NEET Biology

Principles Of Inheritance And Variation Multiple Choice Question and Answers

Question 1. The phrase “like begets like” is best analyzed in the context of

1. Forward genetics
2. Reverse genetics
3. Classical genetics
4. Both (1) and (2)

Answer. 4. Both (1) and (2)

Question 2. The term genetics was coined by

1. Bateson
2. Mendel
3. Morgan
4. Johanssen

Answer. 1. Bateson

Question 3. Which one of the following inheritance or theory is based on the blending concept and explains gemmule as the basis of inheritance?

1. Preformation theory
2. Pangenesis theory
3. Reproductive blood theory
4. Mendelian inheritance

Answer. 2. Pangenesis theory

Question 4. Mendel’s experimental plant was Pisum sativum, but he also worked and failed to find similar results on

1. Tobacco and sweet pea
2. Hieracium and Lablab
3. Hieracium and sweet pea
4. Lablab and sweet pea

Answer. 2. Hieracium and Lablab

Question 5. Predecessor/s of Mendel was/were

1. Goss
2. Kolreuter
3. Naudin
4. All of these

Answer. 4. All of these

Question 6. Mendel read out and presented his paper in the seminar of Natural History Society of Brunn in

1. 1857
2. 1859
3. 1865
4. 1866

Answer. 3. 1865

Question 7. Who amongst the following found out the original paper of Mendel and got it published in Flora?

1. De Vries
2. Correns
3. Tschermak
4. Kolreuter

Answer. 1. De Vries

Question 8. Find odd one out (with respect to pea traits).

1. Yellow cotyledon
2. Yellow pod
3. Terminal flower
4. Constricted pod

Answer. 1. Yellow cotyledon

Question 9. Which one of the following Mendelian traits is present on the fifth chromosome?

1. Pod shape
2. Pod color
3. Flowers color
4. Pod position

Answer. 2. Pod color

Question 10. The recombinant phenotypic ratio in F2 obtained from pa- rental cross having genotypes TTRR x ttrr will be

1. 9:3:3:1
2. 3:1
3. 1:2:1
4. 3:3

Answer. 4. 3:3

Question 11. Heterozygous tall and red flowered pea plants are selfed and total 2000 seeds are collected. What is the total number of seeds for both heterozygous traits?

1. 250
2. 500
3. 1250
4. 750

Answer. 2. 500

Question 12. Types of gametes formed by the plant with genotype *AABbccDD will be

1. 4
2. 16
3. 8
4. 2

Answer. 4. 2

Question 13. In monohybrid cross, pure homozygous plants will be

1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four

Answer. 2. Two

Question 14. Total 512 seeds are collected from the cross WwYy x WwYy. Find the number of plants produced with first dominant and second recessive trait.

1. 288
2. 96
3. 32
4. 320

Answer. 2. 96

Question 15. Which Mendelian cross can produce two genotypes and two phenotypes?

1. Monohybrid cross
2. Monohybrid test cross
3. Incomplete dominance
4. Co-dominance

Answer. 2. Monohybrid test cross

Question 16. A trihybrid cross is made between two yeasts, both with genotypes AaBbCc. What proportion of offsprings will be of genotype aabbcc?

1. 0
2. 1/4
3. 1/16
4. 1/64

Answer. 4. 1/64

Question 17. From the cross AABb x aaBb, genotypes AaBB: AaBb: Aabb: aabb are obtained in the ratio of

1. 1:1:1:1
2. 1:2:1:0
3. 0:3:1:0
4. 1:1:1:0

Answer. 2. 1:2:1:0

Question 18. In a cross between a pure tall pea plant with green pod and a pure short plant with yellow pod, how many short plants out of 16 would you expect in F2 generation?

1. 9
2. 4
3. 3
4. 1

Answer. 2. 4

Question 19. Find the correct match.

Column 1                              Column 2

a. Phenotype                          (1) G. Shull

b. Heterosis                           (2) Johanssen

c. Heterozygous                    (3) Correns

d. Incomplete dominance    (4) Bateson

1. a (2), b (1), c (4), d (3)
2. a (2), b (1), c (3), d (4)
3. a (4), b (1), c (3), d (2)
4. a (1), b (2), c (3), d (4)

Answer. 1. a (2), b (1), c (4), d (3)

Question 20. An allele is the

1. Total number of genes for a trait
2. Total number of genes on chromosome
3. Alternative form of a gene
4. Alternative form of a character

Answer. 3. Alternative form of a gene

Question 21. How many phenotypes are produced in a test cross of AaBBCC?

1. Two
2. Four
3. Eight
4. Twelve

Answer. 1. Two

Question 22. Which parental combination represents outcross?

1. AA × BB
2. Aa x aa
3. аа х АА
4. Aa x AA

Answer. 4. Aa x AA

Question 23. Which one of the following crosses would have ratio 1:1:1:1?

