural plant growth regulator in gaseous form and is effective in the concentration of 0.01-10 ppm.

Ethylene is produced by most or all plant organs but maximum production occurs in ripening fruits and during senescence. High concentrations of auxin induce the formation of ethylene. Though it is a gas, it does not generally move through air spaces in plants. Rather, it escapes from the plant surface. The precursor of ethylene is methionine.

Applications Of Ethylene

  • Growth: Ethylene inhibits stem elongation and stimulates its transverse expansion. As a result, the stem looks swollen.
  • Abscission: It accelerates the abscission of leaves, flowers, and fruits.
  • Fruit Ripening: Its chief effects are on the ripening of fruits accompanied by a rise in the rate of respiration (climacteric). It causes the dehiscence of dry fruits.
  • Flowering: The application of ethylene induces flowering in pineapple.
  • A commercial compound “ethephon” breaks down to release ethylene in plants. It is particularly applied to rubber plants for the flow of latex.
  • It decreases the sensitivity to gravity. Roots become apogeotropic; seedling develops a tight epicotyl hook.
  • It has a feminizing effect.
  • Bioassay: Triple response test.

Growth Inhibitors

  • For a long time, it has been suspected that dormancy is caused by inhibitors. A group of scientists led by Wareing initiated studies to find them. In 1964, pure crystals of a substance were isolated called dormin. It was found to be similar to another compound isolated from young cotton fruits in 1963 by Addicott.
  • This substance accelerated abscission and was called abscission 2. In 1967, it was decided to call it abscissic acid (ABA). Since then, it has been found in all groups of plants (from mosses to higher plants). In liverworts and algae, a compound lunular acid has been found to have activities similar to ABA.
  • Chemically, ABA is a dextrorotatory cA-sesquiterpene. ABA is synthesized in leaves and transported through the xylem and phloem. It is a major inhibitor of growth in plants and is antagonistic to all three growth promoters. Its precursor is violaxanthin (in chloroplast).

Applications Of ABA

  • Stoppage Of Cambial Activity: It inhibits mitosis in vascular cambium.
  • Bud Dormancy: It induces axillary buds to become dormant as the winter approaches.
  • It plays a role in seed development, maturation, and dormancy.
  • Transpiration: It is a “stress hormone” and helps the plant to cope with adverse environmental conditions by closing stomata (antitranspirant).
  • It may be sprayed on tree crops to regulate fruit drop at the end of the season.
  • Application of ABA to green oranges turns them yellow by inducing the synthesis of carotenoids.
  • It induces flowering in some short-day plants such as strawberries and blackcurrant.

Dormancy

In favorable conditions, if a viable seed fails to germinate, this condition is called dormancy and if the viable seed fails to germinate due to unfavorable conditions, it is called “quiescence.” Dormancy may be due to:

  1. Seed coat impermeable to gases, for example, apple, or water, for example, Trigonella; or seed coat mechanically resistant, for example, Capsella, Amaranthus.
  2. Immaturity of the embryo, for example, G. biloba.
  3. Specific light requirement: Some seeds require light for germination and are called positive photoblastic seeds (for example, Lactuca sativa, Nicotiana tobaccum, Lythrum, etc.). Lettuce (Lactuca) is induced by red light and inhibited by far red light. Some seeds show inhibition in germination due to light exposure and are called negative photoblastic, for example, onions, lily, phlox, etc.
  4. Dormancy due to chilling temperature requirement, for example, Polygonum.
  5. After-ripening: Some seeds have a mature embryo but do not germinate immediately due to the absence of growth hormone. They require a period of after-ripening during which they attain the power to germinate. For example, oats, barley, wheat, etc.
  6. Due To Germination Inhibitors: Some chemicals such as organic acids, phenolics, tannins, alkaloids, lactones, mustard oil, etc., inhibit germination (for example, ferulic acid in tomato pulp).

Methods To Break Dormancy

  1. Scarification: It is a method of softening and weakening of seed coat by acids, alcohol, or knife.
  2. Stratification: After ripening treatment, low temperature (0-10°C) with O2.
  3. Light exposure.
  4. Low temperature + Gibbcrellin + O2 treatment, etc.

Seed Germination

Seed germination is of two types:

  1. Epigeal: Hypocotyl grows first, cotyledons come out of the soil as in cucurbits, mustard, castor, onion, tamarind, etc.
  2. Hypodeal: Epicotyl grows first, cotyledons remain underground as in rice, maize, mango, Fabaceae, etc. Whenever a seed germinates inside the fruit, it is vivipary as in Rhizophora, Sonneralia, and Heritiera (mangrove plants).

Cytochrome

Borthwick and Hendrick, in the 1950s, plotted the action spectrum of wavelengths showing their relative effectiveness in stimu¬lating seed germination. The wavelength most effective for promoting germination was 660 nm (red) and for inhibition of germination about 730 nm (far red). They also demonstrated that only brief exposures of light were necessary and that the effects of red light were reversed by far red fight and vice versa.

  • The pigment responsible for this was isolated in 1960 and was called phytochrome by Butler. It is a blue-green pigment existing in two interconvertible forms: PFR or P730 (absorbs far-red lights) and PR or P660 (absorbs red light).
  • By absorbing red light, PR is converted to PFR rapidly. PFR absorbing far-red light is converted to PR rapidly. PFR is the physiologically active form; PR is inactive. The table describes the effects of red light and far red light on plant growth.

NEET Biology Plant Growth And Development Cytochrome Formula

Effects Of Red Light And Far Red Light On Plant Growth

Effects Of Red Light And Far Red Light On Plant Growth

Phytochrome is responsible for various photomorphogenic processes in plants such as the growth and development of plant organs; germination of seed, pollen, and spores; flowering; differentiation of stomata; epinasty and abscission; etc.

Photoperiiqdiibm

The response of plants to changes in the relative lengths of day and night is called photoperiodism.

Photoperiod: The relative lengths of dark and light periods in a day vary from place to place and from season to season. The length of the light period is called the photoperiod. At equators, the day length is of 12 hours duration throughout the year.

Types Of Plants According To Photoperiodic Requirements For Flowering

NEET Biology Plant Growth And Development Types Of Plants According To Photoperiodic Requirments For Flowering

For SDP, PR/PFR > 1 while for LDP, PFR/PR > 1 is critical for flowering.

Photoperiodic stimulus is perceived by the leaf. When proper photoperiod is perceived, a flowering hormone called florigen is synthesized in the leaf and is transported to the bud where flowering occurs. Florigen, a hypothetical hormone, is chemically similar to gibberellins.

Difference Between Long-Day And Short-Day Plants

NEET Biology Plant Growth And Development Differences Between Long Day And Short Day Plants

Vernalization (Yarovization)

The term vernalization was coined by the Russian agronomist Lysenko to refer to the method of accelerating the flowering ability of biennials or winter annuals, by exposing their soaked seeds to low temperatures for a few weeks.

  • However, presently the term is used in a wider sense to include the promotion of flowering in plants by exposing them to low temperatures at any stage in their life cycle. It has been found that some plants especially biennials and perennials are stimulated to flower by exposure to low temperatures.
  • This promotive effect of temperature on flowering is called vernalization. The vernalization was first studied in Europe on the winter varieties of cereals such as wheat, barley, oats, and rye by Klippart.

Site Of Vernalization: The sites of vernalization are the shoot tip, embryo tip, and root apex. As a result of vernalization, a hormone called vemalin (by Melcher) is synthesized.

Requirements Of Vernalization

  1. Low temperature: 0°C-5°C
  2. Period of low temperature: A few hours to a few days
  3. Actively dividing cells (meristematic cells)
  4. Water
  5. Aerobic condition
  6. Proper nourishment

As a result of vernalization, the vegetative phase of the plant is shortened and flowering is initiated. Therefore, the duration of crops is reduced.

Senescence

Senescence is the study of aging in plants. It is of the following types:

Sequential Senescence: In many perennial plants, the apical meristems continue to produce new buds and leaves, while the older leaves and lateral organs undergo senescence and die. For example, Eucalyptus, mango.

Shoot Senescence: In some perennials such as banana and Gladiolus, the aboveground part of the shoot dies every year after producing flowers and fruits. However, the underground parts survive and give rise to new shoots again in the following year.

Simultaneous Or Synchronous Senescence: In some trees such as elm, Dalbergia, and maples, all the leaves are shed in late autumn (October).

Whole Plant Senescence: In monocarpic plants that flower and produce fruits only once in life, for example, wheat, rice, mustard, etc.

Abscission

It is a natural separation or shedding of leaves, foliage branches, fruits, floral parts, etc., from plants. It is generally seasonal. A special narrow zone develops in the area of abscission called as abscission zone. Two distinct layers develop in the abscission zone:

  1. Separation layer (upper layer) and
  2. Protective layer (lower suberized and lignitized layer).

Plant Growth And Development Points To Remember

Strasburger studied growth in roots by marking it at equal intervals with Indian ink.

  1. Ethylene causes respiratory climacteric.
  2. The most widely occurring cytokinin in plants is isopentenyl adenine (IPA).
  3. Sleep disease (enrolling of petals in opened flowers) is caused by ethylene. Even 1 ppm of ethylene prevents the opening of flower buds.
  4. Zinc is important for auxin synthesis.
  5. Clinostat is an instrument used for eliminating the effect of gravity.
  6. Phytochrome is a regulatory pigment. It regulates several light-dependent developmental processes in it called photomorphogenetic processes.
  7. Ethylene is the most widely used plant growth regulator in agriculture.

 

Plant growth And Development Assertion Reasoning Questions And Answers

In the following questions, an Assertion (A) is followed by a corresponding Reason (R). Mark the correct answer.

  1. If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
  2. If both Assertion and Reason are true, but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
  3. If Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
  4. If both Assertion and Reason are false.

Question 1. Assertion: If a plant is kept horizontally, auxin accumulates on the lower surface.

Reason: The displacement of statoliths and other cell organelles to lower surfaces modifies the translocation pattern of auxins.

Answer: 1. If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Rea¬son is the correct explanation of the Assertion.

Question 2. Assertion: Only bud and embryo can be vernalized.

Reason: Vernalization requires dividing cells.

Answer: 3. If Assertion is true, but Reason is false.

Question 3. Assertion: Phytochrome, a protein, has regulatory functions.

Reason: Various morphogenetic processes are regulated by it.

Answer: 2. If both Assertion and Reason are true, but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.

Question 4. Assertion: Auxin treatment causes acidification of the cell wall and helps in cell elongation.

Reason: Loosening of cell wall microfibrils occurs.

Answer: 1. If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.

Question 5. Assertion: Cytokinins are anti-aging hormones.

Reason: They cause changes in osmotic potential by increasing the volume of mature cells.

Answer: 4. If both Assertion and Reason are false.

 

 

NEET Biology Multiple Choice Questions – Photosynthesis In Higher Plants

Photosynthesis In Higher Plants Multiple Choice Questions And Answers

Question 1. Photosynthesis is

  1. Anabolic, exergonic, and oxidation-reduction process
  2. Catabolic, exergonic, and oxidation-reduction process
  3. Anabolic, endergonic, and oxidation-reduction process
  4. Catabolic, endergonic, and oxidation-reduction process

Answer: 3. Anabolic, endergonic, and oxidation-reduction process

Question 2. At which step oxygen is used in the peroxisome?

  1. Glycolate to glyoxylate
  2. Glyoxylate to glycine
  3. Glycine to serine
  4. Serine to hydroxy pyruvate

Answer: 1. Glycolate to glyoxylate

Question 3. Who found that water is an essential requirement of photosynthesis?

  1. J. Priestley
  2. Saussure
  3. Helmont
  4. Ingen Housz

Answer: 2. Saussure

Question 4. The wavelength of PAR (photosynthetically active radiation) is

  1. 40-70 nm
  2. 400-700 mn
  3. 400-700Å
  4. 40-70 Å

Answer: 2. 400-700 mn

Question 5. The bulk fixation of carbon through photosynthesis takes place in

  1. Crop plants
  2. Tropical rain forests
  3. Ocean
  4. Both (1) and (2)

Answer: 3. Ocean

Question 6. Photosynthesis process was first discovered by

  1. Priestley
  2. Ingen Housz
  3. Engleman
  4. Blackman

Answer: 2. Ingen Housz

Question 7. A tadpole-like configuration is found in

  1. Chlorophyll
  2. Carotenoids
  3. Phycobilins
  4. Anthocyanin

Answer: 1. Chlorophyll

Question 8. Choose the correct statement.

  1. Chlorophyll-a is soluble in petroleum ether and shows maximum absorption peaks at 453 nm and 642 nm.
  2. In chlorophyll-b, -CH3 replaces -CHO at 3-C of chlorophyll-a.
  3. Chlorophyll-b is soluble in methyl alcohol and shows maximum absorption peaks in 429 nm and 660 nm.
  4. For the biosynthesis of chlorophyll, the raw materials required are succinyl Co-A and glycine.

Answer: 4. For the biosynthesis of chlorophyll, raw materials required are succinyl Co-A and glycine.

Question 9. A quantasome consists of 230 chlorophyll molecules and acts as a photosynthetic unit. It was discovered by

  1. Park and Biggins
  2. Hatch and Slack
  3. Pelletier and Caventou
  4. Blackman

Answer: 1. Park and Biggins

Question 10. Chlorophyll-c is found in

  1. Brown algae
  2. Red algae
  3. Green algae
  4. Green algae and Embryophyta

Answer: 1. Brown algae

Question 11. The first step in photosynthesis is

  1. Excitation of chlorophyll by light
  2. Ionization of water
  3. ATP synthesis
  4. Production of assimilatory power

Answer: 1. Excitation of chlorophyll by light

Question 12. Electric charge separation or quantum conversion occurs at

  1. Antenna molecules
  2. Thylakoid membrane
  3. Reaction center
  4. Stroma

Answer: 3. Reaction center

Question 13. Phycobilins found in blue-green algae and red algae are/have

  1. Soluble in hot water
  2. Found in chromatophores
  3. Mg+2 and tail
  4. Lipoidal in nature

Answer: 1. Soluble in hot water

Question 14. The photo system is composed of

  1. Reaction center
  2. Light harvesting complex
  3. Both (1) and (2)
  4. Granum

Answer: 3. Both (1) and (2)

Question 15. PS-2 is found in

  1. Stacked part of granum
  2. Non-stacked part of granum
  3. Stroma thylakoid
  4. Stroma

Answer: 1. Stacked part of granum

Question 16. Photosystem concerned with the reduction of NADP is

  1. PS-1
  2. PS-2
  3. Both (1) and (2)
  4. Quantasome

Answer: 1. PS-1

Question 17. The reaction center of Rhodobacterium was crystallized by

  1. Amon
  2. Huber etal
  3. Emerson
  4. Warburg

Answer: 2. Huber etal

Question 18. If a photosynthesizing plant releases oxygen containing more than the normal amount of 180, it is concluded that the plant has been supplied with

  1. C6H12O6 containing 18O
  2. H2O containing 18O
  3. CO2 containing 18O
  4. Oxygen in the form of ozone

Answer: 2. H2O containing 18O

Question 19. Minerals involved in the photo-oxidation of water is

  1. Mn, Cl, Ca
  2. Mg, Fe, Mn
  3. Mn Fe, Ca
  4. N, P, K

Answer: 1. Mn, Cl, Ca

Question 20. The light reaction produces assimilatory power in the form of

  1. ATP, NADH2
  2. ATP, NADPH2
  3. NAD
  4. NADP

Answer: 2. ATP, NADPH2

Question 21. The z-scheme in the thylakoid membrane is concerned with

  1. Reduction of NAD
  2. Reduction of CO2
  3. Electron transfer
  4. All of these

Answer: 3. Electron transfer

Question 22. The primary electron acceptor of PS-2 is

  1. Pheophytin
  2. Ferredoxin
  3. PQ
  4. PC

Answer: 1. Pheophytin

Question 23. The absorption of radiant energy causes

  1. Reduction of chlorophyll
  2. Oxidation of chlorophyll
  3. Absorption of CO2
  4. Evolution of O2

Answer: 2. Oxidation of chlorophyll

Question 24. The action spectrum of photosynthesis was discovered by

  1. Van Niel
  2. Engelman
  3. Blackman
  4. None of these

Answer: 2. Engelman

Question 25. The chemiosmotic theory for photophosphorylation was given by

  1. P-Mitchell
  2. Amon
  3. Arnold
  4. Anderson

Answer: 1. P-Mitchell

Question 26. PS-1 is located on

  1. The inner surface of the thylakoid membrane
  2. The outer surface of the thylakoid membrane
  3. Both surfaces of the thylakoid membrane
  4. The stroma of chloroplasts

Answer: 2. The outer surface of the thylakoid membrane

Question 27. The red drop effect was studied by

  1. Van Niel
  2. Blink
  3. Emerson
  4. Calvin

Answer: 3. Emerson

Question 28. C3 cycle (reductive pentose phosphate cycle) is basically a

  1. CO2 reduction cycle
  2. CO2 oxidation cycle
  3. Photochemical reaction
  4. Both (2) and (3)

Answer: 1. CO2 reduction cycle

Question 29. To reduce 1 CO2 molecule in C3 cycle, assimilatory power needed is

  1. 3 ATP, 2NP, DPH2
  2. 2 ATP, 3NADPH2
  3. 5 ATP, 2NADPH2
  4. 6.5 ATP, 2NADPH2

Answer: 1. 3ATP, 2NP, DPH2

Question 30. Q10 of light reaction is

  1. 1
  2. 2-3
  3. 5

Answer: 1. 1

Question 31. CO2 acceptor and carboxylation enzyme in C3 plants are, respectively,

  1. PEP, PEPCO
  2. RuBP, RuBisCO
  3. OAA, RuBisCO
  4. 3 PGA, RuBisCO

Answer: 2. RuBP, RuBisCO

Question 32. A bifunctional enzyme is

  1. Phosphoglycerate kinase
  2. PEPCO
  3. RuBisCO
  4. Phosphoglyceraldehyde dehydrogenase

Answer: 3. RuBisCO

Question 33. Which is not a step in the Calvin cycle?

  1. Carboxylation
  2. Glycolytic reversal
  3. Regeneration
  4. Photophosphorylation

Answer: 4. Photophosphorylation

Question 34. Cyclic photophosphorylation releases

  1. ATP and NADPH2
  2. ATP, NADPH2, and oxygen
  3. ATP only
  4. NADPH2 only

Answer: 3. ATP only

Question 35. Which of the following is a copper-containing protein acting as a mobile electron carrier in the thylakoid membrane?

  1. Plastocyanin
  2. Plastoquinone
  3. Pheophytin
  4. Cytochrome b6

Answer: 1. Plastocyanin

Question 36. Reducing agents for CO2 fixation in bacterial photosynthesis is

  1. NADH2
  2. NADPH2
  3. FMNH2
  4. All of these

Answer: 1. NADH2

Question 37. A wasteful light-induced respiratory process releasing CO2 is called

  1. Warberg effect
  2. Kutusky effect
  3. Photorespiration
  4. CAM

Answer: 3. Photorespiration

Question 38. In photorespiration, release of CO2 occurs in

  1. Mitochondria
  2. Chloroplast
  3. Peroxisomes
  4. All of these

Answer: 1. Mitochondria

Question 39. Inhibition of photosynthesis in high concentration of O2 is called

  1. Warberg effect
  2. Kutusky effect
  3. Pasteur effect
  4. Emerson effect

Answer: 1. Warberg effect

Question 40. The substrate of photorespiration is

  1. OAA
  2. Glycolic acid
  3. 3-PGA
  4. PEP

Answer: 2. Glycolic acid

Question 41. Photorespiration occurs

  1. During day time
  2. In C3 plants
  3. In cooperation with chloroplasts, peroxisomes, and mitochondria
  4. All of these

Answer: 4. All of these

Question 42. DCMU, (3,4-chlorophenyl,l-dimethyl urea, also called diuron) a potent herbicide, inhibits

  1. O2 evolution
  2. Photophosphorylation
  3. Both (1) and (2)
  4. Oxidative phosphorylation

Answer: 4. Oxidative phosphorylation

Question 43. An oxidative phosphorylation is the formation of

  1. NADPH2 in respiration
  2. NADPH2 in photosynthesis
  3. ATP in respiration
  4. ATP in photosynthesis

Answer: 3. ATP in respiration

Question 44. CO2-concentrating steps are found in

  1. C3 Plants
  2. C4 plants
  3. CAM plants
  4. Temperate plants

Answer: 2. C4 plants

Question 45. The number of carboxylations in the photosynthesis in sorghum and maize is

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4

Answer: 2. 2

Question 46. Kranz anatomy is

  1. Having peripheral reticulum in chloroplast
  2. The presence of a distinct bundle sheath
  3. Dimorphic chloroplast
  4. Large vacuoles in mesophyll cells

Answer: 2. Presence of distinct bundle sheath

Question 47. In C4 plants, the first product is

  1. 3-PGA
  2. OAA
  3. Malic acid
  4. Glutamic acid

Answer: 2. OAA

Question 48. In C4 plants, mesophyll cells and bundle sheath cells are specialized to perform, respectively,

  1. Light reaction and dark reaction
  2. Dark reaction and light reaction
  3. Light reaction and photorespiration
  4. Photorespiration and dark reaction

Answer: 1. Light reaction and dark reaction

Question 49. Low-temperature sensitivity of C4 plants are due to

  1. PEP synthetase
  2. PEPCO
  3. RuBisCO
  4. Malate dehydrogenase

Answer: 1. PEP synthetase

Question 50. The members of which of the following families show Kranz anatomy?

  1. Compositae and Amaranthaceae
  2. Chenopodiaceae and Euphorbiaceae
  3. Gramineae
  4. All of these

Answer: 4. All of these

Question 51. The initial CO2 acceptor in C4 plants is

  1. PEP
  2. PGA
  3. RuBP
  4. Pyruvate

Answer: 1. PEP

Question 52. Agranal chloroplasts are found in the

  1. Mesophyll of pea leaves
  2. Bundle sheath of mango leaves
  3. Mesophyll of maize leaves
  4. Bundle sheath of sugarcane leaves

Answer: 4. Bundle sheath of sugarcane leaves

Question 53. The technique which has been most useful for investigating the Calvin cycle is

  1. Radioactive isotope technique
  2. Biotechnology technique
  3. Photometric technique
  4. Flashlight experimental technique

Answer: 1. Radioactive isotope technique

Question 54. Which is not true for CAM plants?

  1. Scotoactive opening of stomata
  2. Dark acidification of cytoplasm
  3. Separation of Hatch-Slack cycle and O3 cycle in time
  4. Single carboxylation

Answer: 4. Single carboxylation

Question 55. CAM pathway operates in

  1. Drought-escaping xerophytes
  2. Drought-resisting xerophytes
  3. Drought-enduring xerophytes
  4. None of these

Answer: 2. Drought-resisting xerophytes

Question 56. Photosynthesis in green algae and bacteria is, respectively,

  1. Oxygenic and anoxygenic
  2. Anoxygenic and oxygenic
  3. Oxygenic in both
  4. Anoxygenic in both

Answer: 1. Oxygenic and anoxygenic

Question 57. Law of limiting factor was given by

  1. Liebig
  2. Amon
  3. Blackman
  4. Wilstatter

Answer: 3. Blackman

Question 58. Find the odd one (with respect to double carboxylation).

  1. Zcamays
  2. Euphorbia maculala
  3. Piston sativum
  4. Amaranthus

Answer: 3. Piston sativum

Question 59. The process in which organisms do not require light and pigment and synthesize their food, utilizing energy released by the oxidation of inorganic and organic substances, is

  1. Photoautotrophic
  2. Heterotrophic
  3. Chemosynthesis
  4. Saprophytistn

Answer: 3. Chemosynthesis

Question 60. The essentiality of light in photosynthesis can be demonstrated by

  1. Molls half leaf experiment
  2. Ganong screen
  3. Inverted funnel experiment
  4. KOH solution

Answer: 2. Ganong screen

Question 61. Photochemical reactions in the chloroplasts are directly involved in the

  1. Fixation of carbon dioxide
  2. Synthesis of glucose and starch
  3. Formation of phosphoglyceric acid
  4. Photolysis of water and phosphorylation of ADP to ATP

Answer: 4. Photolysis of water and phosphorylation of ADP to ATP

Question 62. Which of the following elements are essential for the photolysis of water?

  1. Ca and Cl
  2. Mn and Cl
  3. Zn and I
  4. Cu and Fe

Answer: 2. Mn and Cl

Question 63. Which of the following is involved in the transfer of electrons in photosynthesis?

  1. Phytochrome
  2. Cytochrome
  3. Photohormone
  4. Desmosome

Answer: 2. Cytochrome

Question 64. The substrate for photorespiration is

  1. Glycolatc
  2. Glucose
  3. Lipid
  4. Sucrose

Answer: 1. Glycolatc

Question 65. In aquaria, green plants are grown for

  1. CO2 production
  2. Starch production
  3. O2 Production
  4. Increase beauty

Answer: 3. O2 Production

Question 66. A structure known as peroxisomes is associated with

  1. Photosynthesis
  2. Respiration
  3. Photorespiration
  4. Photophosphorylation

Answer: 3. Photorespiration

Question 67. In the mesophyll cells of CAM plants, CCL fixation during the day occurs through

  1. RuBP oxygenase
  2. PEP carboxylase
  3. RuBP carboxylase
  4. Both RuBP carboxylase and PEP carboxylase

Answer: 3. RuBP carboxylase

Question 68. The first electron acceptor in photosystem-1 of cyclic photophosphorylation is

  1. Cytochrome
  2. Plastocyanin
  3. Ferredoxin
  4. Plastoquinone

Answer: 3. Ferredoxin

Question 69. Kranz anatomy is found in the leaves of

  1. C3 plants
  2. C4 plants
  3. Both C3 and C4 plants
  4. None of these

Answer: 2. C4 plants

Question 70. In bacterial photosynthesis

  1. PS-1 is present
  2. PS-2 is present
  3. Both PS-1 and PS-2 are present
  4. None of these are present

Answer: 1. PS-1 is present

Question 71. Which chlorophyll molecule does not have a phytol tail?

  1. chl a
  2. chl b
  3. chl c
  4. chl d

Answer: 3. chl c

Question 72. Calvin used algae in his experiment to trace out the path of carbon. The algae used were

  1. Chlorella and Chlamydomonas
  2. Chlorella and Scenedesmus
  3. Chlorococcum and Chlorella
  4. Chlorococuum and Scenedesmus

Answer: 2. Chlorella and Scenedesmus

Question 73. Which element is essential for the photolysis of water?

  1. Nitrogen
  2. Chlorine
  3. Carbon
  4. Oxygen

Answer: 2. Chlorine

Question 74. In C4 plants, initial CO2 fixation takes place in the chloroplasts of

  1. Guard cells
  2. Mesophyll cells
  3. Spongy tissue
  4. Bundle sheath

Answer: 2. Mesophyll cells

Question 75. Which one of the following elements is required for photosynthetic oxygen evolution?

  1. Copper
  2. Iron
  3. Manganese
  4. Zinc

Answer: 3. Manganese

Question 76. Agranal chloroplasts occur in

  1. Succulents
  2. C3 plants
  3. C4 plants
  4. Hydrophytes

Answer: 3. C4 plants

Question 77. The wavelength of light most absorbed by chlorophyll-a during photosynthesis is

  1. 400 nm
  2. 550 nm
  3. 660 nm
  4. 700 nm

Answer: 1. 400 nm

Question 78. Which are related with photorespiration?

  1. Spherosome
  2. Lysosomes
  3. Glyoxysomes
  4. Peroxisomes

Answer: 4. Peroxisomes

Question 79. Which of the following is a C4 plant?

  1. Sugarcane
  2. Mango
  3. Apple
  4. Tomato

Answer: 1. Sugarcane

Question 80. The first stable compound formed in photosynthesis of C4 plants is

  1. Phosphoglyceric acid
  2. Strach
  3. Pyruvic acid
  4. Ribulose diphosphate

Answer: 1. Phosphoglyceric acid

Question 81. Ferredoxin is a component of

  1. PS-1
  2. PS-2
  3. Hill reaction
  4. P680

Answer: 1. PS-1

Question 82. The correct percentage of CO2 in the atmosphere is

  1. 0.03%
  2. 0.3%
  3. 1%
  4. 11%

Answer: 1. 0.03%

Question 83. Isotopes used in photosynthesis were

  1. C11 and P32
  2. C15 and P32
  3. C16 and P15
  4. C14 and O18

Answer: 4. C14 and O18

Question 84. P680 is related with

  1. PS-1
  2. PS-2
  3. Hill reaction
  4. None

Answer: 2. PS-2

Question 85. NADP reduces to NADPH2

  1. PS-1
  2. PS-2
  3. Calvin cycle
  4. Non-cyclic ETS

Answer: 4. Non-cyclic ETS

Question 86. Hills reaction was completed in

  1. Light
  2. Dark
  3. Both
  4. None

Answer: 1. Light

Question 87. Who described C4 pathway for the first time?

  1. Hatch and Slack
  2. Robert hill
  3. Hens Kerbs
  4. Melvin Kelvin

Answer: 1. Hatch and Slack

Question 88. In photosynthesis, for the synthesis of one mole of glucose number of ATP and NADPH2 required is

  1. 12 and 18
  2. 18 and 12
  3. 6 and 12
  4. 18 and 18

Answer: 2. 18 and 12

Question 89. The first acceptor of CO2 in C4 plant is

  1. Pyruvic acid
  2. Phosphoenol pyruvic
  3. Acetic acid
  4. Oxaloacetic acid

Answer: 2. Phosphoenol pyruvic

Question 90. Insectivorous plants usually survive in

  1. Water-rich soil
  2. N2-deficient soil
  3. N2-rich soil
  4. Sugar-deficient medium

Answer: 2. N2-deficient soil

Question 91. In the process of photosynthesis, water molecule breaks in

  1. Red drop
  2. Photolysis
  3. Phosphorylation
  4. Carbon assimilation

Answer: 2. Photolysis

Question 92. Who proved that oxygen evolved in photosynthesis comes from water?

  1. Calvin
  2. Mayer
  3. Blackman
  4. Ruben, Hassid, and Kamen

Answer: 4. Ruben, Hassid, and Kamen

Question 93. The process in which water splits during photosynthesis is

  1. Plasmolysis
  2. Photolysis
  3. hydrolysis
  4. Hemolysis

Answer: 2. Photolysis

Question 94. Which of the following was used during the discovery of the Calvin cycle?

  1. Spirogyra
  2. Volvox
  3. Chlamydomonas
  4. Chlorella

Answer: 4. Chlorella

Question 95. Which of the following is the maximum in chloroplast?

  1. RuBP carboxylase
  2. Hexokinase
  3. Phosphatase
  4. Nuclease

Answer: 1. RuBP carboxylase

Question 96. O2 released in the process of photosynthesis comes from

  1. CO2
  2. Water
  3. Sugar
  4. Pyruvic acid

Answer: 2. Water

Question 97. The first carbon dioxide acceptor in C4 plants is

  1. Phosphoenol pyruvate
  2. Oxaloacetic acid
  3. Phosphoglyceric acid
  4. Ribulose 1,5-diphosphate

Answer: 1. Phosphoenolpyruvate

Question 98. C4 plants are different from C3 plants with reference to the

  1. Type of pigments involved in photosynthesis
  2. The number of NADPH that arc consumed
  3. End product
  4. The substance that accepts CO2 in carbon assimilation and the first stable product

Answer: 4. The substance that accepts CO2 in carbon assimilation and the first stable product

Question 99. Calvin cycle occurs in

  1. Cytoplasm
  2. Chloroplasts
  3. Mitochondria
  4. Glyoxysoiues

Answer: 2. Chloroplasts

Question 100. Oxygen which is liberated during photosynthesis comes from

  1. CO2
  2. H2O
  3. Phosphoglyceric
  4. Chlorophyll

Answer: 2. H2O

Question 101. Which one is produced during cyclic photophosphorylation?

  1. ATP and NADPH2
  2. ATP only
  3. ATP and O2
  4. NADPH2

Answer: 2. ATP only

Question 102. A student sets up an experiment on photosynthesis as follows: He takes soda water in a glass tumbler adds chlorophyll into the contents and keeps the tumbler exposed to sunlight hoping that he has provided the necessary ingredients for photosynthesis to proceed (viz.. CO2, H2O, chlorophyll, and light). What do you think happens after, say, a few hours of exposure of light?

  1. Photosynthesis will take place and glucose will be produced.
  2. Photosynthesis will take place and starch will be produced which turn the mixture turbid.
  3. Photosynthesis will not take place because CO2 dissolved in soda water escapes into the atmosphere.
  4. Photosynthesis will not take place because intact chloroplasts are needed for the process.

Answer: 4. Photosynthesis will not take place because intact chloroplasts are needed for the process.

Question 103. The first reaction in photorespiration is

  1. Carboxylation
  2. Decarboxylation
  3. Oxygenation
  4. Phosphorylation

Answer: 3. Oxygenation

Question 104. The law of limiting factors, in photosynthesis, was given by

  1. R. Hill
  2. Calvin
  3. Blackman
  4. Amon

Answer: 3. Blackman

Question 105. Carbon dioxide acceptor in C3 plants is

  1. PEP
  2. RuDP
  3. PGA
  4. NADP

Answer: 2. RuDP

Question 106. Insectivorous plants grow in soils which are deficient in

  1. Nitrogen
  2. Calcium
  3. Magnesium
  4. Carbohydrate

Answer: 1. Nitrogen

Question 107. Quantasomcs are found in

  1. Mitochondria
  2. Chloroplast
  3. Lysosome
  4. Endoplasmic reticulum

Answer: 2. Chloroplast

Question 108. During photosynthesis,

  1. O2 evolved comes from CO2
  2. ATP is formed
  3. ATP is not formed
  4. Water is required as a medium but it does not take part in photosynthesis

Answer: 2. ATP is formed

Question 109. Cu is present in

  1. Plasmaletnma
  2. Plastoquinone
  3. Plastocyanin
  4. Ferrcdoxin

Answer: 3. Plastocyanin

Question 110. In which of the following, oxygen does not evolve during photosynthesis?

  1. Photosynthetic red algae
  2. Photosynthetic green algae
  3. Photosynthetic blue-green algae
  4. Photosynthetic bacteria

Answer: 4. Photosynthetic bacteria

Question 111. In the process of photosynthesis,

  1. O2 is taken and CO2 is evolved
  2. O2 is taken and CO2 is not evolved
  3. CO2 is taken and O2 is evolved
  4. CO2 is taken and NO2 is evolved

Answer: 3. CO2 is taken and O2 is evolved

Question 112. Cuscuta is a

  1. Parasitic plant
  2. Symbiotic plant
  3. Predator
  4. Decomposer

Answer: 1. Parasitic plant

Question 113. In photosynthesis, there is

  1. Reduction of H2O
  2. Oxidation of H2O
  3. Oxidation of CO2
  4. Oxidation of NO2

Answer: 2. Oxidation of H2O

Question 114. In case of C4 plants, the acceptor of CO2 is

  1. Phosphoglyceraldehyde
  2. Ribulose monophosphate
  3. Phosphoenol pyruvate
  4. Ribulose diphosphate

Answer: 3. Phosphoenolpyruvate

Question 115. The first step in the light reaction of photosynthesis is

  1. Formation of ATP
  2. Ionization of water
  3. Attachment of CO2 to a pentose sugar
  4. Excitement of electron of chlorophyll by a photon of light

Answer: 4. Excitement of electron of chlorophyll by a photon of light

Question 116. Sugarcane shows high efficiency for CO2 fixation because of

  1. Calvin cycle
  2. Hatch and Slack cycle
  3. TCA cycle
  4. Greater sunlight

Answer: 2. Hatch and Slack cycle

Question 117. The source of CO2 for photosynthesis during day in CAM plants is

  1. 3-PGA
  2. Malic acid
  3. Oxaloacetic acid
  4. Pyruvate

Answer: 2. Malic acid

Question 118. Chlorophyll has in its center.

  1. Iron
  2. Magnesium
  3. Copper
  4. Sulfur

Answer: 2. Magnesium

Question 119. Calvin cycle of C4 plants operates in

  1. Grana of mesophyll chloroplasts
  2. Stroma of chloroplasts in mesophyll cells
  3. Bundle sheath cells chloroplasts
  4. Wrong statements wrong

Answer: 3. Bundle sheath cells chloroplasts

Question 120. Photorespiration takes place in

  1. Chloroplast, mitochondria
  2. Mitochondria, peroxisome
  3. Bundle sheath chloroplasts
  4. Chloroplast, peroxisome, mitochondria

Answer: 4. Chloroplast, peroxisome, mitochondria

Question 121. Which one is false about Kranz’s anatomy?

  1. Bundle sheath cells have large chloroplast and less developed grana.
  2. Mesophyll cells have large chloroplast and more developed grana.
  3. It is found in triplex, sugarcane, and maize.
  4. Plants having it have better photosynthesizing power than C3 plants.

Answer: 2. Mesophyll cells have large chloroplast and more developed grana.

Question 122. Who discovered that CO2 is taken in and O2 is released by green plants?

  1. Meyer
  2. Ijugen Housz
  3. Senebier
  4. Priestly

Answer: 4. Priestly

Question 123. Primitive photosynthetic plants utilize solar energy by

  1. Cyclic photophosphorylation
  2. Z-scheme
  3. Both (1) and (2)
  4. Calvin cycle

Answer: 1. Cyclic photophosphorylation

Question 124. Which one of the following is a wasteful process?

  1. Photorespiration
  2. Respiration
  3. Photosynthesis
  4. ETS

Answer: 1. Photorespiration

Question 125. DCMU

  1. Inhibits PS-1
  2. Inhibits PS-2
  3. Destroys chloroplast
  4. Inhibits oxidative phosphorylation

Answer: 2. Inhibits PS-2

Question 126. NH3 releases from

  1. Photorespiration
  2. Dark respiration
  3. CAM
  4. All of these

Answer: 1. Photorespiration

Question 127. Photosystem 1 and Photosystem 2 are found in the

  1. Stroma of chloroplast
  2. Grana of chloroplast
  3. Ma trix of mitochondria
  4. The inner membrane of mitochondria

Answer: 2. Grana of chloroplast

Question 128. A cell organelle essential for photorespiration is

  1. Ribosome
  2. Dictyosome
  3. Peroxisome
  4. Cilyoxisome

Answer: 3. Peroxisome

Question 129. In which of the following the rate of transpiration is high?

  1. CAM Plant
  2. C3 plants
  3. C3 and C4
  4. C4 plants

Answer: 2. C3 plants

Question 130. Of which cell organelle is grana a part?

  1. Mitochondria
  2. Chloroplast
  3. Aleurone grain
  4. Starch grain

Answer: 2. Chloroplast

Question 131. The substrate of photorespiration is

  1. Glycolate
  2. Glucose
  3. Pyruvic acid
  4. Acetyl COA

Answer: 1. Glycolate

Question 132. The maximum light absorbed by the chlorophyll-a is at the wavelength of

  1. 460 nm
  2. 500 nm
  3. 600 nm
  4. 660 nm

Answer: 1. 460 nm

Question 133. During photosynthesis, oxygen is evolved from

  1. H2S
  2. H2O
  3. CO2
  4. HCO3

Answer: 2. H2O

Question 134. Which of the following acts as an electron carrier in both photosynthesis and respiration?

  1. Ferredoxin
  2. Phytochrome
  3. Cytochrome
  4. Cryptochrome

Answer: 3. Cytochrome

Question 135. The photosynthetic unit is

  1. Glyoxysome
  2. Spherosome
  3. Microsome
  4. Quanasome

Answer: 4. Quanasome

Question 136. Warburg effect is related with

  1. Concentration of O2
  2. Concentration of N
  3. Concentration of H2
  4. Concentration of Cilyoxisome

Answer: 1. Concentration of O2

Question 137. Stroma is the ground substance of

  1. Endoplasmic reticulum
  2. Mitochondria
  3. Nucleolus
  4. Chloroplast

Answer: 4. Chloroplast

Question 138. Which of the following peroxisomes in plants are associated?

  1. Photorespiration
  2. Photosynthesis
  3. Photoperiodism
  4. Phototropism

Answer: 1. Photorespiration

Question 139. In C3 plants, the first stable product of photosynthesis is

  1. Malic acid
  2. Oxaloacetic acid
  3. Phosphoglyceric acid (PGA)
  4. Phosphoglyceraldehyde (PGAL)

Answer: 3. Phosphoglyceric acid (PGA)

Question 140. The process of taking CO2 by plants and releasing O2 is known as

  1. Photosynthesis
  2. Endosmosis
  3. Transpiration
  4. Respiration

Answer: 1. Photosynthesis

Question 141. Which of the colors of light is mostly absorbed by chlorophyll-a?

  1. Green
  2. Red
  3. Blue
  4. Infrared

Answer: 3. Blue

Question 142. In photosynthesis, ATP is synthesized during

  1. Cyclic photophosphorylation
  2. Non-cyclic photophosphorylation
  3. Both (1) and (2)
  4. In the photolysis of water

Answer: 3. Both (1) and (2)

Question 143. Which of the following elements is essential for the photolysis of water?

  1. Fe
  2. Mg
  3. Mn
  4. Cu

Answer: 3. Mn

Question 144. Peroxisomes are concerned with

  1. Respiration
  2. Photorespiration
  3. Photosynthesis
  4. Flowering

Answer: 2. Photorespiration

Question 145. The reduction process of CO2 and ATP formation in plants has a relationship. In this reaction, ATP is

  1. Formed
  2. Utilized
  3. Not utilized
  4. None of these

Answer: 2. Utilized

Question 146. ATP synthesis during photosynthesis is termed as

  1. Phosphorylation
  2. Oxidative phosphorylation
  3. Photophosphorylation
  4. Photorespiration

Answer: 3. Photophosphorylation

Question 147. Which of the following is used during the discovery of Calvin?

  1. Spirogyra
  2. Volvox
  3. Chlamydomonas
  4. Chlorella

Answer: 4. Chlorella

Question 148. The primary receptor of CO2 in photosynthesis is

  1. Phosphoric acid
  2. Ribulose phosphate
  3. Glucose
  4. Ribulose 1,5-bisphosphate

Answer: 4. Ribulose 1,5-bisphosphate

Question 149. In sugarcane plants, 14CO2 is fixed in malic acid, in which the enzyme that fixes CO2 is

  1. Ribulose biphosphate carboxylase
  2. Phosphoenol pyruvic acid carboxylase (PEP-case)
  3. Ribulose phosphate kinase
  4. Fructose phosphatase

Answer: 2. Phosphoenol pyruvic acid carboxylase (PEP-case)

Question 150. Photorespiration in C3 plants starts from

  1. Phosphoglycerate
  2. Glycerate
  3. Glycine
  4. Phosphoglycolate

Answer: 4. Phosphoglycolate

Question 151. The substrate of photorespiration is

  1. Glycolate
  2. Glucose
  3. Pyruvic acid
  4. Acetyl CoA

Answer: 1. Glycolate

Question 152. Tracer elements are

  1. Micro-elements
  2. Macro-elements
  3. Radio-isotopes
  4. Vitamins

Answer: 3. Radio-isotopes

Question 153. Choose the correct match. Bladderwort, sundew, Venus flytrap

  1. Nepenthes, Dionaea, Drosera
  2. Nepenthes, Utricularia, Vanda
  3. Utricularia. Drosera, Dionaea
  4. Dionaea, Trapa, Vanda

Answer: 3. Utricularia. Drosera, Dionaea

Question 154. Which of the following is wrong in relation to photorespiration?

  1. It occurs is chloroplasts.
  2. It occurs in the daytime only.
  3. It is a characteristic of C4 plants.
  4. It is a characteristic of C3 plants.