1. TtRR x ttrr
2. TTRR × ttrr
3. TtRrx ttrr
4. TURR × TTrr

Answer. 3. TtRrx ttrr

Question 24. When red and white flowered Mirabilis plants are crossed, all pink flowers are produced in F, generation. When F, progeny is selfed, the expected phenotypic and genotypic ratios are, respectively,

1. 1:2:1 and 3:1
2. 3:1 and 1:2:1
3. 1:21 and 1:2:1
4. 1:1 and 1:1:1

Answer. 3. 1:21 and 1:2:1

Question 25. If a character is controlled by six alleles of a gene, then the possible genotypes would be

1. 21
2. 729
3. 64
4. 42

Answer. 1. 21

Question 26. The ratio of children with blood groups A: B: AB: 0, born to a set of parents in which the mother is with blood group A and the father is with blood group B, will be

1. 1:1:1:1
2. 2:0:2:0
3. 0:0:4:0
4. All of these

Answer. 4. All of these

Question 27. Possible blood groups in children from the parents with blood groups B and O are

1. All B
2. All O
3. Both B and O
4. A and B

Answer. 3. Both B and O

Question 28. Which one of the following genes influences the viability of the organisms when present in homozygous condition?

1. Curly wings gene in Drosophila
2. Plum eyes gene in Drosophila
3. Sickle-cell gene
4. All of these

Answer. 4. All of these

Question 29. Pleiotropic genes show

1. One gene one character
2. One gene regulates many phenotypic characters
3. Polygenic inheritance
4. Multiple allelism

Answer. 2. One gene regulates many phenotypic characters

Question 30. Emasculation of flower is done when

1. Stamens are mature
2. Stamens are immature
3. Stigma is mature
4. Stigma is immature

Answer. 2. Stamens are immature

Question 31. Consider the cross AaBbCcDdEe x aaBbccddee. What proportion of the progeny will genotypically resemble the first parent?

1. 1/64
2. 2/64
3. 4/16
4. 4/46

Answer. 1. 1/64

Question 32. When only one allele of a pair is present, the condition is called

1. Homozygous
2. Hemizygous
3. Heterozygous
4. Incomplete dominance

Answer. 2. Hemizygous

Question 33. Both the alleles are independently expressed in

1. Eye color in Drosophila
2. Fruit color in Cucurbita
3. Sickle-cell hemoglobin
4. Height in tobacco

Answer. 3. Sickle-cell hemoglobin

Question 34. Reciprocal cross is

1. Intraspecific hybridization
2. Back cross
3. Pollen grains from one variety deposited on the stigma of the contrasting variety and vice versa, in hybridization experiments
4. Test cross

Answer. 3. Pollen grains from one variety deposited on the stigma of the contrasting variety and vice versa, in hybridization experiments

Question 35. Bridge between two generations which contributes equally in the heredity of the offsprings is

1. Chromosome
2. Somatic cells
3. Sperm and egg
4. Factor

Answer. 3. Sperm and egg

Question 36. Sum total of genes with all these alleles at any time in a unit of evolution is called

1. Genotype
2. Genome
3. Gene pool
4. Gene library

Answer. 3. Gene pool

Question 37. Both chromosomes as well as genes do not occur in pairs in

1. Somatic cells
2. Fertilized egg
3. Megaspore mother cell
4. Microspore

Answer. 4. Microspore

Question 38. Parallelism between factors and chromosome led to the formation of

1. Cell theory
2. Chromosomal theory of inheritance
3. Pangenesis theory
4. Pre-formation theory

Answer. 2. Chromosomal theory of inheritance

Question 39. Who observed that the behavior of chromosomes at meiosis can serve as the cellular basis of both segregation and independent assortment?

1. Sutton and Boveri
2. Banden and Boveri
3. W. Flemming
4. Boveri and Brauer

Answer. 1. Sutton and Boveri

Question 40. In a dihybrid test cross, if the parental types exceed the recombination types among the resultant progeny, it is due to

1. Linkage
2. Complete linkage
3. Independent assortment
4. Crossing-over

Answer. 1. Linkage

Question 41. In the cross involving “linked genes,” who discovered that the assortment of genes during germ cell formation is non-random in the violation of Mendel’s second law?

1. Bateson and Punnet
2. Morgan
3. Sutton and Boveri
4. Sutton

Answer. 1. Bateson and Punnet

Question 42. Test cross ratio 1:7:7:1 in sweet pea when two pairs of alleles do not show independent assortment can be obtained from parental cross which is

1. BBll x bbll
2. BbL1 x BBll
3. BBll x bbll
4. bbll x Bbll

Answer. 3. BBll x bbll

Question 43. Dihybrid test cross ratio with 82% parental type and 18% recombinants type shows that genes have

1. Incomplete linkage
2. Complete linkage
3. Independent assortment
4. Double crossing-over

Answer. 4. Double crossing-over

Question 44. A dihybrid test cross ratio for two completely linked genes will be

1. 1:1:1:1
2. 1:1
3. 1:7:7:1
4. 7:1:1:7

Answer. 2. 1:1

Question 45. In a cross in Drosophila, the heterozygous member with gray body (b+) and long wings (vg+) was crossed with the one with black body and vestigial wings. The progeny had the following ratio: grey vestigial – 24; grey long- 126; black long-26; black vestigial – 124. What is the frequency of recombinants in the population?