Answer: 3. It is a characteristic of C3 plants.

Question 155. Photosynthetic active radiation (PAR) represents the following range of wavelengths.

  1. 400-700 nm
  2. 500-600 nm
  3. 450-950 nm
  4. 340-150 nm

Answer: 1. 400-700 nm

Question 156. In C3 plants, the first stable product of photosynthesis during the dark reaction is

  1. Phosphoglyceraldehyde
  2. Malic acid
  3. Oxaloacetic acid
  4. 3-Phosphoglyceric acid

Answer: 4. 3-Phosphoglyceric acid

Question 157. Plants adapted to low light intensity have

  1. Leaves modified to spines
  2. Large photosynthetic unit size than the sun plants
  3. Higher rate of CO2 fixation than the sun plants
  4. More extended root system

Answer: 2. Larger photosynthetic unit size than the sun plants

Question 158. In chloroplast, chlorophyll is present in the

  1. Stroma
  2. Outer membrane
  3. Inner membrane
  4. Thylakoids

Answer: 4. Thylakoids

Question 159. Which one of the following categories of organisms do not evolve oxygen during photosynthesis?

  1. Red algae
  2. Photosynthetic bacteria
  3. C4 plants with Kranz anatomy
  4. Blue-green algae

Answer: 2. Photosynthetic bacteria

Question 160. Which pair is wrong?

  1. C3 plant—Maize
  2. Calvin cycle—PGA
  3. Hatch-Slack cycle—OAA
  4. C4 plant—Kranz anatomy

Answer: 1. C4 plant—Maize

Question 161. Photosynthesis in C4 plants is relatively less limited by atmospheric CO2 levels because

  1. Four carbon acids are the primary initial CO2 fixation products
  2. The primary fixation CO2 is mediated via PEP carboxylase
  3. Effective pumping of CO2 into bundle sheath cells
  4. RuBisCO in C4 plants has a higher affinity for CO2

Answer: 3. Effective pumping of CO2 into bundle sheath cells

Question 162. Chlorophyll in chloroplasts is located in

  1. Grana
  2. Pyrcnoid
  3. Stroma
  4. Both grana and stroma

Answer: 1. Grana

Question 163. As compared to a C3 plant, how many additional molecules of ATP are needed for the net production of one molecule of hexose sugar by C4 plants?

  1. Two
  2. Six
  3. Zero
  4. Twelve

Answer: 4. Twelve

Question 164. Carbohydrates, the most abundant biomolecules on earth, are produced by

  1. All bacteria, fungi, and algae
  2. Fungi, algae, and green plant cells
  3. Some bacteria, algae, and green plant cells
  4. Viruses, fungi, and bacteria

Answer: 3. Some bacteria, algae, and green plant cells

Question 165. The deficiencies of micronutrients not only affect the growth of plants but also vital functions such as photo-synthetic and mitochondrial electron flow. Among the list given below, which group of three elements shall affect the most both photosynthetic and mitochondrial electron transport?

  1. Cu, Mn, Fe
  2. Co, Ni, Mo
  3. Mn, Co, Ca
  4. Ca, K, Na

Answer: 1. Cu, Mn, Fe

Question 166. The chemiosmotic theory of ATP synthesis in chloroplasts and mitochondria is based on

  1. Proton gradient
  2. Accumulation of K ions
  3. Accumulation of Na ions
  4. Membrane potential

Answer: 1. Proton gradient

Question 167. Photosynthetic active radiation (PAR) has the following range of wavelengths

  1. 400-700 nm
  2. 450-920 nm
  3. 340-450 nm
  4. 500-600 nm

Answer: 1. 400-700 nm

Question 168. In the light reaction of photosynthesis, oxygen comes from

  1. Water
  2. CO2
  3. Soil
  4. Atmosphere

Answer: 1. Water

Question 169. The product of light reaction of photosynthesis is

  1. Carbohydrate
  2. ATP
  3. NADP and O2
  4. NADPH2, ATP, and O2

Answer: 4. NADPH2, ATP, and O2

Question 170. In photosystem-1, the first electron acceptor is

  1. Plastocyanin
  2. An iron-sulfur protein
  3. Ferredoxin
  4. Cytochrome

Answer: 2. An iron-sulfur protein

Question 171. The translocation of organic solutes in sieve tube members is supported by

  1. Mass How involving a carrier and ATP
  2. Cytoplasmic streaming
  3. Root pressure and transpiration pull
  4. P-protein

Answer: 1. Mass How involving a carrier and ATP

Question 172. During photorespiration, the oxygen-consuming reaction(s) occur(s) in the

  1. Grana of chloroplasts and peroxisomes
  2. Stroma of chloroplasts
  3. Stroma of chloroplasts and mitochondria
  4. Stroma of chloroplasts and peroxisomes

Answer: 4. Stroma of chloroplasts and peroxisomes

Question 173. The first acceptor of electrons from an excited chlorophyll molecule of photosystem-2 is

  1. Quinone
  2. Cytochrome
  3. Iron-sulfur protein
  4. Ferredoxin

Answer: 1. Quinone

Question 174. In the leaves of C4 plants, malic acid formation during CO2 fixation occurs in the cells of

  1. Epidermis
  2. Mesophyll
  3. Bundle sheath
  4. Phloem

Answer: 2. Mesophyll

Question 175. In leaves of C4 plants, malic acid synthesis during CO2 fixation occurs in

  1. Bundle sheath
  2. Guard cells
  3. Epidermal cells
  4. Mesophyll cells

Answer: 4. Mesophyll cells

Question 176. The C4 plants are photosynthetically more efficient then C3 plants because

  1. The CO2 efflux is not prevented.
  2. They have more chloroplasts
  3. The CO2 compensation point is more.
  4. CO2 generated during photorespiration is trapped and recycled through PEP carboxylase

Answer: 2. They have more chloroplasts

Question 177. Electrons from the excited chlorophyll molecule of photosystem 2 are accepted first by

  1. Quinone
  2. Ferredoxin
  3. Cytochrome-b
  4. Cytochrome-f

Answer: 1. Quinone

Question 178. Stroma in the chloroplasts of higher plant contains

  1. Chlorophyll
  2. Light-independent reaction enzymes
  3. Light-independent reaction enzymes
  4. Ribosomes

Answer: 3. Light-independent reaction enzymes

Question 179. Oxygenic photosynthesis occurs in

  1. Chlorohium
  2. Chromatium
  3. Oscillatoria
  4. Rhodospirillum

Answer: 3. Oscillatoria

Question 180. Cyclic photophosphorylation results in the formation of

  1. ATP
  2. NADPH
  3. ATP and NADPH
  4. ATP, NADPH, and O2

Answer: 1. ATP

Question 181. PGA as the first CO2 fixation product was discovered in the photosynthesis of

  1. Angiosperm
  2. Alga
  3. Bryophyte
  4. Gymnosperm

Answer: 2. Alga

Question 182. C4 plants are more efficient in photosynthesis than C3 plants due to

  1. Presence of thin cuticle
  2. Lower rate of photorespiration
  3. Higher leaf area
  4. The presence of larger number of chloroplasts in the leaf cells

Answer: 2. Lower rate of photorespiration

Question 183. Kranz anatomy is one of the characteristics of the leaves of

  1. What
  2. Sugarcane
  3. Mustard
  4. Potato

Answer: 2. Sugarcane

Question 184. Study the pathway given. In which of the following options, correct words for all the three blanks A, B, and C are indicated?

NEET Biology Photosynthesis In Higher Plants Pathway

NEET Biology Photosynthesis In Higher Plants Pathways 1

Answer: 2

Question 185. Read the following four statements, A, B, C, and D, and select the right option having both correct statements

  1. Z scheme of light reaction takes place in the presence of PS-1 only.
  2. Only PS-1 is functional in cyclic photophosphorylation.
  3. Cyclic photophosphorylation results in the synthesis of ATP and NADPH2.
  4. Stroma lamellae lack PS-2 as well as NADP.
  1. A and B
  2. B and C
  3. C and D
  4. B and D

Answer: 4. B and D

Question 186. A process that makes an important difference between C3 and C4 plants is

  1. Glycolysis
  2. Photosynthesis
  3. Photorespiration
  4. Transpiration

Answer: 3. Photorespiration

Question 187. Which one of the following organisms is correctly matched with its three characteristics?

  1. Pea: C3 pathway, Endospermic seed, Vexillary aestivation
  2. Tomato: Twisted aestivation, Axile placentation, Berry
  3. Onion: Bulb, Imbricate aestivation, Axile placentation
  4. Maize: C3 pathway, Closed vascular bundles, Scutellum

Answer: 3. Onion: Bulb, Imbricate aestivation, Axile placentation

NEET Biology Notes – Photosynthesis In Higher Plants

Photosynthesis In Higher Plants

Photosynthesis: Photosynthesis (photo = light, synthesis = putting together) is the process of the formation of simple sugars by green plants, some bacteria, and some protistans from water, soil, or from carbon dioxide in the air in the presence of sunlight and chlorophyll.

  • By the process of photosynthesis, solar energy is trapped by autotrophic organisms and stored in the form of chemical energy. Annually, about 75 x 1012 kg of carbon (in the form of CO2) is fixed through photosynthesis, producing about 1700 million tonnes of dry matter.
  • About 90% of it is carried out in the oceans (largely by phytoplanktons and algae). Only 0.2% of the light energy falling on earth is utilized by photosynthetic organisms. Photosynthesis first appeared in cyanobacteria.

Contributions By Some Scientists

Joseph Priestley: Vegetation purifies (dephlogiston) air.

Jan Ingen-Housz: Discovered photosynthesis.

Lavoisier: Phlogiston is CO2 and dephlogiston is O2.

de Saussure: H2O is involved in photosynthesis, CO2 is used and O2 is evolved.

Dutrochet: The established connection between chlorophyll and photosynthesis.

Ruben, Kamen: Using O18 (H2O), he found that O2 involved in the photosynthesis comes from H2O (in Chlorella).

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Photosynthetic Pigments

The two types of photosynthetic pigments present in higher plants are chlorophyll (discovered by Pelletier and Caventau) and carotenoids.

Chlorophyll: Chlorophylls are specialized lipid molecules embedded in the thylakoid membrane. They are the main pigment concerned with the harvesting or trapping of solar energy. Amoff and Allen (1966) recognized nine types of chlorophyll:

  1. Chlorophyll-a,
  2. Chlorophyll-b,
  3. Chlorophyll-c,
  4. Chlorophyll-d,
  5. Chlorophyll-e,
  6. Bacteriochiorophyll-a,
  7. Bacteriochlorophyll-b,
  8. Chlorobium chlorophyll-650, and
  9. Chlorobium chlorophyll-666.

Out of these, the two important types of chlorophyll found in green plants are chlorophyll-a and chlorophyll-b.

Chlorophyll-a: universal pigment found in all green plants (C55H72O5N4Mg).

Chlorophyll-b: found in green algae and higher plants (C55H70O6N4Mg).

Chlorophyll-c: found in diatoms, dinoflagellates, and brown algae (C55H32O5N4Mg).

Chlorophyll-d: found in red algae.

The chlorophyll molecule is asymmetrical and consists of two parts:

  1. Porphyrin head (15 x 15 Å; hydrophilic)
  2. Phylol fail (20 Å; hydrophobic)

The porphyrin ring is a Mat. square structure containing four smaller pyrrole rings (tetrapyrrole) with a magnesium atom at the center. The porphyrin ring has several side groups which alter the properties of the pigment. In chlorophyll-a, there is a -CH3 (methyl) group, while in chlorophyll-b, it is replaced by – CHO (aldehyde) group.

An isocyclic cyclopentanone ring is also attached to the third pyrrole group. The head is joined to a long hydrocarbon tail (phylol). Phylol esterification is absent in chlorophyll-c.

NEET Biology Photosynthesis In Higher Plants Structure Of Chlorophyll-a

Chloiophyll-a is the most abundant photosynthetic pigment It is the only pigment found in all photosynthetic plants Chlorophylls absorb light near both ends of the visible spectrum, the blue and red light, and transmit or reflect green light, Therefore, these appear to be green in color.

Chlorophylls are synthesized from the precursor protochlorophyll. Its synthesis starts from glycine and succinyl CoA.

Fluorescence: Isolated chlorophyll-a when dissolved in organic solvents and exposed to light emits red color immediately. It is called fluorescence. It is, in fact, a manifestation of loss of light energy absorbed in excess. Actually, when the absorbed energy is not utilized for a purpose (phosphorylation), it is emitted as radiations of longer wavelength in green plants. Of course, this is utilized to synthesize chemical energy (ATP).

Carotenoids: Carotenoids arc yellow to orange pigments and are specialized lipids that absorb light strongly in the blue-violet range. These are called shield pigments as they protect chlorophyll from photo-oxidation (photobleaching) by the light of high intensity and also from oxygen produced during photosynthesis. These absorb light and transfer it to chlorophyll for use in pho¬tosynthesis, and therefore, function as a light-harvesting complex. Carotenoids are of two types:

  1. Carotenes (C40H56) are orange in color and xanthophylls are yellow in color. Carotenes are hydrocarbons, most of them being tetraterpenes, for example, lycopene
  2. Xanthophylls (C40H56O2) are very similar to carotenes but contain oxygen, for example, violaxanthin, and fucoxanthin.

Phycobilins: Phycobilins are proteinaceous pigments found in phycobilisomes. They are soluble in hot water and do not contain magnesium and tail. They are generally of two types: phycocyanin (for example, blue-green algae) and phycoerythrin (for example, red algae). These pigments are accessory pigments and also help in chromatic adaptation (Gaidukov phenomenon).

Quantasome: Park and Biggins (1964) loaned the term quantasome for a group of pigment molecules required for carrying out a photochemical reaction. These are situated as small units on the membranes of thylakoids. Each quantasome consists of about 230 chlorophyll molecules, carotenoids, quinone compounds, sulpholipids, phospholipids, proteins, etc.

Absorption And Action Spectra

Different plant pigments absorb only certain wavelengths of light and these wavelengths are not absorbed at the same rate. A curve obtained by plotting the amount of absorption to different wavelengths of light by a particular pigment is called an absorption spectrum.

An action spectrum is a curve showing the effectiveness of different wavelengths of light in stimulating the process being investigated. The effectiveness of different wavelengths of light on photosynthesis is measured and plotted by quantum yield or amount of action (expressed through CO2 reduction, O2 evolution, etc.)

NEET Biology Photosynthesis In Higher Plants Graph Of Absorption Spectra Of Chlorophyll-a And Chlorophyll-b And Carotenes

Hill Reaction: Hill working on Stellana media demonstrated that the evolution of O2 occurs from illuminated chloroplast in the presence of hydrogen or electron acceptors but in the absence of CO2, it produces assimilatory power for use in CO2 assimilation. Hill reaction is now considered to be equivalent to light reaction. Hill oxidants are hydrogen acceptors. The common ones are ferricyanide, benzoquinone, dichlorophenol indophenol, NADP+ (natural H+ acceptor in photosynthesis).

Quantum Yield: It is the number of O2 produced per quantum of light absorbed. It represents the rate of photosynthesis.

Quantum Requirement: It is the number of light quanta needed for the production of one O2 molecule or reduction of one O2 molecule.

Red Drop: Emerson measured quantum yield in Chlorella by exposing it to different monochromatic light. The yield was almost constant in all wavelengths but dropped suddenly in red light. It is called red drop.

Enhancement Effect: Emerson worked on chlorella and gave the concept of two photosystems. When Emerson and other scientists provided monochromatic light, then quantum yield suddenly dropped down (called red drop). When Emerson gave combined light, then photosynthesis increased. This is called the Emerson enhancement effect.

  1. 680 nm ↑: Red drop effect
  2. 680 nm ↓ + 680 nm ↑: Emerson effect

Thus, both lights had a synergistic effect, i.e., one helped the other. It leads to the conclusion that two groups of pigments, one absorbing in the lower range and the other absorbing in the higher range of wavelengths, are involved in photosynthesis and are called pigment systems.

Pigment Systems

It is a group of 250-100 pigment molecules having chlorophyll- a, chlorophyll-b, carotenoids, etc. One molecule of chlorophyll-a functions as a reaction center or trapping center and the other acts as a light-harvesting complex (LHC) or antenna molecule. These antenna molecules collect light energy and transfer this energy (by inductive resonance process) to the reaction center where the primary photochemical act occurs (quantum conversion), i.e., absorption of a photon and release of an electron.

NEET Biology Photosynthesis In Higher Plants Pigment System

Differences Between Pigment Systems 1 And 2

NEET Biology Photosynthesis In Higher Plants Differences Between Pigment System 1 And Pigment System 2

NEET Biology Photosynthesis In Higher Plants Pigment System 1 And Pigment System 2

Photolysis Of H2O

The photolysis of water occurs in the lumen of the thylakoid and requires minerals Mn+, CI, Ca+2, and an oxygen-evolving complex (OEC).

2H2O → 4H+ + 4e + O2

Released electrons are attracted toward reduced reaction center P680 of PS-2, while H+ accumulates in the lumen and finally reduces NADP.

Mechanism Of Photosynthesis

Photosynthesis occurs In Two Phases:

  1. Light Reaction: Solar energy is trapped by chlorophyll and is stored in the form of chemical energy (ATP) and as reducing power (NADPH).
  2. Bark Reaction: Reducing capacity or NADPH and the energy of ATP are utilized in the conversion of CO2 to carbohydrates.

Warburg and others, using reaction inhibitors, proved that light and dark reactions occur independently.

1. Light Reaction: Emerson and Arnold (1932) subjected unicellular algae, Chlorella, to brief flashes of light or continued light at high intensities and observed O2 evolution The extent of photosynthesis (per unit of light energy provided to plant) was higher when light and dark periods were alternated (photosynthetic efficiency increases in intermittent light).

  • It showed that the process of photosynthesis consisted of distinct light and dark reactions (the products of the light phase are not utilized immediately in the dark phase, so photosynthetic efficiency decreases in continuous saturating light).
  • During Photosynthesis, 264 g of CO2 and 216 g of water are utilized to produce 108 g of water and 192 g of O2.

Redox Potential: It is the tendency of an atom/molecule having low redox potential to lose electrons (electron donors) while those with high redox potential to accept electrons (gain electrons). Hence, electrons move from substances having low redox potentials to those having high redox potentials.

Assimilatory Power: NADPH + H+ and ATP produced in light reaction constitute assimilatory power.

Photophosphorylation: The generation of ATP in light reaction is called photophosphorylation. It was first explained by P. Mitchell who gave chemiosmotic theory. As a result of photolysis and quinone pump, H+ concentration in the thylakoid lumen increases by 1000-2000 times, and as a result, a proton motive force develops. This force is responsible for ATP synthesis on the head of CF0-CF1 a particle plugged into the thylakoid membrane.

Difference Between Photophosphorylation

NEET Biology Photosynthesis In Higher Plants Difference Between Cyclic And Non Cyclic Photophosphorylation

NEET Biology Photosynthesis In Higher Plants Cyclic And Non Cyclic Photophosphorylation In Thylakoid Membrane

2. Dark Reaction (C3 Cycle, Calvin Cycle): The biosynthetic phase (dark reaction) is so-called because it is independent of light. The ATP and NADPH produced by the light reactions are utilized in the dark reaction to reduce carbon dioxide to carbohydrates by a process called carbon fixation. It occurs in the stroma. The process comprises a series of reactions controlled by enzymes. The sequence of these reactions was determined in Chlorella and Scenedesmus by Calvin, Benson, and

Bassham uses radioactive carbon 14C and techniques such as chromatography and autoradiography. Therefore, it is also known as the Calvin cycle or Calvin Benson cycle. The enzyme for CO2 fixation is RuBisCo. It is a large enzyme found in stroma. It is the most abundant protein on earth and constitutes 16% of the chloroplastic protein. It shows a bifunctional nature having both carboxylase and oxygenase activity. The dark reaction is also known as the black reaction. The whole reaction can be studied in three parts

NEET Biology Photosynthesis In Higher Plants Dark Reaction C3 Cycle And Melvin Calvin Cycle

  1. Carboxylation (acceptance of CO2 by RuBP—CO2 acceptor)
  2. Glycolytic reversal
  3. Regeneration of RuBP

The formation of a molecule of glucose requires 18 ATPs and 12 NADPH + H+ (or to reduce 60O2).

Photorespiration

Since 1920, it has been known that higher concentrations of oxygen inhibit photosynthesis (Warburg effect). However, the reason was discovered in 1971. It was shown that RuBP carboxylase (RuBisCo) accepts not only CO2 but also oxygen as a substrate. If oxygen is accepted, the following reaction occurs:

NEET Biology Photosynthesis In Higher Plants Photorespiration Formula

Oxygen is a competitive inhibitor of CO2 fixation. Any increase in O2 concentration would favor the uptake of oxygen rather than CO2, and thus inhibit photosynthesis.

  • The phosphoglycolate is immediately converted to glycolate. The peroxisomes present in the cell metabolize the glycolate into glycine and glycine into seine and carbon dioxide without the production of ATP or NADPH. This process is called photorespiration. Photorespiration is defined as a light-dependent uptake of oxygen and the output of carbon dioxide.
  • Photorespiration has no relation with normal respiration called dark respiration. Both of these resemble only in one point, i.e., O2 is used and CO2 is released. Photorespiration depends upon light for the supply of RuBP. RuBP is available only when photosynthesis is operating, as RuBP is regenerated in the Calvin cycle.
  • The function of photorespiration is to recover some of the carbon from the excess glycolate. However, there is a wasteful loss of carbon as CO2 (when glycine is oxidized to serine) and energy. Although ATP is produced when glycine is oxidized to serine, the overall process is energy-consuming. Up to one-fourth of the photosynthetically fixed CO2 may be lost by photorespiration.

With the increase in temperature, light intensity, and oxygen concentration, the affinity of RuBisCo for CO2 decreases, and its affinity for oxygen increases. Thus, a rise in the temperature means more loss of photosynthetically fixed carbon by photorespiration. Photorespiration reduces the potential yield of plants growing in the tropics by 30-40%.

NEET Biology Photosynthesis In Higher Plants Photo Respiration Process

Differences Between Normal Respiration And Photorespiration

NEET Biology Photosynthesis In Higher Plants Differences Between Normal Respiration And Photorespiration

Dicarboxylic Acid Cycle (Cooperative photosynthesis)

H.P. Kortschak and C.E. Hartt (1965) found that in sugarcane (a tropical plant), leaves removed CO2 more efficiently from the atmosphere, and the first products of photosynthesis were acids containing four-carbon acids (for example, malic, oxaloacetate, and aspartic), rather than the 3C acid PGA.

Since then, the same has been found true for many important tropical plants including monocots (such as maize, Sorghum, and Eleusine) as well as dicots (such as Amaranthus and Euphorbia sp.). These plants are called C4 plants. On the other hand, the plants in which the first product for photosynthesis is O3 acid PGA are called C3 plants. Calvin cycle, in fact, is a C3 pathway.

NEET Biology Photosynthesis In Higher Plants Photosynthetic Reactions Taking Place In The Mesophyll And Bundle Sheath Cells

In 1966, two Australian scientists, Hatch and Slack, showed that C4 plants were much more efficient in CO2 utilization than C3 plants. Such plants do not show photorespiration. In 1967, Hatch and Slack explained the manner of CO2 fixation and reduction in such plants. The new carbon pathway in C4 plants is called the Hatch-Slack pathway.

  • The C4 plants possess a characteristic leaf anatomy. Their vascular bundles are surrounded by two rings of cells. The inner ring, called bundle sheath cells, contains starch-rich chloroplasts lacking grana which differ from those in the mesophyll cells that make the outer ring.
  • The chloroplasts in these plants are, therefore, called dimorphic. This peculiar anatomy is called kranz anatomy because kranz means crown or halo, which refers to two distinct rings of cells. Correlation between Kranz anatomy and C4 photosynthesis was established by Dowton and Treguna.

Since every CO2 molecule has to be fixed twice, hence C4 pathway is more energy-consuming than the C3 pathway. The C pathway requires 18 ATP and 12 NADPH2, for the synthesis of one molecule of glucose.

On the other hand, the C4 pathway requires 30 ATP and 12 NADPH2. However since otherwise tropical plants lose more than one-fourth of the photosynthetic carbon in photorespiration, the C4 pathway is an adaptive mechanism for minimizing the loss.

Cam Cycle (In Succulent Plants)

The leaves of plants belonging to the Crassulaceae family. for example. certain cacti, orchids, pineapple, Kahuwhoe, and Scdum undergo crassulacean acid metabolism and such plants are called Crassulacean acid metabolism (CAM) plants.

  1. All CAM plants are succulent inhabit. As such, stomata remain open in night and closed during the day (scotoactive stomata).
  2. CO2 is fixed during the night (dark) to malic acid via PEP carboxylase. This CO2 comes from respiration (breakdown of starch) as well as from the atmosphere. Malic acid gets stored in vacuoles.
  3. The CAM plants also contain the enzyme of the Calvin cycle. Thus, during the daytime, malic acid breaks into pyruvate and CO2. While CO2 enters the Calvin cycle, pyruvate is used up to regenerate PEP.
  4. The succulents, therefore, synthesize plenty of organic acids from CO2 during the night (when stomata are open) and plenty of carbohydrates during the day (when stomata are closed).
  5. Like the Calvin cycle, the CAM cycle also operates in the mesophyll cell. None of these have shown chloroplast dimorphism as is found in C4 plants.
  6. It should be remembered that the slow-growing desert succulents exhibiting the CAM cycle have the slowest photosynthetic rate, while the species possessing C4 pathway possess the highest rates. Thus, CAM plants are although not as efficient as C4 plants, they are definitely better suited to adverse conditions (i.e., conditions of extreme dissipation).

NEET Biology Photosynthesis In Higher Plants Schematic Representation Of Acidification In Dark And Deacidification In Light

Blackman (1905) proposed the law of limiting factor which states that “when a biological process is conditioned as to its rapidity by a number of separate factors, the role of the process is limited by the pace of the slowest factor.”

Factors Affecting Photosynthesis

Photosynthesis is regulated by many factors.

Light: Light is the most important factor for photosynthesis because it is used as a source of energy. Normally, plants utilize sunlight, but marine algae also use moonlight. Photosynthesis even occurs in electric light.

  1. Quality Of Light: Photosynthesis occurs in the visible part of the spectrum. Photosynthesis is maximum in polychromatic light or white light.
  2. Intensity Of Light: Only 1-4% of light is utilized in photosynthesis. In general, the rate of photosynthesis is higher in intense light than in diffused light. (Upto 10% light is utilized in sugar cane, i.e., the most efficient converter). For a complete plant, the rate of photosynthesis increases with an increase in light intensity, except for very high light intensity where the “solarization” phenomenon occurs, i.e., photo-oxidation of different cellular components including chlorophyll occurs.

CO2: The normal concentration of CO2 in the atmosphere is 360 ppm. By increasing CO2 concentration 15-20 times, the rate of photosynthesis increases, but after that it decreases. C4 plants show saturation at about 360 ppm.

Temperature: Generally photosynthesis is inhibited at 0°C, but some conifers even photosynthesize up to 35°C. Opuntia photosynthesizes up to 55°C. The Q10 value for photosynthesis is 2 up to about 40°C, and above it, the denaturation of enzymes begins, and hence, the rate of photosynthesis decreases.

H2O: As less than 1% of the total water absorbed by the plant is utilized in photosynthesis, so water rarely acts as a limiting factor. In water-deficient conditions, photosynthesis is found to be decreased.

Chlorophyll Content: I fall other factors are favorable, an increase in chlorophyll leads to an increase in photosynthesis.

Accumulation Of End Products: It results in a decrease in the rate of photosynthesis.

Photosynthesis In Higher Plants Points To Remember

Photosynthesis is an anabolic endergonic, oxidation-reduction process.

  • PAR (photosynthetically active radiation) is the wavelength included in the range 400-700 nm.
  • Destruction of chlorophyll due to high light intensity is called solarization.
  • The most common limiting factor for photosynthesis is CO2.

Light Compensation Point: The light intensity at which the rate of photosynthesis is equal to the rate of respiration (in the morning and evening).

  • DCMU (dichlorophenyl dimethyl urea)—a herbicide—inhibits PS-2 and oxygen release in the light phase.
  • In C3 plants, more CO2 is released in light than in dark due to photorespiration.
  • The yield of C3 plants is increased by increasing CO2 in the atmosphere but not in C4 plants.
  • Chlorophyll-b absorbs more of a red wavelength than chlorophyll-a.
  • Chloride ions stimulate the quick release of electrons from water.
  • Phaeophytin is chlorophyll-a without Mg++.
  • The size of quant some is about 180 x 155 x 100 Å
  • In C4 plants, the bundle sheath cells possess chloroplasts without grana.
  • Atriplex hastata show’s Calvin cycle whereas A triplex roseus shows the Hatch-Slack cycle.
  • The reaction center in bacteria is B-890 and the reducing agent is NADH2.
  • In bacterial photosynthesis, the type of photosynthesis is anoxygenic and cyclic.

CO2 Compensation Point: The CO2 concentration at which the rate of photosynthesis is equal to the rate of respiration.

For C3 plants → 50-100 ppm

For C4 plants → 0-10 ppm

 

Photosynthesis In Higher Plants Assertion Reasoning Type Question And Answers

In the following questions, an Assertion (A) is followed by a corresponding Reason (R). Mark the correct answer.

  1. If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
  2. If both Assertion and Reason are true, but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
  3. If Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
  4. If both Assertion and Reason are false.

Question 1. Assertion: In C4 plants, the chloroplasts of bundle sheath cells are granular.

Reason: PS-2 is mostly found in the appressed part of granum.

Answer: 4. If both Assertion and Reason are false.

Question 2. Assertion: Dark reactions of photosynthesis are temperature-controlled processes.

Reason: Most of the reactions are enzymatic in nature.

Answer: 1. If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.

Question 3. Assertion: Dark acidification of cytoplasm occurs in CAM plants.

Reason: Organic acids are decarboxylated during the night.

Answer: 3. If Assertion is true, but Reason is false.

Question 4. Assertion: Assimilatory power in photosynthesis is generated in ETS occurring in 23 thylakoid membranes.

Reason: They are needed for CO reduction.

Answer: 2. If both Assertion and Reason are true, but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.

Question 5. Assertion: Light-harvesting complexes (LHC) on thylakoid membranes broaden the range of light absorption.

Reason: They transfer electrons to the reaction center.

Answer: 3. If Assertion is true, but Reason is false.

NEET Biology Notes – Transport In Plant

Transport In Plant

Importance Of Water

Water is one of the most important constituents of the protoplasm. It makes up 80-90% of the fresh weight of most herbaceous plants and over 50% of the fresh weight of woody plants. It acts as a solvent in which the oases, minerals, and other solutes enter the plant cells and move from cell to cell and from organ to organ.

  • Water is a reactant or reagent in many important processes such as the hydrolysis of starch to sugar. Water maintains turgidity which is essential for cell enlargement, growth, and maintaining the form of herbaceous plants.
  • Turgor is also important in the opening and closing of stomata, movement of leaves, flower petals, and various specialized plant structures. Water is also needed for the hydration of protoplasm, in the mobility of gametes, dehiscence, etc.

Diffusion: Diffusion is the movement of particles (or molecules or ions) of a substance from a region of its higher concentration to the region of lower concentration down the concentration gradient until the molecules are evenly distributed throughout the available space.

The rate and direction of a diffusing substance depend upon the concentration of that substance at different spots and is independent of the presence of other diffusing substances. The rate of diffusion is affected by many factors, for example,

Rate ∝ Temperature

NEET Biology Transport In Plant Diffusion Formula

Diffusion Pressure (DP): It is the pressure exerted by a substance due to the tendency of its particles to diffuse. It is also defined as the potential ability of a molecule or ion to diffuse. It is directly proportional to the diffusing particles.

DP ∝ Concentration

DP ∝ Temperature

The DP of pure water is maximum.

Facilitated Diffusion: Particles that are lipid soluble can easily pass directly through the cell membrane as it is mainly made of it. The hydrophilic solutes find it difficult to pass through the membrane. Their movement has to be facilitated. For this, the membranes possess aquaporins and ion channels.

NEET Biology Transport In Plant Facilitated Diffusion

Some carrier proteins allow transport only if two types of molecules move together. This is called cotransport. It is of two types. In the symport method of cotransport, both molecules cross the membrane in the same direction at the same time. In the antiport method of cotransport, both molecules move in opposite directions. When a molecule moves across a membrane independent of another molecule, the process is called uniport.

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NEET Biology Transport In Plant Types Of Transport Of Carrier Proteins

Osmosis (Diffusion Through Membrane)

Osmosis may be defined as “the passage of solvent molecules from a region of their higher concentration to a region of their lower concentration through a semipermeable membrane.” In all biological systems, the solvent is water.

Types Of Membranes

  • Permeable Membranes: Such membranes allow diffusion of both solvent and solute molecules or ions through them, for example, the cellulose wall of cells. Lignified cell walls are also quite freely permeable to water.
  • Impermeable Membranes: Such membranes prohibit the diffusion of both solvent and solute particles through them, for example, heavily cutinized or suberized cell walls in plants.
  • Semipermeable Membranes: Such membranes allow the diffusion of solvent molecules but do not allow the passage of solute molecules. Such membranes form a perfect partition between two osmometers, for example, membranes of collodion, parchment paper, and copper ferrocyanide membranes.

NEET Biology Transport In Plant Osmosis Types Of Membrances

Differentially Permeable Membranes: However, all membranes found in plants allow some solutes to pass through them along with the solvent molecules. Such membranes are called differentially permeable membranes, for example, all biological membranes.

Osmotic Pressure

Osmotic pressure (OP) is the “maximum pressure which develops in a solution when it is separated from pure water by a semipermeable membrane.” It is also defined as “the pressure needed to prevent the passage of pure water into an aqueous solution through a semipermeable membrane thereby preventing an increase in the volume of the solution”.

NEET Biology Transport In Plant Osmotic Pressure

The osmotic pressure depends upon

  1. The concentration of solute particles,
  2. Ionization of solute particles,
  3. Hydration of solute particles, and
  4. Temperature.

An increase in the concentration of solutes in the solution increases the osmotic pressure. If the solute ionizes in the solution, the number of particles increases, thus raising the osmotic pressure. If the solute molecules are hydrated, the water molecules bound with the solute will be unable to diffuse and hence increase the osmotic pressure.

  • An increase in the temperature raises the osmotic pressure of the solution.
  • Plant cells exhibit a considerable range of variations in osmotic pressure. In land plants, it varies from 5 to 30 atm.
  • In aquatic plants, it varies from 1 to 3 atm. Plants of arid regions possess high osmotic pressure. The highest osmotic pressure is recorded in the halophytic plant, Atriplex confertifolia, i.e., 202.5 atm.
  • The osmotic pressure of an electrolyte is two to three times greater than a non-electrolyte.
  • Osmotic pressure can be calculated by OP = miRT where m is the molar concentration, i is the ionization constant, R is the gas constant, and T is the temperature (273 °C) (π). Osmotic pressure is numerically equal to osmotic/solute potential (ψs) but has a positive value ψs = π.

Measurement Of Osmotic Pressure: The methods for measuring osmotic pressure are

  1. Plasmolytic method by de Vries
  2. Pleffer osmometer
  3. Berkeley/Hartley osmometer
  4. Cryoscopic osmometer

Turgidity And Turgor Pressure

If a plant cell is placed in a hypotonic solution or pure water (i.e., a solution of higher water potential), the water starts moving into the cell by osmosis. As the volume of the protoplast increases, it begins to exert pressure against the cell wall and thus stretches it.

  • The pressure exerted by the protoplast against the cell wall is called turgor pressure (TP). The cell wall, being rigid, exerts an equal and opposite pressure on the protoplast, which is called wall pressure (WP).
  • The two pressures are equal and opposite in direction. As the turgor pressure of the cell increases, the cell becomes turgid. However, a stage is reached when osmotic pressure is exactly balanced by turgor pressure.
  • At this point, the amount of water leaving the cell equals that entering the cell. Hence, there is no further net movement of water and the cell is said to be in equilibrium with the exterior solution.

Diffusion Pressure Deficit (Suction Pressure)

The diffusion pressure of a pure solvent is maximum. The addition of solutes results in a decrease in the diffusion pressure. This deficit is termed diffusion pressure deficit (DPD). The greater the concentration of a solution, the greater is its DPD.

  • Such a solution will tend to take up water and become normal; therefore, water moves from low DPD to high DPD. The value of DPD for a cell is always positive. DPD for a cell is always positive and is calculated as (QP – TP).
  • DPD is an index of the water-absorbing capacity of cell. In a flaccid cell, TP = 0. Therefore, DPD = OP.
  • In a turgid cell, the entry of water into the cell causes the development of TP. At a point, TP = OP. Therefore, DPD = 0. Therefore, in a fully turgid cell, there is no net movement of water into the cell.

Chemical Potential

Chemical potential is the free energy of one mole of a particular chemical in a multi-component system. The lamer the chemical potential of a substance, the greater its tendency to undergo a chemical reaction. The chemical potential of water is called water potential and is given the value of zero at prevailing temperature and pressure.

Water Potential

Currently, the term water potential is used by biologists to describe the tendency of water molecules to move from one place to another. It is denoted by the symbol “ψ” (the Greek letter, psi).

Components Of Water Potential: Water potential is the difference in the free energy per unit molal volume of water in the pure state and in a system. For a solution, the value of water potential is always less than zero or negative. Water potential is determined by the following relation

Water Potential (ψ) = Solute potential (ψs) + Pressure potential (ψp)

Solute Potential (ψs): Also called osmotic potential, it is defined as the amount by which Tyr is reduced as a result of the addition of solute. It is always negative.

Pressure Potential (ψp): It is equal to TP and is positive except in plasmolyzed cell and in xylem vessels where it is negative. In terms of water potential, osmosis can be redefined as “the movement of water molecules from a region of higher water potential to the region of lower water potential through a differentially permeable membrane.”

Water potential may be regarded as the tendency of water to leave a system. The more the water potential, the greater is the tendency to leave. If two systems are in contact, water moves from the system with higher water potential to that with lower water potential or less negative ψw to more negative ψw.

Importance Of Osmosis: Osmosis is involved in

  1. Water absorption by roots
  2. Maintenance of turgidity
  3. Turgor movements in Mimosa and Desmodium.
  4. Stomatal movement
  5. Self-dispersal of fruits (autochory)
  6. Drought and frost resistance

Plasmolysis

When a cell is placed in a hypertonic solution, exosmosis occurs. Due to the loss of water to the external solution, TP of the cell decreases, hence the cell shape slightly changes. This stage is called limiting plasmolysis.

  • If the cell continues to be in a hypertonic solution, more and more water is lost, therefore protoplast starts shrinking. It first leaves the comers of the cell and this stage is called as incipient plasmolysis.
  • If more water is lost, the protoplast shrinks but remains in contact with the wall in one or two places. The space between the cell wall and the protoplast is occupied by the outer solution. This stage is called evident plasmolysis. The turgor pressure of a cell at limiting plasmolysis is equal to zero, whereas at incipient plasmolysis and evident plasmolysis, TP of the cell is negative.

Imbibition

The adsorption as well as absorption of a liquid by a solid without forming a solution is called as imbibition. The solid sub¬stance is called imbibing, whereas liquid is called as imbibe. The liquid particles are held in between the particles of solid by adsorption and capillarity.

The phenomenon depends upon the affinity of imbibant to imbibe. As a result of imbibition, the following events occur

Volume Change: The volume of the system increases, i.e., swelling. The total volume of water imbibed, plus the imbibing material is less after imbibition than before.

Heat Release: This is due to the compact arrangement of water molecules which liberate some of their kinetic energy.

Development Of Pressure: If the imbibing is confined, pressure may be developed. For example, in dry pea seeds, it is 1000 bars.

Imbibants present in plants are generally hydrophilic in nature. Among plant imbibing, hydrocolloids (for example, agar-agar, etc.) are the best imbibing followed by proteins, starch, and cellulose. Imbibition is affected by a number of factors such as temperature, pressure, etc., against the imbibing surface, the texture of imbibing, electrolytes, and pH.

Hypotonic Hypertonic And Isotonic Solutions

A solution with a higher concentration of solutes is said to be the hypertonic solution. A lower concentration of solutes in a solution is called a hypotonic solution, and two solutions having the same concentration of solutes are called isotonic solutions.

NEET Biology Transport In Plant Hypertonic And Hypotonic Solutions

If a cell is placed in pure water or hypotonic solution, there is a net movement of water into the cell (endosmosis); if it is placed in a hypertonic solution, there is a net movement of water from the cell outwards (exosmosis); if the cell is placed in an isotonic solution, the amount of water leaving the cell equals that entering the cell and therefore, there is no net movement of water.

NEET Biology Transport In Plant Effect Of Isotonic Solution Hypertonic Solution And Hypotonic Solution

Classification Of Soil Moisture

The amount of water that can be held by soil depends upon the total pore space in the SCA. Water is present in the spaces between the soil. Various types of groundwater are

Run-off Water: Water that flows along the surface of the soil and reaches to the nearest water body constitutes run-off water. This water is not available to the plants.

Gravitational Water: Water that percolates down through the soil macropores (50 piM diameter) under the influence of gravity and reaches to the water table is called gravitational water. This type of water is also not available to the plants.

Capillary Water: Water retained by soil micropores (20 pm diameter) in the form of fine capillaries constitutes capillary water. This type of water is available to the plants.

Hygroscopic Water: Water held in the form of a very thin film around the soil particles due to adsorption constitutes hygroscopic water. This type of water is not available to the plant.

Chemically Combined Water: Water that combines with inorganic salts of the soil in the form of water of hydration constitutes chemically combined water. This type of water is also not available to the plants.

Water Vapors: They are present in soil air spaces. Normally, they are not available to the plants. Under certain conditions, they are useful in the phenomenon of night recovery.

Absorption Of Water And Pathway Of Water Across The Root

Water is mainly absorbed by the root hair zone. Root hairs are tubular elongations of the external wall of epiblema cells. They range in length from less than a millimeter to about a centimeter and are usually 10 pm in diameter. They have a vacuole filled with salt, sugars, and organic acid.

Hence, the osmotic pressure of the root hair cell is high (approx. 3-8 atm) as compared to that of soil sap (approx, less than 1 atm). The movement of water from the root hair cell to the xylem may occur by two methods.

  1. Apoplast Pathway: In this method, water passes from the root hair cell to the xylem through the walls of intervening cells without crossing any membrane or cytoplasm. The apoplastic movement of water beyond the cortex is blocked due to the presence of Casparian strips in the endodermal cells. The major movement of water through cortical cells occurs by this method, as cortical cells offer the least resistance.
  2. Symplast Pathway: In this method, water passes from cell to cell by crossing the plasma membrane. Therefore, it is also known as a transmembrane pathway. This may occur by two methods
    • Non-Vacuolar Symplast Pathway: In this method, water passes between adjacent cells through plasmodesmata. It does not enter into the vacuoles.
    • Vacuolar Symplast Pathway: In this method, water crosses the tonoplast surrounding the vacuole. This pathway offers a lot of resistance. Beyond the cortex through the endodermis and pericycle water is forced to move through the symplast pathway.