1. 15.8%
2. 16.7%
3. 17.5%
4. 14.5%

Answer. 2. 16.7%

Question 46. An individual homozygous for genes cd is crossed with wild type and F, is crossed back with the double recessive. The appearance of the offsprings is as follows:

++ →    903

cd →     897

+d  →    98

c+  →   102

The distance between genes c and d d is

1. 20 map units
2. 9.8 map units
3. 10.2 map units
4. 10 map units

Answer. 4. 10 map units

Question 47. A test cross of F, flies ++ / ab produced the following offsprings:

++/ab (R)           9

ab/ab (R)            9

+b/ab (R)           41

a+/ab (R)           41

This cross represents

1. Trans configuration
2. Cis configuration
3. Complete linkage
4. No crossing-over

Answer. 1. Trans configuration

Question 48. In rabbits, two recessive genes produce solid body color and long hair, respectively, in contrast to spotted body color and short hair, which result from dominant alleles. The results from a cross between heterozygous spotted, short-haired rabbits and solid, long-haired rabbits are as follows:

Spotted, short           48

Spotted, long           5

Solid, short              7

Solid, long              40

In terms of cross-over units, how far apart are these two genes on the chromosome?

1. 48 units
2. 12 units
3. 40 units
4. 7 units

Answer. 2. 12 units

Question 49. Assume that genes a and b are linked and show 40% re- combination. If++/++ individual is crossed with ab/ab, then types and proportions of gametes in F, will be

1. ++ 20% ab 20%: +b 20%: a+ 40%
2. ++ 50% ab 50%
3. ++25%: ab 25%: +b 25%: a+ 25%
4. ++30% ab 30% +b 20%: a+ 20%

Answer. 4. ++30% ab 30% +b 20%: a+ 20%

Question 50. Neurospora is normally pink, though an albino strain is known. If a pink (+) strain is crossed with an albino (a) strain, what would be the genotype(s) of the resulting zygote?

1. ++
2. aa
3. +a
4. +a

Answer. 3. +a

Question 51. Complete linkage is found in

1. Male Drosophila
2. Female silkworm
3. Both (1) and (2)
4. Aspergillus flavus

Answer. 3. Both (1) and (2)

Question 52. Number of linkage groups in an individual is equal to

1. Number of genes
2. n-number of chromosomes
3. 2n number of chromosomes
4. Number of autosomes

Answer. 2. n-number of chromosomes

Question 53. The bacterial and blue green algal cells contain

1. Large number of linkage groups
2. Only one linkage group
3. Four linkage groups
4. No linkage group

Answer. 2. Only one linkage group

Question 54. Find the incorrect match with respect to linkage group.

1. Neurospora – 2
2. Zea mays – 10
3. Pisum sativum-7
4. Drosophila-4

Answer. 1. Neurospora – 2

Question 55. Coupling and repulsion phenomena are concerned with

1. Mutation
2. Pleiotropism
3. Linkage
4. Crossing-over

Answer. 3. Linkage

Question 56. The exchange of chromosome segments between maternal and paternal chromatids after synapsis in meiosis is called

1. Interference
2. Crossing-over
3. Chiasma
4. Terminalization

Answer. 2. Crossing-over

Question 57. Crossing-over occurs in ______ stage.

1. Leptotene
2. Zygotene
3. Pachytene
4. Diakinesis

Answer. 3. Pachytene

Question 58. Crossing-over occurring at two-strand stage will show which one of the following types of ascospores arrangement?

1. 2:4:2
2. 4:4
3. 2:2:2:2
4. 4:2:2

Answer. 2. 4:4

Question 59. The cross-over frequencies between the genes A and B, A and C, and B and C are 6%, 15%, and 21%, respectively. What is the possible sequence of genes on chromosome?

1. A, B, C
2. B, A, C
3. A, C, B
4. Either B, A, C or C, A, B

Answer. 4. Either B, A, C or C, A, B

Question 60. In a linear chromosome, map distances between four loci are as follows: a-b-10, b-c-4, a-d-3, a-c-6. The expected cross-over frequency between c and d is

1. 3%
2. 9%
3. Either 3% or 9%
4. 4% to 12%

Answer. 3. Either 3% or 9%

Question 61. Mendel did not recognize the linkage phenomenon in his experiments, because

1. He did not have powerful microscope
2. He studied only pure plants
3. There were many chromosomes to handle
4. Characters he studied were located on different chromosomes

Answer. 4. Characters he studied were located on different chromosomes

Question 62. Sex-linked characters are generally

1. Dominant
2. Recessive
3. Lethal
4. Not inherited

Answer. 2. Recessive

Question 63. Which one of the following defects in man is due to sex- linked inheritance?

1. Albinism
2. Colorblindness
3. Beri-beri
4. Polydactyly

Answer. 2. Colorblindness

Question 64. A colorblind boy has 2 sisters-one colorblind and one normal. What can be the possible nature of their parents?

1. Colorblind father and colorblind mother
2. Normal father and colorblind mother
3. Colorblind father and carrier mother
4. Colorblind father and normal mother

Answer. 3. Colorblind father and carrier mother

Question 65. A normal woman, whose father had hemophilia, married a normal man. What is the chance of occurrence of hemophilia in their children?

1. 25% children will be hemophilic
2. 50% children will be hemophilic
3. 75% children will be hemophilic
4. None hemophilic but 75% will be carriers

Answer. 1. 25% children will be hemophilic

Question 66. A holandric gene is known for hypertrichosis (long hairs on ears). When a man with hairy ears marries a normal woman, what percentage of their daughters would be expected to have hairy ears?

1. 100%
2. 0%
3. 50%
4. 25%

Answer. 2. 0%

Question 67. Which one of the following trait is X-Y linked?

1. Hypertrichosis
2. Porcupine skin
3. Cystic fibrosis
4. Epidermolysis bullosa

Answer. 4. Epidermolysis bullosa

Question 68. When sex determination occurs after fertilization it is called

1. Progamic
2. Syngamic
3. Epigamic
4. Apogamic

Answer. 3. Epigamic

Question 69. XX-XY type sex determination in plants was first discovered in

1. Melandrium
2. Coccinia
3. Sphacrocarpos
4. Fragaria elatior

Answer. 3. Sphacrocarpos

Question 70. In birds, the females are

1. ZZ
2. Zw
3. ZO
4. YY

Answer. 2. Zw

Question 71. Genic balance theory was given by

1. Bridges
2. Morgan
3. Boveri
4. Muller

Answer. 1. Boveri

Question 72. According to the genic balance theory of Bridges, which is correct for AAA+ XXY condition of Drosophila?

1. Supermale
2. Superfemale
3. Intersex
4. Normal male but sterile

Answer. 3. Intersex

Question 73. Gynandromorph or sex mosaic is produced by

1. Loss of X-chromosome
2. Non-disjunction of Y-chromosome
3. Disjunction of X-chromosome
4. Disjunction of autosomes

Answer. 1. Loss of X-chromosome

Question 74. The concept of sudden genetic change which breeds true in an organism is visualized in the principle of

1. Natural selection
2. Heredity
3. Variations
4. Mutation

Answer. 4. Mutation

Question 75. Gene mutation is caused by

1. Reproduction
2. Linkage
3. Change in the sequence of nitrogenous base
4. Change in the sequence of genes in DNA

Answer. 3. Change in the sequence of nitrogenous base

Question 76. Which radiations induce the formation of thymine dimers in DNA that interfere with its replication?

1. UV radiations
2. X rays
3. Gamma rays
4. Infrared light

Answer. 1. UV radiations

Question 77. Which of the following radiations do not result in any mutational change?

1. X rays
2. Gamma rays
3. Ultraviolet rays
4. Infrared rays

Answer. 4. Infrared rays

Question 78. “Mutations can be induced by X rays” was revealed by

1. Stanley Miller
2. Bridges
3. Muller
4. Darlington

Answer. 3. Muller

Question 79. Which chemical mutagen results in deamination of bases?

1. HNO2
2. Base analogs
3. Acridine dyes
4. PEG

Answer. 1. HNO2

Question 80. “Burkitt lymphoma” in humans is due to

1. Deletion
2. Translocation
3. Transition
4. Tautomeric shift

Answer. 2. Translocation

Question 81. Bar eye character in Drosophila is due to

1. Deletion
2. Multiple alleles
3. Duplication
4. Inversion

Answer. 3. Duplication

Question 82. Find the incorrect match:

1. 44+ XYY-Jacob’s syndrome
2. 44+ XO – Turner’s syndrome
3. 44+ XXXY — Huntington’s chorea
4. 2N + 1 – Down’s syndrome

Answer. 3. 44+ XXXY — Huntington’s chorea

Question 83. Find the correct match:

Column 1                         Column 2

a. 2N-1-1                         (1) Trisomy

b. 2N + 1                        (2) Monosomy

c. 2N + 1 + 1                  (3) Nullisomy

d. 2N-2                          (4) Double trisomy

(5) Double monosomy

1. a (5), b (1), e (4), d (3)
2. a (2), b (1), e (4), d (3)
3. a (5), b (1), e (4), d (2)
4. a (2), b (1), e (4), d (5)

Answer. 1. a (5), b (1), e (4), d (3)

Question 84. Syndrome due to extra 18th autosomal chromosome is known as

1. Patau’s syndrome
2. Edward’s syndrome
3. Cri-du-chat syndrome
4. Down’s syndrome

Answer. 2. Edward’s syndrome

Question 85. If gene frequency for PTC non-taster is 0.4, then what will be the number of heterozygote tasters in a population of 3000?

1. 1080
2. 1440
3. 480
4. 2520

Answer. 2. 1440

Question 86. In the given pedigree, indicate whether the shaded symbols indicate dominant or recessive allele..