NEET Biology Transport In Plant Apoplastic And Symplastic Pathways

NEET Biology Transport In Plant Three Pathways Of Water Movement

Mechanism Of Water Absorption: Water is mainly absorbed by two different mechanisms

  1. Passive (water is absorbed through roots)
  2. Active (water is absorbed by roots)

Water absorption by rapidly transpiring plants is called passive absorption because forces responsible for water uptake develop in shoots and is transmitted to roots through which water enters. Active absorption depends on forces developing in roots and is found in low-transpiring plants. The table describes the differences between passive and active absorption

Difference Between Passive Absorption And Active Absorption

NEET Biology Transport In Plant Differences Between Passive Absorption And Active Absorption

Factors Affecting Water Absorption: The rate of water absorption decreases with

  1. Increased salt concentration in soil
  2. Decreased soil temperature
  3. Decreased soil aeration (O2)
  4. Decreased soil moisture

Ascent Of Sap: The water absorbed by roots has to be conducted upwards so as to meet the needs of tissues there. This vertical conduction of water from the root to aerial parts of the plant is called the ascent of water or ascent of sap. Various theories explaining the ascent of sap have been put under three categories

  1. Vital Force Theories: These theories explain the ascent of sap by the force developing in living cells.
    • Relay Pump Theory Or Clambering Theory (By Godlewski): According to it, water rises in the stem by the rhythmic changes in osmotic pressure of the xylem parenchyma and medullary rays. The water is relayed in a staircase-like manner to the next higher cell. Now it has been established that water moves through tracheids and vessels. Hence, this theory has been rejected.
    • Pulsation Theory (By J.C. Bose): According to this theory, water rises in the stem due to pulsatory activity in the innermost layer of the cortex. This theory is not accepted nowadays, as neither these pulsations are universal in occurrence nor they are able to explain the magnitude of the ascent of sap.
    • Root Pressure Theory (By Priestley): Due to the movement of water from the soil into the root hairs and from there to xylem cells, hydrostatic pressure develops. This is called root pressure (the term given by Stephan Hales).
      • This pressure pushes the water up in the xylem vessels. The root pressure can be easily observed and measured when a freshly cut stump continues to exude water (bleeding) from its xylem vessels. The development of root pressure is an active process.
      • Stocking has defined root pressure as a pressure developing in tracheary elements of the xylem as a result of the metabolic activity of roots. Root pressure depends upon the active secretion of salts or other solutes into the xylem sap, thereby lowering its osmotic potential.
      • This involves the utilization of metabolically produced energy and is inhibited by respiratory inhibitors such as cyanide, lack of oxygen, and low temperatures. The positive hydrostatic pressure generated by root pressure (maximum 2 atm) is not sufficient to push up water to more than a few meters.
      • It cannot account for water movement up the xylem in tall trees. Also, actively transpiring plants and tall trees, especially conifers, do not generate root pressure. But it is a contributing factor in many plants. It may be sufficient for the transport of water in slowly transpiring herbaceous plants.
  2. Physical Force Theories: According to these theories, some physical force or dead cells are responsible for the ascent of sap.
    • Capillarity Theory (By Boehm): This theory explains the rise of the water column due to the joint force of capillarity and atmospheric pressure, as the xylem vessels have a narrow diameter and act as capillaries. This theory has been rejected as it does not explain the ascent of sap in tall trees because capillary force developed by a narrow vessel of 0.03 mm diameter would support a water column of about 1 m only.
    • Imbibition Theory (By Such): This theory explains the rise of the water column due to the force of imbibition. If it were true, water must rise through the walls of xylem vessels and not through their lumen as it always occurs. Hence, the concept was rejected.
  3. Cohesion-tension Or Transpiration Pull Theory: This is the most widely accepted theory proposed by Dixon and Joley (1894). The main features of the theory are as follows
    • Right from the root hairs to the leaves on top, water forms a continuous column in the plants.
    • Water molecules have high cohesive forces between them, i.e., these tend to stick to each other, because, being polar, they are electrically attracted to each other by hydrogen bonds. The high cohesive force means that a relatively large tension is required to break the water column.
    • In other words, the water column has a great tensile strength. The magnitude is generally 10-30 MPa.
    • The lignin cellulosic cell walls of xylem vessels have a strong affinity (adhesion) for water molecules. Therefore, a strong adhesive force exists between the walls of the xylem vessels and water, i.e., water tends to “stick” to the vessel wall.
    • As the water is lost from the leaf surface by transpiration, the DPD of the leaf cells increases.
    • As a result, the cells develop low water potential and water from the leaf veins (xylem) moves into leaf cells. The xylem vessels, in turn, draw water from the xylem of the main stem. A negative (pulling) pressure is thus exerted by all the leaves on the stem. The combined pressure, called transpiration pun, is strong enough to pull up the column of water to great heights.
    • The whole column of water moves. Water potential as low as -3 MPa or -30 bars has been measured in the leaves borne on tree tops.
    • Such a low water potential is sufficient to create pulling pres-sure which can overcome the gravitational pull and resistance offered by the capillaries of xylem vessels.
  4. Criticism Of Transpiration Pull Theory: The theory assumes tracheids to be more efficient than vessels. Dixon believed that partition walls of the tracheids confer stability on tensile stressed transpiration stream.

Transpiration

Less than 5% of absorbed water is used by plants and the rest is lost in transpiration.

Types Of Transpiration

  • Cuticular: Loss of water vapor from the general surface through the cuticle. Commonly, it is 3-10% of the total but in herbs and ferns it may be up to 50%.
  • Lenticular: Loss of water vapor from lenticels or aerating pores in the bark of trees or fruits, etc. It is hardly 0.1% of the total transpiration.
  • Bark: It is approximately 1% of the total transpiration.
  • Stomatal: Major form of transpiration constituting 50-97% of the total transpiration.

Number And Distribution Of Stomata: In most plants, there are 1000-60000 stomata per square centimeter of leaf surface. The total pore area is approximately 1-2% of the total leaf area. On the basis of their distribution, stomata are divided into the following categories

  • Apple Type (Mulberry Type): Stomata are present only on the lower surface of the leaf, for example, apple.
  • Potato Type: Stomata are present on both surfaces of the leaf but more on the lower surface, for example, potato, pea, tomato, and many other dicot plants.
  • Oat Type: The number of stomata is equal on both surfaces of the leaf, for example, oat and many other monocots.
  • Water Lily Type: The stomata are present only on the upper surface of the leaf, for example, water lily and most floating plants.
  • Potamogeton Type: Stomata arc cither absent or vestigial, for example, Potamogeton.

Structure Of Stomata: Each stoma is surrounded by two specialized cells called guard cells. They have chloroplasts and arc green and are surrounded by two or more specialized epidermal cells called accessory or subsidiary cells. Guard cells are of two types: kidney-shaped and dumbbell-shaped. Dumbbell-shaped guard cells are found in the family Gramineae and Cyperaceae. Kidney-shaped guard cells have an inner thick wall and an outer thin and elastic wall.

Dumbbell-shaped guard cells have thin-walled ends and thick-walled middle regions. The cell wall bordering the stomatal pore is thicker than that of next to the surrounding cells. Lotfield classified stomata as follows on the basis of their daily opening and closing movement

  • Alfalfa Type: Open the whole day, closed in night. For example, pea, radish, mustard, turnip, apple, grapes.
  • Potato Type: Open the whole day and night except for a few hours in the evening. For example, onion, potato, banana.
  • Barley Type: Open only for a few hours in day. For example, maize, wheat, and other cereals.
  • Equisetum Type: Always open.

Mechanism Of Opening And Closing Of Stomata: Stomata function as turgoroperated valves. When the osmotic concentration of guard cells increases, water comes in guard cells becomes turgid and stomata are open. Whenever the osmotic concentration of the guard cell decreases, water moves out, and guard cells become flaccid, and hence become closed. This increase and decrease in osmotic concentration is explained by a number of theories mentioned below.

NEET Biology Transport In Plant Structure Of Stomata

Photosynthetic Theory (von Mohl And Schwendener): This theory proposes that in the morning, as soon as light is available, the chloroplasts of guard cells start photosynthesis. As a result, sugars are produced, which increase the osmotic concentration of guard cells. Water comes in, guard cells become turgid, and stomata open. This theory was not accepted because the photosynthetic activity of guard cell chloroplasts seems to be negligible and sugar does not occur in detectable quantity in guard cells.

Starch ⇔ Sugar Interconversion Hypothesis (Classical Theory): The theory was proposed by Sayre and Scarth and was modified by Steward on the basis of the activity of the phosphorylase enzyme.

NEET Biology Transport In Plant Strach Sugar Interconversion Hypothesis Formula

According to this theory, guard cells contain starch and phosphorylase enzyme, which causes the conversion of starch into glucose at higher pH which is developed by the utilization of CO2 in photosynthesis.

Glucose increases the osmotic concentration of guard cells, raising the turgor pressure and causing the opening of stomata. At night, CO2 accumulates in cell and intercellular spaces, thus lowering the pH at which phosphorylase causes the conversion of glucose to starch. The osmotic concentration of guard cells decreases. Hence, water moves out and, therefore, stomata are closed.

Objections: In some families, starch is absent, for example, onion. Glu¬cose does not appear in detectable quantity in the guard cells of open stomata, rather malic acid accumulates.

Active K+ Ion Uptake Theory (Levitt 1974): According to this theory, the pH of guard cells rises in the day due to the assimilation of CO2 in the photosynthesis and the uptake of H+ ions by chloroplast and mitochondria from cytoplasm. At this higher pH, starch is converted into phosphoenolpyruvate (PEP). PEP combines with CO2 with the help of PEPCase (phosphoenol pyruvate carboxylase) and forms oxaloacetic acid which gets changed into malic acid. Malic acid dissociates into malate and H+ ions.

  • There occurs an efflux of H+ ions and the influx of K+ ions, which forms potassium malate after reacting with malate. Potassium malate is a highly osmotically active substance which is stored in vacuoles. This raises the osmotic concentration of guard cells, water moves in, cells become turgid, and stomata are open. In the night, the process is reversed.
  • The potassium, chloride, and malate ions have a prominent role in stomatal opening. The ions accumulate in the vacuole of guard cells, lowering the water potential and thereby increasing water uptake and subsequently opening the stomata.

NEET Biology Transport In Plant Active K+ Ion Uptake Mechanism

Factors Affecting Transpiration: Blue light induces maximum opening of stomata. Red and blue lights constitute the action spectrum of transpiration.

A rise in the temperature of the leaf increases the vaporization of water within the leaves resulting in a greater DP gradient of vapors, which diffuses out into the air rapidly. The rate of transpiration is generally doubled with about every 10° = C rise in temperature. High CO2 closes stomata and cytokinins open stomata.

  • Wind Speed: If the wind velocity is high, the rate of transpiration is also high.
  • Relative Humidity: If relative humidity is low, there would be a high rate of transpiration and vice versa.
  • Root/shoot Ratio: An increase in the root/shoot ratio causes an increase in the rate of transpiration. Suolt plants have a high root/shoot ratio.
  • Plant Factors: Number and distribution of stomata, number of open stomata, water status of the plants, canopy structure, etc.

Significance Of Transpiration: The following roles have been given in relation to transpiration by different biologists

  • Since plants absorb far more amounts of water than is actually used by plants, transpiration helps in the removal of excess water.
  • Removal of water in the form of vapors has a cooling effect on the leaves. Transpiration, thus, does not allow the leaf temperature to rise to detrimental levels.
  • The transpiration pull created by transpiration is responsible for the ascent of water in tall trees.
  • Passive absorption of water through the roots takes place due to the negative pressure developing in the shoots as a result of transpiration.
  • Development of mechanical tissues, growth of root system, increasing ash and sugar content of fruits, and development of resistance are other beneficial effects of transpiration.
  • Many chemicals (antitranspirants) have been found to reduce the rate of transpiration without affecting CO2 uptake, for example, phenylmercuric acetate (PMA) abscisic acid (ABA), and CO2. Silicon emulsion and low viscosity wax cover stomata as a film, allowing CO2 and O2 but resisting diffusion of water.

Guttation

Plants growing under humid conditions in moist warm soil often exhibit droplets of water along the margins of their leaves. This phenomenon is commonly seen in oats, tomatoes, cucumbers, garden nasturtium, saxifrage, etc. The loss of water in the form of liquid is called guttation.

In moist and humid conditions, the rate of absorption of water greatly exceeds transpiration. The root pressure is built up which pushes the water up in the xylem ducts, from where it comes out on the leaf surface through special structures called hydathodes.

NEET Biology Transport In Plant Guttation Process

Hydathodes are present at the tips of veins in the leaves. A hydathode consists of a pore in the epidermis followed by large intercellular spaces and loosely arranged parenchyma called epithem and blindly ending xylem elements. Guttated water contains inorganic and organic salts and is not pure.

Translocation Of Organic Solutes

Organic solutes such as glucose, and sucrose produced during photosynthesis are translocated through phloem tissue. The transport of photosynthates from the production centers (leaves) to the consumption centers (apices, roots, fruits, tubers) through the phloem is called translocation of organic solutes or long-distance transport. Translocation through phloem occurs in upward, downward, and radial directions from the source (leaves) to the sink (apices, roots, fruits, tubers, etc.)

NEET Biology Transport In Plant Translocation Of Organic Solutions

Chemical analysis of the phloem sap revealed the presence of sugars up to 90%. Sucrose constitutes 5-15% of the total sugars. Other sugars such as raffinose (triose). staehyose (tetrose), and verbascose (pentose) are also present in small quantities.

  • This analysis strongly suggests that the phloem is the tissue concerned with the translocation of organic solutes. Phloem sap may be collected by using sap-sucking aphids.
  • The tracer technique (Rabideau and Bun, 1945) supplied 14CO2 to a leaf during photosynthesis. Sugars synthesized in this leaf were labeled with 14C (tracer). The presence of labeled sugars (radioactivity) in the phloem showed that solutes are translocated through the phloem.

Theories Of Translocation Of Organic Solutes: Protoplasmic Streaming Hypothesis: This theory was proposed by a Dutch botanist, Hugo de Vries, in 18S5 and was supported by C.F. Curtis (1935). According to this theory, the protoplasm of the sieve tubes shows continuous streaming from one end to the other.

  • Organic solutes (sugars) that enter the sieve tube are passively carried by the streaming protoplasm from one end of the sieve tube to the other. Solutes move from one sieve tube to the next sieve tube by diffusion through the pores of the sieve plate.
  • Thus, the streaming protoplasm acts as a conveyor belt or two-way escalator. Different substances move in different directions at the same time in the same sieve tube.

Pressure Flow Or Mass Flow Hypothesis: According to this theory proposed by Munch (1929) and elaborated by Crafts (1938), organic solutes are translocated “en masse’’ through the sieve tubes from the supplying end or source leaves to the consumption end or sink (roots, fruits, tubers).

  • Mesophyll cells synthesize sugars during photosynthesis. As these get dissolved in the cell sap, the osmotic concentration and DPD of mesophyll cells increase (ψw decreases). Water enters the mesophyll cells from the xylem. The turgor pressure or pressure potential (ψp) of the mesophyll cells increases.
  • Sugars dissolved in water move from mesophyll cells into the symplast system of sieve tubes. Solutes are carried “en masse” through the symplast to finally reach the consumption centers.
  • At the consumption end, food materials (solutes) are either used up (as in roots) or are stored in an insoluble form (as in fruits, or tubers). Hence, the osmotic concentration and. consequently, the turgor pressure in these cells will be low. Thus, a continuous turgor pressure gradient gets established across the symplast between the cells of the source (leaf) and the cells of the sink (root).
  • Water returns to the source (leaf) through the apoplast system.

Object To Mass Flow Hypothesis: The bidirectional transport of solution in the same sieve tube needs explanation. The slime content and other fibrils of the sieve tube reduce the speed of the flow of solutes even under high pressure.

Mass flow is not a purely physical process as described by Munch Phloem cells utilize 0.1 0.5% of sucrose translocated through them. This is evidence to show that phloem translocation is an active process and requires metabolic energy.

Factors Affecting Translocation Of Solutes

  • Temperature: The optimum temperature for translocation is between 20° and 30°C. The file rate of translocation increases with an increase in temperature. The temperature influences the root more than the shoot since it acts as a sink for the sugars.
  • Light: The root/shoot dry weight ratio increases with increased light intensities. This indicates that translocation to root increases as compared to shoot when light intensity is increased.
  • Metabolic Inhibitors: The metabolic inhibitors inhibit carbohydrate translocation. These include dinitrophenol (DNP), arsenite, azide, fluoride, and hydrogen cyanide.
  • Mineral Deficiencies: The absorption and translocation of sucrose by a leaf is facilitated by boron. It helps sucrose to move easily through the cell membranes in the form of the boron-sucrose complex.
  • Hormones: Sucrose is much more efficiently translocated when growth regulators are applied, such as kinetin, IAA, and gibberellic acid.

Transport In Plant Points To Remember

The unit for water potential is bar or Pascal (1 MPa = 10 bar) The osmotic pressure of 1 molar solution of a non-electrolytic would be 22.4 atm at 0°C. The equimolar concentrations of two solutions of non-ionizing substances will have the same osmotic pressure.

  • The value of the osmotic potential of an electrolyte will be greater by the degree of its dissociation into ions at a given temperature.
  • Bacteria do not survive in salted pickles because these get plasmolyzed.
  • Common salt kills weeds by plasmolysis.
  • Plasmolysis can be demonstrated in the epidermal peel of the Rhoeo discolor leaf.
  • A plasmolyzed cell regains normal condition if placed in a hypotonic solution. It is called deplasmolysis.
  • The government of H2O occurs from the high value of ψw to low value of ψw, i.e., from less negative value to more negative value of ψw.
  • The auxin-treated cells show an increase in their metabolism. Respiration in these cells increases and more energy is provided for the absorption of water.
  • At low temperatures, water in the intercellular spaces freezes into ice, thus having higher OP. It causes exosmosis of water from cells causing desiccation.
  • If a freshwater plant is transferred to marine water, it dies due to exosmosis.
  • The approximate water potential of root hairs is -3 to -43 bar.
  • Ringing experiments to prove the ascent of water through the xylem were first conducted by Malpighi (1672), Stephan Hales (1727), and Hartig.
  • Root pressure is measured by a manometer.
  • Stocking (1956) considered root pressure as an active process responsible for guttation and bleeding in plants.
  • Maximum root pressure recorded in plants is 2 bar which is sufficient to raise the water column to a height of 20 m.
  • Root pressure is absent in gymnosperms (some of the tallest trees are gymnosperms).
  • Photometers are used for measuring/comparing the rates of transpiration.

CoCl2 paper method is also used to compare the rates of transpiration. Moisture coming out of stomata turns blue CoCl2 paper to pink. Porometers are used for assessing the total pore area (stoma).

  • Generally, stomata are photoactive (open during the day and close at night). But in succulents such as Bryophyllum, Opimtia, and cacti, stomata close during the day and open at night (scotoactive).
  • Transpiration in old stems and fruits occurs through lenticels.
  • The fresh weight of a plant or leaf would be maximum in the morning and minimum in the afternoon.
  • If half of the total number of stomata on a leaf closes down, the rate of transpiration is not reduced by half.
  • Stomata are absent or non-functional in submerged hydrophytes.
  • Cytokinins help in the opening of stomata while ABA (abscisic acid) and low O2 close stomata.
  • Curtis (1926) considered transpiration “as a necessary evil” in plants.
  • Plants growing at high altitudes show xeromorphy (adaptation to minimize transpiration).

Transpiration Ratio: the amount of water lost per unit of dry matter produced during the growing season of a plant.

  • In Saxifraga, the rate of guttation is high during flowering.
  • In Colocasia antiquarian, the rate of guttation is very high.
  • Mechanical shock causes stomatal closure.

Stomatal index = \(\frac{E}{E + S}\) x 100 where E is the number of epidermal cells and S is the number of stomata.

Transpiration index = Leaf test tuneAVater test time.

A psychrometer is used to measure relative humidity and rate of transpiration.

The diameter of tree decreases during the day. It is due to the narrowing of tracheary elements due to the development of negative pressure. It is measured by dendrograph.

Matric Potential, ψm: It is used for surfaces that bind water. It is also negative. For example, soil particles, cell wall, cytoplasm, etc.

Gravity Potential, ψg: It denotes the effect of gravity on ψw. It depends on the height (h) of water above the reference state of water, the density of water, and acceleration due to gravity. The value of ψm negligible up to a height of 5 m from the reference level and also the value of ψm is ignored.

∴ ψw = ψs + ψp

Transport In Plant Multiple Choice Questions And Answers

Question 1. What determines the diffusion of water from one cell to another?

  1. OP
  2. WP
  3. DPD
  4. TP

Answer: 3. DPD

Question 2. The term “water potential” was used for the first time by

  1. Slatyer and Taylor
  2. Stocking
  3. Sachs
  4. Boehm

Answer: 1. Slatyer and Taylor

Question 3. In a hypertonic solution, the water potential of a cell

  1. Increases
  2. Decreases
  3. First increases and then decreases
  4. No chance occurs

Answer: 2. Decreases

Question 4. As a result of endosmosis, of a cell

  1. Increases
  2. Decreases
  3. Remains same
  4. Become zero

Answer: 1. Increases

Question 5. Which of the following equations is wrong?

  1. ψs = -π
  2. DPD = OP + TP
  3. ψw = ψs + ψp
  4. OP = CRT

Answer: 2. DPD = OP + TP

Question 6. When a cell is fully turgid, which of the following will be zero?

  1. Osmotic pressure
  2. Turgor pressure
  3. Wall pressure
  4. Suction pressure

Answer: 4. Suction pressure

Question 7. Osmotic potential is numerically equal to

  1. TP
  2. DPD
  3. OP
  4. WP

Answer: 3. OP

Question 8. The first sign of shrinkage of cell is detectable at

  1. Limiting plasmolysis
  2. Incipient plasmolysis
  3. Evident plasmolysis
  4. Permanent plasmolysis

Answer: 2. Incipient plasmolysis

Question 9. Osmotic pressure depends upon

  1. Concentration of solutes
  2. Temperature
  3. Ionization
  4. All of these

Answer: 4. All of these

Question 10. The water potential of a plasmolyzed cell will be

  1. ψw = -ψs + ψp
  2. ψs = ψp
  3. ψw = 0
  4. ψ= -ψs – ψp

Answer: 4. ψ= -ψs – ψp

Question 11. The water potential of soil at field capacity and wilting point are, respectively,

  1. —1.5 MPa and-0.01 MPa
  2. -0.1 MPa and -0.01 MPa
  3. -0.01 MPa and-1.5 MPa
  4. -0.01 MPa and -0.1 MPa

Answer: 3. -0.01 MPa and-1.5 MPa

Question 12. Which is not a characteristic of imbibition?

  1. It is a reversible phenomenon.
  2. Heat is generated.
  3. Involve capillarity and adsorption.
  4. It is a property of hydrophobic and lyophobic colloids.

Answer: 4. It is a property of hydrophobic and lyophobic colloids.

Question 13. The concept of apoplast and symplast imbibition was given by

  1. Munch
  2. Kramer
  3. Renner
  4. Dixon

Answer: 1. Munch

Question 14. The type of soil water that is available to roots is

  1. Gravitational water
  2. Hygroscopic water
  3. Capillary water
  4. Chemically combined water

Answer: 3. Capillary water

Question 15. Passive absorption is controlled by

  1. Transpiration
  2. Capillarity
  3. Presence of solutes in soil
  4. Temperature of atmosphere

Answer: 1. Transpiration

Question 16. If the texture of soil becomes fine, then the rate of movement of water through it will be

  1. Faster
  2. Slower
  3. Nil
  4. Same

Answer: 2. Slower

Question 17. At low temperatures, the rate of water absorption decreases due to

  1. Decreased viscosity of water
  2. Increased permeability
  3. Reduced rate of diffusion
  4. Increased root growth

Answer: 3. Reduced rate of diffusion

Question 18. Water absorption in plants is enhanced by

  1. Increased transpiration
  2. Decreased transpiration
  3. Decreased salt absorption
  4. Increased photosynthesis

Answer: 1. Increased transpiration

Question 19. The phenomenon of water uptake at the expense of energy by the cell and usually again osmotic phenomenon is known as

  1. Osmosis
  2. Active absorption
  3. Passive absorption
  4. Imbibition

Answer: 2. Active absorption

Question 20. Root pressure is measured by

  1. Osmometer
  2. Manometer
  3. Barometer
  4. Auxanometer

Answer: 2. Manometer

Question 21. When the temperature of soil is 0°C, then

  1. The absorption of water increases
  2. The absorption of water is not affected by temperature
  3. The absorption of water decreases
  4. The soil will lose capillary water

Answer: 3. The absorption of water decreases

Question 22. The osmotic theory for active water absorption was given by

  1. Bennet Clarks
  2. Thimann
  3. Atkin and Priestley
  4. Dixon

Answer: 3. Atkin and Priestley

Question 23. Root pressure is maximum when

  1. Transpiration is high and absorption is very low
  2. Transpiration is very low and absorption is high
  3. Transpiration is very high and absorption is also high
  4. Transpiration and absorption both are low

Answer: 2. Transpiration is very low and absorption is high

Question 24. The pulsation theory of the ascent of sap was given by

  1. Godlewski
  2. Dixon
  3. Tansley
  4. Sir J.C. Bose

Answer: 4. Sir J.C. Bose

Question 25. Which is not true for root pressure?

  1. Positive hydrostatic pressure
  2. Maximum during the day and minimum during night
  3. Magnitude is 1-2 bars
  4. Develops due to the metabolic activity of root.

Answer: 2. Maximum during the day and minimum during night

Question 26. A tension (transpiration pull) of 1 atm can pull water to a height of approx

  1. 10 feet
  2. 10 m
  3. 1 m
  4. 1 feet

Answer: 2. 10 m

Question 27. Amphistomatic leaves are generally found in

  1. Dicots
  2. Monocots
  3. CAM plants
  4. Aquatic plants

Answer: 2. Monocots

Question 28. The cutinized wall of epidermal cells is

  1. Permeable
  2. Semipermeable
  3. Impermeable
  4. Selective permeable

Answer: 3. Impermeable

Question 29. The stomata are widely open in

  1. Red light
  2. Blue light
  3. Greenlight
  4. Yellow light

Answer: 2. Blue light

Question 30. When transpiration is rapid

  1. ψw of epidermal cells decreases
  2. A negative pressure develops in the xylem vessel
  3. Water is absorbed through the root passively
  4. All of these

Answer: 4. All of these

Question 31. Which is not true regarding stomata?

  1. They are turgor-operated valves.
  2. They have differentially thickened walls in guard cells.
  3. They open when OP of the guard cell decreases.
  4. They show photoactive openings in CAM plants.

Answer: 3. They open when OP of the guard cell decreases.

Question 32. Cuticular transpiration is approx

  1. 50% in herbs and ferns
  2. 97% in most of the plants
  3. 1% of the total transpiration
  4. 50% in most of the plants

Answer: 1. 50% in herbs and ferns

Question 33. The rate of transpiration and stomatal movement are measured by, respectively,

  1. Porometer and photometer
  2. Potometer and pyrometer
  3. Potometer and tensiometer
  4. Hygrometer and porometer

Answer: 2. Potometer and pyrometer

Question 34. According to starch ⇔ sugar interconversion theory of stomatal opening, a stomatal opening is preceded by

  1. Increase in H+ concentration
  2. Decrease in the pH of the guard cell
  3. Increase in the pH of guard cell
  4. Inactivation of phosphorylase enzyme

Answer: 3. Increase in the pH of guard cell

Question 35. When stomata open in night only, they are called

  1. Photoactive stomata
  2. Scotoactive stomata
  3. Hydathodes
  4. All of these

Answer: 2. Scotoactive stomata

Question 36. Which of the following does not happen during stomatal opening?

  1. Accumulation of K+ ions in guard cell
  2. Lowering of osmotic pressure of guard cell
  3. Creation of water potential gradient between guard cell and subsidiary cell
  4. Increased thickening of the inner wall of the guard cell

Answer: 4. Increased thickening of the inner wall of the guard cell

Question 37. High amount of malate in guard cell during stomatal opening is due to

  1. Import from subsidiary cell
  2. Hydrolysis of starch
  3. Photosynthesis in guard cell
  4. Hydrolysis of proteins

Answer: 4. Hydrolysis of proteins

Question 38. Active K+ exchange mechanism for the opening and clos¬ing of stomata was given by

  1. Darwin
  2. Levitt
  3. Scarth
  4. Fujino

Answer: 2. Levitt

Question 39. Which of the following is a metabolic antitranspirant?

  1. PMA, CO2
  2. Colorless plastics and waxes
  3. Aspirin, ABA
  4. Both (1) and (3)

Answer: 4. Both (1) and (3)

Question 40. Which is not an advantage of transpiration?

  1. Development of mechanical tissues
  2. Development of root system
  3. Distribution of minerals
  4. Fixation of nitrogen

Answer: 4. Fixation of nitrogen

Question 41. The plant factor which affects the rate of transpiration is

  1. Leaf area
  2. Temperature
  3. Humidity
  4. Wind speed

Answer: 1. Leaf area

Question 42. In guttation, water is lost in the form of

  1. Water vapors
  2. A dilute solution of sugars
  3. Pure liquid water
  4. Dilute solution of salts and organic substances

Answer: 4. Dilute solution of salts and organic substances

Question 43. Which of the following is an effective adaptation for better gaseous exchange in plants?

  1. Presence of multiple epidermis
  2. Presence of hair on the lower epidermis
  3. The presence of a waxy cuticle covering the epidermis of the leaves
  4. Location of stomata on the lower surface of leaves and side turned away from direct sun rays

Answer: 4. Location of stomata on the lower surface of leaves and side turned away from direct sun rays

Question 44. The conditions under which transpiration would be most rapid are

  1. Excess of water in soil
  2. Low humidity, high temperature, turgid guard cells, and moist soil
  3. Low velocity of the wind
  4. High humidity

Answer: 2. Low humidity, high temperature, turgid guard cells, and moist soil

Question 45. The transpiration index is equal to

  1. \(\frac{\text{Leaf test time}}{\text{Water test time}}\)
  2. \(\frac{\text{Water test time}}{\text{Leaf test time}}\)
  3. The amount of water lost per unit of dry matter produced during the growing season
  4. \(\frac{\text{PWP}}{\text{Field capacity}}\)

Answer: 1. \(\frac{\text{Leaf test time}}{\text{Water test time}}\)

Question 46. Translocation of photosynthates occurs in the form of

  1. Starch
  2. Glucose
  3. Sucrose
  4. 3PGA

Answer: 3. Sucrose

Question 47. Although a girdled (up to bast) tree may survive for some time, it will eventually die because

  1. Water will not move upward
  2. Water will not move downward
  3. Sugars and other organic solutes will not move downward
  4. Sugars and other organic solutes will not move upward

Answer: 3. Sugars and other organic solutes will not move downward

Question 48. When stomata open, the pH of guard cells.

  1. Increases
  2. Decreases
  3. Remains same
  4. Both (1) and (2)

Answer: 1. Increases

Question 49. Water lost in pulsation is

  1. Pure water
  2. Impure water
  3. In vapor form
  4. Either (1) and (2)

Answer: 2. Impure water

Question 50. What will happen if plant cells are placed in a hypertonic solution

  1. Turgid
  2. Plasmolyzed
  3. Deplasmolyzed
  4. Lysed

Answer: 2. Plasmolyzed

Question 51. Loss of water from the tips of leaves is called

  1. Bleeding
  2. Gustation
  3. Respiration
  4. Transpiration

Answer: 2. Gustation

Question 52. Root pressure is measured by

  1. Manometer
  2. Potomcter
  3. Auxanomcter
  4. Osmometer

Answer: 1. Manometer

Question 53. Which of the following apparatus is commonly used to measure the rate of transpiration?

  1. Porometer
  2. Altimeter
  3. Potomcter
  4. Luxmeter

Answer: 3. Porometer

Question 54. Leaves of the Nehnnbo plant are

  1. Epistomatic
  2. Hypostomatic
  3. Amphistomatic
  4. None of these

Answer: 1. Epistomatic

Question 55. 0.1 M solution has the water potential of

  1. -2.3 bars
  2. 0 bar
  3. 22.4 bars
  4. +2.3 bars

Answer: 1. -2.3 bars

Question 56. A small mesophytic twig with green leaves is dipped into water in a big beaker under sunlight. It demonstrates

  1. Photosynthesis
  2. Respiration
  3. Transpiration
  4. None of the above

Answer: 3. Transpiration

Question 57. Which one is not related to transpiration?

  1. Regulation of plant body temperature
  2. Absorption and distribution of mineral salt
  3. Circulation of water
  4. Bleeding

Answer: 4. Bleeding

Question 58. Stomata can open at night also in

  1. Xerophyte
  2. Gamelophyte
  3. Hydrophyte
  4. None of these

Answer: 1. Xerophyte

Question 59. Who had said that “transpiration is a necessary evil”?

  1. Curtis
  2. Steward
  3. Andersen
  4. J.C. Bose

Answer: 1. Curtis

Question 60. Stomata open during day because the guard cells have

  1. Thin outer walls
  2. Kidney shape structure
  3. Chlorophyll
  4. Large nuclei

Answer: 1. Thin outer walls

Question 61. Stomata open and close due to

  1. Turgor pressure change
  2. Hormone change
  3. Temperature change
  4. All of the above

Answer: 1. Turgor pressure change

Question 62. In plasmolyzed cell, the space between cell wall and protoplasm is occupied by

  1. Hypotonic solution
  2. Hypertonic solution
  3. Isotonic solution
  4. Distil water

Answer: 2. Hypertonic solution

Question 63. In CAM plants, stomata are

  1. Closed at night and open during the day
  2. Closed during the day and open at night
  3. Never closes
  4. Never opens

Answer: 2. Closed during the day and open at night

Question 64. The real force responsible for the movement of water from cell to cell is

  1. OP
  2. TP
  3. DPD
  4. WP

Answer: 3. DPD

Question 65. Which of the following have sunken stomata?

  1. Nerium
  2. Mangifera
  3. Hydrilla
  4. Zea mays

Answer: 1. Nerium

Question 66. When a plasmolyzed cell is placed in a hypotonic solution then water will move inside the cell. Which force causes this?

  1. DPD
  2. OP
  3. WP
  4. None of these

Answer: 1. DPD

Question 67. Rate of transpiration is measured by

  1. Manometer
  2. Auxanometer
  3. Potometer
  4. Barometer

Answer: 3. Potometer

Question 68. If a cell shrinks when placed in a solution, the solution becomes

  1. Hypotonic
  2. Hypertonic
  3. Isotonic
  4. Pure solvent

Answer: 2. Hypertonic

Question 69. If cell A with DPD 4 bar is connected to cell B, C, and D whose osmotic pressure and turgor pressure are, respectively, 4 and 4, 10 and 5, 7 and 3 bar, the flow of water will be

  1. B to A, C, and D
  2. A to D, B, and C
  3. C to A, B, and D
  4. A to B, C, and D

Answer: 1. B to A, C, and D

Question 70. Guard cell controls

  1. The intensity of light entering
  2. Photosynthesis
  3. Closing and opening of stomata
  4. Change in green color

Answer: 3. Closing and opening of stomata

Question 71. Active transport

  1. Releases energy
  2. Requires energy
  3. Produces ATP
  4. Produces a toxic substance

Answer: 2. Requires energy

Question 72. Velamen tissues are associated within

  1. Haustorial function
  2. Assimilation
  3. Absorption of moisture
  4. Nutrition

Answer: 3. Absorption of moisture

Question 73. Cohesion tension theory regarding the ascent of sap was given by

  1. Dixon and Jolly
  2. J.C. Bose
  3. Cristian Wolf
  4. Godlewski

Answer: 1. Dixon and Jolly

Question 74. Velamen tissue is found in

  1. Mesophytes
  2. Epiphytes
  3. Hydrophytes
  4. Xerophytes

Answer: 2. Epiphytes

Question 75. In a fully turgid plant cell, which one is zero?

  1. Turgor pressure
  2. Wall pressure
  3. Suction pressure
  4. None of these

Answer: 3. Suction pressure

Question 76. Who proposed the cohesion theory of the ascent of sap?

  1. Strasburger
  2. Godlewski
  3. Western
  4. Oixon and Jolly

Answer: 4. Oixon and Jolly

Question 77. The most accepted theory for ascent of sap is

  1. Relay pump theory
  2. Pulsation theory
  3. Root pressure theory
  4. Transpiration pull cohesion theory

Answer: 4. Transpiration pull cohesion theory

Question 78. The transport of water and salt is mediated by

  1. Xylem
  2. Sieve tubes
  3. Sclerenchyma
  4. Phloem

Answer: 1. Xylem

Question 79. The removal of a ring of tissue outside the vascular cambi¬um from the tree trunk kills it because

  1. Water cannot move up
  2. Food does not travel down and roots become starved
  3. Shoots become starved
  4. Annual rings are not produced

Answer: 2. Food does not travel down and roots become starved

Question 80. Wilting of the plant is present in

  1. Moss
  2. Fern
  3. Algae
  4. Angiosperm

Answer: 4. Angiosperm

Question 81. Root hair absorbs water from the soil on account of

  1. Turgor pressure
  2. Osmotic pressure
  3. Suction pressure
  4. Root pressure

Answer: 3. Suction pressure

Question 82. Increased humidity in the atmosphere decreases the rate of

  1. Transpiration
  2. Photosynthesis
  3. Glycolysis
  4. Growth

Answer: 1. Transpiration

Question 83. In osmosis, there is movement of

  1. Solute only
  2. Solvte only
  3. Both (1) and (2)
  4. Neither solute nor solvent

Answer: 2. Solvte only

Question 84. Guttation takes place through

  1. Lenticles
  2. Pneumatophores
  3. Stomata
  4. Hydathodes

Answer: 4. Hydathodes

Question 85. Which of the following statements is correct?

  1. Cell membrane is involved only in exosmosis
  2. Cell membrane is involved only in endosmosis
  3. Cell membrane is involved both in exosmosis and endosmosis
  4. None of the above

Answer: 3. Cell membrane is involved both in exosmosis and endosmosis

Question 86. The root hairs absorb which of the following types of water?

  1. Capillary water
  2. Hygroscopic water
  3. Gravitational water
  4. All of the water

Answer: 1. Capillary water

Question 87. If flowers are cut and dipped in dilute NaCl solution, then

  1. Transpiration will become low
  2. Endoosmosis occurs
  3. No bacterial growth takes place
  4. Absorption of solute inside flower cell takes place

Answer: 1. Transpiration will become low

Question 88. A plant cell is plasmolyzed in a solution that is

  1. Hypotonic
  2. Hypertonic
  3. Isotonic
  4. Concentration no means

Answer: 2. Hypotonic

Question 89. Turgidity in guard cells is controlled by

  1. Chloride
  2. Malic acid
  3. Potassium
  4. Potassium, chloride, and malic acid

Answer: 4. Potassium, chloride, and malic acid

Question 90. Stomata are not found in

  1. Algae
  2. Mosses
  3. Ferns
  4. Liverworts

Answer: 1. Algae

Question 91. In which of the following, the rate of transpiration is high?

  1. CAM plant
  2. C3 plants
  3. C2 and C4 plants
  4. C4 plants

Answer: 1. CAM plant

Question 92. Cell sap is found in which cell organelle?

  1. Nucleolus
  2. Chloroplast
  3. Vacuole
  4. Golgi apparatus

Answer: 3. Vacuole

Question 93. Which one of the following fixes nitrogen?

  1. TMV
  2. Yeast
  3. Nostoc
  4. Denitrifying bacteria

Answer: 3. Nostoc

Question 94. Active transport of ions by the cell requires

  1. High temperature
  2. ATP
  3. Alkaline pH
  4. Salts

Answer: 2. ATP

Question 95. To initiate cell plasmolysis, the salt concentration must be

  1. Isotonic
  2. Hypotonic
  3. Hypertonic
  4. Atonic

Answer: 3. Hypertonic

Question 96. The basis of stomatal opening is

  1. Endosmosis
  2. Plasmolysis of guard cells
  3. Decrease in cell up concentration
  4. Exosmosis

Answer: 1. Endosmosis

Question 97. Plants absorb carbon dioxide from

  1. Vegetative
  2. Heterocyst
  3. Both vegetative and heterocyst
  4. None of these
  1. Millets
  2. Cereals
  3. Carbohydrates present in the soil
  4. Atmosphere

Answer: 4. Atmosphere

Question 98. Transpiration will increase with the increase of

  1. Humidity
  2. Temperature
  3. Carbon dioxide
  4. Sulfur dioxide

Answer: 2. Temperature

Question 99. If it is possible to drop a small particle through the stomata of a leaf, what will you conclude?

  1. It will fall on the earth surface.
  2. It will stop on the lower epidermis.
  3. It will stop on mesophyll cells.
  4. It will stop on vascular tissue.

Answer: 3. It will stop on mesophyll cells.

Question 100. During transpiration, turgidity in guard cells is controlled by

  1. Potassium
  2. Bromine
  3. Sodium
  4. Oxalic acid

Answer: 1. Potassium

Question 101. Apparatus used for measuring the transpiration

  1. Evapometer
  2. Potometer
  3. Osmometer
  4. Tensiometer

Answer: 2. Potometer

Question 102. Which of the following theories gives the latest explanation for the closure of stomata?

  1. ABA theory
  2. Munch theory
  3. Starch-glucose theory
  4. Active KT transport theory

Answer: 1. ABA theory

Question 103. The sugarcane plant has

  1. Dumbbell-shaped guard cells
  2. Pentamerous flowers
  3. Reticulate venation
  4. Capsular fruits

Answer: 1. Dumbbell-shaped guard cells

Transport In Plant Assertion Reasoning Questions And Answers

In the following questions, an Assertion (A) is followed by a corresponding Reason (R). Mark the correct answer.

  1. If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
  2. If both Assertion and Reason are true, but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
  3. If Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
  4. If both Assertion and Reason are false.

Question 1. Assertion: Xerophytes have high water-retaining capacity.

Reason: They have high OR.

Answer: 1. If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.

Question 2. Assertion: There is an indirect relationship between the rate of respiration and water absorption.

Reason: Increased metabolism increases mineral uptake.

Answer: 1. If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.

Question 3. Assertion: Root pressure is a dynamic and always a positive hydrostatic pressure.

Reason: It is a universal phenomenon and develops under absorption lag.

Answer: 3. If Assertion is true, but Reason is false.

Question 4. Assertion: Stomata has delegated the task of providing food while preventing thirst.

Reason: They are made for gaseous exchange.

Answer: 2. If both Assertion and Reason are true, but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.

Question 5. Assertion: During stomata opening, there is a relative change in TP of the guard cell and subsidiary cell.

Reason: TP of the subsidiary cell decreases during the opening.

Answer: 2. If both Assertion and Reason are true, but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.

 

 

NEET Biology Notes – Mineral Nutrition

Mineral Nutrition Introduction

The sum total of various processes by which an organism with-draws and utilizes the substances required for the development and sustaining life-related processes is called nutrition, and these substances are called nutrients.

  • The absorption, distribution, and metabolism of various mineral elements by plants is called mineral nutrition. About 60 elements have been reported from plant ash (obtained after heating dry plant matter at 600°C). Out of these, 30 are present in all the plants.
  • Inorganic nutrients are classified as essential and non-essential elements. Seventeen elements have been placed in essential elements. These are the elements without which the reproduction and life cycle of a plant cannot be completed. The essential elements are C, H, O, N, P. K. S, Mg, Ca, Fe, Mo, Mn, Ni, Zn, B, Cl, and Cu.

Amon and Stout proposed the following criteria of the essentiality of an element:

  • The element must be absolutely necessary for supporting normal growth and reproduction.
  • The requirement of the element must be specific and not replaceable by another element.
  • The element must be directly involved in the nutrition of the plant.
  • A deficiency of minerals causes diseases in plants. Magnesium. for example, is a constituent of the chlorophyll molecule and is essential for photosynthesis. It cannot be replaced by any other element for the same function. It is also required as a cofactor by many enzymes involved in cellular respiration and metabolic pathways. Similarly, iron is a constituent of cytochromes.