1. Dominant
2. Recessive
3. Co-dominant
4. It can be recessive or dominant both

Answer. 4. It can be recessive or dominant both

Question 87. Cystic fibrosis is due to recessive gene mutation of

1. Chromosome 4
2. Chromosome 7
3. Chromosome 11
4. X-chromosome

Answer. 2. Chromosome 7

Question 88. Albinism in man is caused by the absence of one enzyme necessary for the synthesis of melanin. It is

1. Tyrosinase
2. Lysine
3. Melanase
4. Luciferase

Answer. 1. Tyrosinase

Question 89. A normal woman whose father was albino marries a man who is albino. What proportion of normal and albino can be expected among the offspring?

1. All albino
2. 1 normal: 1 albino
3. All normal
4. 2 normal: 1 albino

Answer. 2. 1 normal: 1 albino

Question 90. Mark the correct statement (with respect to the Mendelian dihybrid cross where the two parents differed in two pairs of contrasting traits: seed color and seed shape).

1. 3/4th of F2 plants have green seeds and 1/4th have yellow.
2. Mendel cross-hybridized F, plants and got 9:3:3 : 1 phenotypic ratio.
3. In F2 generation, round and wrinkled seed shape segregates just like in a monohybrid cross.
4. Parental phenotypic ratio is 1:1 in F2 generation.

Answer. 3. In F2 generation, round and wrinkled seed shape segregates just like in a monohybrid cross.

Question 91. ABO blood groups in human beings are controlled by gene I. Gene I has three alleles in which

1. 1A, 1B, and i produce a slightly different form of sugar
2. 1B and i produce identical sugars
3. 1A and 1B produce a slightly different form of sugar
4. Only allele i produces sugar

Answer. 3. 1A and 1B produce a slightly different form of sugar

Question 92. Starch grain size in garden pea, flower color in 4’O clock plant, and heterozygous individual for sickle-cell anemia are examples of

1. Incomplete dominance
2. Non-allelic interaction
3. Co-dominance
4. Inter-allelic interaction

Answer. 4. Inter-allelic interaction

Question 93. Morgan carried out several dihybrid crosses in fruit fly and found that

1. Loosely linked genes show low recombination
2. The strength of linkage between genes of white eye and miniature wing is lower than the genes of yellow body and white eye
3. Tightly linked genes show equal amount of parental and recombinant types in F2 generation
4. All genes segregate independently of each other and the F2 ratio deviates very significantly from the 9:3 :3:1 ratio

Answer. 2. The strength of linkage between genes of white eye and miniature wing is lower than the genes of yellow body and white eye

Question 94. Consider the following four statements (A, B, C, and D) and select the right option for incorrect statements.

A. Mendelian experiments had large sampling size, which gave greater credibility to the data that he collected.

B. Recessive allele influences the appearance of pheno- type even in the presence of an alternative allele.

C. Multiple alleles can be found only when population studies are made.

D. In F2 generation of Mendelian monohybrid cross, the tall and dwarf traits were identical to their parental types and showed blending.

The incorrect statements are

1. (A) and (C)
2. (C) and (D)
3. (B) and (D)
4. (B) and (C)

Answer. 3. (B) and (D)

Question 95. Mr. Wilson is suffering from hypertrichosis and phenylketonuria. His father is heterozygous for phenylke- tonuria. The probability of Wilson’s sperm having one recessive autosomal allele and holandric gene is

1. 1/8
2. 1/16
3. 1/4
4. 1/2

Answer. 4. 1/2

Question 96. Select the incorrect match with respect to human genetic disorders.

Disorders                           Chromosome number              Dominant/recessive

(1) Cystic fibrosis                                7                                      Recessive

(2) Sickle-cell anemia                       15                                      Recessive

(3) Phenylketonuria                          12                                      Recessive

(4) Huntington’s chorea                    4                                      Dominant

Answer. 2. Sickle-cell anemia 15 Recessive

Question 97. Consider the following statements (A)-(D) each with one or two blanks:

A. _______ are commonly observed in cancer cells.

B. During ________, purine is replaced by another purine.

C. Failure of ___________ after telophase stage of cell division results in an increase in whole set of chromosomes in an organism and this phenomenon is known as __________

D. In Down’s syndrome, the affected individual is short- statured with ______ round head and partially open mouth.

Which one of the following options gives the correct fill ups for the respective blank numbers from (1) to (5) in the statements?

1. (3) Karyokinesis, (4) polyploidy, (5) large
2. (2) Transversion, (3) cytokinesis, (4) chromosomal aberration
3. (1) Chromosomal aberration, (4) polyploidy, (5) small
4. (2) Transition, (3) karyokinesis, (5) large

Answer. 3. (1) Chromosomal aberration, (4) polyploidy, (5) small

Question 98. Study the given pedigree chart of a certain family and select the correct conclusion which can be drawn for the character.

1. The trait under study could be hemophilic.
2. Only female parent is homozygous recessive.
3. Both the parents are homozygous dominant.
4. Inheritance of a condition like sickle-cell anemia as an autosomal recessive trait.