Depending Upon The Quantity In Which These Elements Are Present In Cell, They Are Classified As:

Macronutrients: They are the elements that are present in a quantity of 1—10 mg/g dry wt. of the cell. They are C, H, O, N, P, S, K, Mg, and Ca.

Micronutrients: They are the elements that are present in a quantity equal to or less than 0.1 mg/g dry wt. of the cell (often less than 1 ppm). They are Fe, Mn, Mo, Ni, Zn, B, Cl, and Cu.

Mineral Nutrition Culture Medium

Soils normally contain sufficient quantities of essential minerals. However, three important elements need to be replenished in crop fields as they are depleted by repeated cultivation. These x fertilizer elements called critical elements are nitrogen, phosphorus, and potassium (NPK).

  • The common sources of these elements used in India are nitrate of sodium, ammonium sulfate, ammonium nitrate, ammonium chloride, urea, etc. The NPK fertilizers comprising bags of fertilizers are labeled 17-18-19 or 15-15-15 or other combinations. These numbers refer to the percentage by weight of nitrogen, phosphorus, and water-soluble potassium
  • To determine what elements are essential tor plant growth and deficiency symptoms of an essential element, a well-defined nutrient medium has to be used. Seeds are grown in highly washed pure sand in a glass, glazed porcelain, or plastic container and supplied with a carefully made-up nutrient solution.

Arnon And Hoagland’s Medium: Amon and Hoagland prescribed a medium containing micronutrients. Iron was earlier supplied as ferrous sulfate, but it often precipitated out. This problem has now been solved by dissolving ferrous sulfate along with a chelating agent Na-EDTA (disodium salt of ethylene diamine tetraacetic acid).

Read and Learn More NEET Biology Notes

Mineral Nutrition Solution Culture

Solution culture is performed in glass jars or polythene bottles. The container is covered with black paper after pouring the solution into them. Black paper has two functions

  1. Prevention of the growth of algae.
  2. Prevention of reaction of roots with light.

Seeds are allowed to germinate over the cork. Cotyledons are removed after seedling formation. The plant is properly sup¬ported with the help of split cork. The solution is aerated at regular intervals and is changed after two to three days.

Mineral Nutrition – Hydroponics

The commercial technique of soil-less culture is called hydroponics, which was first developed by Goerick (1940). The culture is performed in large tanks of metal or RCC tanks. The tanks are covered with wire mesh. Tanks are provided with aerating and circulating techniques. Seeds are suspended in the solution from the wire mesh with the help of threads. As the plant grows, additional support is provided. it depicts the diagrammatic views of the hydroponic technique.

NEET Biology Mineral Nutrition Hydroponics Technique

Liebig’s Law Of The Minimum

As per this law, “the yield of a crop plant is determined by the amount of the necessary element which is present in minimum quantity in proportion to the demand of the plant.”

General Functions Of Mineral Elements

Frame Work Elements: They form carbohydrates that form cell walls, for example, C, H, and O.

Protoplasmic Elements: They form protoplasm, for example, C, H, O, N, S, P.

Catalytic Elements: Fe, Cu, Zn, Mo, Mg, Mn, K (activator of over 40 enzymes)

Balancing Elements: Ca, Mg, and K counteract the toxic effect of other minerals.

Storage Elements: C, N, S, P.

Critical Elements: N, P, K.

Elements Affecting Cell Permeability: Monovalent cations (Na+, K+) increase the permeability of membranes while divalent and trivalent cations decrease it.

Toxic Elements: Al, As, Hg, Pb, Ag.

Non-mineral Elements: C, H, O, N. Nitrogen is a mineral as well as a non-mineral element.

Functional Elements: They are non-essential in most plants but have a definite activity in some species, for example, silicon in grasses.

Nitrogen Fixation

Atmosphere is the ultimate source of nitrogen. Nitrogen is a highly inert gas. It cannot be used directly but has to be combined with C, H, N, and O to form compounds before being used. Higher plants utilize nitrogen in the oxidized forms such as nitrate (NO3) and nitrite (NO2) or in the reduced form (NH4) made available to plants by the nitrogen fixers.

The best-known nitrogen-fixing symbiotic bacterium is Rhizobium. This bacterium lives in the soil to form root nodules in plants belonging to the family Leguminosae such as beans, gram, groundnut, and soya bean. Root nodules are little outgrowths on roots.

  • When a section of the root nodule is examined, it appears pinkish due to the presence of a pigment called leghemoglobin. Like hemoglobin, leghemoglobin is an oxygen scavenger. The enzyme that catalyses the fixation of nitrogen is nitrogenase which functions under anaerobic conditions. Leghemoglobin combines with oxygen and protects nitrogenase.
  • Free-living microorganisms such as the cyanobacteria can also fix nitrogen. Some cyanobacteria also have symbiotic as¬sociation with plants. They are found in lichens. Anthoccros. Azollcu and coralloid roots of Cycas.
  • In the process of biological nitrogen fixation, the dinitrogen molecule is progressively reduced by the addition of pairs of hydrogen atoms so that the three bonds between the two nitrogen atoms are cleaved and ammonia is formed.

These reactions occur only in the presence of a single enzyme nitrogenase. The process of nitrogen fixation is energy-intensive.

NEET Biology Mineral Nutrition Nitrogen Fixation

Requirements Of N2 Fixation

  • Nitrogenase enzyme complex (synthesized by nif genes of bacteria) is the seat of nitrogen reduction and contains Mo, Fe, and S.
  • It is a strong reducing agent, for example, NADPH2, FMNH2, ferredoxin, etc.
  • It takes place under anaerobic conditions.
  • The energy source is ATP.
  • Cofactors included are TPP, CoA, Mg+2.
  • Electron and H+ donor (generally glucose-6-phosphate)

Process Of Nodule Formation

Nodules are little out growths on the roots. When a root hair of a legume comes in contact with Rhizobium, there occurs an ex-change of plant and bacterial signals. Bacteria secrete nod fac-tors which result in the curling of root hair tips.

The plant responds by forming an infection thread that grows inward and carries the bacteria to the cortical cells of the root. Some of bacteria enlarge to become membrane-bound structures called bacteroids which are the seat of N2 fixation. Plant flavones act as the inducers of nod genes which specify early events of nodulation.

NEET Biology Mineral Nutrition Nodule Formation

Cortical cells are stimulated to divide rapidly. It is due to auxin secreted by plants and cytokinin contributed by bacteria. Nodules are pink in color due to leghemoglobin which is an oxygen scavenger and protects nitrogenase. Its heme comes from bacteria and globin from legumes.

Process Of N2 Fixation Can Be Summarized As: N2 + 8e + 8H+ + 16 ATP → 2NH3 + H2 + 16ADP + 16Pi

Ammonium ions can be taken up by higher plants but plants are more adapted to absorb nitrate (NO3) than ammonium ions (NH4+) from the soil. Soil bacteria such as Nitrosomonas and Nitrococcus convert ammonia to nitrite (NO2) ions. Nitrobacter oxidizes nitrite to nitrate. This process of converting ammonia into nitrate, a form of nitrogen more available to plants, is called nitrification.

NEET Biology Mineral Nutrition Nitrificication Formula

This process is an oxidation process and releases energy which is used by nitrifying microbes.

Nitrate Assimilation

The process of nitrate reduction to ammonia is called nitrate assimilation and is accomplished in two steps mediated by two specific enzymes. First, the nitrate is reduced to nitrite by an enzyme called nitrate reductase. This enzyme is a flavoprotein and contains molybdenum.

The nitrite ions are then reduced to ammonia by an enzyme called nitrite reductase. Ferredoxin is the most detect source of electrons for nitrite reduction and hence it occurs specifically in leaves. Therefore, nitrite ions formed in other parts of the plant are transported to leaves arid and further reduced to ammonia. Nitrite reductase does not require molybdenum but contains copper and iron.

Synthesis Of Amino Acids

There are two main processes for amino acid synthesis.

1. Reductive Animation: From glutamic acid all other amino acids can be synthesized by the process of transamination.

NEET Biology Mineral Nutrition Synthesis Of Amino Acids Reductive Amination

2. Transamination: It involves the transfer of amino groups from one amino acid to the keto group of the keto acid. The reactions are catalyzed by the enzyme transaminase.

Mineral Absorption

Mineral Absorption Occurs By Two Ways:

  1. Passive and
  2. Active.
  1. Passive Mineral Absorption: The main theories of passive mineral absorption. In most cases, the movement of mineral ions into the root occurs by diffusion. Molecules or ions diffuse from a region of their higher concentration to a region of their lower concentration. The movement of mineral ions into root cells as a result of diffusion is called passive absorption.
    • Donnan Equilibrium Theory: This theory was proposed by Donnan (1911). The entry of ions into the cell across the plasma membrane to maintain electrical equilibrium is called Donnan equilibrium. Some anions/cations get firmly attached to the inner surface of the plasma membrane (fixed and non-diffusible ions). To neutralize these, ions of opposite charges gain entrance in the cell passively against the concentration gradient without energy expenditure.
    • Ion Exchange Theory: It was proposed by Jenny and Overstreet (1938). The exchange of anions and cations absorbed on a colloidal fraction of the soil (clay and humus) with the ions adsorbed on the root surface is referred to as ion exchange. The small space in which the cations and anions attached to the surface of roots and particles oscillate is called oscillation volume. It is of two types
    • Contact Exchange: This includes the exchange of cation and anions from the root with similarly charged ions of soil solution.
    • Carbonic Acid Exchange: This includes the exchange of H+ and CHO3 ions from the root with similarly charged ions of the soil solution.
    • Bulk Flow/Mass Flow Theory: It was proposed by Hylmo (and supported by Kramer). According to it, the movement of ions occurs through roots along with the stream of water under the influence of transpiration.
  2. Active Mineral Absorption: The uptake of mineral ions against a concentration gradient is called active absorption. Such movement of minerals requires the expenditure of energy by the absorbing cell. This energy is derived from respiration and is supplied through ATP. Hence, when the roots are deprived of oxygen, they show a sudden drop in the active absorption of minerals. Mostly minerals are absorbed by active mechanisms. Various theories are given for the active uptake of minerals.
    • Carrier Concept (By Van den Honert): Carriers are specific proteins in membranes that form complexes with ions. This complex is capable of moving across the membrane and releasing ions on the inner side. There are separate carriers for cations and anions.
    • Cytochrome Pump (By Lundegardh And Burstrom): Cytochromes are iron-containing proteins in the membrane. They transport electrons from the inner surface to the outer surface of the membrane and also transport anions from the outer surface to the inner surface. Anions are transported actively while cation transport is passive. Anion uptake increases the rate of respiration called salt respiration.
    • Protein Lecithin Carrier (by Bennet and Clark): Carrier is a protein associated with a phosphatide called lecithin. It is an amphoteric earner and transports both cations and anions.

Mobility

The elements that cannot move freely in the plants (for example, Ca, B, S, Fe, etc.) are called immobile elements. Deficiency symptoms of such elements first appear in young leaves. Those elements that can move from old leaves to young leaves and growing tips (N, P, K, Cl, Mg) are called mobile elements. Their deficiency affects old leaves.

Mineral Nutrition Points To Remember

Sodium (Na) is required by a desert shrub Atriplex and not by most of the other species.

  1. Efforts are being made to develop varieties of plants that can mine metals from the soil so that that soil can be reclaimed for agriculture practice, called phytore¬mediation.
  2. Foliar application of Fe, Mn, and Cu is more efficient than application through the soil.
  3. Aeroponics (by Soifer Hillel and David Durger) is a system where roots are suspended into some plastic vessel and misted with oxygenated, nutrient-en-riched water.
  4. Winogradsky (1891) discovered biological nitrogen fixation.
  5. Cobalt is found mostly in hydathodes and is required in N2 fixation.
  6. Selenium is found in Astragalus.
  7. Excess of manganese may, in fact, induce the deficiency symptom of iron, magnesium, and calcium (toxicity of micronutrients).
  8. Gallium accumulates in Lcinnci and Aspergillus.
  9. Phytotron: When a plant is grown in controlled conditions of temperature, and light. pH, etc.
  10. Asparagine and glutamine are two amides formed from aspartic acid and glutamic acid, respectively, in a plant. Amides are the storage form of nitrogen.
  11. Stem nodules are found in Sesbania.
  12. Leaf nodules are found in Pavetta. Dioscorea.
  13. Associative symbiosis (loose symbiosis) is found in tropical grass (with Azotobacter) and maize and sorghum (with Azospirillum).
  14. True humus plant is Wullschleigelia aphylla.
  15. Single ion channels (discovered by Neher and Sakmann) are transmembrane proteins meant for the entry of specific ions.
  16. Aquaporins are water-filled pores in membranes.

Mineral Nutrition Multiple Choice Questions And Answers

Question 1. Which is not a criterion for the essentiality of a mineral?

  1. Direct role in metabolism
  2. Requirement is specific
  3. Deficiency causes hunger signs
  4. Dispensable for growth

Answer: 4. Dispensable for growth

Question 2. Essential elements are

  1. Only macronutrients
  2. Only micronutrients
  3. Both macro and micronutrients
  4. C, H, O, and N only

Answer: 3. Both macro and micronutrients

Question 3. Which is not a trace element?

  1. Mn
  2. Cu
  3. Mo
  4. K

Answer: 4. K

Question 4. Which is not a true statement regarding macronutrients?

  1. Macronutrients form plant structure.
  2. Macronutrients become toxic when present in excess.
  3. Macronutrients have no role in electron transfer.
  4. Macronutrients develop osmotic potential.

Answer: 2. Macronutrients become toxic when present in excess.

Question 5. Choose the false statement regarding micronutrients.

  1. Micronutrients become toxic in excess.
  2. Micronutrients do not cause osmotic potential.
  3. Micronutrients have little role in protoplasmic structure.
  4. Micronutrients play a secondary role in enzyme activation.

Answer: 4. Micronutrients play a secondary role in enzyme activation.

Question 6. Deficiency in plant growth and disorders caused by the reduced availability of a critical element is called

  1. Critical deficiency
  2. Secondary deficiency
  3. Primary deficiency
  4. Complete deficiency

Answer: 3. Primary deficiency

Question 7. Who prescribed a medium containing microelements for the first time?

  1. Gericke
  2. Arnon Ploagland
  3. Knop
  4. Stout

Answer: 2. Arnon Ploagland

Question 8. Excess of manganese may induce the deficiencies of

  1. Iron
  2. Calcium
  3. Magnesium
  4. All of these

Answer: 4. All of these

Question 9. A partial mineral element is

  1. N
  2. P
  3. K
  4. S

Answer: 1. N

Question 10.The deficiency of which element causes the deficiency of nitrogen?

  1. Mo
  2. K
  3. Mn
  4. S

Answer: 1. Mo

Question 11. Minerals associated with redox reactions are

  1. N, Cu
  2. Fe, Cu
  3. Fe, K
  4. Mn, Mo

Answer: 2. Fe, Cu

Question 12. Minerals that maintain cation-anion balance in cells are

  1. Cl, K
  2. Fe, Cu
  3. K, P
  4. Ca, Fe

Answer: 1. Cl, K

Question 13. Interveinal chlorosis is due to the deficiency of

  1. Fe
  2. Mn
  3. N
  4. B

Answer: 1. Fe

Question 14. Match columns A and B correctly.

NEET Biology Mineral Nutrition Match The Column

  1. (1) → (C), (2) → (A), (3) → (D), (4) → (B)
  2. (1) → (C), (2) → (A), (3) → (B), (4) → (D)
  3. (1) → (C), (2) → (B), (3)→(D), (4)→ (A)
  4. (1) → (A), (2) → (B), (3) → (C), (4) → (D)

Answer: 2. (1) → (C), (2) → (A), (3) → (B), (4) → (D)

Question 15. Which of the following groups of elements are mobile?

  1. Fe, Ca, B
  2. N, P, K
  3. B, K, Ca
  4. Ca, Mg, K

Answer: 2. Fe, Ca, B

Question 16. Which of the following elements are required for chlorophyll synthesis?

  1. Fe and Mg
  2. Mo and Ca
  3. Cu and Ca
  4. Ca and K

Answer: 1. Fe and Mg

Question 17. If chloroplast is burnt, then which of the following is left?

  1. Magnesium
  2. Manganese
  3. Iron
  4. Sulfur

Answer: 1. Magnesium

Question 18. Which one of the following is a sulfur-containing amino acid?

  1. Valine
  2. Methionine
  3. Tryptophan
  4. Phenylalanine

Answer: 2. Methionine

Question 19. Copper deficiency leads to

  1. Exanthema
  2. Whiptail of cauliflower
  3. Little leaf condition
  4. Interveinal chlorosis

Answer: 1. Exanthema

Question 20. Phosphorus is found maximum in

  1. Roots
  2. Fruits
  3. Flowers
  4. None of these

Answer: 2. Fruits

Question 21. Which of the following is required for auxin synthesis?

  1. Calcium
  2. Zinc
  3. Sugars
  4. Proteins

Answer: 2. Zinc

Question 22. Reversible binding of cations, a property possessed by clay particles, is known as

  1. Retentive capacity
  2. Cation exchange
  3. Adsorption
  4. Chelation

Answer: 2. Cation exchange

Question 23. A characteristic of ion channels is/are

  1. They are transmembrane proteins functioning a selective pores
  2. They were discovered by Neher and Sakman
  3. They are gated canners
  4. All of these

Answer: 4. All of these

Question 24. The theory of Donnan equilibrium explains the process of some

  1. Fixed diffusible cations on the inner side
  2. Fixed non-diffusible anions on the inner side
  3. Non-fixed diffusible anions on the inner side
  4. Non-fixed diffusible cations on the inner side

Answer: 2. Fixed non-diffusible anions on the inner side

Question 25. Mineral salts which are absorbed by the roots from the soil, are in the from of

  1. Very dilute solution
  2. Dilute solution
  3. Concentrated solution
  4. Very concentrated solution

Answer: 1. Very dilute solution

Question 26. The movement of electrolytes through the roots is a general

  1. Against the electrochemical gradient and requires energy
  2. Along the electrochemical gradient and does not require energy
  3. A passive process
  4. Dependent on aquaporins

Answer: 1. Against the electrochemical gradient and requires energy

Question 27. Ionic uptake against electrochemical gradient without the expenditure of metabolic energy can be explained by

  1. Ion exchange
  2. Donnan equilibrium
  3. Carrier proteins
  4. Both (1) and (2)

Answer: 4. Both (1) and (2)

Question 28. Transpiration pull or water tension in leaf is responsible for which one of the following methods of absorption of minerals by the plants from soil?

  1. Active absorption of minerals
  2. Mass flow
  3. Donnan equilibrium
  4. Ionic exchange

Answer: 2. Mass flow

Question 29. If nitrogen is bubbled in the rooting medium, active absorption of minerals will

  1. Increase
  2. Decrease
  3. Remain same
  4. Stop immediately

Answer: 2. Decrease

Question 30. During ionic flux, the uptake of ions into inner space is

  1. Active
  2. Passive
  3. Energy-dependent
  4. Both (1) and (3)

Answer: 4. Both (1) and (3)

Question 31. Carrier proteins for active salt uptake

  1. Have pores
  2. Form complex with ions
  3. Function under transpiration pull
  4. All of these

Answer: 2. Form complex with ions

Question 32. The translocation of solute is

  1. Equal to the rate of translocation of water
  2. Dependent on transpiration pull
  3. Through xylem vessel
  4. None of these

Answer: 4. None of these

Question 33. Find the odd one (with respect to the critical element).

  1. Nitrogen
  2. Potassium
  3. Nickel
  4. Phosphorus

Answer: 3. Nickel

Question 34. The process of conversion of NH4 → NO2  → NO3 is called

  1. Ammonification
  2. Nitrification
  3. N2 fixation
  4. Denitrification

Answer: 2. Nitrification

Question 35. Which of the following is/are diazotrophs?

  1. Rhizobitnn and Azotobacter
  2. Frankia and Klebsiella
  3. Anabaena and Nos toe
  4. All of these

Answer: 4. All of these

Question 36. Which is not true for nitrogenase enzyme in root nodules in legumes?

  1. Synthesized by nit genes of Rhizobium
  2. Site of reduction of N2 into NH3
  3. It is a Mo-Fe protein
  4. Resistant to O2 concentration

Answer: 4. Resistant to O2 concentration

Question 37. Cell division in root nodules is promoted by se creted by plants and secreted by bacteria.

  1. Auxin, Cytokinin
  2. Cytokinin, Auxin
  3. Auxin, Leghemoglobin
  4. Nitrogenase, Leg hemoglobin

Answer: 1. Auxin, Cytokinin

Question 38. Conversion of NO3 → NO2 → NH4 is called is catalysed by

  1. Nitrate assimilation; nitrate and nitrite reductase
  2. Nitrification; nitrate and nitrite reductase
  3. Ammonification; glutamate dehydrogenase
  4. Denitrification; transaminase

Answer: 1. Nitrate assimilation; nitrate and nitrite reductase

Question 39. Transported and storage forms of nitrogen in plants are

  1. Amides
  2. Polypeptides
  3. Amino acids
  4. α-ketoglutaric acids

Answer: 1. Amides

Question 40. The amino acid which plays a central role in nitrogen metabolism is/are

  1. Glutamic acid
  2. α-ketoglutaric acid
  3. Aspartic acid
  4. Double-aminated keto acids

Answer: 1. Glutamic acid

Question 41. The amino acid which plays a central role in nitrogen metabolism is/are

  1. Anthoceros
  2. Aulosira
  3. Nostoc
  4. Groundnut

Answer: 4. Groundnut

Question 42. Nitrite reductase enzyme is used to convert

  1. Nitrate into nitrite ion
  2. Nitrogen of the atmosphere into ammonia
  3. Ammonia into nitrates
  4. Nitrite to ammonium ion

Answer: 4. Ammonia into nitrates

Question 43. What do hemi parasites absorb from the host?

  1. Water and minerals
  2. Sugar
  3. Both (1) and (3)
  4. Nothing

Answer: 2. Sugar

Question 44. The small rootless aquatic herb in which a portion of the leaf forms a tiny sac or bladder that traps water insects is

  1. Dionaea
  2. Utricularia
  3. Sarracenia
  4. Drosera

Answer: 2. Utricularia

Question 45. The process of conversion of NO2, NO3, NH3 to N2 is called and is done by

  1. Nitrification, Nitrosomouas
  2. Denitrification, Pseudomonas
  3. Nitrate assimilation, Nitrogenase
  4. Ammonification, Bacillus

Answer: 4. Ammonification, Bacillus

Question 46. Which of the following elements are essential for the photolysis of water?

  1. Ca and Cl
  2. Mn and Cl
  3. Zn and I
  4. Cu and Fe

Answer: 2. Mn and Cl

Question 47. Which of the following is related with the transfer of food material?

  1. Xylem
  2. Collenchyma
  3. Phloem
  4. Parenchyma

Answer: 3. Phloem

Question 48. Which of the following elements is most mobile in plant metabolism?

  1. Calcium
  2. Phosphorus
  3. Carbon
  4. Magnesium

Answer: 2. Phosphorus

Question 49. The process of converting ammonia to nitrate by bacteria is known as

  1. Ammonification
  2. Nitrification
  3. Nitrogen fixation
  4. Denitrification

Answer: 2. Nitrification

Question 50. Root nodules that are present in plants are meant for fertilizers and are found in/on

  1. Certain leguminous plants
  2. Casuarina
  3. Ainas
  4. All of the above

Answer: 4. All of the above

Question 51. Agriculturists have reported about 40-50% higher yields of rice by applying

  1. Azolla
  2. Cyanophycean members
  3. Mycorrhizae
  4. Thom forest

Answer: 1. Azolla

Question 52. A nutrient element essential for the formation of microtubules of the mitotic spindle apparatus during cell division is

  1. Phosphorus
  2. Sulfur
  3. Calcium
  4. Zinc

Answer: 3. Calcium

Question 53. The non-symbiotic N2 fixer is

  1. Anabaena
  2. Rhizobium
  3. Azotobactor
  4. Azolla

Answer: 3. Azotobactor

Question 54. The N2 fixing bacterium associated with root nodules of legumes is known as

  1. Azotobacter
  2. Nitrobacter
  3. Lactobacillus
  4. Rhizobium

Answer: 4. Rhizobium

Question 55. The bacteria that converts nitrate into molecular nitrogen is called

  1. Nitrifying bacteria
  2. Methanobactcria
  3. Diazotrophic bacteria
  4. Denitrifying bacteria

Answer: 4. Denitrifying bacteria

Question 56. The bacterium capable of anaerobic N2 fixation is known as

  1. Clostridium
  2. Bacillus
  3. Azotobacter
  4. Rhizobium

Answer: 1. Clostridium

Question 57. Which element is essential for the photolysis of water?

  1. Nitrogen
  2. Manganese
  3. Carbon
  4. Oxygen

Answer: 2. Manganese

Question 58. Which of the following can utilise molecular nitrogen (N2) as a nutrient for growth?

  1. Rhizobium
  2. Spirogyra
  3. Mucor
  4. Methancoccus

Answer: 1. Rhizobium

Question 59. Sinks are related to

  1. Transport of organic solutes
  2. Stomata
  3. Enzymes
  4. Phytochrome

Answer: 1. Transport of organic solutes

Question 60. Supply ends in the transport of solute are

  1. Green leaves and storage organs
  2. Root and stem
  3. Xylem and phloem
  4. Hormones and enzyme

Answer: 1. Green leaves and storage organs

Question 61. Which of the following is a biofertilizer?

  1. Funaria
  2. Fern
  3. Anabaena
  4. Fungus

Answer: 3. Anabaena

Question 62. Mo is related with

  1. N2 fixation
  2. Flower induction
  3. Chromosome contraction
  4. Carbon collection

Answer: 1. N2 fixation

Question 63. Which one of the following elements is present in chlorophylls?

  1. Manganese
  2. Magnesium
  3. Copper
  4. Iron

Answer: 2. Magnesium

Question 64. Which one of the following bacteria has the potential for nitrogen fixation?

  1. Nitrosomonas
  2. Nitrobacter
  3. Nitrosococcus
  4. Rhizobium

Answer: 4. Rhizobium

Question 65. For nitrogen fixation, the pigment useful is

  1. Nitrogenase
  2. Hemoglobin
  3. Myoglobin
  4. Leghemoglobin

Answer: 4. Leghemoglobin

Question 66. Which of the following is a symbiotic bacteria?

  1. Rhizobium
  2. Azotobacter
  3. Clostridium
  4. Streptomyces

Answer: 1. Rhizobium

Question 67. The metal ion involved in stomatal regulation is

  1. Fe
  2. Mg
  3. Zn
  4. K

Answer: 4. K

Question 68. Legume plants are important for crop production because they

  1. Help in NO2 fixation
  2. Do not help in NO2 fixation
  3. Increase soil fertility
  4. All of these

Answer: 3. Increase soil fertility

Question 69. Which of the following is a nitrogen-fixing organism?

  1. Some BGA
  2. Rhizobium
  3. Both (1) and (2)
  4. Aspergillus

Answer: 3. Both (1) and (2)

Question 70. Which of the following bacteria is involved in the two-step conversion of NH3 into nitrate?

  1. Azotobacter and Nitrosomonas
  2. Nitrosomonas and Nitrobacter
  3. Azotobacter and Achromobacter
  4. Pseudomonas and Nitrobacter

Answer: 2. Nitrosomonas and Nitrobacter

Question 71. A metal ion involved in stomatal regulation is

  1. Iron
  2. Potassium
  3. Zinc
  4. Magnesium

Answer: 2. Potassium

Question 72. The plant ash is an indication of

  1. Organic matter of plant
  2. Waste product
  3. Mineral salts absorbed by plants
  4. None of these

Answer: 3. Mineral salts absorbed by plants

Question 73. Plant ash has a maximum content of

  1. Mg
  2. Fe
  3. K
  4. B

Answer: 1. Mg

Question 74. Which of the following is a part of cytochrome?

  1. Mg
  2. Zn
  3. Fe
  4. Ca

Answer: 3. Fe

Question 75. Food in plants is translocated in the form of

  1. Glucose
  2. Starch
  3. Sucrose
  4. Fructose

Answer: 3. Sucrose

Question 76. Which of the following is not related to N2 fixation?

  1. Rhizobium
  2. Anabaena
  3. Pseudomonas
  4. Azotobacter

Answer: 3. Pseudomonas

Question 77. Which of the following is not caused by a deficiency of minerals?

  1. Chlorosis
  2. Etiolation
  3. Shortening of internodes
  4. Necrosis

Answer: 2. Etiolation

Question 78. The mineral present in cell walls is

  1. Na
  2. Ca
  3. K
  4. Mg

Answer: 2. Ca

Question 79. What happens when we inoculate Rhizobium in wheat fields?

  1. No increase in production (nitrogen content of soil remains same)
  2. A lot of increase in production (nitrogen content of soil increase)
  3. Fertility of soil decreases
  4. Fertility of soil increases

Answer: 1. No increase in production (nitrogen content of soil remains same)

Question 80. Nitrifying bacteria are able to

  1. Convert atmospheric nitrogen into soluble form
  2. Convert ammonia to nitrate
  3. Ammonia to nitrogen
  4. Nitrate to nitrogen

Answer: 2. Convert ammonia to nitrate

Question 81. Magnesium is found in

  1. Chlorophyll
  2. Carotenoid
  3. Phycobilin
  4. Cytochrome

Answer: 1. Chlorophyll

Question 82. Which of the following is a trace element?

  1. S
  2. Mg
  3. Cu
  4. P

Answer: 3. Cu

Question 83. Which one of the following organisms may respire in the absence of oxygen?

  1. Azotobacter
  2. Clostridium
  3. Rhizobium
  4. Lactobacillus

Answer: 2. Clostridium

Question 84. Which of the following is not a trace element?

  1. Zn
  2. Mn
  3. Mg
  4. Cu

Answer: 3. Mg

Question 85. Symbiotic microorganism is

  1. Clostridium
  2. Azotobacter
  3. Rhizobium
  4. Chromatium

Answer: 3. Rhizobium

Question 86. Essential mineral nutrients are the elements

  1. In the absence of this plants cannot complete their life cycle
  2. Which cannot be replaced by another element in its function
  3. Which are directly associated with the plant metabolism
  4. All of the above

Answer: 4. All of the above

Question 87. Stomatal movement is controlled by

  1. Na
  2. Mg
  3. K
  4. P

Answer: 3. K

Question 88. Which of the following enzymes fixes nitrogen?

  1. Nitrate reductase
  2. Nitrogenase
  3. PEP carboxylase
  4. RuBisCo

Answer: 2. Nitrogenase

Question 89. The bacterium capable of anaerobic nitrogen fixation is

  1. Azatobacter
  2. Rhizobium
  3. Bacillus
  4. Clostridium

Answer: 4. Clostridium

Question 90. In plant metabolism, phosphorus plays a major role to

  1. Evolve oxygen during photosynthesis
  2. Create aerobic condition
  3. Generate metabolic energy
  4. Evolve carbon dioxide during respiration

Answer: 3. Generate metabolic energy

Question 91. Photosynthetic food material is transported in the form of

  1. Glucose
  2. Sucrose
  3. Starch
  4. Fructose

Answer: 2. Sucrose

Question 92. Chlorosis is caused due to the deficiency of

  1. Mg
  2. Ca
  3. B
  4. Mn

Answer: 1. Mg

Question 93. The major portion of the dry weight of plants comprises

  1. Nitrogen, phosphorus, and potassium
  2. Calcium, magnesium, and sulfur
  3. Carbon, nitrogen, and hydrogen
  4. Carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen

Answer: 4. Carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen

Question 94. Which one of the following mineral elements plays an important role in biological nitrogen fixation?

  1. Copper
  2. Manganese
  3. Zinc
  4. Molybdenum

Answer: 4. Molybdenum

Question 95. Stomata of CAM plants

  1. Are always open
  2. Open during the day and close at night
  3. Open at night and close during the day
  4. Never open

Answer: 3. Open at night and close during the day

Question 96. Stomata of a plant open due to

  1. The influx of potassium ions
  2. Efflux of potassium ions
  3. Influx of hydrogen ions
  4. The influx of calcium ions

Answer: 1. Influx of potassium ions

Question 97. Plants deficient of the element zinc show its effect on the biosynthesis of plant growth hormone

  1. Auxin
  2. Cytokinin
  3. Ethylene
  4. Abscisic acid

Answer: 1. Auxin

Question 98. In which one of the following is nitrogen not a constituent?

  1. Idioblast
  2. Bacteriochlorophyll
  3. Invertase
  4. Pepsin

Answer: 1. Idioblast

Question 99. Gray spots of oats are caused by the deficiency of

  1. Cu
  2. Zn
  3. Mn
  4. Fe

Answer: 3. Mn

Question 100. The most abundant element present in the plants is

  1. Iron
  2. Carbon
  3. Nitrogen
  4. Manganese

Answer: 2. Carbon

Question 101. The ability of Venus flytrap to capture insects is due to

  1. Chemical stimulation by the prey
  2. A passive process requiring no special ability on the part of the plant
  3. Specialized muscle-like cells
  4. Rapid turgor pressure changes

Answer: 4. Rapid turgor pressure changes

Question 102. The deficiencies of micronutrients not only affect the growth of plants but also vital functions such as photosynthetic and mitochondrial electron flow. Among the list given below, which group of three elements shall affect both photosynthetic and mitochondrial electron transport the most?

  1. Cu, Mn, Fe
  2. Co, Ni, Mo
  3. Mn, Co, Ca
  4. Ca, K, Na

Answer: 1. Cu, Mn, Fe

Question 103. Potometer works on the principle of

  1. The amount of water absorbed equals the amount that transpired
  2. Osmotic pressure
  3. Root pressure
  4. The potential difference between the tip of the tube and that of the plant

Answer: 1. Amount of water absorbed equals the amount that transpired

Question 104. Farmers in a particular region were concerned that the premature yellowing of leaves of a pulse crop might cause a decrease in the yield. Which treatment could be the most beneficial to obtain maximum seed yield?

  1. Removal of all yellow leaves and spraying the remaining green leaves with 2,4,5-trichloro phenoxy acetic acid
  2. Application of iron and magnesium to promote the synthesis of chlorophyll
  3. Frequent irrigation of the crop
  4. Treatment of plants with cytokinins along with a small dose of nitrogenous fertilizer

Answer: 2. Application of iron and magnesium to promote the synthesis of chlorophyll

Question 105. Sulfur is an important nutrient for optimum growth and productivity in

  1. Fiber crops
  2. Oil seed crops
  3. Pulse crops
  4. Cereals

Answer: 2. Oil seed crops

Question 106. A plant requires magnesium for

  1. Cell wall development
  2. Holding cells together
  3. Protein synthesis
  4. Chlorophyll synthesis

Answer: 4. Chlorophyll synthesis

Question 107. Which of the following is a flowering plant with nodules containing filamentous nitrogen-fixing microorganisms?

  1. Cicer arietinum
  2. Casuarina equisetifolia
  3. Crotalaria juncaea
  4. Cycas revolute

Answer: 2. Casuarina equisetifolia

Question 108. About 98% of the mass of every living organism is composed of just six elements including carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, and oxygen.

  1. Calcium and phosphorus
  2. Phosphorus and sulfur
  3. Sulfur and magnesium
  4. Magnesium and sodium

Answer: 2. Phosphorus and sulfur

Question 109. Which one of the following elements is not an essential micronutrient for plant growth?

  1. Ca
  2. Mn
  3. Zn
  4. Cu

Answer: 1. Ca

Question 110. Carbohydrates are commonly found as starch in plant storage organs. Which of the following five properties of starch (1-5) make it useful as a storage material?

  1. Easily translocated
  2. Chemically non-reactive
  3. Easily digested by animals
  4. Osmotically inactive
  5. Synthesized during photosynthesis
  1. (1), (3), and (5)
  2. (1) and (5)
  3. (2) and (3)
  4. (2) and (4)

Answer: 4. (2) and (4)

Question 111. Nitrogen fixation in the root nodules of Anlus is brought about by

  1. Frankia
  2. Azorhizobium
  3. Bradyrhizobium
  4. Clostridium

Answer: 1. Frankia

Question 112. Guard cells help in

  1. Fighting against infection
  2. Protection against grazing
  3. Transpiration
  4. Guttation

Answer: 3. Transpiration

Question 113. Manganese is required in

  1. Chlorophyll synthesis
  2. Nucleic acid synthesis
  3. Plant cell wall formation
  4. Photolysis of water during photosynthesis

Answer: 4. Photolysis of water during photosynthesis

Question 114. An element playing an important role in nitrogen fixation is

  1. Manganese
  2. Zinc
  3. Molybdenum
  4. Copper

Answer: 3. Molybdenum

Question 115. Which one of the following is not a micronutrient?

  1. Zinc
  2. Boron
  3. Molybdenum
  4. Magnesium

Answer: 4. Magnesium

Question 116. The chief water-conducting elements of xylem in gymnosperms are

  1. Transfusion tissue
  2. Tracheids
  3. Vessels
  4. Fibers

Answer: 2. Tracheids

Question 117. Which one of the following structures between two adjacent cells is an effective transport pathway?

  1. Endoplasmic reticulum
  2. Plasmalemma
  3. Plasmodesmata
  4. Plastoquinones

Answer: 3. Plasmodesmata

Question 118. One of the free-living, anaerobic nitrogen fixers is

  1. Rhizobium
  2. Azotobacter
  3. Beijerinckia
  4. Rhodospirilium

Answer: 4. Rhodospirilium

Question 119. The common nitrogen fixer in paddy fields is

  1. Oscillatoria
  2. Frankia
  3. Rhizobium
  4. Azospirillum

Answer: 4. Azospirillum

Question 120. The transport of food material in higher plants takes place through

  1. Transfusion tissue
  2. Tracheids
  3. Sieve elements
  4. Companion cells

Answer: 3. Sieve elements

Question 121. Study the cycle and select the option that gives the correct words for all four blanks A, B, C, and D.

NEET Biology Mineral Nutrition Atmospheric Cycle

NEET Biology Mineral Nutrition Atmospheric Cycle

Answer: 1

Question 122. Leguminous plants are able to fix atmospheric nitrogen through the process of symbiotic nitrogen fixation. Which one of the following statements is not correct during this process of nitrogen fixation?

  1. Nodules act as sites for nitrogen fixation.
  2. The enzyme nitrogenase catalyzes the conversion of atmospheric N2 to NH3.
  3. Nitrogenase is insensitive to oxygen.
  4. Leghemoglobin scavenges oxygen and is pinkish in color.

Answer: 3. Nitrogenase is insensitive to oxygen.

Question 123. Which one of the following is correctly matched?

  1. Apoplast—Plasmodesmata
  2. Potassium—Readily immobilization
  3. Balance of rice seedlings—F. Skoog
  4. Passive transport of nutrients—ATP

Answer: 2. Potassium—Readily immobilization

Question 124. Which one of the following is a wrong statement?

  1. Root nodule-forming nitrogen fixers live as aerobes under free-living conditions.
  2. Phosphorus is a constituent of cell membranes, certain nucleic acids, and all proteins.
  3. Nitrosomonas and Nitrobacter are chemoautotrophs.
  4. Anabaena and Nostoc are capable of fixing nitrogen in a free-living state also.

Answer: 2. Phosphorus is a constituent of cell membranes, certain nucleic acids, and all proteins.

Question 125. The nitrogen-fixing microbe associated with Azolla in rice fields is

  1. Anabaena
  2. Frankia
  3. Tolypothrix
  4. Spimlina

Answer: 1. Anabaena

Question 126. Best defined function of Manganese in green plants is

  1. Calvin cycle
  2. Nitrogen fixation
  3. Water absorption
  4. Photolysis of water

Answer: 4. Photolysis of water

Question 127. For its activity, carboxypeptidase requires

  1. Zinc
  2. Iron
  3. Niacin
  4. Copper

Answer: 1. Zinc

Question 128. For its action, nitrogenase requires

  1. High input of energy
  2. Light
  3. Mn2+
  4. Super oxygen radicals

Answer: 1. High input of energy

Mineral Nutrition Assertion Reasoning Questions And Answers

In the following questions, an Assertion (A) is followed by a corresponding Reason (R). Mark the correct answer.

  1. If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
  2. If both Assertion and Reason are true, but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
  3. If Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
  4. If both Assertion and Reason are false.

Question 1. Assertion: Some mineral nutrients are essential.

Reasoning: They can be synthesized by the plants.

Answer: 2. If both Assertion and Reason are true, but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.

Question 2. Assertion: Ca++ cannot replace H+ adsorbed on clay or humus particles.

Reasoning: The retentive capacity of Ca+2 is more than that of H+.

Answer: 2. If both Assertion and Reason are true, but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.

Question 3. Assertion: Chelating agents used in improving the availability of some minerals in soil are actually electron acceptors.

Reasoning: They increase the solubility of some minerals in acidic soils.

Answer: 2. If both Assertion and Reason are true, but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.

Question 4. Assertion: N, P, and K are called critical elements.

Reasoning: They become deficient easily in soil due to leaching and higher requirements.

Answer: 4. If both Assertion and Reason are false.

Question 5. Assertion: When cation uptake exceeds anion uptake, certain changes occur in the ionic composition of the cell.

Reasoning: H2O and organic acids produced within cell dissociate and H+ moves outside the cell.

Answer: 1. If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.

 

 

NEET Biology Multiple Choice Questions – Human Health And Disease

Human Health And Disease Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. Health is defined as

  1. Complete physical well being
  2. Mental well being
  3. Social well being
  4. All of these

Answer. 4. All of these

Question 2. A disease which can be transferred from mother to child through placenta is

  1. German measles
  2. Syphilis
  3. AIDS
  4. All of these

Answer. 4. All of these

Question 3. Which of the following is a bacterial disease?

  1. Measles
  2. Chicken pox
  3. Rabies
  4. Tuberculosis

Answer. 4. Tuberculosis

Question 4. Different species of Mycobacterium cause

  1. Syphilis and diphtheria
  2. Whooping cough and leprosy
  3. Tuberculosis and leprosy
  4. Syphilis and gonorrhea

Answer. 3. Tuberculosis and leprosy

Question 5. A disease contracted through wounds, accidents, and improperly sterilized surgical instrument is

  1. Tetanus
  2. Gonorrhoea
  3. Mumps
  4. Amoebiasis

Answer. 1. Tetanus

Question 6. Which one is not spread by droplet infection?

  1. Tuberculosis
  2. Diphtheria
  3. Pertussis
  4. Gonorrhea

Answer. 4. Gonorrhea

Question 7. Entamoeba histolytica is transmitted through

  1. Insect bite
  2. Sweat
  3. Food and water contamination
  4. Bird droppings

Answer. 3. Food and water contamination

Question 8. Malarial parasite can be obtained in RBCs of patient

  1. When temperature reaches normal
  2. An hour before rise in temperature
  3. When temperature rises with rigor
  4. A few hours after temperature reaches normal

Answer. 3. When temperature rises with rigor

Question 9. Recurrent high fever in malaria is due to the completion of

  1. Erythrocytic schizogony
  2. Sporogony
  3. Gamogony
  4. Exoerythrocytic schizogony

Answer. 1. Eryth rocytic schizogony

Question 10. Which of the following disease has been eradicated?

  1. Plague
  2. Poliomyelitis
  3. Smallpox
  4. Kala-azar

Answer. 3. Smallpox

Question 11. Which infectious disease can be treated effectively using the oil of chenopodium?

  1. Ascariasis
  2. Filariasis
  3. Malaria
  4. Poliomyelitis

Answer. 1. Ascariasis

Question 12. In one of the following diseases, fever must not be man-aged using Aspirin; instead Paracetamol is used. Which is the one?