Answer. 4. Inheritance of a condition like sickle-cell anemia as an autosomal recessive trait.

Question 99. The frequency of an autosomal dominant allele is 0.6. Calculate the frequency of recessive phenotype in a population of 10,000.

1. 1200
2. 4000
3. 1600
4. 1000

Answer. 1. 1200

Question 100. With increasing age, the linkage

1. Becomes strong
2. Becomes weak
3. Terminates
4. Remains unchanged

Answer. 1. Becomes strong

Question 101. If there were only parental combinations in F2 of a dihybrid cross, then Mendel might have discovered

1. Independent assortment
2. Atavism
3. Linkage
4. Repulsion

Answer. 3. Linkage

Question 102. Mendelian dihybrid and dihybrid with linkage are, respectively, related with how many chromosomes?

1. 1 pair and 2 pair
2. 2 pair and 1 pair
3. 2 pair and 2 pair
4. 1 pair and 1 pair

Answer. 2. 2 pair and 1 pair

Question 103. A dihybrid plant with incomplete linkage on test cross may produce how many types of plants?

1. 2
2. 4
3. 8
4. 1

Answer. 2. 4

Question 104. The number of linkage groups in a cell having 10 pairs of chromosomes are

1. 5
2. 10
3. 15
4. 20

Answer. 2. 10

Question 105. The two eukaryotic organelles responsible for cytoplasmic inheritance are

1. Lysosome and mitochondria
2. Chloroplasts and lysosomes
3. Mitochondria and chloroplasts
4. Mitochondria and Golgi complex

Answer. 3. Mitochondria and chloroplasts

Question 106. Cross-over value (COV) of genes A and B is 5% while COV of genes B and C is 15%. The possible sequence of three genes on chromosome is

1. A-B-C
2. C-A-B
3. B-C-A
4. Both (1) and (2)

Answer. 4. Both (1) and (2)

Question 107. Which of the following conditions represent a case of co-dominant genes?

1. A gene expresses itself, suppressing the phenotypic effect of its alleles.
2. Genes those are similar in phenotypic effect when present separately, but when together interact to produce a different trait.
3. Alleles, both of which interact to product a trait, which may resemble either of the parental type.
4. Alleles, each of which produces an independent effect in heterozygous condition.

Answer. 4. Alleles, each of which produces an independent effect in heterozygous condition.

Question 108. A sinistral shelled female snail has Dd genotype cross with dextral shelled male having dd genotype. What type of shell will be present in the progeny?

1. All dextral
2. All sinistral
3. 50% dextral, 50% sinistral
4. None

Answer. 2. All sinistral

Question 109. In female Drosophila, the linked gene exhibits recombination during the meiosis of gamete formation, but such a recombination does not occur during the formation of sperm in male Drosophila because

1. Male Drosophila is sterile
2. Male Drosophila is parthenogenetic male
3. No crossing-over occurs in male Drosophila
4. Male Drosophila is haploid

Answer. 3. No crossing-over occurs in male Drosophila

Question 110. The condition in which only one allele of a pair is present is known as

1. Homozygous
2. Heterozygous
3. Hemizygous
4. Incomplete dominance

Answer. 3. Hemizygous

Question 111. A colorblind man marries a daughter of a colorblind father. Then in the offspring,

1. All sons are colorblind
2. All daughters are colorblind
3. Half sons are colorblind
4. No daughter is colorblind

Answer. 3. Half sons are colorblind

Question 112. A woman with normal vision marries a man with normal vision and gives birth to a colorblind son. Her husband dies and she marries a colorblind man. What is the probability of her children having the abnormality

1. 50% colorblind sons + 50% colorblind daughters
2. All sons colorblind and daughters carrier
3. All daughters colorblind and sons normal
4. 50% sons colorblind and all daughters normal

Answer. 1. 50% colorblind sons + 50% colorblind daughters

Question 113. Albinism is determined by a recessive gene in man. The presence of albinism in 50% children born to a couple proves that

1. Both parents are heterozygous for albinism
2. Father is homozygous normal and mother is heterozygous
3. Father is homozygous for albinism but mother is heterozygous
4. Both are homozygous

Answer. 3. Father is homozygous for albinism but mother is heterozygous

Question 114. A gene that shows its effect on more than one character is

1. Polygene
2. Pleotropic gene
3. Multifactor gene
4. Multiple gene

Answer. 2. Pleotropic gene

Question 115. In Drosophila, crossing-over occurs in females but not in males. Genes A and B are 10 map unit apart on chro- mosome. A female Drosophila has genotype AB/ab and a male Drosophila has genotype AB/ab. How many types of gametes are produced by female and male Drosophila, respectively?