  1. Chikungunya
  2. Filariasis
  3. Pneumonia
  4. Dengue fever

Answer. 4. Dengue fever

Question 13. If you are advised to get a Widal test done for yourself, which disease is your doctor suspecting?

  1. Typhoid
  2. Cholera
  3. Pneumonia
  4. Filariasis

Answer. 1. Typhoid

Question 14. Your patient shows paroxysms of malaria after every 72 h. Which species of Plasmodium will be considered responsible to cause the infection?

  1. P. vivax
  2. P. ovals
  3. P. malariae
  4. P. falciparum

Answer. 3. P. malariae

Question 15. Which stage of Plasmodium parasite is infective for man?

  1. Schizont
  2. Gametocytes
  3. Sporozoite
  4. Merozoites

Answer. 3. Sporozoite

Question 16. A prescription letter reads the following treatment advise Metronidazole, Tinidazole, Emetine. Which amongst the following diseases is it dealing with?

  1. Dengue
  2. Malaria
  3. Amoebiasis
  4. Pneumonia

Answer. 3. Amoebiasis

Question 17. Which type of cancer can be caused by exposure to cadmium oxide over a long period of time?

  1. Vagina
  2. Prostate gland
  3. Skin
  4. Lung

Answer. 2. Prostate gland

Question 18. A plant called Sadabahar is known to produce an anti-cancer drug known as

  1. Taxol
  2. Vincristine
  3. Colchicine
  4. Cyciosporine

Answer. 2. Vincristine

Question 19. A cancerous condition known as Burkitt’s lymphoma is known to be caused by virus like

  1. Rous sarcoma virus
  2. Herpes simplex virus
  3. Epstein Barr virus
  4. Hepatitis B virus

Answer. 3. Epstein Barr virus

Question 20. The genome of HIV, the causative organism of AIDS, is made up of

  1. ssRNA
  2. ssDNA
  3. dsRNA
  4. dsDNA

Answer. 1. ssRNA

Question 21. Which molecule is used for the attachment of HIV to CD4 receptor on the cell?

  1. GP120
  2. P24
  3. GP41
  4. P17

Answer. 1. GP120

Question 22. Which term would you use for the combination of diseases such as Kaposi’s sarcoma, Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia, and Leukoplakia?

  1. Contagious diseases
  2. Opportunistic diseases
  3. Diarrhoeal diseases
  4. Autoimmune diseases

Answer. 2. Opportunistic diseases

Question 23. Which amongst the following can be considered as a part of ART (anti-retroviral therapy)?

  1. Procaine
  2. Novacaine
  3. Zidovudine
  4. Colchicine

Answer. 3. Zidovudine

Question 24. Which of the following will be included under innate immunity?

  1. Mucus membrane
  2. Interferons
  3. Natural killer cells
  4. All of these

Answer. 4. All of these

Question 25. Interferon is a protein that

  1. Inactivates a virus
  2. Protects unattacked cells from virus
  3. Prevents viruses from taking over the cellular ma- chinery
  4. Both (2) and (3)

Answer. 4. Both (2) and (3)

Question 26. Which of the following is not true for interferon?

  1. These act outside the cells.
  2. These are quick acting.
  3. Their action is long lasting.
  4. These act against viruses.

Answer. 3. Their action is long lasting.

Question 27. What is the role of complement in the body’s defense?

  1. It interferes with viral replication.
  2. It is involved with antibody production.
  3. It aids antigen presentation.
  4. It causes cell lysis.

Answer. 4. It causes cell lysis.

Question 28. Natural killer (NK) cells can destroy

  1. Invading microorganisms
  2. Virus infected cells
  3. Some tumor cells
  4. All of these

Answer. 4. All of these

Question 29. The opposite to innate immunity is

  1. Passive immunity
  2. T-cells immunity
  3. Phagocytosis
  4. Acquired immunity

Answer. 4. Acquired immunity

Question 30. Active immunity is obtained by

  1. Natural resistance
  2. Antibiotics
  3. Weakened germs infection
  4. None of these

Answer. 3. Weakened germs infection

Question 31. Immunity acquired after an infection is

  1. Active immunity
  2. Passive immunity
  3. Innate immunity
  4. Both (2) and (3)

Answer. 1. Active immunity

Question 32. Which of the following immunity is conferred by the transfer of immune products such as antibodies from an individual into a non-immune individual?

  1. Adaptive immunity
  2. Specific immunity
  3. Active immunity
  4. Passive immunity

Answer. 4. Passive immunity

Question 33. Active immunity is due to

  1. Memory cells
  2. Killer T-cells
  3. Helper T-cells
  4. Suppressor T-cells

Answer. 1. Memory cells

Question 34. The cell which plays a major role in host defense against tumor cells and the cells infected with viruses is

  1. B lymphocytes
  2. Interterons
  3. NK cell
  4. Neutrophils

Answer. 3. NK cell

Question 35. Antigenic determinant sites bind to which portions of an antibody molecule?

  1. Light chains
  2. Heavy chains
  3. Intermediate chains
  4. Both (1) and (2)

Answer. 4. Both (1) and (2)

Question 36. Antibody is

  1. A substance that specifically inactivates an antigen
  2. Phagocyle that feeds on invading pathogen
  3. Cellular component of blood
  4. Secretion of ABC

Answer. 1. A substance that specifically inactivates an antigen

Question 37. The type of immunoglobulin present in the colostrum secreted by mammary glands is

  1. IgD
  2. IgE
  3. IgG
  4. IgA

Answer. 4. IgA

Question 38. The type of immunoglobulin whose function is possible antigen recognition by B-cells may be

  1. IgE
  2. IgA
  3. IgD
  4. IgG

Answer. 3. IgD

Question 39. Opsonization is carried out by

  1. IgM
  2. IgA
  3. IgD
  4. IgG

Answer. 4. IgG

Question 40. Which of the following antibody is mediator in allergic response?

  1. IgA
  2. IgD
  3. IgE
  4. IgG

Answer. 3. IgE

Question 41. Which of the following is not a difference between IgG and IgM?

  1. IgM is a pentamer while IgG is a monomer.
  2. IgG is formed early during the primary response; IgM is formed later.
  3. IgG can cross the placenta, IgM usually does not.
  4. IgG has two antigen binding sites, IgM has ten.

Answer. 2. IgG is formed early during the primary response; IgM is formed later.

Question 42. The hepatitis B vaccine is

  1. Interferon
  2. First-generation vaccine
  3. Second-generation vaccine
  4. Third-generation vaccine

Answer. 3. Second-generation vaccine

Question 43. Which of the following is/are example/s of autoimmune disease?

  1. Multiple sclerosis
  2. Insulin dependent diabetes
  3. Rheumatoid arthritis
  4. All of these

Answer. 4. All of these

Question 44. An autoimmune disease is

  1. Hemophilia
  2. AIDS
  3. Allergy
  4. Myasthenia gravis

Answer. 4. Myasthenia gravis

Question 45. One of the following drugs depresses (switch off) the activities of eNS and is known as sedative. It gives feeling of calmness, relaxation, or drowsiness. It is

  1. Opium
  2. Heroin
  3. Cocaine
  4. Barbiturate

Answer. 4. Barbiturate

Question 46. Sleeping pills contain

  1. Benzodiazepines
  2. Psilocybin
  3. Tranquilizers
  4. LSD

Answer. 1. Benzodiazepines

Question 47. Opium is obtained from which part of poppy plant?

  1. Leaf
  2. Flower
  3. Root
  4. Fruit

Answer. 4. Fruit

Question 48. Which of the following is obtained from Papaver somniferum?

  1. Opium
  2. Heroin
  3. Methadone
  4. All of these

Answer. 4. All of these

Question 49. Marijuana is obtained from

  1. Ergot
  2. Cannabis
  3. Papaver
  4. Coffea

Answer. 2. Cannabis

Question 50. Which of the following belongs to “pain killers”?

  1. Sedatives
  2. Opiates
  3. Hallucinogens
  4. Stimulants

Answer. 2. Opitates

Question 51. One of the following is called

  1. Whooping cough
  2. Tetanus
  3. Hepatitis
  4. Hydrophobia

Answer. 2. Tetanus

Question 52. Quartan malaria is caused by

  1. Plasmodium vivax
  2. P. ovals
  3. P. falciparum
  4. P. malariae

Answer. 4. P. malariae

Question 53. The cancer caused in tissues derived from mesoderm such as connective tissues (bones, cartilages, tendons) is known as

  1. Leukemia
  2. Sarcomas
  3. Carcinomas
  4. None of these

Answer. 2. Sarcomas

Question 54. Liver cancer is caused by

  1. Aflatoxin
  2. N-nitraso dimethylene
  3. Cadmium oxide
  4. Mustard gas

Answer. 1. Aflatoxin

Question 55. Antihistamine relieves

  1. Nephritis
  2. Allergy
  3. Stroke
  4. Angina pectoris

Answer. 2. Allergy

Question 56. Leprosy is due to

  1. Mycobacterium
  2. Corynebacterium
  3. Treponema
  4. Neisseria

Answer. 1. Mycobacterium

Question 57. A disease with social stigma is

  1. Chicken pox
  2. Measles
  3. Trachoma
  4. Leprosy

Answer. 4. Leprosy

Question 58. A disease that destroys the ventral horn cells of spinal cord is

  1. Polio
  2. Malaria
  3. Leprosy
  4. Arthritis

Answer. 1. Polio

Question 59. Malarial parasite can be obtained from patient

  1. During fever
  2. Before temperature rise
  3. After temperature becomes normal
  4. All of these

Answer. 1. During fever

Question 60. Entamoeba histolytica causes

  1. Chicken pox
  2. Tetanus
  3. Dysentery
  4. Elephantiasis

Answer. 3. Dysentery

Question 61. Filariasis is caused by

  1. Wuchereria bancrofti
  2. Glossina palpalis
  3. Phlebotomus argentipes
  4. All of these

Answer. 1. Wuchereria bancrofti

Question 62. Neoplasms are

  1. Nuclei with massive DNA
  2. Cells without covering membranes
  3. Cells capable of unlimited division
  4. Newly produced cells formed through uncontrolled cell proliferation

Answer. 4. Newly produced cells formed through uncontrolled cell proliferation

Question 63. In leukemia, there is tremendous increase in the number of

  1. RBCs
  2. Immature cells
  3. WBCs
  4. Both white blood cells and immature cells

Answer. 4. Both white blood cells and immature cells

Question 64. Carcinogen present in coal tar is

  1. Nitroso dimethylene
  2. 3,4-Benzopyrene
  3. 2-Naphthylamine
  4. 4-Amino biphenyl

Answer. 2. 3,4-Benzopyrene

Question 65. A disease which often produces deformities of fingers and toes is

  1. Poliomyelitis
  2. Tuberculosis
  3. Typhoid
  4. Leprosy

Answer. 4. Leprosy

Question 66. Which of the following statement is incorrect?

  1. Epitopes are antigen-determining sites which are recognized by antibodies.
  2. Nowadays, for the treatment of cancer, the patients are given substances called biological response modifiers such as a-interferon which activate their immune system and help in destroying the tumor.
  3. Toxoids provide passive immunity.
  4. “ATS” (anti tetanus serum) provides us artificially acquired passive immunity.

Answer. 3. Toxoids provide passive immunity.

Question 67. The side-effects of the use of anabolic steroids in females include

a. Masculinization (features like males)

b. Increased aggressiveness

c. Mood swings

d. Premature baldness

Choose the correct option:

  1. (a) and (b) only
  2. (a), (b), and (c) only
  3. (a) only
  4. (a), (b), (c), and (d)

Answer. 2. (a), (b), and (c) only

Question 68. Which of the following is incorrect with respect to HIV infection?

  1. HIV/AIDS is not spread by mere touch or physical contact; it spreads only through body fluids.
  2. Macrophages continue to produce virus and, in this way, act like an HIV factory
  3. HIV enters into the helper T-lymphocytes (TH), replicates, and produces progeny virus which leads to a progressive decrease in the number of helper T-lymphocytes in the body of infected person.
  4. HIV does not get transmitted through organ trans- plant from an HIV infected person.

Answer. 4. HIV does not get transmitted through organ trans- plant from an HIV infected person.

Question 69. If a person is infected with some deadly microbes to which quick immune response is required as in tetanus, the doctor needs to directly inject

  1. Antigenic protein of pathogen
  2. Inactivated/weakened pathogens
  3. Killed pathogens
  4. Preformed antibodies/antitoxin

Answer. 4. Preformed antibodies/antitoxin

Question 70. Which of the following lymphoid organ does not provide the sites for the interaction of lymphocytes with the antigen, which then proliferate to become effector cells?

  1. Tonsils
  2. Peyer’s patches
  3. Bone marrow
  4. Spleen

Answer. 3. Bone marrow

Question 71. Humoral immunity is due to

  1. B-lymphocytes
  2. T-lymphocytes
  3. L-lymphocytes
  4. P-lymphocytes

Answer. 1. B-lymphocytes

Question 72. Passive immunity is one which is obtained by injecting

  1. Antibiotics
  2. Vaccines containing weakened germs
  3. Antibodies
  4. Antigens

Answer. 2. Vaccines containing weakened germs

Question 73. During allergic reactions, the destructive substances produced are

  1. Allergens
  2. Histamines
  3. Immunoglobulins
  4. Antibodies

Answer. 4. Antibodies

Question 74. The B- and T-cells that are critical for immune system are produced in

  1. Bone marrow cells
  2. Spleen
  3. Lymph nodes
  4. Bone marrow and thymus

Answer. 1. Bone marrow cells

Question 75. On the basis of heavy chains, immunoglobulins are classified into how many types?

  1. Two
  2. Three
  3. Four
  4. Five

Answer. 4. Five

Question 76. The process in which all living organisms are killed by heat treatment is known as

  1. Pasteurization
  2. Immunity
  3. Sterilization
  4. None of these

Answer. 3. Sterilization

Question 77. Vaccination against smallpox means the introduction into our body of

  1. Leucocytes obtained from animals
  2. Antibodies produced in other animal
  3. Antibodies
  4. Attenuated smallpox virus

Answer. 1. Leucocytes obtained from animals

Question 78. Hypersensitivity to an allergen is associated with

  1. Aberrant functioning of the immune mechanism
  2. Increase in ambient temperature
  3. Age of the individual
  4. Food habits

Answer. 1. Aberrant functioning of the immune mechanism

Question 79. Antibodies are produced by

  1. Lymphocytes
  2. Leucocytes
  3. Monocytes
  4. Spleen

Answer. 1. Lymphocytes

Question 80. Vaccines are prepared from immune

  1. Vitamins
  2. Blood
  3. Serum
  4. Plasma

Answer. 3. Serum

Question 81. Which one of the following is true for T-lymphocytes?

  1. They cannot release antibodies.
  2. They mature in lymph nodes.
  3. They comprise 10-15% of lymphocytes.
  4. They are principal cells in lymph nodes’ cortical center.

Answer. 4. They are principal cells in lymph nodes’ cortical center.

Question 82. Certain children are immune to certain disease due to

  1. T-cells immune system
  2. B-cells immune system
  3. Memory cells
  4. Phagocyte-antigen reaction

Answer. 3. Memory cells

Question 83. Mast cells secrete a protein which causes the dilation of blood vessels. The protein is

  1. Pyrogens
  2. Histamine
  3. Interferon
  4. None of these

Answer. 2. Histamine

Question 84. The cells which suppress the entire immune system from their attack in the same body are known as

  1. Helper T-cells
  2. Killer B-cells
  3. Suppressor cells
  4. Suppressor T-cells

Answer. 4. Suppressor T-cells

Question 85. Memory cells are

  1. Cells responsible for immunologic memory
  2. Antigens
  3. Cells of cerebrum
  4. Cells responsible for memory in brain

Answer. 1. Cells responsible for immunologic memory

Question 86. An auto-immune disease is

  1. B-lymphocytes induced
  2. Hemophilia
  3. Myasthenia gravis
  4. None of these

Answer. 3. Myasthenia gravis

Question 87. Hormone produced against allergic reaction is

  1. Epinephrine
  2. Nor-epinephrine
  3. Glucocorticoid
  4. Mineralocorticoid

Answer. 1. Epinephrine

Question 88. Antigen binding site on antibodies is at

  1. Light chain
  2. Strong chain
  3. Variable position
  4. Any of above

Answer. 3. Variable position

Question 89. Active immunity means

  1. Resistance developed after disease
  2. Resistance developed before disease
  3. Increasing rate of heart beat
  4. Increasing quantity of blood

Answer. 1. Resistance developed after disease

Question 90. B- and T-cells which are considered critical for immune system are produced in

  1. Bone marrow
  2. Lymphoid
  3. Spleen
  4. None of the above

Answer. 1. Bone marrow

Question 91. The site of B-cell maturation in the human body is

  1. Thymus
  2. Tonsils and adenoids
  3. Not yet identified
  4. Brain and spinal cord

Answer. 3. Not yet identified

Question 92. Which antibody molecule is made of two monomers?

  1. IgM
  2. IgG
  3. IgD
  4. IgE

Answer. 4. IgE

Question 93. Allergens are

  1. Certain microbes which are pathogenic
  2. Weak antibodies produced by certain substances in the body
  3. Weak antigens which produce sensitive reactions in the body
  4. None of these

Answer. 3. Weak antigens which produce sensitive reactions in the body

Question 94. Immunoglobulin related with opsonization is

  1. IgA
  2. IgM
  3. IgA and IgG
  4. IgE

Answer. 3. IgA and IgG

Question 95. Antiserum contains

  1. Antigen
  2. Leucocytes
  3. Antibodies
  4. None of these

Answer. 3. Antibodies

Question 96. The type of immunoglobulin present in the colostrum secreted by mammary glands is

  1. IgA
  2. IgG
  3. IgD
  4. IgE

Answer. 1. IgA

Question 97. Gamma-globulins are synthesized in

  1. Lymph and lymph nodes
  2. Liver
  3. Bone marrow
  4. Kidney

Answer. 1. Lymph and lymph nodes

Question 98. Which is not an immunological technique?

  1. Antibiotic injection
  2. Tetanus toxoid
  3. Gamma-globulin
  4. Smallpox vaccination

Answer. 1. Antibiotic injection

Question 99. Which is wrong?

  1. Body’s first line of defense is skin.
  2. The second line of defense is skin and phagocytic cells.
  3. The third line of defense is immune system.
  4. Lines of body defense are skin, phagocytic cells, and immune system.

Answer. 2. The second line of defense is skin and phagocytic cells.

Question 100. Squeezing of leucocytes from capillary walls is

  1. Diakinesis
  2. Diapedesis
  3. Diapause
  4. Diaphysis

Answer. 2. Diapedesis

Question 101. Binding of antigen to antibody is through

  1. Electrostatic interactions
  2. Covalent bonds
  3. Disulfide bridge
  4. Amide formation

Answer. 1. Electrostatic interactions

Question 102. Interferon was discovered by

  1. Gajdusek
  2. Stanley and Prusiner
  3. Isaacs and Lindermann
  4. Randles

Answer. 3. Isaacs and Lindermann

Question 103. Antibodies in our body are produced by

  1. B-lymphocyte
  2. T-lymphocyte
  3. Monocytes
  4. RBCs

Answer. 1. B-lymphocyte

Question 104. Acquired immuno deficiency syndrome (AIDS) is

  1. Characterized by a reduction in the number of killer T-cells
  2. An autoimmune disease
  3. Characterized by a reduction in the number of helper T-cells
  4. The result of the inability of the body to produce interferons

Answer. 3. Characterized by a reduction in the number of helper T-cells

Question 105. Which is a water-borne disease?

  1. Smallpox
  2. Tuberculosis
  3. Malaria
  4. Cholera

Answer. 4. Cholera

Question 106. AIDS related complex (ARC) is a disease which leads to fever, swollen lymph nodes, loss in weight, etc. It represents

  1. Severe form of AIDS
  2. Initial form of AIDS
  3. No link with AIDS
  4. None of the above

Answer. 2. Initial form of AIDS

Question 107. Bhang, charas, and ganja are resinous materials of Cannabis indica and are psychotropic intoxicating drugs. These drugs are used as

  1. Hallucinogens
  2. Narcotics
  3. Stimulants
  4. Sedatives

Answer. 1. Hallucinogens

Question 108. “Brown sugar” is the commonly used name for

  1. LSD
  2. Hashish
  3. Heroin
  4. Barbiturates

Answer. 3. Heroin

Question 109. Bhang and hemp are obtained from

  1. Mesua ferrea
  2. Cannabis sativa
  3. Viola odorata
  4. Centella asiatica

Answer. 2. Cannabis sativa

Question 110. The use of cannabis products (bhang, charas, ganja, marijuana, and hashish)

  1. Causes depression of brain activity and feeling of calmness
  2. Alters thought, perception, and feelings
  3. Suppresses brain function and relieves pain
  4. Stimulates the nervous system and increases alertness and activity

Answer. 2. Alters thought, perception, and feelings

Question 111. Caffeine, cocaine, and amphetamines are

  1. Sedatives
  2. Tranquilizers
  3. Stimulants
  4. Hallucinogens

Answer. 3. Stimulants

Question 112. Heroin is obtained from the plant of family

  1. Leguminosae
  2. Papaverceae
  3. Liliaceae
  4. Solanaceae

Answer. 2. Papaverceae

Question 113. Liver damage caused by excessive drinking of alcohol is called

  1. Hepatitis
  2. Dermatitis
  3. Liver cirrhosis
  4. Liver diarrhea

Answer. 3. Liver cirrhosis

Question 114. Addiction of LSD will eventually lead to

  1. Hallucination
  2. Damage of lungs
  3. Mental and emotional disturbances
  4. Damage to kidneys

Answer. 4. Damage to kidneys

Question 115. Addiction to tobacco is caused by the presence of

  1. Caffeine
  2. Nicotine
  3. Cocaine
  4. Histamine

Answer. 2. Nicotine

Question 116. Hallucinogen drug among the following is

  1. Lysergic acid diethylamide
  2. Heroin
  3. Morphine
  4. Cocaine

Answer. 1. Lysergic acid diethylamide

Question 117. Mental depression is caused by diminished activity of

  1. Histamine
  2. Norepinephrine
  3. Dopamine
  4. All of these

Answer. 2. Norepinephrine

Question 118. The final stage of drug addiction results in

  1. Drug immunity
  2. Drug dependence
  3. Drug resistance
  4. All of these

Answer. 2. Drug dependence

Question 119. The use of tobacco originated in

  1. India
  2. Africa
  3. America
  4. Germany

Answer. 3. America

Question 120. Sleeping pills are made from

  1. Barbiturates
  2. Amphetamines
  3. Cocaine
  4. LSD

Answer. 1. Barbiturates

Question 121. The term “brown sugar” is used for

  1. Diacetylmorphine hydrochloride
  2. 9-Tetrahydrocannabinol
  3. Lysergic acid diethylamide
  4. Acetyl salicylate

Answer. 1. Diacetylmorphine hydrochloride

Question 122. The Central Institute of Mental Retardation (CIMR) is situated at

  1. Agra
  2. New Delhi
  3. Thiruvananthapuram
  4. Guwahati

Answer. 3. Thiruvananthapuram

Question 123. AIDS Day is observed on

  1. 1st December
  2. 20th December
  3. 1st June
  4. 1st May

Answer. 1. 1st December

Question 124. In India, maximum death cases in children occur due to

  1. Measles
  2. TB
  3. Diphtheria
  4. None of these

Answer. 1. Measles

Question 125. Community health aims at

  1. Better health and family planning
  2. Better hygiene and clean environment
  3. Removing communicable diseases
  4. All the above

Answer. 4. All the above

Question 126. Which of the following is equivalent to madness?

  1. Neurosis
  2. Psychosis
  3. Epilepsy
  4. All of these

Answer. 2. Psychosis

Question 127. Cancer is related to

  1. Uncontrolled growth of tissues
  2. Old age
  3. Controlled division of tissues
  4. None of the above

Answer. 1. Uncontrolled growth of tissues

Question 128. Infection of Ascaris usually occurs by

  1. Eating imperfectly cooked pork
  2. Contaminated water and vegetables
  3. Mosquito bite
  4. Tsetse fly

Answer. 2. Contaminated water and vegetables

Question 129. Trypanosomiasis is transmitted by

  1. May fly
  2. Fire fly
  3. Tsetse fly
  4. Louse

Answer. 3. Tsetse fly

Question 130. Syphilis is a sexually transmitted disease caused by

  1. Pasteurella
  2. Leptospira
  3. Treponema pallidum
  4. Vibrio

Answer. 3. Treponema pallidum

Question 131. Influenza virus has

  1. DNA
  2. RNA
  3. Both DNA and RNA
  4. Only proteins and no nucleic acids

Answer. 2. RNA

Question 132. Diphtheria is caused by

  1. Poisons released from dead bacterial cells into the host tissues
  2. Poisons released by living bacterial cells into the host tissues
  3. Excessive immune response by the host’s body
  4. Poisons released by virus into the host tissues

Answer. 2. Poisons released by living bacterial cells into the host tissues

Question 133. A bacterial disease is accompanied by

  1. Peptic ulcers
  2. Rapid loss of fluid from the intestine
  3. Infection of heart muscles
  4. Rose spots

Answer. 2. Rapid loss of fluid from the intestine

Question 134. Hepatitis B is caused by

  1. RNA virus
  2. DNA virus
  3. Mycoplasma
  4. Rickettsia

Answer. 2. DNA virus

Question 135. Dengue virus has genetic material

  1. dsRNA
  2. dsDNA
  3. ssRNA
  4. ssDNA

Answer. 3. ssRNA

Question 136. Sick test is used for the diagnosis of

  1. TB
  2. AIDS
  3. Diphtheria
  4. Malaria

Answer. 3. Diphtheria

Question 137. Polio is caused by

  1. Virus with double-stranded DNA
  2. Virus with double-stranded RNA
  3. Virus with single-stranded DNA
  4. Virus with single-stranded RNA

Answer. 4. Virus with single-stranded RNA

Question 138. During injury, mast cells secrete

  1. Histamine
  2. Heparin
  3. Prothrombin
  4. Antibodies

Answer. 1. Histamine

Question 139. Agglutination occurs in blood present in a test tube

  1. Antibodies are present in plasma
  2. Antigens are present on RBC
  3. Antigens are present in plasma
  4. Antibodies are present on RBC

Answer. 2. Antigens are present on RBC

Question 140. Which of the following is used in the treatment of thyroid cancer?

  1. 1131
  2. U238
  3. Ra224
  4. C14

Answer. 1. 1131

Question 141. Cancerous cells can easily be destroyed by radiations due to

  1. Rapid cell division
  2. Lack of nutrition
  3. Fast mutation
  4. Lack of oxygen

Answer. 1. Rapid cell division

Question 142. Carcinoma refers to

  1. Malignant tumors of the connective tissue
  2. Malignant tumors of the skin or mucous membrane
  3. Malignant tumors of the colon
  4. Benign tumors of the connective tissue

Answer. 2. Malignant tumors of the skin or mucous membrane

Question 143. Short-lived immunity acquired from mother to fetus across placenta or through mother’s milk to the infant is categorized as

  1. Active immunity
  2. Passive immunity
  3. Cellular immunity
  4. Innate non-specific immunity

Answer. 2. Passive immunity

Question 144. What is true about T-lymphocytes in mammals?

  1. There are three main types: cytotoxic T-cells, helper T-cells, and suppressor T-cells.
  2. These originate in secondary lymphoid tissues.
  3. These scavenge damaged cells and cellular debris.
  4. These are produced in thyroid.

Answer. 1. There are three main types: cytotoxic T-cells, helper T-cells, and suppressor T-cells.

Question 145. Cancer cells are more easily damaged by radiation than normal cells because they are

  1. Undergoing rapid division
  2. Different in structure
  3. Non-dividing
  4. Starved of mutation

Answer. 1. Undergoing rapid division

Question 146. Damage to thymus in child may lead to

  1. A reduction in hemoglobin content of blood
  2. A reduction in stem cell production
  3. Loss of antibody mediated immunity
  4. Loss of cell mediated immunity

Answer. 4. Loss of cell mediated immunity

Question 147. Electron beam therapy is a kind of radiation therapy to treat

  1. Enlarged prostate gland
  2. Gall bladder stones by breaking them
  3. Certain types of cancer
  4. Kidney stones

Answer. 3. Certain types of cancer

Question 148. The treatment of snake-bite by antivenin is an example of

  1. Artificially acquired active immunity
  2. Artificially acquired passive immunity
  3. Naturally acquired passive immunity
  4. Specific natural immunity

Answer. 2. Artificially acquired passive immunity

Question 149. An insect bite may result in the inflammation of that spot. This is triggered by the alarm chemicals such as

  1. Histamine and dopamine
  2. Histamine and kinin
  3. Interferons and opsonin
  4. Interferons and histones

Answer. 2. Histamine and kinin

Question 150. Antigen-binding site in an antibody is found between

  1. Two light chains
  2. Two heavy chains
  3. One heavy and one light chain
  4. Either between two light chains or between one heavy and one light chain depending upon the nature of antigen

Answer. 3. One heavy and one light chain

Question 151. Vaccination for which one of the following diseases is not covered in the immunization schedule so far?

  1. Tuberculosis
  2. Diphtheria
  3. Measles
  4. Pneumonia

Answer. 4. Pneumonia

Question 152. Antibodies in our body are complex

  1. Prostaglandins
  2. Glycoproteins
  3. Lipoproteins
  4. Steroids

Answer. 2. Glycoproteins

Question 153. Mast cells secrete

  1. Histamine
  2. Hemoglobin.
  3. Hippurin
  4. Myoglobin

Answer. 1. Histamine

Question 154. The most active phagocytic white blood cells are

  1. Lymphocytes and macrophages
  2. Eosinophils and lymphocytes
  3. Neutrophils and monocytes
  4. Neutrophils and eosinophils

Answer. 3. Neutrophils and monocytes

Question 155. Cornea transplant in humans is almost never rejected. This is because

  1. It has no blood supply
  2. It is composed of enucleated cells
  3. It is a non-living layer
  4. Its cells are the least penetrable by bacteria

Answer. 1. It has no blood supply

Question 156. LSD is

  1. Hallucinogenic
  2. Sedative
  3. Stimulant
  4. Tranquilizer

Answer. 1. Hallucinogenic

Question 157. A young drug addict used to show symptoms of depressed brain activity and feeling of calmness, relaxation, and drowsiness. Possibly he was taking

  1. Amphetamine
  2. Marijuana
  3. Pethidine
  4. Valium

Answer. 4. Valium

Question 158. Which one of the following is the correct statement regarding the particular psychotropic drug specified? 

  1. Opium stimulates nervous system and causes hallucinations.
  2. Morphine leads to delusions and disturbed emotions.
  3. Barbiturates cause relaxation and temporary euphoria.
  4. Hashish causes after thought perceptions and hallucinations.

Answer. 3. Morphine leads to delusions and disturbed emotions.

Question 159. AIDS is caused by HIV that principally infects

  1. All lymphocytes
  2. Activator B-cells
  3. T-4 lymphocytes
  4. Cytotoxic T-cells

Answer. 3. T-4 lymphocytes

Question 160. Which one of the following depresses brain activity and produces feelings of calmness, relaxation, and drowsiness?

  1. Hashish
  2. Morphine
  3. Amphetamines
  4. Valium

Answer. 4. Valium

Question 161. The disease tetanus is also known as

  1. Gangrene
  2. Shingles
  3. Lockjaw
  4. Whooping cough

Answer. 3. Lockjaw

Question 162. Smallpox and rabies are caused by

  1. Virus
  2. Protozoan
  3. Typhoid
  4. Polio

Answer. 1. Virus

Question 163. Which is a viral disease?

  1. Tetanus
  2. Dysentery
  3. Typhoid
  4. Polio

Answer. 4. Polio

Question 164. ELISA is used to detect viruses where the key reagent is

  1. Alkaline phosphatase
  2. Catalase
  3. DNA probe
  4. RNase

Answer. 1. Alkaline phosphatase

Question 165. ELISA is used to detect viruses where

  1. Southern blotting is done
  2. Alkaline phosphatase is the key reagent
  3. Catalase is the key reagent
  4. DNA probes are required

Answer. 2. Alkaline phosphatase is the key reagent

Question 166. Broad spectrum antibiotics are those which

  1. Act on all bacteria and viruses
  2. Are effective in very small amounts
  3. Act on both pathogen and host
  4. Act on a variety of pathogenic microorganisms

Answer. 4. Act on a variety of pathogenic microorganisms

Question 167. Which is not a type of T-lymphocyte?

  1. Helper
  2. Suppressor
  3. Cytotoxic
  4. Repressor

Answer. 4. Repressor

Question 168. Which is not cancer?

  1. Leukemia
  2. Trachoma
  3. Carcinoma
  4. Sarcoma

Answer. 2. Trachoma

Question 169. HIV has a protein coat and a genetic material which is

  1. ssRNA
  2. dsRNA
  3. dsDNA
  4. ssDNA

Answer. 1. ssRNA

Question 170. The Widal test is performed for

  1. Malaria fever
  2. Cholera
  3. Typhoid fever
  4. Dengue fever

Answer. 3. Typhoid fever

Question 171. Allergy involves

  1. IgE
  2. IgG
  3. IgA
  4. IgM

Answer. 1. IgE

Question 172. Hepatitis B is also called

  1. Epidemic jaundice
  2. Serum jaundice
  3. Catarrhal jaundice
  4. None of the above

Answer. 2. Serum jaundice

Question 173. The most radiosensitive tissue of the body is

  1. Bone marrow
  2. Platelet
  3. Nervous tissue
  4. Lymphocyte

Answer. 1. Bone marrow

Question 174. DPT provides immunity against

  1. Diphtheria
  2. Whooping cough
  3. Tetanus
  4. All of these

Answer. 4. All of these

Question 175. In India, AIDS was reported in

  1. 1932
  2. 1986
  3. 1990
  4. 1992

Answer. 2. 1986

Question 176. Plague is caused by

  1. Diplococcus pneumoniae
  2. Yersinia pestis
  3. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
  4. All of the above

Answer. 2. Yersinia pestis

Question 177. An antibody is a

  1. White corpuscle which attacks invading bacteria
  2. Molecule that specifically inactivates an antigen
  3. Component of the blood
  4. Secretion of mammalian erythrocyte

Answer. 2. Molecule that specifically inactivates an antigen

Question 178. ELISA test is used for the detection of

  1. Antibodies
  2. Viral disease
  3. AIDS
  4. All of these

Answer. 4. All of these

Question 179. The vaccine of hepatitis B is a/an

  1. First-generation vaccine
  2. Interferon
  3. Second-generation vaccine
  4. Third-generation vaccine

Answer. 3. Second-generation vaccine

Question 180. Cancer cells are characterized by

  1. Uncontrolled growth
  2. Invasion of local tissue
  3. Spreading to other body parts
  4. All of the above

Answer. 4. All of the above

Question 181. The cause of kala-azar disease is

  1. Trypanosoma gambiense
  2. Wuchereria bancrofti
  3. Leishmania donovani
  4. Taenia solium

Answer. 3. Leishmania donovani

Question 182. Leprosy is caused by

  1. Mycobacterium
  2. Salmonela
  3. Monocystis
  4. TMV

Answer. 1. Mycobacterium

Question 183. The disease caused by Entamoeba gingivalis is transmitted by

  1. Flies
  2. Kissing
  3. Using the same bowl
  4. Kissing and using the same bowl

Answer. 4. Kissing and using the same bowl

Question 184. Vibrio cholerae is a motile bacteria belonging to the group of

  1. Monotrichous
  2. Lophotrichous
  3. Amphitrichous
  4. Peritrichous

Answer. 1. Monotrichous

Question 185. Bacillary dysentery is caused by

  1. Salmonella
  2. Shigella
  3. Proteus
  4. Entamoeba

Answer. 2. Shigella

Question 186. Symptom of diphtheria is

  1. Suffocation
  2. Hydrophobia
  3. Excessive watering
  4. Gum bleeding

Answer. 1. Suffocation

Question 187. If a person shows the production of interferon in his body, the chances are that he has got an infection of

  1. Typhoid
  2. Measles
  3. Tetanus
  4. Malaria

Answer. 2. Measles

Question 188. Jaundice is caused by

  1. Contaminated water
  2. Pork
  3. Excessive sugar
  4. Excessive eating of curcuma

Answer. 1. Excessive eating of curcuma

Question 189. Tuberculosis is caused by

  1. Mycobacterium
  2. Vibrio
  3. Clostridium
  4. None of these

Answer. 1. Mycobacterium

Question 190. Pulse-Polio Program is organized in our country

  1. To cure polio
  2. To eradicate polio
  3. To spread polio
  4. None of these

Answer. 2. To eradicate polio

Question 191. Paraplegia refers to the paralysis of

  1. Both legs
  2. Both upper limbs
  3. The entire body
  4. Only one limb

Answer. 1. Both legs

Question 192. Chicken pox is caused by

  1. Adenovirus
  2. Varicella virus
  3. SV-40 virus
  4. Bacteriophage T-2

Answer. 2. Varicella virus

Question 193. Out of the following, which disease is caused by virus?

  1. Malaria
  2. Influenza
  3. Diphtheria
  4. Typhoid

Answer. 2. Influenza

Question 194. Plague is transmitted by

  1. House fly
  2. Tsetse fly
  3. Rat flea
  4. Mosquito

Answer. 3. Rat flea

Question 195. Dengue fever is caused by

  1. Bacteria
  2. Plasmodium
  3. Virus
  4. Entamoeba histolytica

Answer. 3. Virus

Question 196. Mumps is a

  1. Viral disease
  2. Fungal disease
  3. Bacterial disease
  4. Protozoan disease

Answer. 1. Viral disease

Question 197. The disease caused by viruses is

  1. Tuberculosis
  2. Smallpox
  3. Cholera
  4. Typhoid

Answer. 2. Smallpox

Question 198. Which one of the following is a common disease caused

  1. Yellow fever
  2. Typhoid
  3. Syphilis
  4. Tetanus

Answer. 1. Yellow fever

Question 199. Which virus, for the first time, was synthesized in the form of non-living crystals?

  1. Bacteriophage
  2. Flu virus
  3. Pox virus
  4. Tobacco mosaic virus

Answer. 4. Tobacco mosaic virus

Question 200. It helps in differentiation of cells. It is

  1. Cortisol
  2. Thyroxine
  3. Thymosin
  4. Steroid

Answer. 3. Thymosin

Question 201. Complexes formed during immune complex mediated hypersensitivity are removed by

  1. Eosinophils and T-cells
  2. Monocytes and B-cells
  3. Eosinophils and monocytes
  4. Eosinophils and basophils

Answer. 3. Eosinophils and monocytes

Question 202. Wuchereria is found in

  1. Lungs
  2. Lymph nodes
  3. Eye
  4. Gonads

Answer. 2. Lymph nodes

Question 203. Antigen determinant differs from antigen-binding site in its

  1. Location
  2. Function
  3. Structure
  4. All the above

Answer. 4. All the above

Question 204. The letter T in T-lymphocytes refers to

  1. Thyroid
  2. Thymus
  3. Thalamus
  4. Tonsil

Answer. 2. Thymus

Question 205. After entering T-cell, HIV first forms

  1. mRNA
  2. ssDNA
  3. dsDNA
  4. dsRNA

Answer. 4. dsRNA

Question 206. The predominant antibody in saliva is

  1. IgA
  2. IgDD
  3. IgC
  4. IgM

Answer. 1. IgA

Question 207. Which of the following techniques is the safest for the detection of cancer?

  1. Magnetic resonance imaging
  2. Radiography
  3. Computed tomography
  4. Histopathological study

Answer. 1. Magnetic resonance imaging

Question 208. Which one of the following cannot be used for the preparation of vaccination against plague?

  1. Heat-killed suspension of virulent bacteria
  2. Formaline-inactivated suspension of virulent bacteria
  3. A virulent live bacteria
  4. Synthetic capsular polysaccharide material

Answer. 3. A virulent live bacteria

Question 209. Ringworm in humans is caused by

  1. Fungi
  2. Nematodes
  3. Viruses
  4. Bacteria

Answer. 1. Fungi

Question 210. Which one of the following statements is correct with respect to AIDS?

  1. Drug addicts are least susceptible to HIV infection.
  2. AIDS patients are being fully cured cent percent with proper care and nutrition.
  3. The causative HIV retrovirus enters helper T-lymphocytes, thus, reducing their number.
  4. HIV can be transmitted through eating food together with an infected person.

Answer. 3. The causative HIV retrovirus enters helper T-lymphocytes, thus, reducing their number.

Question 211. AIDS does not spread through

  1. Using a syringe used by an AIDS patient
  2. Contact with clothes of an AIDS patient
  3. Mother with AIDS to the fetus during pregnancy
  4. Breast feeding by AIDS-suffering mother to a child

Answer. 2. Contact with clothes of an AIDS patient

Question 212. Vaccine against rabies was first developed by

  1. Jenner
  2. Shull
  3. Pasteur
  4. Goror

Answer. 3. Pasteur

Question 213. At which stage of HIV infection does one usually show symptoms of AIDS?

  1. When the infecting retrovirus enters host cells.
  2. When viral DNA is produced by reverse transcriptase.
  3. When HIV replicates rapidly in helper T-lymphocytes and damages large number of these.
  4. Within 15 days of sexual contact with an infected person.

Answer. 3. When HIV replicates rapidly in helper T-lymphocytes and damages large number of these.

Question 214. A patient is suspected to be suffering from AIDS. Which diagnostic technique will you recommend for its detection?

  1. ELISA
  2. MRI
  3. Ultrasound
  4. Widal

Answer. 1. ELISA

Question 215. Which one of the following is not a property of cancerous cells whereas the remaining three are?

  1. They do not remain confined in the area of formation.
  2. They show non-contact inhibition.
  3. They show contact inhibition.
  4. They compete with normal cells for vital nutrients.

Answer. 3. They show contact inhibition.

Question 216. Common cold differs from pneumonia in that

  1. Pneumonia can be prevented by a live attenuated bacterial vaccine whereas common cold has no effective vaccine.
  2. Pneumonia is caused by a virus while common cold is caused by bacterium Haemophilus influenzae.
  3. Pneumonia pathogen infects alveoli whereas common cold affects nose and respiratory passage but not the lungs.
  4. Pneumonia is a communicable disease whereas common cold is a nutritional deficiency disease.

Answer. 3. Pneumonia pathogen infects alveoli whereas common cold affects nose and respiratory passage but not the lungs.

Question 217. In which one of the following options are the two examples correctly matched with their particular type of immunity?

Examples                                                                          Type of immunity

(1) Anti-tetanus and anti snake bite                              Active immunity injections

(2) Saliva in mouth and tears in eyes                              Physical barriers

(3) Mucus coating of epithelium lining                           Physiological barriers

(4) Polymorphonuclear leukocytes and monocytes          Cellular barriers

Answer. 4. Polymorphonuclear leukocytes and monocytes Cellular barriers

Question 218. Widal test is carried out to test

  1. Diabetes mellitus
  2. HIV/AIDS
  3. Typhoid fever
  4. Malaria

Answer. 3. Typhoid fever

Question 219. A patient brought to a hospital with myocardial infarction is normally immediately given

  1. Streptokinase
  2. Cyclosporin-A
  3. Statins
  4. Penicillin

Answer. 1. Streptokinase

Question 220. Read the following four statements (A-D):

(A) Colostrum is recommended for the new born because it is rich in antigens.

(B) Chikungunya is caused by a Gram-negative bacterium.

(C) Tissue culture has proved useful in obtaining virus free plants.

(D) Beer is manufactured by the distillation of fermented grape juice.

How many of the above statements are wrong?

  1. Two
  2. Three
  3. Four
  4. One

Answer. 1. Two

Question 221. Identify molecules (a) and (b) shown and select the right option giving their source and use.

NEET Biology Human Health And Disease Question 84

Options:

Molecule                                  Source                                          Use

(1) (a) Cocaine                  Erythroxylum coca                      Accelerates the transport of dopamine

(2) (b) Heroin                    Connabis saliva                          Depressant and slows down body functions

(3) (b)Cannabinoid           Atropa belladona                       Produces hallucinations

(4) (a) Morphine              Papaver somniferum                  Sedative and painkiller

Answer. 4. (a) Morphine Papaver somniferum Sedative and painkiller

Question 222. Which one of the following statements is correct with respect to immunity?

  1. Preformed antibodies need to be injected to treat the bite by a viper snake.
  2. The antibodies against smallpox pathogen are produced by T-lymphocytes.
  3. Antibodies are protein molecules, each of which has four light chains.
  4. Rejection of a kidney graft is the function of B-lymphocytes.

Answer. 1. Preformed antibodies need to be injected to treat the bite by a viper snake.

Question 223. Which of the following cannot be detected in a developing fetus by amniocentesis?

  1. Sex of the fetus
  2. Down syndrome
  3. Jaundice
  4. Klinefelter syndrome

Answer. 3. Jaundice

Question 224. The cell-mediated immunity inside the human body is carried out by

  1. B-lymphocytes
  2. Thrombocytes
  3. Erythrocytes
  4. T-lymphocytes

Answer. 4. T-lymphocytes

NEET Biology Multiple Choice Questions – Evolution

Evolution Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. Following is the diagrammatic representation of Miller’s experiment. What is correct labeling? Choose the correct option.

NEET Biology Evolution Question 1

Diagrammatic representation of Miller’s experiment

A                               B                                  C                Ꭰ

Electrodes    CH4 + NH3 + H2 + H2O    Condenser  Vacuum pump

Electrodes    NH2 + H2o + CH4             Hot water       Trap

Electrodes   NH3 + CH4                          Steam            Trap

Electrodes   NH3 + CO2 + H2 + H2O    Hot water      Vaccum

Answer. 1. Electrodes    CH4 + NH3 + H2 + H2O    Condenser  Vacuum pump

Question 2. Which of the following is not true about coacervates?

  1. They are protein aggregates.
  2. They do not have lipid membrane and cannot reproduce.
  3. The work on coacervates was done by Oparin.
  4. They are protobionts with polysaccharides, proteins, and water.

Answer. 1. They are protein aggregates.

Question 3. Extraterrestrial origin of life was proposed by the theory of

  1. Catastrophism
  2. Spontaneous generation
  3. Special creation
  4. Panspermia

Answer. 4. Panspermia

Question 4. Eukaryotes developed around

  1. 1600 million years ago
  2. 459 million years ago
  3. 3800 million years ago
  4. 4200 million years ago

Answer. 1. 1600 million years ago

Question 5. Simple one-celled cyanobacteria-like organisms appeared on earth

  1. 5600 million years ago
  2. 5000 million years ago
  3. 4600 million years ago
  4. 3.3 to 3.5 billion years ago

Answer. 4. 3.3 to 3.5 billion years ago

Question 6. The theory of abiogenesis or spontaneous generation was finally disapproved by

  1. Louis Pasteur
  2. A.I. Oparin
  3. A.R. Wallace
  4. Sydney Fox

Answer. 1. Louis Pasteur

Question 7. Which of the following experiments suggests that the simplest living organisms could not have originated spontaneously from non-living matter?

  1. Larvae could appear in decaying organic matter.
  2. Microbes did not appear in stored meat.
  3. Microbes appeared from unsterilized organic matter.
  4. Meat was not spoiled when heated and kept sealed in a vessel.

Answer. 4. Meat was not spoiled when heated and kept sealed in a vessel.

Question 8. The proponent of the theory of spontaneous generation was

  1. Louis Pasteur
  2. van Helmont
  3. Spallanzani
  4. Francesco Redi

Answer. 2. van Helmont

Question 9. According to the cosmozoic theory, life comes on the earth from other planets in space in the form of

  1. Spores
  2. Seeds
  3. Gametes
  4. All of these

Answer. 4. All of these

Question 10. The theory that living organisms on the earth came from outer space is based on the study of

  1. Igneous rocks
  2. Sedimentary rocks
  3. Meteorites
  4. Moon soil

Answer. 3. Meteorites

Question 11. Which one of the following appeared on the earth with the coming of plants and was absent in the past?

  1. Carbon dioxide
  2. Methane
  3. Ammonia
  4. Oxygen

Answer. 4. Oxygen

Question 12. The scientist related with the theory of biogenesis and experiments with swan-necked flasks is

  1. van Helmont
  2. Louis Pasteur
  3. Miller
  4. Haeckel

Answer. 2. Louis Pasteur

Question 13. The atmosphere became oxidizing with the appearance of

  1. Autotrophic bacteria
  2. Autotrophic cyanobacteria
  3. Land plants
  4. Algae

Answer. 2. Autotrophic cyanobacteria

Question 14. Which one of the following gases was not present in free form at the time life originated on the earth?

  1. Ammonia
  2. Oxygen
  3. Hydrogen
  4. Methane

Answer. 2. Oxygen

Question 15. An experiment to prove that organic compounds were the basis of life was performed by

  1. Von Helmont
  2. Opann
  3. S. Miller
  4. Fox

Answer. 3. S. Miller

Question 16. Stanley Miller had put the Oparin-Haldane theory to test in 1953, by creating in the laboratory the probable conditions on the primitive earth. In the experiment, simple amino acids were synthesized from which of the following mixtures, as observed after 18 days?

  1. H2, O2, N2, and H2O
  2. CH2, CN, H2, and O2
  3. H2, NH3, CH4, and water vapor
  4. NH3, CH4, and O2

Answer. 3. H2, NH3, CH4, and water vapor

Question 17. The English scientist who worked on the origin of life and settled in India is

  1. A.I. Oparin
  2. J.B.S. Haldane
  3. Louis Pasteur
  4. van Helmont

Answer. 2. J.B.S. Haldane

Question 18. Which ones are the most essential for the origin of life?

  1. Enzymes
  2. Proteins
  3. Carbohydrates
  4. Nucleic acids

Answer. 4. Nucleic acids

Question 19. The Russian scientist who proposed the theory of origin of life was

  1. Opann
  2. Haldane
  3. Miller
  4. None of these

Answer. 1. Opann

Question 20. The presence of NaCl in body fluid indicates that life originated in

  1. Primitive ocean
  2. Rain-water lakes
  3. Salt solution
  4. All of these

Answer. 1. Primitive ocean

Question 21. The origin of life from non-living matter is known as

  1. Coaoervates
  2. Abiogenesis
  3. Biogenesis
  4. None of these

Answer. 2. Abiogenesis

Question 22. A.I. Oparin wrote

  1. Origin of Species
  2. Origin of Life
  3. Philosophic Zoologique
  4. The Planet

Answer. 2. Origin of Life

Question 23. The first organisms that appeared on the earth were

  1. Chemoheterotrophs
  2. Chemoautotrophs
  3. Photoautotrophs
  4. Decomposers

Answer. 1. Chemoheterotrophs

Question 24. The most important condition for the origin of life is the presence of

  1. Water
  2. Oxygen
  3. Nitrogen
  4. Carbon

Answer. 1. Water

Question 25. H.C. Urey wrote which of the following books?

  1. The Planets
  2. Origin of Life
  3. The Origin of Species
  4. None of these

Answer. 1. The Planets

Question 26. During the origin and evolution of life, key biological compounds were progressively synthesized in ocean with the help of energy obtainable from

  1. Lightning
  2. Ultraviolet light
  3. Lightning as well as ultraviolet light
  4. Combustion of certain compounds

Answer. 3. Lightning as well as ultraviolet light

Question 27. Which type of respiration probably arose first?

  1. Aerobic as it releases more energy
  2. Anaerobic as it releases more energy
  3. Aerobic as it is more complex
  4. Anaerobic as early atmosphere contained little or no oxygen

Answer. 4. Anaerobic as early atmosphere contained little or no oxygen

Question 28. Early atmosphere contained methane and other hydrocarbons. They have been now replaced by

  1. Nitrogen
  2. Oxygen
  3. Carbon dioxide
  4. Hydrogen

Answer. 3. Carbon dioxide

Question 29. According to the discovery made in 1980’s, RNA can act like enzyme to assemble new RNA molecules on RNA template. Which of the following statements is not proved by this theory?

  1. Coacervates may not have been the first step in the evolution of life.
  2. Perhaps the first macromolecule was RNA.
  3. Coacervates were the basis for the first cell.
  4. After the formation of RNA, the stability of molecule improved by surrounding RNA within a coacervate.

Answer. 3. Coacervates were the basis for the first cell.

Question 30. The aggregates of artificially produced prebiotic molecules are called

  1. Protobionts
  2. Microspheres
  3. Coacervates
  4. Prokaryotes

Answer. 1. Protobionts

Question 31. The evolutionary process giving rise to new species adapted to new habitats and ways of life is called adaptive radiation. For example,

  1. Darwin’s finches in Galapagos Islands
  2. Australian marsupials that radiated to form new species
  3. Wolf and Tasmanian wolf
  4. Both (1) and (2)

Answer. 4. Both (1) and (2)

Question 32. Humming birds and hawk illustrate

  1. Convergent evolution
  2. Homology
  3. Adaptive radiation
  4. Parallel evolution

Answer. 3. Adaptive radiation

Question 33. Convergent evolution is illustrated by

  1. Rat and dog
  2. Bacterium and protozoan
  3. Star fish and cuttlefish
  4. Dog fish and whale

Answer. 4. Dog fish and whale

Question 34. All the following are examples of homologous organs, except

  1. Arm of man and flipper of whale
  2. Thorn of Bougainvillea and tendril of Cucurbit
  3. Eye of an octopus and eye of a mammal
  4. Brain of frog and man

Answer. 3. Eye of an octopus and eye of a mammal

Question 35. The homologous organs are

  1. Wings of pigeon and housefly
  2. Wings of housefly and bat
  3. Wings of pigeon and forelimbs of man
  4. Wings of butterfly, bat, and housefly

Answer. 3. Wings of pigeon and forelimbs of man

Question 36. Anatomically and structurally different but functionally similar structures are called

  1. Analogous
  2. Divergent
  3. Homologous
  4. Convergent

Answer. 1. Analogous

Question 37. Organs that have similar origin and developmental plan but different functions are called

  1. Vestigial organs
  2. Analogous organs
  3. Homologous organs
  4. Physiological organs

Answer. 3. Homologous organs

Question 38. Find the odd one out:

  1. Trunk of an elephant and hand of a chimpanzee
  2. Ginger and sweet potato
  3. Wings of bat and insect
  4. Nails of human beings and claws of a cat

Answer. 4. Nails of human beings and claws of a cat

Question 39. The convergent evolution of two species is usually associated with

  1. A recent common ancestor
  2. Analogous organ
  3. Homologous organ
  4. Different habitat

Answer. 2. Analogous organ

Question 40. Find the odd one out with respect to evolution.

  1. Seal’s flipper
  2. Bat’s wing
  3. Horse’s foot
  4. Butterfly’s wings

Answer. 4. Butterfly’s wings

Question 41. Which of the following is not vestigial organ in human beings?

  1. Rudimentary ear muscles, third molars (wisdom teeth), and body hair
  2. Coccygeal tail vertebrae and scalp muscles
  3. Vermiform appendix and nictitating membrane of the eye
  4. Ear pinna, patella, and olecranon process

Answer. 4. Ear pinna, patella, and olecranon process

Question 42. Which of the following are the vestigial organs of man?

  1. Hair, olecranon process, coccyx, and patella
  2. Coccyx, vermiform appendix, and ear muscles
  3. Wisdom tooth, mammary gland, coccyx, and patella
  4. Coccyx, hair, ear ossicles, and vermiform appendix

Answer. 2. Coccyx, vermiform appendix, and ear muscles

Question 43. Which of the following is a vestigial organ?

  1. Vermiform appendex
  2. Atlas
  3. Premolars
  4. Incisors

Answer. 1.Vermiform appendex

Question 44. Which of the following is not a vestigial organ?

  1. Scalp hair
  2. Epiglottis
  3. Vermiform appendix
  4. Wisdom tooth

Answer. 2. Epiglottis

Question 45. Archaeopteryx is a connecting link between

  1. Birds and reptiles
  2. Reptiles and mammals
  3. Annelids and arthropods
  4. Amphibians and fishes

Answer. 1. Birds and reptiles

Question 46. The recapitulation theory was put forth by

  1. Haeckel
  2. Cuvier
  3. Wallace
  4. Lamarck

Answer. 1. Haeckel

Question 47. Gill clefts and notochord appear in the embryonic development of all vertebrates from fishes to mammals. This supports the theory of

  1. Recapitulation
  2. Metamorphosis
  3. Biogenesis
  4. Abiogenesis

Answer. 1. Recapitulation

Question 48. Cycad and Ginkgo are connecting links between

  1. Bryophytes and pteridophytes
  2. Pteridophytes and gymnosperms
  3. Gymnosperms and angiosperms
  4. Thallophyla and bryophyla

Answer. 2. Pteridophytes and gymnosperms

Question 49. Which one of the following is not a living fossil?

  1. Peripatus
  2. King crab
  3. Archaeopteryx
  4. Sphenodon

Answer. 3. Archaeopteryx

Question 50. Haeckel’s biogenetic law states that

  1. Life originates from lifeless beings
  2. Course of evolution of a race is repeated in the life- history of an individual
  3. Progeny of an organism resembles its parents
  4. Life originates from pre-existing life

Answer. 2. Course of evolution of a race is repeated in the life-history of an individual

Question 51. The presence of tail and coarse hair in human baby is

  1. Radiation
  2. Atavism
  3. Mutation
  4. Crossing-over

Answer. 2. Atavism

Question 52. Origin of mammal-like reptiles occurred in

  1. Triassic period
  2. Permian period
  3. Jurassic period
  4. Tertiary period

Answer. 2. Permian period

Question 53. Excreta preserved as a fossil is called as

  1. Stromatolite
  2. Compression fossil
  3. Intact fossil
  4. Caprolite

Answer. 4. Caprolite

Question 54. Ape-like ancestors of humans appear in epoch

  1. Pleistocene
  2. Pliocene
  3. Miocene
  4. Oligocene

Answer. 2. Pliocene

Question 55. Which of the following is incorrect match?

  1. Devonian period-Age of fishes
  2. Carboniferous period-Age of amphibians
  3. Ordovician period-Age of invertebrates
  4. Cretaceous period-Age of reptiles

Answer. 4. Cretaceous period-Age of reptiles

Question 56. Mesozoic era is called the

  1. Age of fishes
  2. Age of reptiles
  3. Age of mammals
  4. Age of birds

Answer. 2. Age of reptiles

Question 57. Which one of the following is known as age of mammals?

  1. Mesozoic
  2. Palaeozoic
  3. Coenozoic
  4. Archaeozoic

Answer. 3. Coenozoic

Question 58. First mammals appeared around

  1. 459 million years ago
  2. 220 million years ago
  3. 1600 million years ago
  4. 3800 million years ago

Answer. 2. 220 million years ago

Question 59. Which of the following arrangement of periods of Mesozoic era gives a correct sequence from the earliest to the latest?

  1. Jurassic, Triassic, Cretaceous
  2. Triassic, Jurassic, Cretaceous
  3. Permian, Jurassic, Triassic
  4. Devonian, Permian, Jurassic

Answer. 2. Triassic, Jurassic, Cretaceous

Question 60. Jurassic period of Mesozoic era is characterized by which of the following?

  1. Gymnosperms are dominant plants and first birds appear.
  2. Dinosaurs become extinct and angiosperms appear.
  3. Flowering plants and first dinosaurs appear.
  4. Radiation of reptiles and origin of mammal-like reptiles.

Answer. 1. Gymnosperms are dominant plants and first birds appear.

Question 61. The flowering plants originated in which of the following periods?

  1. Cretaceous
  2. Tertiary
  3. Triassic
  4. Carboniferous

Answer. 1. Cretaceous

Question 62. Amphibia first appeared in which of the following period?

  1. Permian
  2. Carboniferous
  3. Devonian
  4. Silurian

Answer. 3. Devonian

Question 63. Permian period, during which the first most modern orders of insects appeared, occurred approximately

  1. 80 million years ago
  2. 150 million years ago
  3. 280 million years ago
  4. 550 million years ago

Answer. 3. 280 million years ago

Question 64. Dinosaurs were abundant in

  1. Jurassic period
  2. Devonian period
  3. Permian period
  4. Pleistocene period

Answer. 1. Jurassic period

Question 65. Fossils of Archaeopteryx were found from

  1. Jurassic rocks
  2. Triassic rocks
  3. Cretaceous rocks
  4. Cenozoic rocks

Answer. 3. Cretaceous rocks

Question 66. The epoch of human civilization is

  1. Pliocene
  2. Holocene
  3. Pleistocene
  4. Palaeocene

Answer. 3. Pleistocene

Question 67. Continental drift explains

  1. Mass extinctions
  2. Distribution of fossils on earth
  3. Geographical upheavals
  4. All of these

Answer. 4. All of these

Question 68. Which one provides direct and solid evidence in favor of organic evolution through ages?

  1. Atavism
  2. Palaeontology
  3. Vestigial organs
  4. Galapagos island fauna

Answer. 2. Palaeontology

Question 69. The origin of seeds in the land plants was achieved about 345 million years ago in lineages recognized as ancestral to all more advanced vascular plants in

  1. Rhynia
  2. Tracheophyte ancestor
  3. Seed ferns
  4. Conifers

Answer. 3. Seed ferns

Question 70. The last major evolutionary advancement among vascular plants was the emergence of flowering plants (angio- sperms) about

  1. 350 million years ago
  2. 140 million years ago
  3. 1600 million years ago
  4. 220 million years ago

Answer. 2. 140 million years ago

Question 71. An evolutionary trend in which there is general degeneration and loss of organs is

  1. Progressive
  2. Vestigial
  3. Retrogressive
  4. Stasigenesis

Answer. 3. Retrogressive

Question 72. As horse evolved, there was progressive reduction in the number of toes. Which of the following is the correct sequence in the evolution of horse?

  1. Orohippus, Hyracotherium, Mesohippus, Callipus, Merychippus, Pliohippus, Equus
  2. Hyracotherium, Orohippus, Mesohippus, Merychippus, Pliohippus, Equus
  3. Orohippus, Callipus, Hyracotherium, Mesohippus, Merychippus, Pliohippus, Equus
  4. Hyracotherium, Mesohippus, Orohippus, Gallipus, Merychippus, Pliohippus, and Equus

Answer. 2. Hyracotherium, Orohippus, Mesohippus, Merychippus, Pliohippus, Equus

Question 73. The replacement of original hard parts or even the soft tissues of organisms by minerals is known as

  1. Compression
  2. Petrification
  3. Molds
  4. Amber

Answer. 2. Petrification

Question 74. The study of fossil plants is known as

  1. Palaeontology
  2. Palaeobotany
  3. Palynology
  4. Palaeoanatomy

Answer. 2. Palaeobotany

Question 75. Which of the following is the richest in fossil?

  1. Basalt
  2. Granite
  3. Lava
  4. Sedimentary rock

Answer. 4. Sedimentary rock

Question 76. Why do we dig fossils and study them?

  1. To find new fossils that have not yet been recorded.
  2. Fossil finding gives occupation to scientists.
  3. Fossils fill the gaps in the evolutionary records of animals.
  4. Fossils throw light on the evolution of animals of the past.

Answer. 4. Fossils throw light on the evolution of animals of the past.

Question 77. Which one of the following is used for dating archaeological specimens in wood, bones, and shells?

  1. Uranium-238
  2. Argon isotope
  3. Carbon-14
  4. Strontium-90

Answer. 3. Carbon-14

Question 78. The age of fossils was previously determined by radioactive elements. More precise and recent method which has led to the revision of evolutionary period is

  1. Study of carbohydrate and protein in fossils
  2. Study of conditions of fossilization
  3. Electron spin resonance and fossil DNA
  4. Presence of carbohydrate and protein in rocks

Answer. 3. Electron spin resonance and fossil DNA

Question 79. Fossil X is older than fossil Y. The most evident statement is

  1. Fossil Y has got some of the vestigial organs which are functional in X
  2. Fossil Y has got homologous and analogous organs of fossil X
  3. Fossil X is found in deeper sedimentation than fossil Y
  4. Fossil Y was found in better state than fossil Y

Answer. 3. Fossil X is found in deeper sedimentation than fossil Y

Question 80. The oldest fossil of modern horse is known as

  1. Eohippus
  2. Mesohippus
  3. Merychippus
  4. Equus

Answer. 1. Eohippus

Question 81. The theory of inheritance of acquired characters or the theory of use and disuse of organ was given by

  1. Wallace
  2. Lamarck
  3. Charles Darwin
  4. Hugo de Vries

Answer. 2. Lamarck

Question 82. Weissman cut the tails of new born mice generation after generation, but the tails neither disappeared nor shortened showing that

  1. Tail has the power of regeneration
  2. Mutation theory is wrong
  3. Lamarckism was wrong in the inheritance of acquired characters
  4. Tail is an essential organ

Answer. 3. Lamarckism was wrong in the inheritance of acquired characters

Question 83. A scientist kept 80 generations of Drosophila in darkness, and even after that, the flies had normal eyes. This disapproves the law of

  1. Natural selection
  2. Neo-Darwinism
  3. Use and disuse
  4. Synthetic theory

Answer. 3. Use and disuse

Question 84. Who among the following is associated with the concept of appetency?

  1. Lamarck
  2. Charles Darwin
  3. Wallace
  4. Erasmus Darwin

Answer. 1. Lamarck

Question 85. Penguin is a bird that lost the use of its wings by not flying. Such statement would express the views of

  1. Darwin
  2. Wallace
  3. Lamarck
  4. Huxley

Answer. 3. Lamarck

Question 86. The concept of appetency was given by

  1. Lamarck
  2. Darwin
  3. Oparin
  4. Haldane

Answer. 1. Lamarck

Question 87. Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in the origin of new species according to Darwinism?

  1. Natural selection, variation and their inheritance, survival of fittest, struggle for existence, high rate of reproduction
  2. High rate of reproduction, constancy in number, struggle for existence, inheritable variations, survival of fittest, natural selection
  3. High rate of reproduction, variations, constancy in number, struggle for existence, survival of fittest
  4. Variation, high rate of reproduction, constancy in number, struggle for existence, survival of fittest, natural selection

Answer. 2. High rate of reproduction, constancy in number, struggle for existence, inheritable variations, survival of fittest, natural selection

Question 88. The main drawback of Darwin’s theory of natural selection was that it could not provide satisfactory explanation of

  1. Survival of fittest
  2. Struggle for existence
  3. Mimicry
  4. Basis of variation and the mode of transmission of the variants to the next generation

Answer. 4. Basis of variation and the mode of transmission of the variants to the next generation

Question 89. According to the theory proposed by T.R. Malthus,

  1. Population and the existing means of subsistence increase at the same rate
  2. Population increases arithmetically while the existing means of subsistence increase geometrically
  3. Population increases geometrically while the means of subsistence increase arithmetically
  4. Population increases at a fast rate but the means of subsistence do not increase

Answer. 3. Population increases geometrically while the means of subsistence increase arithmetically

Question 90. Successful adaptation means

  1. Moving to a new means
  2. Producing more offsprings
  3. An increase in fitness
  4. Evolving new characteristics

Answer. 3. An increase in fitness

Question 91. Frequency of a character increases when it is

  1. Recessive
  2. Dominant
  3. Inheritable
  4. Adaptable

Answer. 4. Adaptable

Question 92. “Descent of Man and Selection in Relation to Sex” was written by

  1. Nicolaus Copernicus
  2. Darwin
  3. Carolus Linnaeus
  4. Francesco Redi

Answer. 2. Darwin

Question 93. Regarding evolution, Darwin’s explanation is that

  1. Certain species have “built-in” plans of evolution
  2. The traits used most often persist longer
  3. Progressive adaptations enable one species to have more offsprings
  4. Code determines which species should evolve

Answer. 1. Certain species have “built-in” plans of evolution

Question 94. Darwin’s theory of pangenesis proposes

  1. Development of useful organs and degeneration of useless organs
  2. Development of an organ due to will power
  3. Increase in organ size with age
  4. Every organ of the body produces minute hereditary particles called gemmules, carried through the blood from every organ and collected together into gametes

Answer. 4. Every organ of the body produces minute hereditary particles called gemmules, carried through the blood from every organ and collected together into gametes

Question 95. Which of the following theories refused Darwin’s theory of pangenesis mentioned in the book “On the Variation of Animals and Plants Under Domestication”?

  1. Lamarck’s theory of inheritance of acquired characters
  2. Weismann’s theory of germplasm
  3. Haeckel’s recapitulation theory
  4. Hugo de Vries’ mutation theory

Answer. 2. Weismann’s theory of germplasm

Question 96. Hugo de Vries’ contribution is

  1. Mutation theory, on the basis of his observation on the wild variety of evening primrose (Oenothera lamarckiana)
  2. Theory of natural selection
  3. Law of dominance
  4. Law of segregation

Answer. 1. Mutation theory, on the basis of his observation on the wild variety of evening primrose (Oenothera lamarckiana)

Question 97. Neo-Darwinism is a synthesis of theories proposed by

  1. Lamarck and Charles Darwin
  2. Charles Darwin and A.R. Wallace
  3. Hugo de Vries and Charles Darwin
  4. Charles Darwin and F. Redi

Answer. 3. Hugo de Vries and Charles Darwin

Question 98. Evolution at the genetic level due to changes in the hereditary materials at the level of population is called

  1. Macroevolution
  2. Microevolution
  3. Saltation
  4. Sports

Answer. 2. Microevolution

Question 99. Coevolution does not occur in case of

  1. Parasitism
  2. Mutualism
  3. Both (1) and (2)
  4. Commensalism

Answer. 4. Commensalism

Question 100. Which of the following statements is not applicable to the replica plate experiment of Lederberg and Lederberg?

  1. Mutations are actually pre-adaptive.
  2. Pre-adaptive mutations appear without exposure to new environment.
  3. The new environment induces mutations.
  4. The new environment only selects the pre-adaptive mutations that occurred earlier.

Answer. 3. The new environment induces mutations.

Question 101. In Lederberg’s replica plating, streptomycin-resistant strain can develop by using

  1. Minimal medium and streptomycin
  2. Complete medium and streptomycin
  3. Only minimal medium
  4. Only complete medium

Answer. 2. Complete medium and streptomycin

Question 102. Using imprints from a plate with complete medium and carrying bacterial colonies, you can select streptomycinresistant mutants and prove that such mutations do not originate as adaptation. These imprints need to be used

  1. On plates with and without streptomycin
  2. On plates with minimal medium
  3. Only on plates with streptomycin
  4. Only on plates without streptomycin

Answer. 1. On plates with and without streptomycin

Question 103. Experimental evidence for the selection of bacteria by using the replica technique was demonstrated by

  1. Prof. A.D. Bradshaw
  2. Prof. Y.D. Tyagi
  3. J. Lederberg and E. Lederberg
  4. Alfred Russel Wallace

Answer. 3. J. Lederberg and E. Lederberg

Question 104. Lederberg’s replica plating experiment suggests

  1. Characters are heritable
  2. Natural selection plays an important role in fixing a mutation of survival value
  3. Genes are independent entities
  4. Bacteria can multiply in culture medium

Answer. 2. Natural selection plays an important role in fixing a mutation of survival value

Question 105. Ultimate source of variation is

  1. Recombination
  2. Mutation
  3. Genetic drift
  4. Intermingling of two widely separated populations

Answer. 2. Mutation

Question 106. The concept of genetic drift was introduced by

  1. Hardy Weinberg
  2. Sewall Wright
  3. Huxley
  4. Hugo de Vries

Answer. 2. Sewall Wright

Question 107. Random genetic drift in a population results from

  1. Highly genetically variable individuals
  2. Large population size
  3. Constant low mutation rate
  4. Interbreeding within small populations

Answer. 4. Interbreeding within small populations

Question 108. In a small population, the increase in the frequency of a character by chance that has little adaptive value is due to

  1. Genetic drift
  2. Natural selection
  3. Artificial selection
  4. Migration

Answer. 1. Genetic drift

Question 109. Reduction in allele frequencies in a population which of- ten prevents the species from reversing its path of extinction is called

  1. Founder effect
  2. Genetic mutation
  3. Genetic bottleneck
  4. Microevolution

Answer. 3. Genetic bottleneck

Question 110. The unit of natural selection is

  1. Individual
  2. Population
  3. Species
  4. Mutation

Answer. 1. Individual

Question 111. Industrial melanism is an example of

  1. Neo-Lamarckism
  2. Natural selection
  3. Neo-Darwinism
  4. Mutation

Answer. 2. Natural selection

Question 112. Which of the following statement is incorrect?

  1. Industrial melanism is an example of natural selection.
  2. Before industrial revolution, Biston betularia with gray color was abundant.
  3. Black-colored form of the same moth (melanic), dominant mutant carbonaria, increased after industrial revolution.
  4. The gray color of Biston betularia was due to dominant allele.

Answer. 4. The gray color of Biston betularia was due to dominant allele.

Question 113. Which one of the following phenomena supports Darwin’s concept of natural selection in organic evolution?

  1. Development of transgenic animals
  2. Production of sheep Dolly by cloning
  3. Prevalence of pesticide-resistant insects
  4. Development of organs from stem cells for organ transplantation

Answer. 3. Prevalence of pesticide-resistant insects

Question 114. When selection acts to eliminate both extremes from the array of phenotypes, the frequency of intermediate type, which is already more, is increased. This is called

  1. Disruptive selection
  2. Balancing selection
  3. Stabilizing selection
  4. Non-directional selection

Answer. 3. Stabilizing selection

Question 115. Which of the following are examples of artificial selection?

  1. Kohlrabi
  2. Cabbage
  3. Cauliflower
  4. All of these

Answer. 4. All of these

Question 116. If a sub-population becomes reproductively isolated in the midst of its parent population, this mode of speciation is called

  1. Sympatric speciation
  2. Allopatric speciation
  3. Sibling species
  4. Mutation

Answer. 1. Sympatric speciation

Question 117. Reproductive isolation is

  1. Inability to interbreed
  2. Ability to interbreed
  3. Breeding in isolation
  4. Intraspecific breeding

Answer. 1. Inability to interbreed

Question 118. Which of the following is not a characteristic of true species?

  1. Members of a species can interbreed.
  2. Gene flow does not occur between the populations of a species.
  3. Each species is reproductively isolated from every other species.
  4. Variations occur amongst members of a species.

Answer. 2. Gene flow does not occur between the populations of a species.

Question 119. Mule, which is produced from the mating of male donkey and a mare (female horse), is an example of which type of reproductive isolation?

  1. Hybrid breakdown
  2. Hybrid sterility
  3. Hybrid inviability
  4. Reverse evolution

Answer. 2. Hybrid sterility

Question 120. When a hybrid produces sterile or infertile offspring, it is known as

  1. Hybrid sterility
  2. Hybrid breakdown
  3. Hybrid inviability
  4. Gametic isolation

Answer. 2. Hybrid breakdown

Question 121. Modern synthetic theory of evolution is based on

  1. Genetic and chromosomal mutations
  2. Genetic recombination and natural selection
  3. Reproductive isolation
  4. All of these

Answer. 4. All of these

Question 122. Transfer of genes from one gene pool to another is

  1. Genetic drift
  2. Gene flow
  3. Speciation
  4. Mutation

Answer. 2. Gene flow

Question 123. Gene flow is

  1. Transfer of genes between genetically distinct but interbreeding populations
  2. Transfer of genes from females to males of an organism
  3. Transfer of genes from outside to chromosomes
  4. Transfer of genes from sperm to egg

Answer. 1. Transfer of genes between genetically distinct but interbreeding populations

Question 124. Gene pool of a population tends to remain stable if the population is large, without large-scale mutations, with- out migration, and with

  1. Random mating
  2. Moderate environmental changes
  3. Natural selection
  4. Reduction in predators

Answer. 1. Random mating

Question 125. Primates originated about

  1. 210 million years ago
  2. 150 million years ago
  3. 65 million years ago
  4. 36 million years ago

Answer. 3. 65 million years ago

Question 126. Anthropoid apes were ancestors of

  1. Monkeys
  2. Apes
  3. Homo habilis
  4. All the these

Answer. 4. All the these

Question 127. Which one of the following is the closest relative of man?

  1. Chimpanzee
  2. Orangutan
  3. Gorilla
  4. Gibbon

Answer. 1. Chimpanzee

Question 128. Evolution of man is believed to have taken place in

  1. Central America
  2. Australia
  3. Asia
  4. Africa

Answer. 4. Africa

Question 129. Cradle of human evolution is

  1. Grassland of South Africa
  2. Savannah of Central Africa
  3. Subarctic Europe
  4. Arabia

Answer. 2. Savannah of Central Africa

Question 130. Proconsul is ancestor of

  1. Apes only
  2. Man only
  3. Both (1) and (2)
  4. All primates

Answer. 3. Both (1) and (2)

Question 131. One thing that is not similar in great apes and man is

  1. Posture
  2. DNA content
  3. Protein homology
  4. Banding pattern of chromosome

Answer. 1. Posture

Question 132. The family to which Homo sapiens belongs is

  1. Pongidae
  2. Hylobatidae
  3. Hominidae
  4. None of these

Answer. 3. Hominidae

Question 133. The brain of Australopithecus measured

  1. 350-450 cm3
  2. 1400-1450 cm3
  3. 700-900 cm3
  4. 800-1400 cm3

Answer. 1. 350-450 cm3

Question 134. The ancestor of man who first stood erect was

  1. Australopithecus
  2. Java ape-man
  3. Peking man
  4. Cro-Magnon man

Answer. 1. Australopithecus

Question 135. The earliest man who used tools was

  1. Homo habilis
  2. Homo erectus
  3. Java man
  4. Peking man

Answer. 1. Homo habilis

Question 136. The connecting link between ape and man is

  1. Cro-Magnon man
  2. Australopithecus
  3. Neanderthal man
  4. Lemur

Answer. 2. Australopithecus

Question 137. Bipedal locomotion is advantageous because it

  1. Increases speed
  2. Reduces body weight
  3. Provides better support to body
  4. Releases forelimbs for other purposes

Answer. 4. Releases forelimbs for other purposes

Question 138. Fossils of so called Java man and Peking man belong to

  1. Homo sapiens
  2. Homo erectus
  3. Homo habilis
  4. None of these

Answer. 2. Homo erectus

Question 139. Dubois, in 1891, found the fossil of Java ape-man. It is

  1. Sinanthropus pekinensis
  2. Pithecanthropus erectus
  3. Homo rhodesiensis
  4. Homo sapiens

Answer. 2. Pithecanthropus erectus

Question 140. The smallest cranial capacity is that of the

  1. Modern man
  2. Cro-Magnon man
  3. Neanderthal man
  4. Java man

Answer. 4. Java man

Question 141. Which of the following fossil man possessed a cranial capacity almost equal to that of modern man?

  1. Neanderthal man
  2. Java ape-man
  3. Peking man
  4. Australopithecus africanus

Answer. 1. Neanderthal man

Question 142. Fire was first used for protection and cooking by

  1. Java man
  2. Neanderthal man
  3. Peking man
  4. Cro-Magnon man

Answer. 1. Java man

Question 143. “Lucy” is the fossil of

  1. Australopithecus afarensis
  2. Homo sapiens
  3. Homo erectus
  4. Cro-Magnon man

Answer. 1. Australopithecus afarensis

Question 144. The fossils of Neanderthal were first obtained from Neander Valley in

  1. Germany
  2. Italy
  3. America
  4. France

Answer. 1. Germany

Question 145. The first evidence of ceremonial burial of dead have been found with fossils of

  1. Cro-Magnon man
  2. Java ape-man
  3. Neanderthal man
  4. Peking man

Answer. 3. Neanderthal man

Question 146. Who were the first to built hut-like structure for dwelling and buried their dead?

  1. Neanderthal man
  2. Cro-Magnon man
  3. Java man
  4. Homo sapiens sapiens

Answer. 1. Neanderthal ma

Question 147. Man (Homo) originated in

  1. Palaeocene
  2. Miocene
  3. Oligocene
  4. Pleistocene

Answer. 4. Pleistocene

Question 148. Which is correct?

  1. Neanderthal man is direct ancestor of humans.
  2. Homo erectus is direct ancestor of man.
  3. Cro-Magnon man was found in Ethiopia.
  4. Australopithecus is real ancestor of modern man.

Answer. 2. Homo erectus is direct ancestor of man.

Question 149. Cro-Magnon was

  1. Carnivorous
  2. Omnivorous
  3. Herbivorous
  4. Frugivorous

Answer. 2. Omnivorous

Question 150. Cranial capacity of Neanderthal man was

  1. 1400 cc
  2. 1300 cc
  3. 1200 cc
  4. 1100 cc

Answer. 1. 1400 cc

Question 151. Chronological sequence of evolution of the genus Homo is

  1. Homo habilis, H. erectus, H. sapiens neanderthalensis, H. sapiens sapiens
  2. Homo habilis, H. sapiens neanderthalensis, H. sapiens sapiens
  3. Homo erectus, H. habilis, H. sapiens sapiens, H. neanderthalensis
  4. H. neanderthalensis, H. erectus, H. sapiens sapiens, H. habilis

Answer. 1. Homo habilis, H. erectus, H. sapiens neanderthalensis, H. sapiens sapiens

Question 152. A common ancestry for man and great apes has been deduced from similarities in

  1. Proteins
  2. Banding pattern of chromosomes
  3. DNA content
  4. All of these

Answer. 4. All of these

Question 153. In gorilla, great apes, and chimpanzee, the number of chromosomes is

  1. 2n = 46
  2. 2n=44
  3. 2n=48
  4. None of these

Answer. 3. 2n=48

Question 154. Trends in human evolution have been

  1. Erect posture
  2. Opposable thumb
  3. Bipedal
  4. All of these

Answer. 4. All of these

Question 155. Colored rock-paintings were presumably first made by

  1. Cro-Magnon man
  2. Neanderthal man
  3. Java ape-man
  4. Peking man

Answer. 1. Cro-Magnon man

Question 156. The characteristics of modern man are

  1. Small teeth without large canines and slight curvature of vertebral column
  2. Flattened face without muzzle and brow ridges
  3. Rounded skull with downward looking foramen magnum
  4. All of these

Answer. 4. All of these

Question 157. Which is direct ancestor of Homo sapiens?

  1. Homo erectus
  2. H. sapiens neanderthalensis
  3. Ramapithecus
  4. Australopithecus

Answer. 1. Homo erectus

Question 158. Which is correct regarding the evolution of mankind?

  1. Homo erectus was preceded by Homo habilis.
  2. Australopithecus lived in Australia.
  3. Neanderthal man and Cro-Magnon man lived together.
  4. None of these.

Answer. 1. Homo erectus was preceded by Homo habilis.

Question 159. Common origin of man and chimpanzee is best shown by

  1. Cranial capacity
  2. Binocular vision
  3. Chromosomes
  4. Dental formula

Answer. 3. Chromosomes

Question 160. Who amongst the following diverged from the main line of hominid evolution about 10 million years ago?

  1. Gibbon
  2. Orangutan
  3. Gorilla
  4. Chimpanzee

Answer. 1. Gibbon

Question 161. Which is correct order in the evolutionary history of man?

  1. Peking man → habilis man → Neanderthal man → Cro-Magnon man
  2. Peking man → Heidelberg man → Neanderthal man → Cro-Magnon man
  3. Peking man → Neanderthal man → Homo sapiens → Heidelberg man
  4. Peking man → Homo sapiens → Neanderthal man → Cro-Magnon man

Answer. 2. Peking man → Heidelberg man → Neanderthal man → Cro-Magnon man

Question 162. The fossil of Cro-Magnon man was found in

  1. Southern France
  2. Northern France
  3. Northern Germany
  4. South Africa

Answer. 1. Southern France

Question 163. Dryopithecus is also called

  1. Parapithecus
  2. Proconsul
  3. Oreopithecus
  4. Pithecanthropus

Answer. 2. Proconsul

Question 164. In recent years, DNA sequences of mitochondrial DNA and V-chromosomes were considered for the study of human evolution because

  1. They can be studied from the sample of fossil remains
  2. They are small and, therefore, easy to study
  3. They are uniparental in origin and do not take part in recombination
  4. Their structure is known in greater detail

Answer. 3. They are uniparental in origin and do not take part in recombination

Question 165. Some bio-indicator plants have evolved metal tolerance, and can indicate the occurrence of specific metal deposits. The plant which is the bio-indicator of lead is

  1. Agrostis tenuis
  2. Astragalus
  3. Haplopappus
  4. Impatiens balsamina

Answer. 1. Agrostis tenuis

Question 166. A baby has been born with a small tail. It is a case of exhibiting

  1. Retrogressive evolution
  2. Mutation
  3. Atavism
  4. Metamorphosis

Answer. 3. Atavism

Question 167. In which condition gene ratio remains constant in a species?

  1. Gene flow
  2. Mutation
  3. Random mating
  4. Sexual selection

Answer. 3. Random mating

Question 168. Nothing in biology makes sense except in the light of evolution. This statement was given by

  1. Thedosius Dobzhansky
  2. Darwin
  3. Wallace
  4. Malthus

Answer. 1. Thedosius Dobzhansky

Question 169. The phrase “survival of fittest” was used by

  1. Charles Darwin
  2. Herbert Spencer
  3. Jean Baptiste Lamarck
  4. Hugo de Vries

Answer. 2. Herbert Spencer

Question 170. Degradation, aggregation, and diastrophism have resulted in

  1. Folding of land masses
  2. Raising of land masses
  3. Lowering of land masses
  4. All of these

Answer. 4. All of these

Question 171. It is useful to study the origin and evolution of life because

  1. We learn that life cannot exist anywhere else
  2. We learn about the unity and diversity of living organisms
  3. We learn that human species has the responsibility to conserve nature
  4. Human species is the most evolved; so, no harm can come to us

Answer. 2. We learn about the unity and diversity of living organisms

Question 172. The role of isolation in evolution is

  1. Differentiation of species
  2. Maintenance of species
  3. Extermination of species
  4. Evolutionary divergence

Answer. 4. Evolutionary divergence

Question 173. Which of the following animals exhibit poisonous Müllerian mimicry?

  1. Bees
  2. Wasps
  3. Hornets
  4. All of these

Answer. 4. All of these

Question 174. Which one of the following plants is tolerant to selenium?

  1. Astragalus
  2. Agrostis tenuis
  3. Impatiens balsamia
  4. Prosopis juliflora

Answer. 1. Astragalus

Question 175. Which one of the following animal has been extinct recently?

  1. Dodo
  2. Dinosaur
  3. Pterodactyla
  4. Mammoth

Answer. 1. Dodo

Question 176. Two bands of a population come together after a period of isolation. Speciation will have taken place if the two groups

  1. No longer mate
  2. Cannot interbreed or produce fertile offsprings
  3. Compete for the same food supply
  4. No longer intermingle

Answer. 2. Cannot interbreed or produce fertile offsprings

Question 177. Organic evolution would not have taken place if

  1. Individual in a population did not show genetic variation
  2. Individuals did not transmit the characters acquired during their lifetime to offsprings
  3. Somatic variations were not inherited
  4. Somatic variations were not transformed into genetic variations

Answer. 1. Individual in a population did not show genetic variation

Question 178. What is wrong about evolution?

  1. Evolution is a slow and continuous process of change.
  2. All diversity of organisms has arisen due to evolution.
  3. Evolution is due to natural selection only.
  4. Evolution is due to variations arising from changes in genetic material.