1. 4 types: 2 types
2. 2 types: 2 types
3. 4 types: 4 types
4. 4 types: 1 type

Answer. 1. 4 types: 2 types

Question 116. In polygenic inheritance trait, which is controlled by three pairs of genes, two individuals that are heterozygous for three alleles crossed each other. Such type of cross produced phenotypic ratio

1. 1:2:1
2. 9:3:3:1
3. 1:4:6:4:1
4. 16:15 20:15:6:1

Answer. 4. 16:15 20:15:6:1

Question 117. In a cross between individuals homozygous for (a, b) and wild type (++), 700 out of 1000 individuals were of parental type. Then the distance between a and b is

1. 70 map units
2. 35 map units
3. 30 map units
4. 15 map units

Answer. 3. 30 map units

Question 118. Which of the following show linkage group in coupling phase?

Answer. 1.

Question 119. In Drosophila, several alleles exhibit the same phenotype, e.g., W+s, W+c, W+g exhibit eye color. These alleles are called

1. Pseudoalleles
2. Isoalleles
3. Multiple alleles
4. All of the above

Answer. 2. Isoalleles

Question 120. Which statement is incorrect about linkage?

1. It helps in maintaining the valuable traits of new varieties.
2. It helps in forming new recombinants.
3. Knowledge of linkage helps the breeder to combine all desirable traits in a single variety.
4. It helps in locating genes on chromosome.

Answer. 2. It helps in maintaining the valuable traits of new varieties.

Question 121. The first mutant reported by Morgan on Drosophila was

1. Red eyed male
2. Red eyed female
3. White eyed male
4. White eyed female

Answer. 3. White eyed male

Question 122. Non-ionizing radiations commonly used for inducing mutations in organisms are

1. UV rays
2. Beta rays
3. X rays
4. Gamma rays

Answer. 1. UV rays

Question 123. The smallest unit of genetic material which upon mutation produces a phenotypic effect is

1. Sexual reproduction
2. Meiosis
3. Mutation
4. Independent assortment

Answer. 3. Mutation

Question 124. Chemical mutagens are far more hazardous than radiations because

1. Exposure to chemicals is more prevalent
2. Organisms possess protection from radiation but no protection from chemicals
3. Chemically induced mutations are more deleterious
4. Chemicals are synthetic

Answer. 2. Organisms possess protection from radiation but no protection from chemicals

Question 125. Mutagens that are effective on DNA replication only are

1. Base analogs and acridines
2. Alkylating agents
3. HNO2
4. α and B rays

Answer. 1. Base analogs and acridines

Question 126. Haploids are preferred over diploids for mutation studies because

1. Recessive mutation is expressed in F1
2. Recessive mutation is expressed in F2
3. Dominant phenotype is expressed
4. Dominant phenotype is suppressed

Answer. 1. Recessive mutation is expressed in F1

Question 127. The type of gene mutation that involves the replacement of purine with pyrimidine or vice versa (Or) The substitution of one type of base with another type of base is

1. Transduction
2. Transversion
3. Translocation
4. Transcription

Answer. 2. Transversion

Question 128. Mutations induced by 5-bromo uracil are

1. Transversional mutations
2. Transitional mutations
3. Frame shift mutations
4. Backward mutations

Answer. 2. Transitional mutations

Question 129. Deamination of adenine and guanine by HNO, and UV rays produces

1. Cytosine and uracil
2. Xanthine and hypoxanthine
3. Hypoxanthine and xanthine
4. Xanthine and uracil

Answer. 3. Hypoxanthine and xanthine

Question 130. In a random mating population in equilibrium, which of the following brings about a change in gene frequency in a non-directional manner?

1. Mutation
2. Random drift
3. Selection
4. Migration

Answer. 2. Random drift

Question 131. Given below is the representation of a kind of chromosomal mutation:

Identify the kind of mutation.

1. Deletion
2. Duplication
3. Inversion
4. Reciprocal translocation

Answer. 3. Inversion

Question 132. The “cri-du-chat” syndrome is caused by change in chromosome structure involving

1. Deletion
2. Duplication
3. Inversion
4. Translocation

Answer. 1. Deletion

Question 133. Chromosome with genes abcdefg becoming abedcfg is

1. Duplication
2. Deletion
3. Translocation
4. Inversion

Answer. 4. Inversion

Question 134. Which one of the following scientists’ names is correctly matched with the theory put forth by him?

1. de Vries Natural selection
2. Mendel – Theory of pangenesis
3. Weismann Theory of continuity of germplasm
4. Pasteur – Inheritance of acquired characters

Answer. 3. Weismann Theory of continuity of germplasm

Question 135. Which of the following is an example of substantive dis- continuous variation?

1. Hairless cat
2. Short legged ancon sheep
3. Polydactyly in humans
4. More than one option is correct.

Answer. 4. More than one option is correct.

Question 136. Find the incorrect match.

1. Moist vapor theory proposed by-Pythagoras
2. Theory of epigenesis-Homunculus
3. Theory of pangenesis-Gemmules
4. Theory of germplasm proposed by-Weismann

Answer. 2. Theory of epigenesis-Homunculus

Question 137. Which of the following genotype represents heterozygous condition?