Answer. 3. Evolution is due to natural selection only.

Question 179. Survival due to geographic isolation is best exemplified by mammalian fauna of

  1. Oriental region
  2. Ethiopean region
  3. Palaearctic region
  4. Australian region

Answer. 4. Australian region

Question 180. Which of the following is irrelevant in the evolution of man?

  1. Loss of tail
  2. Increase in the ability to communicate with others and develop community behavior
  3. Protection of hand for toolmaking
  4. Change of diet from hard nuts and hard roots to soft food

Answer. 1. Loss of tail

Question 181. According to geological clock, if last 4800 million years = 24 h, then the appearance of animals took place

  1. At 18.30 h, 4600 million years ago
  2. At 18.30 h, 1100 million years ago
  3. At 13.00 h, 220 million years ago
  4. At 10.00 h, 1-2 million years ago

Answer. 2. At 18.30 h, 1100 million years ago

Question 182. There are two opposing views about the origin of mod- ern man. According to one view, Homo erectus in Asia were the ancestors of modern man. A study of variation in DNA, however, suggested African origin of modern man. What kind of observation on DNA variation could suggest this?

  1. Greater variation in Asia than in Africa
  2. Greater variation in Africa than in Asia
  3. Similar variation in Africa and Asia
  4. Variation only in Asia and no variation in Africa

Answer. 2. Greater variation in Africa than in Asia

Question 183. Which of the following is relatively the most accurate method for dating of fossils?

  1. Radiocarbon method
  2. Potassium-argon method
  3. Electron-spin resonance method
  4. Uranium-lead method

Answer. 3. Electron-spin resonance method

Question 184. Evolution due to genetic changes within a species is

  1. Microevolution
  2. Macroevolution
  3. Megaevolution
  4. Coevolution

Answer. 1. Microevolution

Question 185. Future human generations will be less adapted due to

  1. Genetic drift
  2. Mutation
  3. Natural selection
  4. Gene flow

Answer. 3. Natural selection

Question 186. Today, the tiger population in India has reduced. This is because

A. Tigers exist in geographically isolated population

B. Of hunting and habitat destruction

C. Of genetic drift

D. Of homogenizing effect of gene flow

Choose the correct option:

  1. (A) and (B) only
  2. (A), (B), and (C)
  3. (B) and (C) only
  4. (A), (B), (C), and (D)

Answer. 2. (A), (B), and (C)

Question 187. What molecular evidence suggests that Homo sapiens originated in Africa and then radiated out to other places?

A. Maximum variations are found in the mitochondrial DNA of Africans

B. Variations in V-chromosome

C. Similarity in skull of apes and man

D. Binocular vision

  1. (A) only
  2. A and B
  3. (A), (B), and (C)
  4. (A), (B), (C), and (D)

Answer. 2. A and B

Question 188. The eyes of first primates faced forward. All the following are advantages of these, except

  1. Binocular vision
  2. This gave the primates excellent depth perception, which enabled them to judge distances accurately when moving through the trees
  3. The field of vision of two eyes is different
  4. Binocular vision results in three-dimensional image

Answer. 3. The field of vision of two eyes is different

Question 189. As Pangaea broke apart,

  1. Dinosaurs became more alike
  2. Mammals became dominant
  3. Dinosaur species flourished
  4. World climate changed

Answer. 4. World climate changed

Question 190. The illustration shows the skull of two different mammals. Use the illustration to answer the question that follows:

NEET Biology Evolution Question 190

Which of the following accurately describes the differ- ences between these skulls?

  1. Skull (A) has more teeth than skull (B)
  2. Skull (A) has more brain capacity than skull (B)
  3. Skull (A) is of primate and skull (B) is not of a primate
  4. Skull (A) is the skull of an ape because of simian gap and skull (B) is the skull of human

Answer. 4. Skull (A) is the skull of an ape because of simian gap and skull (B) is the skull of human

Question 191. Which of the following is not true?

  1. About 15 mya, primates Oryopithecus and Ramap- ithecus existed.
  2. Ramapithecus was more ape-like.
  3. Homo erectus had a large brain around 900 cm3.
  4. The brain capacities of Homo habilis were between 650 cm3 and 800 cm3.

Answer. 2. Ramapithecus was more ape-like.

Question 192. Who were the first to use hides to protect their body and buried their dead?

  1. Neanderthal man
  2. Homo erectus
  3. Cro-Magnon man
  4. Homo habilis

Answer. 1. Neanderthal man

Question 193. Modern Homo sapiens arose

  1. Near East and Central Asia between 100,000 and 40,000 years ago
  2. During ice age between 75,000 and 10,000 years ago
  3. About 10,000 years ago
  4. About 18,000 years ago

Answer. 2. During ice age between 75,000 and 10,000 years ago

Question 194. The most apparent change during the evolutionary history of Homo sapiens is traced in

  1. Loss of body hair
  2. Walking upright
  3. Shortening of the jaws
  4. Remarkable increase in the brain size

Answer. 4. Remarkable increase in the brain size

Question 195. The first human-like being-the hominid-was called

  1. Australopithecus
  2. Homo erectus
  3. Homo habilis
  4. Homo sapiens

Answer. 3. Homo habilis

Question 196. The most advanced theory of origin of life is that of

  1. Catastrophic
  2. Haldane and Oparin
  3. Cosmozoic
  4. Spontaneous

Answer. 2. Haldane and Oparin

Question 197. Possible early source of energy was

  1. Chlorophyll
  2. CO2
  3. UV radiations and lightning
  4. Green plants

Answer. 3. UV radiations and lightning

Question 198. Swan-necked flask experiment was performed by

  1. Louis Pasteur
  2. Robert Koch
  3. Francisco Redi
  4. Aristotle

Answer. 1. Louis Pasteur

Question 199. Spark discharge apparatus for testing the chemical origin of life was designed by

  1. Urey and Miller
  2. Jacob and Monod
  3. Oparin and Haldane
  4. Dixon and Joly

Answer. 1. Urey and Miller

Question 200. Which is the most important for the origin of life?

  1. Oxygen
  2. Water
  3. Nitrogen
  4. Carbon

Answer. 2. Water

Question 201. Theory of spontaneous generation was supported by

  1. Van Helmont
  2. Redi
  3. Spallanzani
  4. Pasteur

Answer. 1. Van Helmont

Question 202. One of the greatest advocates of the theory of special creation was

  1. C. Darwin
  2. Aristotle
  3. Father Saurez
  4. Huxley

Answer. 3. Father Saurez

Question 203. A compound important in prebiotic evolution was

  1. SO2
  2. YCH1
  3. SO3
  4. NO

Answer. 2. YCH1

Question 204. Which ones are the most essential for the origin of life?

  1. Enzymes
  2. Proteins
  3. Carbohydrates
  4. Nucleic acids

Answer. 4. Nucleic acids

Question 205. Approximate age of earth (in million years) is

  1. 3600
  2. 4600
  3. 7200
  4. 6000

Answer. 2. 4600

Question 206. According to the theory of abiogenesis, life originates from

  1. Non-living
  2. Spontaneously
  3. Chemicals
  4. Other planets

Answer. 1. Non-living

Question 207. Abiogenesis is

  1. Origin of life from non-living organisms
  2. Origin of microbes from living organisms
  3. Spontaneous
  4. Origin of microbes and viruses

Answer. 3. Spontaneous

Question 208. Experimental proof that organic compounds formed the basis of evolution was given by

  1. Oparin
  2. Pasteur
  3. Miller and Urey
  4. Spallanzani

Answer. 3. Miller and Urey

Question 209. Which of the following has been basic to the origin of life?

  1. Carbohydrates
  2. Proteins
  3. Nucleic acids
  4. Nucleoproteins

Answer. 3. Nucleic acids

Question 210. Coacervates were experimentally produced by

  1. Oparin and Sidney Fox
  2. Fischer and Huxley
  3. Jacob and Monod
  4. Urey and Miller

Answer. 1. Oparin and Sidney Fox

Question 211. Who disapproved abiogenesis for the first time?

  1. Lamarck
  2. F. Redi
  3. Pasteur
  4. Darwin

Answer. 2. F. Redi

Question 212. Which experiment suggests that simplest living organ- isms could not have originated spontaneously from non- living matter?

  1. Microbes did not appear in stored meat.
  2. Microbes appeared from unsterilized organic matter.
  3. Larvae could appear in decaying organic matter.
  4. Meat was not spoiled when heated and kept in sealed vessel.

Answer. 4. Meat was not spoiled when heated and kept in sealed vessel.

Question 213. The origin of life from pre-existing life is propounded by 

  1. Biogenesis theory
  2. Abiogenesis theory
  3. Special creation theory
  4. Extra terrestrial theory

Answer. 1. Biogenesis theory

Question 214. Extra terrestrial origin of life was proposed by the theory of

  1. Catastrophism
  2. Spontaneous generation
  3. Special creation
  4. Panspermia

Answer. 4. Panspermia

Question 215. Stanley Miller’s experiment supports

  1. Abiogenesis
  2. Biogenesis
  3. Pangenesis
  4. Chemical theory

Answer. 4. Chemical theory

Question 216. Cyanobacteria originated on earth about

  1. 4.3-4.8 billion years ago
  2. 3.3-3.8 billion years ago
  3. 2.3-2.8 billion years ago
  4. 1.3-1.8 billion years ago

Answer. 2. 3.3-3.8 billion years ago

Question 217. Coacervates belong to the category of

  1. Protozoans
  2. Molecular aggregates
  3. Molecular aggregates surrounded by lipid mem- brane
  4. Cyanobacteria

Answer. 2. Molecular aggregates

Question 218. The oldest fossil record of blue-green algae is 2.9 billion years old. It is

  1. Stromatolites
  2. Archaeopteryx
  3. Archaeopterix
  4. Chlamydomonas

Answer. 3. Archaeopterix

Question 219. First life consisted of

  1. Provirus
  2. Virus
  3. Bacteria
  4. Protovirus

Answer. 4. Protovirus

Question 220. Which of the following amino acids was not found to be synthesized in Miller’s experiment?

  1. Alanine
  2. Glycine
  3. Aspartic acid
  4. Glutamic acid

Answer. 4. Glutamic acid

Question 221. Miller and Urey performed an experiment to prove the origin of life. They took gases ammonia and hydrogen along with

  1. N2 and H2O
  2. CH4 and N2
  3. H2O and CH4
  4. CO2 and NH3

Answer. 3. H2O and CH4

Question 222. The term “hot dilute soup” was given by

  1. Haldane
  2. Urey
  3. Oparin
  4. None of the above

Answer. 1. Haldane

Question 223. Coacervates are

  1. Protein aggregates
  2. Protein and lipid aggregates
  3. Chemical aggregates
  4. Protobionts with polysaccharides, proteins, and water

Answer. 4. Protobionts with polysaccharides, proteins, and water

Question 224. The concept of chemical evolution of life is based on

  1. Effect of solar radiations on chemicals
  2. Interaction of water, air, and clay under intense heat
  3. Combination of chemicals under hot moist environment conditions
  4. Crystallization of chemicals

Answer. 3. Combination of chemicals under hot moist environment conditions

Question 225. The living form resulting from the final stage of chemical evolution of life is called

  1. Prebiont
  2. Protobiont
  3. Protenoid
  4. Probiont

Answer. 2. Protobiont

Question 226. Scientists believe that life on earth originated by

  1. Spontaneous generation
  2. Chemical evolution/abiogenesis
  3. Special creation
  4. Extra terrestrial transfer

Answer. 2. Chemical evolution/abiogenesis

Question 227. Which of the following was formed in S. Miller’s experiment?

  1. Microspheres
  2. Nucleic acids
  3. Amino acids
  4. UV radiations

Answer. 3. Amino acids

Question 228. S.L. Miller’s closed flask contained

  1. CH4
  2. NH, and water vapors
  3. H2
  4. All the above

Answer. 4. All the above

Question 229. Microspheres possessed a membrane of 

  1. Lipid and protein
  2. Lipid
  3. Carbohydrates
  4. Fats

Answer. 2. Lipid

Question 230. Which is incorrect about protobionts in the abiogenic origin of life?

  1. They were partially isolated from surroundings.
  2. They could maintain an internal environment.
  3. They were able to reproduce.
  4. They could separate combination of molecules from the surroundings.

Answer. 3. They were able to reproduce.

Question 231. Origin of life occurred in

  1. Precambrian
  2. Coenozoic
  3. Palaeozoic
  4. Mesozoic

Answer. 1. Precambrian

Question 232. In their experiment to prove the origin of life, Miller and Urey took gases

  1. Methane, ethane, hydrogen, ammonia
  2. Methane, ethane, ammonia, water vapors
  3. Methane, ethane, ammonia, water vapors
  4. Ammonia, water vapors, butane, hydrogen

Answer. 3. Methane, ethane, ammonia, water vapors

Question 233. Miller performed experiment to prove abiogenetic molecular evolution of life. Which molecule was not present in Miller’s experiment?

  1. Water
  2. Methane
  3. Oxygen
  4. Ammonia

Answer. 3. Oxygen

Question 234. Which is incorrect?

  1. J.B.S Haldane Law of continuity of germplasm
  2. Louis Pasteur – Germ theory of disease and immunology
  3. de Vries – Mutation theory
  4. Lemaitre – Big bang theory

Answer. 1. Lemaitre – Big bang theory

Question 235. Fossils are studied for

  1. Tracing evolutionary history of organisms
  2. Studying extinct organisms
  3. Filling gaps in our study
  4. Providing jobs to scientists

Answer. 2. Studying extinct organisms

Question 236. The theory “ontogeny recapitulates phylogeny” was proposed by

  1. Mendel
  2. Haeckel
  3. Erasmus
  4. Weismann

Answer. 2. Haeckel

Question 237. Monkeys and some lower groups have certain blood groups which are

  1. Identical to those of man
  2. Identical to those of anthropod apes
  3. Identical to those of anthropod apes
  4. Somewhat similar to white persons
  5. Not identical to those of man

Answer. 1. Identical to those of man

Question 238. Organic evolution is change in

  1. Single individual
  2. A few members of population
  3. Major portion of population
  4. Entire population

Answer. 3. Major portion of population

Question 239. Heart is four-chambered in

  1. Amphibia
  2. Fishes
  3. Mammals
  4. Reptiles

Answer. 3. Mammals

Question 240. Homologous organs are

  1. Human eyes and squid eyes
  2. Gills of fish and lungs of man
  3. Hands of man and wings of bat
  4. Leaf of moss and frond of fern

Answer. 3. Hands of man and wings of bat

Question 241. Coal has been mainly formed by

  1. Bryophytes
  2. Pteridophytes/pteridosperms
  3. Angiosperms
  4. Algae

Answer. 2. Pteridophytes/pteridosperms

Question 242. Darwin’s finches provide evidence of evolution from

  1. Anatomy
  2. Morphology
  3. Biogeography
  4. All the above

Answer. 3. Biogeography

Question 243. Which one is not vestigial in humans?

  1. Third molar
  2. Coccyx
  3. Segmental abdominal muscles
  4. Finger nails

Answer. 4. Finger nails

Question 244. Vestigial pelvic girdle and bone remnants of hind limbs nare characteristic of

  1. Whale
  2. Dolphin
  3. Shark
  4. Seal

Answer. 1. Whale

Question 245. The sequence in the evolution of horse was

  1. Equus, Eohippus, Mesohippus, Merychippus
  2. Eohippus, Mesohippus, Merychippus, Equus
  3. Mesohippus, Eohippus, Equus, Mesohippus
  4. Merychippus, Mesohippus, Eohippus, Equus

Answer. 2. Eohippus, Mesohippus, Merychippus, Equus

Question 246. Origin of life occurred in

  1. Carboniferous
  2. Cambrian
  3. Pre-Cambrian
  4. Ordovician

Answer. 3. Pre-Cambrian

Question 247. The age of evolution of man is measured by

  1. Electron microscope
  2. Chemical reaction
  3. Radioactive dating
  4. Ultraviolet radiation

Answer. 2. Chemical reaction

Question 248. Modern birds rose in

  1. Palaeozoic
  2. Coenozoic
  3. Mesozoic
  4. Archaeozoic

Answer. 1. Palaeozoic

Question 249. Tasmanian wolf is a marsupial while wolf is a placental mammal. This shows

  1. Convergent evolution
  2. Divergent evolution
  3. Parallelism
  4. Inheritance of acquired characters

Answer. 2. Divergent evolution

Question 250. Pioneers in the field of organic evolution were

  1. Darwin, Lamarck, Landsteiner, and de Vries
  2. Darwin, de Vries, Lamarck, Huxley
  3. Lamarck, Landsteiner, Malthus, de Vries
  4. Landsteiner, de Vries, Malthus, Darwin

Answer. 2. Darwin, de Vries, Lamarck, Huxley

Question 251. Occurrence of higher number of endemic species in South America and Australia is due to

  1. Retrogressive evolution
  2. Continental separation
  3. These species have become extinct from other regions
  4. Absence of terrestrial links between these places

Answer. 1. Retrogressive evolution

Question 252. Similarities between organisms of different genotypes is due to

  1. Convergent evolution
  2. Divergent evolution
  3. Microevolution
  4. Macroevolution

Answer. 3. Microevolution

Question 253. Which of the following is not atavistic in humans?

  1. Tail in some babies
  2. Enlarged canines
  3. Six fingers
  4. Dense body hair

Answer. 2. Enlarged canines

Question 254. Which are not homologous?

  1. Forearms of humans and fins of fishes
  2. Wings of bat and insects
  3. Fins of fishes and flippers of whales
  4. Human forearms, bat’s wings, and flippers of whale

Answer. 2. Wings of bat and insects

Question 255. The presence of tail and coarse hair in human baby is 

  1. Radiation
  2. Atavism
  3. Mutation
  4. Crossing-over

Answer. 2. Atavism

Question 256. The unit of evolution is

  1. Population
  2. Species
  3. Individual
  4. Subspecies

Answer. 1. Population

Question 257. The possibility of occurrence of coal in an area is determined by the study of

  1. Microfossils
  2. Ecology
  3. Economic botany
  4. Mining contents

Answer. 1. Microfossils

Question 258. Darwin’s finches occur in

  1. Australia
  2. Galapagos Islands
  3. Siberia
  4. India

Answer. 2. Galapagos Islands

Question 259. Evolution does not occur in case of

  1. Parasitism
  2. Mutualism
  3. Both (1) and (2)
  4. Commensalism

Answer. 4. Commensalism

Question 260. Ancestral amphibians were tetrapods that evolved during

  1. Carboniferous period
  2. Cretaceous period
  3. Jurassic period
  4. Devonian period

Answer. 4. Devonian period

Question 261. Interacting populations are

  1. Symbiotic
  2. Mutualistic
  3. Parasitic
  4. Coevolved

Answer. 4. Coevolved

Question 262. Archaeopteryx, toothed fossil bird, occurred during

  1. Jurassic
  2. Triassic
  3. Cretaceous
  4. Permian

Answer. 2. Triassic

Question 263. Mesozoic era is known as golden age of

  1. Fishes
  2. Amphibians
  3. Reptiles
  4. Molluscs

Answer. 3. Reptiles

Question 264. Continental drift explains

  1. Mass extinctions
  2. Distribution of fossils on earth
  3. Geographical upheavals
  4. All the above

Answer. 4. All the above

Question 265. Reptilian feature of Archaeopteryx is

  1. U-shaped furcula
  2. Beak
  3. Abdominal ribs
  4. Feathers

Answer. 3. Abdominal ribs

Question 266. Archaeopteryx is the connecting link between

  1. Fishes and amphibians
  2. Amphibians and birds
  3. Amphibians and reptiles
  4. Reptiles and birds

Answer. 4. Reptiles and birds

Question 267. Which is not vestigial in man?

  1. Tail vertebrae
  2. Nails
  3. Nictitating membrane
  4. Vermiform appendix

Answer. 2. Nails

Question 268. The development of adaptations along parallel lines in unrelated groups of animals is

  1. Adaptive convergence
  2. Adaptive radiation
  3. Adaptive divergence
  4. Adaptive induction

Answer. 1. Adaptive convergence

Question 269. Which of the following is vestigial in humans?

  1. Mammary glands in males
  2. Knee bones
  3. Nictitating membrane
  4. Ear pinna

Answer. 3. Nictitating membrane

Question 270. Which is a pair of vestigial organs?

  1. Coccyx and intercostal muscles
  2. Coccyx and auricular muscles
  3. Facial hairs in ladies
  4. Coccyx and premolars

Answer. 2. Coccyx and auricular muscles

Question 271. Which of the following is used for dating archaeological specimens such as bones, shells, and wood?

  1. 3 H
  2. 14 C
  3. 121 I
  4. 32 P

Answer. 2. 14 C

Question 272. Convergent evolution is illustrated by

  1. Rat and dog
  2. Bacterium and protozoan
  3. Starfish and cuttlefish
  4. Dogfish and whale

Answer. 4. Dogfish and whale

Question 273. Which one correctly describes homologous structures?

  1. Organs with anatomical similarities but performing different functions
  2. Organs with anatomical similarities but performing different functions
  3. Organs that have no function now but had an important function in ancestors
  4. Organs appearing only in embryonic stage and disappearing later in the adult

Answer. 1. Organs with anatomical similarities but performing different functions

Question 274. The early-stage human embryo distinctly possesses

  1. Gills
  2. Gill slits
  3. External ear (pinna)
  4. Eye brows

Answer. 2. Gill slits

Question 275. Mesozoic era was dominated by

  1. Birds
  2. Fishes
  3. Reptiles
  4. Mammals

Answer. 3. Reptiles

Question 276. The age of fossils was previously determined by radioactive elements. More precise recent method which has led to the revision of evolutionary periods is

  1. Study of carbohydrates and proteins in fossils
  2. Study of conditions of fossilization
  3. Electron spin resonance and fossil DNA
  4. Presence of carbohydrates and proteins in rocks

Answer. 3. Electron spin resonance and fossil DNA

Question 277. The flippers of seal are modified

  1. Hindlimbs
  2. Forelimbs
  3. Fins
  4. Gills

Answer. 2. Forelimbs

Question 278. Potato and sweet potato have edible parts that are

  1. Homologous
  2. Analogous
  3. Recent introductions
  4. Two species of the same genus

Answer. 2. Analogous

Question 279. The classical example of adaptive radiation during the formation of new species is

  1. Marsupials of Australia
  2. Darwin’s finches
  3. Giant tortoise
  4. All the above

Answer. 4. All the above

Question 280. Mammals such as whale, dolphin, bat, monkey, and horse have some common characters but also show conspicuous differences. This is due to the phenomenon of

  1. Divergence
  2. Convergence
  3. Genetic drift
  4. Normalization

Answer. 1. Divergence

Question 281. Which of the following pairs of structures is homologous?

  1. Wings of grasshopper and forelimbs of flying squirrel
  2. Tentacles of Hydra and arms of starfish
  3. Forelimbs of a bat and forelegs of a horse
  4. Wings of a bird and wings of a moth

Answer. 3. Forelimbs of a bat and forelegs of a horse

Question 282. Which is relatively the most accurate method of dating of fossils?

  1. Radiocarbon method
  2. Potassium-argon method
  3. Electron spin-resonance method
  4. Uranium-lead method

Answer. 3. Electron spin-resonance method

Question 283. What is the correct arrangement of periods of Paleozoic era in ascending order in geological time scale?

  1. Cambrian Devonian → Ordovician → Silurian → Carboniferous → Permian
  2. Cambrian Ordovician → Silurian → Devonian → Carboniferous → Permian
  3. Cambrian Ordovician → Devonian → Silurian → Carboniferous → Permian
  4. Silurian→ Devonian → Cambrian → Ordovician → Permian → Carboniferous

Answer. 2. Cambrian Ordovician→ Silurian → Devonian →Carboniferous → Permian

Question 284. An important evidence in favor of organic evolution is the occurrence of

  1. Homologous and analogous organs
  2. Homologous and vestigial organs
  3. Analogous and vestigial organs
  4. Homologous organs only

Answer. 1. Homologous and analogous organs

Question 285. Jurassic period of Mesozoic era is characterized by

  1. Flowering plants and first dinosaurs appear
  2. Gymnosperms are dominant plants and first birds appear
  3. Radiation of reptiles and angiosperms appear
  4. Dinosaurs become extinct and angiosperms appear

Answer. 2. Gymnosperms are dominant plants and first birds appear

Question 286. Evolutionary history of an organism is known as

  1. Ontogeny
  2. Phylogeny
  3. Ancestry
  4. Palaeontology

Answer. 2. Phylogeny

Question 287. Duck-billed platypus is connecting link between

  1. Echinodermata and Chordata
  2. Arthropoda and Mollusca
  3. Reptilia and Mammalia
  4. Reptilia and Aves

Answer. 3. Reptilia and Mammalia

Question 288. Tendrils of Cucurbita and thorns of Bougainvillea are

  1. Homologous organs
  2. Analogous organs
  3. Vestigial organs
  4. Atavistic divergence

Answer. 1. Homologous organs

Question 289. Parallelism is due to

  1. Adaptive divergence
  2. Adaptive convergence
  3. Adaptive convergence of unrelated species
  4. Adaptive convergence of closely related species

Answer. 4. Adaptive convergence of closely related species

Question 290. Which one is correct?

  1. There is no evidence of presence of gills in mammalian embryos.
  2. Ontogeny repeats phylogeny.
  3. All plant and animal cells are totipotent.
  4. Stem cells are specialized cells.

Answer. 2. Ontogeny repeats phylogeny.

Question 291. Finches of Galapagos provide evidence for

  1. Retrogressive evolution
  2. Special creation
  3. Biogeographical evolution
  4. Evolution due to mutation

Answer. 3. Biogeographical evolution

Question 292. Two species of different genealogy show resemblance due to similar adaptation. The phenomenon is

  1. Convergent evolution
  2. Divergent evolution
  3. Microevolution
  4. Coevolution

Answer. 1. Convergent evolution

Question 293. Adaptive radiation is

  1. Evolution of different species from a common ancestor
  2. Adaptation due to geographical isolation
  3. Migration of members of a species to different geographical areas
  4. Power of adaptation of an individual to a variety of environments

Answer. 1. Evolution of different species from a common ancestor

Question 294. What is common to whale, seal, and shark?

  1. Homoiothermy
  2. Seasonal migration
  3. Thick subcutaneous fat
  4. Convergent evolution

Answer. 4. Convergent evolution

Question 295. Life has existed on earth for the last

  1. 2.3 billion years
  2. 3.9 billion years
  3. 4.3 billion years
  4. 5.0 billion years

Answer. 2. 3.9 billion years

Question 296. Darwin’s finches show

  1. Adaptive radiation
  2. Parallel evolution
  3. Homology
  4. Natural selection

Answer. 1. Adaptive radiation

Question 297. Connecting link between Annelida and Mollusca is

  1. Nautilus
  2. Neopilina
  3. Glochidium
  4. Veliger larva

Answer. 2. Neopilina

Question 298. Which period is largely associated with the extinction of dinosaurs and increase in flowering plants and reptiles? 

  1. Triassic
  2. Jurassic
  3. Cretaceous
  4. Permian

Answer. 3. Cretaceous

Question 299. Tachyglossus is connecting link between

  1. Reptiles and mammals
  2. Reptiles and birds
  3. Amphibians and reptiles
  4. Birds and mammals

Answer. 1. Reptiles and mammals

Question 300. Phylogeny is

  1. Evolutionary history
  2. Small body mass
  3. Group of phyla
  4. Smaller extremities

Answer. 1. Evolutionary history

Question 301. As per Allen’s rule, mammals of cold regions conserve body heat through

  1. Larger body mass
  2. Life history
  3. Longer extremities
  4. Genetics of animals

Answer. 4. Genetics of animals

Question 302. Peripatus is connecting link between

  1. Porifera and coelenterata
  2. Ctenophora and Platyhelminthes
  3. Mollusca and Echinodermata
  4. Annelida and Arthropoda

Answer. 4. Annelida and Arthropoda

Question 303. A living connecting link that provides evidence of organic evolution is

  1. Sphenodon between reptiles and birds
  2. Archaeopteryx between reptiles and birds
  3. Lung fishes between pisces and reptiles
  4. Duck-billed platypus between reptiles and mammals

Answer. 4. Duck-billed platypus between reptiles and mammals

Question 304. After the Industrial Revolution, melanic moths survived because

  1. They had black color
  2. They had gray body color
  3. They shifted to different habitat
  4. They reproduced vigorously

Answer. 1. They had black color

Question 305. Vesitiges of girdles are found in

  1. Rattle snake
  2. Krait
  3. Cobra
  4. Python

Answer. 4. Python

Question 306. An evolutionary pattern characterized by a rapid increase in the number of kinds of closely related species is called

  1. Divergent evolution
  2. Convergent evolution
  3. Adaptive radiation
  4. Parallel evolution

Answer. 3. Adaptive radiation

Question 307. The first seed plants appeared in

  1. Cretaceous era
  2. Carboniferous era
  3. Devonian era
  4. Silurian era

Answer. 2. Carboniferous era

Question 308. Given are four statements (a)-(d) with one or two blanks. Select the option which fills up the blanks in two statements.

(a) Wings of butterfly and birds look alike and are the result of _______ evolution.

(b) Miller showed that CH4, H2, NH3, and ______ when exposed to electric discharge in a flask resulted in the formation of _______ evidence of evolution.

(c) Vermiform appendix is a _______ organ and ________.

(d) According to Darwin, evolution took place due to _______ and ______of the fittest.

  1. (d)-(1) small variations, (2) survival; (a)-(1) convergent
  2. (a)-(1) convergent; (b)-(1) oxygen, (2) nucleolides
  3. (b)-(1) water vapors, (2) amino acids; (c)-(1) rudimentary, (2) anatomical
  4. (c)-(1) vestigial, (2) anatomical; (d)-(1) mutations, (2) multiplication

Answer. 1. (d)-(1) small variations, (2) survival; (a)-(1) convergent

Question 309. What was the most significant trend in the evolution of modern man (Homo sapiens) from his ancestors? 

  1. Binocular vision
  2. Increasing cranial capacity
  3. Upright posture
  4. Shortening of jaws

Answer. 2. Increasing cranial capacity

Question 310. Which one of the following options gives one correct ex- ample each of convergent evolution and divergent evolution?

NEET Biology Evolution Question 115

Answer. 4. Eyes of octopus and mammals    Bones of forelimbs of vertebrates

Question 311. The extinct human who lived 1,00,000 to 40,000 years ago, in Europe, Asia, and parts of Africa, with short stature, heavy eyebrows, retreating foreheads, large jaws with heavy teeth, stocky bodies, a lumbering gait, and stooped posture was

  1. Neanderthal human
  2. Cro-Magnon human
  3. Ramapithecus
  4. Homo habilis

Answer. 1. Neanderthal human

Question 312. Evolution of different species in a given area starting from a point and spreading to other geographical areas is known as

  1. Nutrition
  2. Migration
  3. Divergent evolution
  4. Adaptive radiation

Answer. 4. Adaptive radiation

Question 313. The process by which organisms with different evolutionary history evolve similar phenotypic adaptations in response to a common environmental challenge is called

  1. Convergent evolution
  2. Non-random evolution
  3. Adaptive radiation
  4. Natural selection

Answer. 1. Convergent evolution

Question 314. Variation in gene frequencies within populations can occur by chance rather than by natural selection. This is referred to as

  1. Genetic drift
  2. Random mating
  3. Genetic load
  4. Genetic flow

Answer. 1. Genetic drift

Question 315. According to Darwin, the organic evolution is due to

  1. Interspecific competition
  2. Competition within closely related species
  3. Reduced feeding efficiency in one species due to the presence of interfering species
  4. Intraspecific competition

Answer. 1. Interspecific competition

NEET Biology Multiple Choice Questions – Molecular Basis Of Inheritance

Molecular Basis Of Inheritance Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. The strongest evidence in favor of DNA as genetic material comes from

  1. Griffith effect
  2. Conjugation
  3. Taylor’s experiment
  4. Cairn’s effect

Answer. 1. Griffith effect

Question 2. Molecular explanation for transformation was given by

  1. Griffith
  2. Avery, McCarty, and Macleod
  3. Lederberg and Tatum
  4. Avery and McCarty

Answer. 2. Avery, McCarty, and Macleod

Question 3. Radioactive element used to label the DNA of bacterio- phage in the Waring blender experiment of Hershey and Chase was

  1. S35
  2. p32
  3. N15
  4. C14

Answer. 2. p32

Question 4. Transforming principle in Griffith’s experiments explains

  1. Certain rules for auxenic culture of bacteria
  2. Ingredients of culture medium
  3. Chemical substance released by S type
  4. Chemical substance released by R type

Answer. 3. Chemical substance released by S type

Question 5. Some viruses do not have DNA. This suggests that

  1. They are non-infective viruses
  2. RNA is the genetic material in these viruses
  3. DNA is not the genetic material
  4. RNA is a self-replicating molecule

Answer. 2. RNA is the genetic material in these viruses

Question 6. RNA as genetic material in plant viruses was shown by

  1. Hershey and Chase
  2. Fraenkal Conrat
  3. F. Griffith
  4. Lederberg and Tatum

Answer. 1. Hershey and Chase

Question 7. The largest biomolecule in the cell which shows autocatalytic and heterocatalytic functions is

  1. Protein
  2. RNA
  3. DNA
  4. Carbohydrate

Answer. 2. RNA

Question 8. Who gave 3D model of B-DNA?

  1. Watson and Crick
  2. Wilkins and Franklin
  3. F. Meischer
  4. Zacharis

Answer. 3. F. Meischer

Question 9. Bonding between deoxyribose and base in pyrimidine nucleoside molecule is

  1. 1′-1 glycosidic linkage
  2. 1′-6 glycosidic linkage
  3. 1′-9 glycosidic linkage
  4. 1′-4 glycosidic linkage

Answer. 1. 1′-1 glycosidic linkage

Question 10. According to the Chargaff rule, (A+T)/(G + C) values in E. coli and human beings, respectively, are

  1. 1.52 and 0.93
  2. 0.93 and 1.52
  3. 0.66 and 1
  4. Always unit in both

Answer. 1. 1.52 and 0.93

Question 11. Numbers of base pairs in one turn of B-DNA and Z-DNA are, respectively,

  1. 9 and 11
  2. 10 and 11
  3. 10 and 12
  4. 8 and 9

Answer. 3. 10 and 12

Question 12. The total amount of DNA present in the haploid genome of an organism is called its

  1. C-value
  2. Phenotype
  3. Genotype
  4. Karyotype

Answer. 1. C-value

Question 13. T (melting temperature) value of DNA is high when it contains

  1. A+T>G+C
  2. G+C>A+T
  3. A+T=G+C
  4. A +G=T+C

Answer. 2. G+C>A+T

Question 14. Select the incorrect statement regarding RNA molecule:

  1. It has highly reactive 2′-OH group.
  2. It shows high rate of mutation than DNA.
  3. It is genetic material in some viruses.
  4. It follows Chargaff’s rule.

Answer. 4. It follows Chargaff’s rule.

Question 15. The distance covered by a complete turn of DNA double helix is

  1. 3.4 Å
  2. 34 Å
  3. 3.6 Å
  4. 36 Å

Answer. 2. 34 Å

Question 16. The ratio of bases which confirms Chargaff’s rule is/are

  1. A +G=T+C
  2. G+T=A+C
  3. A+T=G+C
  4. Both (1) and (2)

Answer. 4. Both (1) and (2)

Question 17. The terms cistron, recon, and muton were proposed by

  1. W. Ingram
  2. Bateson
  3. J. Lederberg
  4. S. Benzer

Answer. 4. S. Benzer

Question 18. The modern concept of gene is that it is

  1. A segment of DNA capable of crossing-over
  2. A functional unit of DNA
  3. A segment of DNA
  4. A segment of chromosome

Answer. 2. A functional unit of DNA

Question 19. DNA replication is

  1. Semi-conservative
  2. Semi-discontinuous
  3. Conservative and discontinuous
  4. Both (1) and (2)

Answer. 4. Both (1) and (2)

Question 20. Semiconservative mode of DNA replication was experimentally proved in prokaryotes by

  1. Meselson and Stahl
  2. Taylor
  3. Jacob and Monod
  4. A. Kornberg

Answer. 1. Meselson and Stahl

Question 21. In Meselson and Stahl’s experiment, heavy isotope 15N was used in the form of

  1. NaNO,
  2. 15NH,CI
  3. KNO
  4. NH4NO,

Answer. 2. 15NH,CI

Question 22. If a hybrid DNA molecule labeled with 15N is allowed to replicate twice in normal culture medium, the percentage of hybrid DNA after second replication will be

  1. 50%
  2. 12.5%
  3. 25%
  4. 75%

Answer. 3. 25%

Question 23. Assuming that 50 heavy (i.e., containing N15) DNA molecules replicated twice in a medium containing N14, we expect

  1. 100 half and 150 light DNA molecules
  2. 100 half-heavy and half-light and 100 light DNA molecules
  3. 50 heavy and 150 light DNA molecules
  4. 50 heavy and 100 light DNA molecules

Answer. 2. 100 half-heavy and half-light and 100 light DNA molecules

Question 24. Semi-conservative nature of the replication of eukaryotic chromosome was experimentally demonstrated by

  1. Cairns
  2. Meselson and Stahl
  3. Taylor
  4. Hershey and Chase

Answer. 3. Taylor

Question 25. Which statement is correct for bacterial replication?

  1. Has single ori
  2. Bidirectional
  3. Many ori and bidirectional
  4. Both (1) and (2)

Answer. 4. Both (1) and (2)

Question 26. Prokaryotic topoisomerase is

  1. Helicase
  2. Primase
  3. DNA polymerase
  4. DNA gyrase

Answer. 4. DNA gyrase

Question 27. Kornberg enzyme is known as

  1. DNA polymerase I
  2. DNA polymerase II
  3. DNA polymerase 3
  4. RNA polymerase

Answer. 1. DNA polymerase 1

Question 28. The enzyme which has polymerizing activity in 5′ → 3′ direction but exonuclease activity in 3’→ 5′ direction only is

  1. RNA polymerase 3
  2. DNA polymerase 2
  3. DNA polymerase 1
  4. All of these

Answer. 2. DNA polymerase 2

Question 29. New strands of DNA are formed only in

  1. 5’3′ direction
  2. 3′ 5′ direction
  3. Both directions
  4. There is no specific polarity

Answer. 1. 5’3′ direction

Question 30. Okazaki fragments are formed by one strand of DNA, known as

  1. Leading strand
  2. Lagging strand
  3. Continuous strand
  4. Semi-discontinuous strand

Answer. 2. Lagging strand

Question 31. DNA polymerase I is involved in

  1. Removal of RNA primer
  2. Filling of gap
  3. Joining of Okazaki fragments
  4. Both (1) and (2)

Answer. 4. Both (1) and (2)

Question 32. DNA replication in the lagging strand of most eukaryotic organisms is

  1. Conservative and continuous
  2. Semi-conservative but discontinuous
  3. Conservative and semi-discontinuous
  4. Semi-conservative but continuous

Answer. 2. Semi-conservative but discontinuous

Question 33. In eukaryotes, DNA synthesis on the leading strand is catalyzed by

  1. DNA polymerase ε
  2. DNA polymerase β
  3. DNA polymerase β
  4. DNA polymerase y

Answer. 2. DNA polymerase β

Question 34. Wild type of Neurospora crassa which can synthesize all essential metabolites from raw materials is called

  1. Auxotroph
  2. Autotroph
  3. Prototroph
  4. Saprotroph

Answer. 3. Prototroph

Question 35. Find the incorrect matching:

  1. One gene one enzyme-Beadle and Tatum
  2. One gene one polypeptide-Yanofsky
  3. One gene one character de Vries
  4. One mRNA one polypeptide-Monad

Answer. 4. One mRNA one polypeptide-Monad

Question 36. Unidirectional flow of information called central dogma was given by

  1. F.H.C. Crick
  2. Temin
  3. Baltimore
  4. Dulbecco

Answer. 1. F.H.C. Crick

Question 37. The synthesis of DNA on RNA template was first observed in

  1. Rice dwarf virus
  2. Wound tumor virus
  3. Rous sarcoma virus
  4. E. coli

Answer. 3. Rous sarcoma virus

Question 38. Reverse transcriptase is

  1. RNA-dependent RNA polymerase
  2. RNA-dependent DNA polymerase
  3. DNA-dependent RNA polymerase
  4. DNA-dependent DNA polymerase

Answer. 2. RNA-dependent DNA polymerase

Question 39. The segment of master strand of DNA involved in transcription is called

  1. Sense strand
  2. Cistron
  3. Recon
  4. Muton

Answer. 2. Cistron

Question 40. In eukaryotes, RNAP 3 catalyzes the synthesis of

  1. All rRNA and tRNA
  2. mRNA, hnRNA, and snRNA
  3. 5S rRNA, tRNA, and snRNA
  4. 28S, 18S, and 5S rRNA

Answer. 3. 5S rRNA, tRNA, and snRNA

Question 41. Find the incorrect match (with respect to transcription by RNAP):

  1. Core enzyme-a2BB’
  2. Catalytic center-BB’
  3. Pribnow box-4 bp recognition site
  4. p (rho) factor-ATP dependent

Answer. 3. Pribnow box-4 bp recognition site

Question 42. DNA generally acts as a template for the synthesis of

  1. Only protein
  2. Only DNA
  3. Only RNA
  4. Both DNA and RNA

Answer. 4. Both DNA and RNA

Question 43. The core enzyme requires a factor for the termination of RNA synthesis at some sites. This is known as

  1. Sigma factor
  2. Rho factor
  3. Gamma factor
  4. Alpha particle

Answer. 2. Rho factor

Question 44. In which of the following organism mRNA has introns?

  1. Nostoe
  2. Rhizobium
  3. Chlamydomonas
  4. Mycoplasma

Answer. 3. Chlamydomonas

Question 45. If one strand of DNA has base sequence ATCCACGACTAG and the second strand undergoes transcription, what would be the base sequence on mRNA?

  1. TACGTGCTGATC
  2. ATCCACGACTAG
  3. AUCCACGACUAG
  4. AUGCACGACTAG

Answer. 3. AUCCACGACUAG

Question 46. During protein synthesis, amino acid gets attached to tRNA with the help of

  1. mRNA
  2. Aminoacyl synthetase
  3. Ribosome
  4. rRNA

Answer. 2. Aminoacyl synthetase

Question 47. The first amino acid in any polypeptide chain of prokaryotes is always

  1. Formylated methionine
  2. Formylated arginine
  3. Lysine
  4. Methionine

Answer. 1. Formylated methionine

Question 48. Considering that we have four nucleotides A, G, C, and T, the number of base substitutions that can occur in the amino acid codons is

  1. 549
  2. 564
  3. 281
  4. 256

Answer. 1. 549

Question 49. The termination of chain growth in protein synthesis is brought about by

  1. UUG, UGC, UCA
  2. UCG, GCG, ACC
  3. UAA, UAG, UGA
  4. UUG, UAG, UCG

Answer. 3. UAA, UAG, UGA

Question 50. In protein synthesis, the codon used as a start signal is

  1. AUG
  2. UGA
  3. GUA
  4. UAG, UAA

Answer. 1. AUG

Question 51. The translation step in the process of protein synthesis in which the conversion of the language of nucleic acid into that of proteins is made by a charged form of

  1. mRNA
  2. tRNA
  3. rRNA
  4. Template DNA

Answer. 2. tRNA

Question 52. Which site of a tRNA molecule forms hydrogen bonds with mRNA molecule?

  1. Codon
  2. Anticodon
  3. 5′ end of the tRNA molecule
  4. 3′ end of the tRNA molecule

Answer. 3. 5′ end of the tRNA molecule

Question 53. In eukaryotes, the initiation of polypeptide chain in protein synthesis is induced by

  1. Methionine
  2. Glycine
  3. Leucine
  4. Lysine

Answer. 1. Methionine

Question 54. The function of a nonsense codon is

  1. To release polypeptide chain from tRNA
  2. To form an unspecified amino acid
  3. To terminate the message of gene controlling protein synthesis
  4. To convert a sense DNA into nonsense DNA

Answer. 3. To terminate the message of gene controlling protein synthesis

Question 55. When the codon of mRNA is 5′-GUC-3′, then the anticodon on tRNA will be

  1. 5′-CAG-3′
  2. 3′-CAG-5′
  3. 3′-CUG-5′
  4. 3′-GAC-5′

Answer. 2. 3′-CAG-5′

Question 56. To code 50 amino acids in a polypeptide chain, what will be the minimum number of nucleotides in its cistron?

  1. 50
  2. 153
  3. 306
  4. 300

Answer. 3. 306

Question 57. An antibiotic which inhibits translation in eukaryotes is

  1. Chloromycetin
  2. Penicillin
  3. Puromycin
  4. Tetracycline

Answer. 3. Puromycin

Question 58. Find the correct match:

Column I                                         Column II

a. Non-degenerate codon               (1) GUG

b. Ambiguous codon.                      (2) UAG

c. Amber                                         (3) UGG

d. Ochre                                         (4) UGA

(5) UAA

  1. a (3), b (1), c (2), d (5)
  2. a (1), b (2), c (5), d (3)
  3. a (3), b (1), c(4), d (5)
  4. a (3), b (1), c (5), d (2)

Answer. 1. a (3), b (1), c (2), d (5)

Question 59. Triplet nature of genetic code was theoretically proposed by

  1. Nirenberg
  2. Hoagland
  3. Gamow
  4. Khorana

Answer. 3. Gamow

Question 60. Deciphering of genetic code was done by

  1. Nirenberg and Matthaei
  2. Holley and Komberg
  3. F.H.C. Crick
  4. Both (1) and (2)

Answer. 4. Both (1) and (2)

Question 61. Genetic code consists of

  1. Adenine and guanine
  2. Guanine and cytosine
  3. Cytosine and uracil
  4. All of these

Answer. 4. All of these

Question 62. A single anticodon can recognize more than one codon of mRNA. This phenomenon is termed as

  1. Richmond and Lang effect
  2. Gene flow hypothesis
  3. Wobble hypothesis
  4. Transposability

Answer. 3. Wobble hypothesis

Question 63. The term “genetic code” was given by

  1. Watson and Crick
  2. Gamow
  3. Beadle and Tatum
  4. Yanofsky

Answer. 2. Gamow

Question 64. Genetic code is called a degenerate code because

  1. One codon has many meanings
  2. More than one codon has the same meaning
  3. One codon has one meaning
  4. There are 64 codons present

Answer. 2. More than one codon has the same meaning

Question 65. Genetic code determines

  1. Structural pattern of organism
  2. The sequence of amino acids in a protein
  3. The number and variation of offspring
  4. Constancy of morphological traits

Answer. 2. The sequence of amino acids in a protein

Question 66. Khorana synthesized a biologically functional tyrosine tRNA of E. coli in 1979. It contained

  1. 77 nucleotide pairs
  2. 207 nucleotide pairs
  3. 312 nucleotide pairs
  4. 333 nucleotides only

Answer. 2. 207 nucleotide pairs

Question 67. There are 64 codons in genetic code dictionary because

  1. There are 64 types of tRNAs found in the cell
  2. There are 44 meaningless and 20 codons for amino acids
  3. There are 64 amino acids to be coded
  4. Genetic code is triplet

Answer. 4. Genetic code is triplet

Question 68. According to the operon concept, the regulatory gene regulates biochemical reaction in a cell by

  1. Inhibiting transcription
  2. Inactivating enzymes
  3. Inactivating substrate
  4. Inhibiting migration of mRNA

Answer. 1. Inhibiting transcription

Question 69. Which statement is correct for negative operon?

  1. Co-repressor binds with inducer.
  2. Co-repressor binds with repressor.
  3. Co-repressor does not bind with repressor.
  4. CAMP shows negative effect.

Answer. 2. Co-repressor binds with repressor.

Question 70. In E. coli, according to the lac operon theory, an operator gene combines with

  1. Inducer gene to “switch on” structural gene tran- scription
  2. Regulator gene to “switch on” structural gene tran- scription
  3. Regulatory protein to “switch off” structural gene transcription
  4. Regulator protein to “switch on” structural gene transcription.

Answer. 3. Regulatory protein to “switch off” structural gene transcription

Question 71. In an operon, the RNA polymerase binds to

  1. Regulator
  2. Promoter gene
  3. Operator gene
  4. Constitutive gene

Answer. 2. Promoter gene

Question 72. Find the correct match:

Column I                                Column II

a. Housekeeping genes       (1) Histone gene

b. Luxury genes                   (2) snRNA genes

c. Repeated genes              (3) ATPase gene

d. Pseudogenes                  (4) Nitrate reductase gene

  1. a (1), b (2), c (3), d (4)
  2. a (3), b (4), c (2), d (1)
  3. a (3), b (4), c (1), d (2)
  4. a (3), b (2), c (1), d (4)

Answer. 3. a (3), b (4), c (1), d (2)

Question 73. How many types of genes are identified for cancerous transformation after mutation?

  1. One
  2. Three
  3. Four
  4. Two

Answer. 4. Two

Question 74. Covalently closed circular chromosome is

  1. Nucleosome
  2. Viral chromosome
  3. Eukaryotic chromosome
  4. Bacterial chromosome

Answer. 4. Bacterial chromosome

Question 75. Idiochromosomes are

  1. Somatic chromosomes
  2. Autosomes
  3. Prochromosomes
  4. Heterosomes

Answer. 4. Heterosomes

Question 76. Non-histone chromosomal protein which forms the core or axis of chromosome is

  1. HMG protein
  2. Scaffold protein
  3. Regulatory protein
  4. All of these

Answer. 2. Scaffold protein

Question 77. Which statement is incorrect for asymmetric karyotype?

  1. Large difference between smallest and largest chromosome
  2. Small difference between smallest and largest chromosome
  3. It is advance type
  4. It is associated with zygomorphic flower

Answer. 2. Small difference between smallest and largest chromosome

Question 78. The number of base pairs in DNA helix around the octamer histone molecule is

  1. 140-200 bp
  2. 100-150 bp
  3. 40-67 bp
  4. 200-260 bp

Answer. 1. 140-200 bp

Question 79. nu-body of nucleosome consists of

  1. H, and H2A
  2. H2A and H2B
  3. H3 and H4
  4. Both (2) and (3)

Answer. 4. Both (2) and (3)

Question 80. Super-solenoid model of nucleosome has

  1. 10-15 nm diameter
  2. 100-125 nm diameter
  3. 300-700 Å diameter
  4. 300-700 nm diameter

Answer. 4. 300-700 nm diameter

Question 81. Which one of the following is used as marker chromosome?

  1. Monocentric chromosome
  2. SAT-chromosome
  3. Idiosome
  4. L-chromosome

Answer. 2. SAT-chromosome

Question 82. The Human Genome Project as megaproject was a 13 year project coordinated by the

  1. US Department of Energy
  2. National Institute of Health
  3. US Department of Molecular Biology
  4. Both (1) and (2)

Answer. 4. Both (1) and (2)

Question 83. Sequencing of model organism like Caenorhabditis elegans was achieved in April, 2003, with

  1. 97 mbp
  2. 3× 109 bp
  3. 18 x 105 bp
  4. 12 mbp

Answer. 1. 97 mbp

Question 84. Percentage of protein encoding genes and transposable elements in human genome are, respectively,

  1. 76% and 3%
  2. 1% and 45%
  3. 20% and 24%
  4. 3% and 1%

Answer. 2. 1% and 45%

Question 85. SNP which is pronounced as “snips” stands for

  1. Small nuclear protein
  2. Single nucleotide particle
  3. Single nucleotide polymorphism
  4. Small nicking points

Answer. 3. Single nucleotide polymorphism

Question 86. HGP methodology which includes the identification of all genes that expressed as RNA is referred as

  1. RFLP
  2. ESTS
  3. VNTR
  4. RAPDS

Answer. 2. ESTS

Question 87. The largest human gene is located on chromosome _____ and has _______.

  1. X, 2.4 million bases
  2. Y, 2400 × 103 bp
  3. 12, 24 × 105 bp
  4. X, 2400 mbp

Answer. 2. Y, 2400 × 103 bp

Question 88. The last human chromosome whose sequence was completed in May, 2006, is

  1. Chromosome 22
  2. Chromosome 14
  3. Chromosome 1
  4. Chromosomes X and Y

Answer. 1. Chromosome 22

Question 89. Sequencing the whole set of genome that contains all coding and non-coding parts is

  1. Expressed sequence tags
  2. Sequence annotation
  3. Microarray
  4. Electrophoresis

Answer. 3. Microarray

Question 90. The father of DNA fingerprinting is

  1. Alec Jeffreys
  2. Lalji Singh
  3. V.K. Kashyap
  4. E.M. Southern

Answer. 2. Lalji Singh

Question 91. Find the incorrect match:

  1. VNTR-11-60 bp
  2. SSR-15-20 bp
  3. Southern blotting-Nitrocellulose paper
  4. Western blotting-Protein

Answer. 2. SSR-15-20 bp

Question 92. The separation of DNA fragments into bands by electrophoresis is done on

  1. Agarose gel
  2. Polyacrylamide gel
  3. Aminobenzyloxymethyl gel
  4. Both (1) and (2)

Answer. 4. Both (1) and (2)

Question 93. Blotting technique involves the transfer of DNA from

  1. Membrane to gel
  2. Gel to membrane
  3. Sol to gel
  4. Gel to sol

Answer. 2. Gel to membrane

Question 94. Western blot hybridization is used for

  1. DNA analysis
  2. RNA analysis
  3. Protein analysis
  4. Polysaccharide analysis

Answer. 3. Protein analysis

Question 95. In gel-electrophoresis, all DNA fragments move towards the base of the gel with variable velocities because

  1. DNA is positively charged
  2. DNA is slightly negatively charged
  3. DNA fragments have different molecular weights
  4. Both (2) and (3)

Answer. 4. Both (2) and (3)

Question 96. What are mini-satellites?

  1. rDNA
  2. VNTR
  3. cDNA
  4. SAT

Answer. 2. VNTR

Question 97. When the bands of RNA are transferred to a nitrocellulose membrane for identification, the blotting is called

  1. Southern blotting
  2. Northern blotting
  3. Western blotting
  4. Eastern blotting

Answer. 2. Northern blotting

Question 98. International Human Genome Project began in

  1. 1990
  2. 1996
  3. 2000
  4. 2001

Answer. 1. 1990

Question 99. Complete genomes of which non-crop and crop plants have been sequenced?

  1. Datura and wheat, respectively
  2. Arabidopsis and maize, respectively
  3. Oenothera and oat, respectively
  4. Arabidopsis and rice, respectively

Answer. 4. Arabidopsis and rice, respectively

Question 100. According to the Human Genome Project, the percentage of introns in human genome is approximately

  1. 10%
  2. 24%
  3. 75%
  4. 99%

Answer. 2. 24%

Question 101. Find the incorrect statement:

  1. N-glycosidic linkage between nitrogenous base and sugar forms a nucleotide.
  2. 5-methyl uracil is present in DNA.
  3. In RNA, every nucleotide residue has additional -OH group.
  4. The ratio (A + T)/(G + C) is variable.

Answer. 1. N-glycosidic linkage between nitrogenous base and sugar forms a nucleotide.

Question 102. The packaging of DNA at higher level requires

  1. Five types of histones
  2. A histone octamer called nu-body
  3. Non-histone chromosomal proteins
  4. Lysine and arginine

Answer. 3. Non-histone chromosomal proteins

Question 103. Which of the following statement is not applicable for DNA replication?

  1. Tension is released by topoisomerase.
  2. In eukaryotes, DNA polymerases are of five types.
  3. DNA polymerase 3 is the true replicase.
  4. The 3′ 5′ exonuclease activity is not present in DNA polymerase 3.

Answer. 4. The 3′ 5′ exonuclease activity is not present in DNA polymerase 3.

Question 104. Match column I with column II.

Column I                          Column II

a. RNA                         (1) Translational efficiency

b. UTR                         (2) Smallest molecule

c. SD-sequence           (3) Learning and memory

d. tRNA                       (4) Purine rich

  1. a (2), b (3), c (1), d (4)
  2. a (3), b (2), c (4), d (1)
  3. a (3), b (1), c (4), d (2)
  4. a (3), b (4), c (1), d (2)

Answer. 3. a (3), b (1), c (4), d (2)

Question 105. Select the correct statement from the following:

  1. Guanyl transferase catalyzes polyadenylation.
  2. Polycistronic mRNA carries codons of single protein molecule.
  3. In bacteria, translation begins much before mRNA is fully transcribed.
  4. All exons have GU at the 5′ end and AG at the 3′ end.

Answer. 3. In bacteria, translation begins much before mRNA is fully transcribed.

Question 106. Wobbling helps to maintain economy in a number of tRNA molecules because

  1. Genetic code is unambiguous and specific
  2. tRNA contains anticodons
  3. First two bases in the codon are specific
  4. Genetic message is read in open frame

Answer. 3. First two bases in the codon are specific

Question 107. When apo-repressor binds with co-repressor in tryptophan operon,

  1. Operator gene is “switched on”
  2. A complete repressor is formed
  3. Structural genes become functional to produce polycistronic mRNA
  4. Luxury genes are switched on

Answer. 2. A complete repressor is formed

Question 108. Homeodomain proteins

  1. Convert one body part into another
  2. Have tumor-forming property
  3. Are produced by non-coding genes
  4. Control gene regulation in prokaryotes

Answer. 1. Convert one body part into another

Question 109. Select the incorrect statement:

  1. VNTRS are inherited from parents
  2. VNTRS are also called short tandem repeats
  3. Satellite DNA has repeating base patterns
  4. RAPDS are used for DNA fingerprinting

Answer. 2. VNTRS are also called short tandem repeats

Question 110. In sequence annotation,

  1. All expressed genes are identified
  2. Sequence that occurs only once in genome is tagged
  3. All coding and non-coding sequence are involved
  4. Sequencing of genes with exact location and order of known bases is done

Answer. 3. All coding and non-coding sequence are involved

Question 111. Which of the following bond is not associated with a deoxyribonucleotide?

  1. Phosphoester bond
  2. Glycosidic bond
  3. Phosphodiester bond
  4. More than one option is correct

Answer. 3. Phosphodiester bond

Question 112. RNA possess additional group at which position at the sugar which is other than DNA?

  1. ОН, 5′
  2. H, 2′
  3. OH, 2′
  4. H, 5′

Answer. 3. OH, 2′

Question 113. Hallmark of the Watson and Crick three-dimensional DNA model was based on the findings of

  1. Wilkins and Franklin
  2. Erwin Chargaff
  3. Hershey and Chase
  4. Meselson and Stahl

Answer. 2. Erwin Chargaff

Question 114. Which of the following DNA form has the maximum number of base pairs per turn?

  1. A-DNA
  2. B-DNA
  3. C-DNA
  4. Z-DNA

Answer. 4. Z-DNA

Question 115. Which of the following is a part of nu-body?

  1. Histone octamer
  2. DNA + core of nucleosome
  3. H, protein
  4. 1 3/4 turn of DNA + H, protein

Answer. 1. Histone octamer

Question 116. Choose the correct steps in the organization of eukaryotic chromosome:

  1. Nucleosome→ Solenoid→ Super-solenoid
  2. Solenoid Nucleosome→→ Chromatid
  3. DNA → Solenoid → Nucleosome
  4. Chromatin Solenoid→ Nucleosome

Answer. 1. Nucleosome→ Solenoid→ Super-solenoid

Question 117. Heterochromatin

  1. Is transcriptionally active
  2. Is densely packed
  3. Is replicated during early S-phase
  4. Stains lightly

Answer. 2. Is densely packed

Question 118. Non-histone proteins

  1. Are of five types
  2. Are involved in nucleosome formation
  3. Control gene expression
  4. Are basic proteins

Answer. 3. Control gene expression

Question 119. The number of glycosidic bonds associated with the DNA of diploid human cell is

  1. 6.6 × 109
  2. 2 × 6.6 × 10°
  3. 3.3 × 109
  4. 3.3 × 109-2

Answer. 2. 2 × 6.6 × 10°

Question 120. Choose the correct option with respect to the chemical composition of chromosome:

  1. DNA-40%, RNA-8.5%
  2. DNA-50%, Histone-40%
  3. RNA-1.2%, Histone-50%
  4. RNA-1.2%, Histone-40%

Answer. 3. RNA-1.2%, Histone-50%

Question 121. Which of the following types of bacteria were used in Griffith’s transformation experiment?

  1. Diplococcus, R-3, and S-2 type
  2. Pneumococcus, T2 phage
  3. Streptococcus, R-2, and S-3 type
  4. Diplococcus, E. coli

Answer. 3. Streptococcus, R-2, and S-3 type

Question 122. The biochemical nature of transforming principle was defined by

  1. Griffith
  2. Avery, Macleod, McCarty
  3. Watson and Crick
  4. Taylor

Answer. 2. Avery, Macleod, McCarty

Question 123. In Hershey and Chase experiment, the protein of T2 phage was made radioactive by using

  1. S32
  2. p31
  3. S35
  4. p32

Answer. 3. S35

Question 124. Choose the correct option with respect to RNA.

  1. Presence of thymine in place of uracil.
  2. Absence of free 2’OH in sugar.
  3. Mutates at faster rate.
  4. Heavy using NH4Cl

Answer. 3. Mutates at faster rate.

Question 125. Semi-conservative DNA replication was proved by Messelson and Stahl, in which DNA was made

  1. Radioactive using N15
  2. Heavy using N14
  3. Heavy using NH4Cl
  4. Radioactive using 14NH,CI

Answer. 3. Heavy using NH4Cl

Question 126. During DNA replication, strand separation by breaking the H-bonds is performed by

  1. Topoisomerase
  2. Gyrase
  3. Helicases
  4. More than one option is correct

Answer. 4. More than one option is correct

Question 127. RNA primer is removed by

  1. DNAP-1
  2. DNAP-2
  3. DNAP-3
  4. Primase

Answer. 1. DNAP-1

Question 128. How many types of DNA polymerases are associated with eukaryotic cell?

  1. Three
  2. Four
  3. Five
  4. Two

Answer. 3. Five

Question 129. Which of the following acts as a substrate as well as provides energy for DNA polymerization?

  1. Ribonucleoside
  2. Deoxyribonucleoside
  3. Ribonucleotide
  4. Deoxyribonucleoside triphosphate

Answer. 4. Deoxyribonucleoside triphosphate

Question 130. DNA replication is

  1. Semi-conservative, continuous
  2. Conservative, continuous
  3. Semi-conservative, semi-discontinuous
  4. Semi-continuous, conservative

Answer. 3. Semi-conservative, semi-discontinuous

Question 131. Which of the following is a genetic RNA?

  1. mRNA
  2. rRNA
  3. hnRNA
  4. RNA present in plant viruses

Answer. 4. RNA present in plant viruses

Question 132. The mRNA of prokaryotes is

  1. Polycistronic
  2. Monocistronic
  3. Formed by splicing of hnRNA
  4. Carries genetic message to DNA

Answer. 1. Polycistronic

Question 133. Select the odd one out with respect to Shine Dalgarno sequence.

  1. 5’AGGAGGU3′
  2. Helps in binding of 30S ribosomal unit
  3. Helps in binding of 50S ribosomal unit
  4. Present near initiation codon

Answer. 3. Helps in binding of 50S ribosomal unit

Question 134. Which of the following type of ribosomal RNA is not present in eukaryotes?

  1. 18S
  2. 28S
  3. 5.8S
  4. 16S

Answer. 4. 16S

Question 135. Inverted L-shaped three-dimensional structure of tRNA was suggested by

  1. Kim and Klug
  2. Kuntz
  3. Fraenkel-Conrat
  4. Holley

Answer. 1. Kim and Klug

Question 136. Organisms that can complete their life cycle on minimal nutrient medium are called

  1. Prototrophs
  2. Auxotrophs
  3. Arginine mutants
  4. Citrulline mutants

Answer. 1. Prototrophs

Question 137. Find the incorrect match:

  1. Central dogma – F. Crick
  2. Reverse central dogma – Temin and Baltimore
  3. Split genes – Kornberg
  4. mRNA-Jacob and Monad

Answer. 3. Split genes – Kornberg

Question 138. Recognition sequence for transcription in prokaryotes is

  1. TATATAT
  2. TATMT
  3. TATAAAT
  4. CMT

Answer. 2. TATMT

Question 139. Transcription starts non-specifically in the absence of

  1. Sigma factor
  2. Rho factor
  3. Core enzyme
  4. DNA polymerase

Answer. 1. Sigma factor

Question 140. Tailoring of hnRNA is done by

  1. Snurps
  2. Introns
  3. Exons
  4. 18 srRNA

Answer. 1. Snurps

Question 141. Formylated methionine acts as translation initiation in

  1. Prokaryotes
  2. Eukaryotes
  3. Viruses
  4. Archaebacteria

Answer. 1. Prokaryotes

Question 142. Which of the following codons is known as ochre?

  1. UAG
  2. UGA
  3. UAA
  4. UUU

Answer. 3. UAA

Question 143. Which of the following is an ambiguous codon?

  1. AUG
  2. GUG
  3. UAG
  4. GAG

Answer. 2. GUG

Question 144. Which property of genetic code is utilized in wobble hypothesis?

  1. Degeneracy
  2. Non-overlapping
  3. Non-ambiguous
  4. Universal

Answer. 1. Degeneracy

Question 145. In the mitochondrial DNA, UGA codes for

  1. Chain termination
  2. Chain initiation
  3. Tryptophan
  4. Tyrosine

Answer. 3. Tryptophan

Question 146. The activation of amino acids during translation is done by

  1. Peptidyl transferase
  2. Aminoacyl tRNA synthetase
  3. Methionine
  4. Initiation factors

Answer. 2. Aminoacyl tRNA synthetase

Question 147. The movement of ribosome on mRNA is called

  1. Transcription
  2. Translation
  3. Translocation
  4. Protein synthesis

Answer. 3. Translocation

Question 148. The elongation factors required for prokaryotes are

  1. EF-Tu and EF-Ts
  2. eEF1
  3. eIF2
  4. eEF2

Answer. 1. EF-Tu and EF-Ts

Question 149. Which of the following inhibits the binding of aminoacyl tRNA to ribosomes?

  1. Neomycin
  2. Erythromycin
  3. Streptomycin
  4. Tetracycline

Answer. 4. Tetracycline

Question 150. The mechanism by which a gene is able to express itself in the phenotype of an organism is called

  1. Gene expression
  2. RNA synthesis
  3. Translocation
  4. Formylation

Answer. 1. Gene expression

Question 151. The genes that are constantly expressing themselves in a cell are called

  1. Luxury genes
  2. Constitutive genes
  3. Non-constitutive genes
  4. More than one option is correct

Answer. 2. Constitutive genes

Question 152. How many structural genes are present in the lac operon of E. coli?

  1. 4
  2. 3
  3. 2
  4. 1

Answer. 2. 3

Question 153. In lac operon, B-galactosidase enzyme is made by which lac operon of E. coli?

  1. lac y
  2. lac a
  3. lac z
  4. lac i

Answer. 3. lac z

Question 154. Inducer molecule in the lac operon of E. coli is chemically a/an

  1. Disaccharide
  2. Amino acid
  3. Protein
  4. RNA

Answer. 1. Disaccharide

Question 155. Tryptophan operon is

  1. Catabolic system
  2. Repressible system
  3. Inducible system
  4. Having three structural genes

Answer. 2. Repressible system

Question 156. Choose the correct option with respect to the chemical nature of apo-repressor and co-repressor, respectively, in trp operon?

  1. Protein, amino acid
  2. Amino acid, protein
  3. Lipoidal, sugary
  4. Sugary, lipoidal

Answer. 1. Protein, amino acid

Question 157. Gene battery model was proposed by

  1. Jacob and Monad
  2. Gamow
  3. H.G. Khorana
  4. Britten and Davidson

Answer. 4. Britten and Davidson

Question 158. An insect leg may change into antenna due to mutation in

  1. c-oncogene
  2. v-oncogene
  3. Homeotic genes
  4. Proto-oncogene

Answer. 3. Homeotic genes

Question 159. VNTRS consist of hypervariable repeat regions of DNA having a basic repeat sequence of _____ bp and flanked on both sides by ____.

  1. 1-6 bp, GC rich sequences
  2. 11-60 bp, restriction sites
  3. 1-6 bp, restriction sites
  4. 11-60 bp, ribonucleotides

Answer. 2. 11-60 bp, restriction sites

Question 160. Mark the correct match:

  1. Intron-VNTR
  2. SSR-11-60 bp
  3. VNTR-Microsatellite
  4. Minisatellite–Exon

Answer. 1. Intron-VNTR

Question 161. During DNA fingerprinting, the separation of DNA fragments is done by

  1. Autoradiography
  2. Hybridization
  3. Denaturation
  4. Electrophoresis

Answer. 4. Electrophoresis

Question 162. Sequencing the whole set of genome that contained all the coding and non-coding sequences and later assigning different regions in the sequence with functions is known as

  1. Sequence annotation
  2. PCR
  3. Northern blot
  4. Microarray

Answer. 1. Sequence annotation

Question 163. The last step of DNA fingerprinting is

  1. Blotting
  2. Autoradiography
  3. Hybridization
  4. Isolation of desired DNA

Answer. 2. Autoradiography

Question 164. DNA fingerprinting can be used

  1. To solve cases of disputed paternity and maternity
  2. For criminal identification and forensics
  3. For personal identification
  4. More than one option is correct

Answer. 4. More than one option is correct

Question 165. Human genome is said to have approximately

  1. 3 × 10° bp
  2. 3 × 106 bp
  3. 6.6 × 106 bp
  4. 3.3 × 10° bp

Answer. 1. 3 × 10° bp

Question 166. How many total number of genes are found in human genome?

  1. 18,000
  2. 30,000
  3. 13,000
  4. 4,000

Answer. 2. 30,000

Question 167. ___% of the genome codes for protein in human beings.

  1. 98
  2. 50
  3. 24
  4. <2

Answer. 4. <2

Question 168. In humans, the largest gene is present on

  1. Chromosome-1
  2. Y-chromosome
  3. X-chromosome
  4. Chromosome-7

Answer. 3. X-chromosome

Question 169. TDF gene is the smallest gene in humans with

  1. 231 bp
  2. 14 bp
  3. 2968 bp
  4. 3000 bp

Answer. 2. 14 bp

Question 170. SNP stands for

  1. Single nucleoside polymorphism
  2. Simple nucleotide polymorphism
  3. Single nucleotide polymorphism
  4. Simple nucleoside polymorphism

Answer. 3. Single nucleotide polymorphism

Question 171. Similarity in DNA and RNA is

  1. Both are polymers of nucleotides
  2. Both have similar pyrimidine
  3. Both have similar sugar
  4. Both are genetic material

Answer. 1. Both are polymers of nucleotides

Question 172. The length of one loop of B-DNA is

  1. 3.4 nm
  2. 0.34 nm
  3. 20 nm
  4. 10 nm

Answer. 1. 3.4 nm

Question 173. ATP is

  1. Nucleotide
  2. Nucleoside
  3. Nucleic acid
  4. Vitamin

Answer. 1. Nucleotide

Question 174. In three-dimensional view, the molecule of tRNA is

  1. L-shaped
  2. S-shaped
  3. Y-shaped
  4. E-shaped

Answer. 1. L-shaped

Question 175. Which of the following is initiation codon?

  1. UAG
  2. AUC
  3. AUG
  4. CCU

Answer. 3. AUG

Question 176. The method of DNA replication in which two strands of DNA separate and synthesize new strands is

  1. Dispersive
  2. Conservative
  3. Semi-conservative
  4. Non-conservative

Answer. 3. Semi-conservative

Question 177. DNA replication occurs in which stage of cell cycle?

  1. G, phase
  2. S phase
  3. G2 phase
  4. M phase

Answer. 2. S phase

Question 178. Extranuclear DNA is found in

  1. Lysosome and chloroplast
  2. Chloroplast and mitochondria
  3. Mitochondria and lysosome
  4. Golgi body and endoplasmic reticulum

Answer. 2. Chloroplast and mitochondria

Question 179. Which one of the following triplet codes is correctly matched with its specificity for an amino acid in protein synthesis or as a start or stop codon?

  1. UCG-Start
  2. UUU-Stop
  3. UGU – Leusine
  4. UAC – Tyrosine

Answer. 4. UAC – Tyrosine

Question 180. During translation initiation in prokaryotes, a GTP molecule is needed in

  1. Formation of formyl-met-tRNA
  2. Binding of 30S subunit of ribosome with mRNA
  3. Association of 30S mRNA with formyl-met RNA
  4. Association of 50S subunit of ribosome with initiation complex

Answer. 3. Association of 30S mRNA with formylmet RNA

Question 181. In recent years, DNA sequences (nucleotide sequence) of mtDNA and Y-chromosomes were considered for the study of human evolution because 

  1. They are small and, therefore, easy to study
  2. They are uniparental in origin and do not take part in recombination
  3. Their structure is known in great detail
  4. They can be studied from the samples of fossil remains

Answer. 2. They are uniparental in origin and do not take part in recombination

Question 182. Degeneration of a genetic code is attributed to the

  1. First member of a codon
  2. Second member of a codon
  3. Entire codon
  4. Third member of a condon

Answer. 4. Third member of a condon

Question 183. What would happen if in a gene encoding a polypeptide of 50 amino acids, the 25th codon (UAU) is mutated to UAA?

  1. A polypeptide of 24 amino acids will be formed.
  2. Two polypeptides of 24 and 25 amino acids will be formed.
  3. A polypeptide of 49 amino acids will be formed.
  4. A polypeptide of 25 amino acids will be formed.

Answer. 1. A polypeptide of 24 amino acids will be formed.

Question 184. During transcription, the DNA site at which RNA polymerase binds is called

  1. Promoter
  2. Regulator
  3. Receptor
  4. Enhancer

Answer. 1. Promoter

Question 185. Which one of the following is a chain growth polymer?

  1. Starch
  2. Nucleic acid
  3. Polystyrene
  4. Protein

Answer. 3. Polystyrene

Question 186. The correct statement in respect of protein hemoglobin is that it

  1. Functions as a catalyst for biological reactions
  2. Maintains blood sugar level
  3. Acts as an oxygen carrier in the blood
  4. Forms antibodies and offers resistance to diseases

Answer. 3. Acts as an oxygen carrier in the blood

Question 187. The number of chiral carbons in B-D-(+) glucose is

  1. Five
  2. Six
  3. Three
  4. Four

Answer. 1. Five

Question 188. The helical structure of proteins is stabilized by

  1. Dipeptide bonds
  2. Hydrogen bonds
  3. Ether bonds
  4. Peptide bonds

Answer. 2. Hydrogen bonds

Question 189. During transcription, if the nucleotide sequence of the DNA strand that is being coded is ATACG, then the nucleotide sequence in the mRNA would be

  1. TATGC
  2. TCTGG
  3. UAUGC
  4. UATGC

Answer. 3. UAUGC

Question 190. Which of the following ratio is generally constant for a given species?

  1. (A+G)/(C+T)
  2. (T+C)/(G+A)
  3. (G+C)/(A+T)
  4. (A+C)/(T+G)

Answer. 3. (G+C)/(A+T)

Question 191. Which form of RNA has a structure resembling cloverleaf?

  1. rRNA
  2. hnRNA
  3. mRNA
  4. tRNA

Answer. 4. tRNA

Question 192. After mutation at a genetic locus, the character of an organism changes due to the change in

  1. protein structure
  2. DNA replication
  3. protein synthesis pattern
  4. RNA transcription pattern

Answer. 1. protein structure

Question 193. During replication of a bacterial chromosome, DNA synthesis starts from a replication origin site and

  1. RNA primers are involved
  2. Is facilitated by telomerase
  3. Moves in one direction of the site
  4. Moves in bidirectional way

Answer. 4. Moves in bidirectional way

Question 194. A sequence of how many nucleotides in messenger RNA makes a codon for an amino acid?

  1. Three
  2. Four
  3. One
  4. Two

Answer. 1. Three

Question 195. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched with regard to the codon and the amino acid coded by it?

  1. UUU-Valine
  2. AAA-Lysine
  3. AUG-Cysteine
  4. CCC-Alanine

Answer. 2. AAA-Lysine

Question 196. DNA is present in

  1. Chromosomes and dictyosome
  2. Chloroplast and lysosomes
  3. Mitochondria and chloroplasts
  4. Mitochondria and endoplasmic reticulum

Answer. 3. Mitochondria and chloroplasts

Question 197. Which of the following is the simplest amino acid?

  1. Alanine
  2. Asparagine
  3. Glycine
  4. Tyrosine

Answer. 3. Glycine

Question 198. Enzymes, vitamins, and hormones can be classified into a single category of biological chemicals, because all of these 

  1. Are exclusively synthesized in the body of a living organism as at present
  2. Enhance oxidative metabolism
  3. Are conjugated proteins
  4. Help in regulating metabolism

Answer. 4. Help in regulating metabolism

Question 199. Which one of the following makes use of RNA as a template to synthesize DNA?

  1. DNA dependant RNA polymerase
  2. DNA polymerase
  3. Reverse transcriptase
  4. RNA polymerase

Answer. 3. Reverse transcriptase

Question 200. Nucleotides are building blocks of nucleic acids. Each nucleotide is a composite molecule formed by

  1. Base-sugar-OH
  2. Base-sugar-phosphate
  3. Sugar-phosphate
  4. Base-sugar-phosphate

Answer. 2. Base-sugar-phosphate

Question 201. Protein synthesis in an animal cell occurs

  1. On ribosomes present in cytoplasm as well as in mitochondria
  2. On ribosomes present in the nucleolus as well as in cytoplasm
  3. Only on ribosomes attached to the nuclear envelope and endoplasmic reticulum
  4. Only on the ribosomes present in cytosol

Answer. 1. On ribosomes present in cytoplasm as well as in mitochondria

Question 202. Which one of the following hydrolyzes internal phosphodiester bonds in a polynucleotide chain?

  1. Lipase
  2. Protease
  3. Exonuclease
  4. Endonuclease

Answer. 4. Endonuclease

Question 203. Carbohydrates, the most abundant biomolecules on earth, are produced by

  1. Some bacteria, algae, and green plant cells
  2. All bacteria, fungi, and algae
  3. Fungi, algae, and green plants cells
  4. Viruses, fungi, and bacteria

Answer. 1. Some bacteria, algae, and green plant cells

Question 204. The production of a human protein in bacteria by genetic engineering is possible because

  1. Bacterial cell can carry out the RNA splicing reactions
  2. The mechanism of gene regulation is identical in humans and bacteria
  3. The human chromosome can replicate in bacterial cell
  4. The genetic code is universal

Answer. 4. The genetic code is universal

Question 205. During transcription, holoenzyme RNA polymerase binds to a DNA sequence and the DNA assumes a saddle-like structure at that point. What is that sequence called?

  1. CAAT box
  2. GGTT box
  3. AAAT box
  4. TATA box

Answer. 4. TATA box

Question 206. Which functional group participates in disulfide bond formation in proteins?

  1. Thioether
  2. Thiol
  3. Thioester
  4. Thiolactone

Answer. 2. Thiol

Question 207. Bond between phosphate and sugar in a nucleotide is

  1. H-bond
  2. Covalent bond
  3. Phosphodiester bond
  4. Sulfide bond

Answer. 2. Covalent bond

Question 208. Which of the following is formed in nucleolus?

  1. rRNA
  2. tRNA
  3. mRNA
  4. DNA

Answer. 1. rRNA

Question 209. Ribosomes are composed of

  1. DNA + Protein
  2. DNA
  3. RNA + Protein
  4. RNA + DNA

Answer. 3. RNA + Protein

Question 210. DNA probes are copied from the messenger RNA molecules with the help of

  1. Restriction enzymes
  2. Reverse transcriptase
  3. DNA polymerase
  4. Adenosine deaminase

Answer. 2. Reverse transcriptase

Question 211. Which one of the following statement is true for protein synthesis (translation)?

  1. Amino acids are directly recognized by mRNA.
  2. The third base of the codon is less specific.
  3. Only one codon codes for an amino acid.
  4. Every tRNA molecule has more than one amino acid attachment site.

Answer. 2. The third base of the codon is less specific.

Question 212. Which antibiotic inhibits interaction between tRNA and mRNA during bacterial protein synthesis?

  1. Erthromycin
  2. Neomycin
  3. Streptomysin
  4. Tetracycline

Answer. 2. Tetracycline

Question 213. Amino acid sequence in protein synthesis is decided by the sequence of

  1. tRNA
  2. mRNA
  3. cDNA
  4. rRNA

Answer. 2. mRNA

Question 214. “One gene one enzyme” hypothesis was postulated by

  1. R. Franklin
  2. Hershay and Chase
  3. A. Garrod
  4. Beadle and Tatum

Answer. 4. Beadle and Tatum

Question 215. One turn of the helix in a B-form DNA is approximately

  1. 20 nm
  2. 0.34 nm
  3. 3.4 nm
  4. 2 nm

Answer. 3. 3.4 nm

Question 216. “Antiparallel strands of a DNA molecule” means that 

  1. One strand turns anticlockwise
  2. The phosphate groups of two DNA strands, at their ends, share the same position
  3. The phosphate groups at the start of two DNA strands are in opposite positions (pole)
  4. One strand turns clockwise

Answer. 3. The phosphate groups at the start of two DNA strands are in opposite positions (pole)

Question 217. During protein synthesis in an organism, at one point, the process comes to a halt. Select the group of three codons from the following from which any one of the three can bring about this halt.

  1. UUU, UCC, UAU
  2. UUC, UUA, UAC
  3. UAG, UGA, UAA
  4. UUG, UCA, UCG

Answer. 3. UAG, UGA, UAA

Question 218. Thymine is

  1. 5-Methyluracil
  2. 4-Methyluracil
  3. 3-Methyluracil
  4. 1-Methyluracil

Answer. 1. 5-Methyluracil

Question 219. The molecular basis of organ differentiation depends on modulation in transcription by

  1. RNA polymerase
  2. Ribosome
  3. Transcription factor
  4. Anticodon

Answer. 3. Transcription factor

Question 220. The Okazaki fragments in DNA chain growth

  1. Result in transcription
  2. Polymerize in the 3′ to 5′ direction and from replication fork
  3. Prove semi-conservative nature of DNA replication
  4. Polymerize in the 5′ to 3′ direction and explain 3′ to 5′ DNA replication

Answer. 4. Polymerize in the 5′ to 3′ direction and explain 3′ to 5′ DNA replication

Question 221. The two polynucleotide chains in DNA are

  1. Parallel
  2. Discontinuous
  3. Antiparallel
  4. Semi-conservative

Answer. 3. Antiparallel

Question 222. About 98% mass of every living organism is composed of just six elements including carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, oxygen, and

  1. Phosphorous and sulfur
  2. Sulfur and magnesium
  3. Magnesium and sodium
  4. Calcium and phosphorus

Answer. 1. Phosphorous and sulfur

Question 223. A plant requires magnesium for

  1. Holding cells together
  2. Protein synthesis
  3. Chlorophyll synthesis
  4. Cell wall development

Answer. 3. Chlorophyll synthesis

Question 224. Polysome is formed by

  1. A ribosome with several subunits
  2. Ribosomes attached to each other in a linear arrangement
  3. Several ribosomes attached to a single mRNA
  4. Many ribosomes attached to a strand of endoplasmic reticulum

Answer. 3. Several ribosomes attached to a single mRNA

Question 225. Which one of the following pairs of nitrogenous bases of nucleic acids is wrongly matched with the category mentioned against it?

  1. Guanine, adenine—Purines
  2. Adenine, thymine—Purines
  3. Thymine, uracil—Pyrimidines
  4. Uracil, cytosine—Pyrimidines

Answer. 2. Adenine, thymine Purines

Question 226. In the DNA molecule,

  1. The proportion of adenine in relation to thymine varies with the organism
  2. There are two strands which run antiparallel one in 5′, 3′ direction and the other in 3′, 5′ direction
  3. The total amount of purine and pyrimidine nucleotides is not always equal
  4. There are two strands which run parallel in the 5′, 3′ direction

Answer. 2. There are two strands which run antiparallel one in 5′, 3′ direction and the other in 3′, 5′ direction

Question 227. Which one of the following pairs of codons is correctly matched with their function or the signal for the particular amino acid?

  1. AUG, ACG-Start/methionine
  2. UUA, UCA-Leucine
  3. GUU, GCU-Alanine
  4. UAG, UGA-Stop

Answer. 4. UAG, UGA-Stop

Question 228. What is not true for genetic code?

  1. It is unambiguous.
  2. A codon in mRNA is read in a non-contiguous fashion.
  3. It is nearly universal.
  4. It is degenerate.

Answer. 2. A codon in mRNA is read in a non-contiguous fashion.

Question 229. The removal of introns and joining the exons in a defined order in a transcription unit is called

  1. Capping
  2. Splicing
  3. Tailing
  4. Transformation

Answer. 2. Splicing

Question 230. Semi-conservative replication of DNA was first demonstrated in

  1. Salmonella typhimurium
  2. Drosophila melanogaster
  3. Escherichia coli
  4. Streptococcus pneumoniae

Answer. 3. Escherichia coli

Question 231. Whose experiments cracked the DNA and discovered unequivocally that a genetic code is a “triplet”?

  1. Beadle and Tatum
  2. Nirenberg and Mathaei
  3. Hershey and Chase
  4. Morgan and Strutevant

Answer. 2. Nirenberg and Mathaei

Question 232. If one strand of DNA has nitrogenous base sequence as ATCTG, what would be the complementary RNA strand sequence?

  1. UAGAC
  2. AACTG
  3. ATCGU
  4. TTAGU

Answer. 1. UAGAC

Question 233. The removal of RNA polymerase III from nucleoplasm will affect the synthesis of

  1. hnRNA
  2. mRNA
  3. rRNA
  4. tRNA

Answer. 4. tRNA

Question 234. Which one of the following is not a part of a transcription unit in DNA?

  1. A terminator
  2. A promoter
  3. The structural gene
  4. The inducer

Answer. 4. The inducer

Question 235. A certain road accident patient with unknown blood group needs immediate blood transfusion. His one doctor friend at once offers his blood. What was the blood group of the donor?

  1. Blood group AB
  2. Blood group O
  3. Blood group A
  4. Blood group B

Answer. 2. Blood group O

Question 236. The removal of introns and the joining of exons in a de- fined order during transcription is called

  1. Inducing
  2. Slicing
  3. Splicing
  4. Looping

Answer. 3. Splicing

Question 237. The diagram shows an important concept in the genetic implication of DNA. Fill in the blanks A to C.

NEET Biology Molecular Basis Of Inheritance Question 68

  1. A-translation; B-transcription; C-Erevin Chargaff
  2. A transcription; B-translation; C-Francis Crick
  3. A-translation; B-extension C; -Rosalind Franklin
  4. A-transcription; B-replication; C-James Watson

Answer. 2. A transcription; B-translation; C-Francis Crick

Question 238. Which enzyme/s will be produced in a cell in which there is a nonsense mutation in the lac Y gene?

  1. Lactose permease
  2. Transacetylase
  3. Lactose permease and transacetylase
  4. β-Galactosidase

Answer. 4. β-Galactosidase