1. TT
2. tt
3. Tt
4. RR

Answer. 3. Tt

Question 138. In garden pea plant, S. Blixt led to locate Mendel’s seven characters on chromosomes numbers

1. 1, 4, 5, 7
2. 1,4, 5, 6
3. 4, 5, 6, 7
4. 2, 3, 4, 7

Answer. 1. 1, 4, 5, 7

Question 139. Mendel selected Pisum sativum for hybridization experiments because of

1. Clear contrasting characters and short life span
2. Long life span and non-fertile hybrids
3. Presence of unisexual flowers
4. Infertile hybrids and production of large number of seeds by each plant

Answer. 1. Clear contrasting characters and short life span

Question 140. Mark the odd one (with respect to dominant trait in garden pea).

1. Yellow pod
2. Inflated pod
3. Axial flower
4. Yellow seed

Answer. 1. Yellow pod

Question 141. The transmission of genetic characters from parents to offsprings is

1. Variation
2. Heredity
3. Blending
4. Somatoplasm

Answer. 2. Heredity

Question 142. Who coined the term “allele”?

1. Saunders
2. Bateson
3. Johannsen
4. Mendel

Answer. 2. Bateson

Question 143. Which of the following trait of garden pea is present on the seventh chromosome?

1. Pod shape
2. Pod color
3. Seed shape
4. Stem height

Answer. 3. Seed shape

Question 144. Who amongst the following raised the status of Mendel’s generalizations to laws?

1. Correns
2. de Vries
3. Tschermak
4. Goss

Answer. 1. Correns

Question 145. The phenotype of F, hybrid resembles either of the two parents in

1. Dominance
2. Incomplete dominance
3. Co-dominance
4. Intermediate inheritance

Answer. 1. Dominance

Question 146. Mendel proposed the law of dominance and the law of segregation based on his observations on

1. Monohybrid crosses
2. Dihybrid crosses
3. Test crosses
4. Outcrosses

Answer. 1. Monohybrid crosses

Question 147. Which of the following phenotypic ratio was found by Mendel in the F2 generation of a dihybrid cross?

1. 3:1
2. 1:2:1:2:4:2:1:2:1
3. 9:3:3:1
4. 12:4

Answer. 3. 9:3:3:1

Question 148. Both phenotypic and genotypic ratios of F2 are the same in

1. Co-dominance
2. Incomplete dominance
3. Outcross
4. More than one option is correct

Answer. 4. More than one option is correct

Question 149. The ability of a gene to have multiple phenotypic effects is known as

1. Pleiotropy
2. Co-dominance
3. Incomplete dominance
4. Complete dominance

Answer. 1. Pleiotropy

Question 150. How many types of gametes can be produced by a dip- loid organism, if it is heterozygous for three loci?

1. 6
2. 4
3. 9
4. 3

Answer. 3. 8

Question 151. What will be the genotypic ratio in the F2 generation of a monohybrid outcross?

1. 9:3:3:1
2. 1:2:1
3. 1:1
4. 3:1

Answer. 3. 1:1

Question 152. A cross between F, hybrid and its homozygous recessive parent is called

1. Outcross
2. Test cross
3. Monohybrid cross
4. Dihybrid cross

Answer. 2. Test cross

Question 153. Select the correct option with respect to the law of independent assortment:

1. It can be explained by using monohybrid cross.
2. The inheritance of one character is dependent on another character.
3. This law is not applicable universally.
4. It was proposed by Bateson.

Answer. 3. This law is not applicable universally.

Question 154. Find the incorrect match:

1. Gamete-Pure for a trait
2. Co-dominance-Flower color in snapdragon
3. Lethal gene-Body color in mice
4. Incomplete dominance-Carl Correns

Answer. 2. Co-dominance-Flower color in snapdragon

Question 155. Select the odd one out with respect to non-allelic gene interactions:

1. Epistasis
2. Duplicate genes
3. Incomplete dominance
4. Complementary genes

Answer. 3. Incomplete dominance

Question 156. Fruit color in Cucurbita pepo is an example of

1. Complementary genes
2. Duplicate genes
3. Dominant epistasis
4. Polymeric genes demonstrated by Bateson

Answer. 3. Dominant epistasis

Question 157. Complementary genes were demonstrated by Bateson and Punnet in

1. Capsella
2. Lathyrus odoratus
3. Antirrhinum
4. Mirabilis

Answer. 2. Lathyrus odoratus

Question 158. If dominant alleles of two gene loci produce the same phenotype, whether both genes inherited separately or together, this inheritance will be

1. Recessive epistasis
2. Dominant epistasis
3. Duplicate genes interaction
4. Inhibitory genes interaction

Answer. 3. Duplicate genes interaction

Question 159. A gene which hides the action of another gene is termed as

1. Co-dominant gene
2. Epistatic gene
3. Hypostatic gene
4. Lethal gene

Answer. 2. Epistatic gene

Question 160. In polymeric gene action, the modified dihybrid phenotypic ratio in the F2 generation is

1. 9:3:3:1
2. 13:3
3. 9:6:1
4. 12:3:4

Answer. 3. 9:6:1

Question 161. Which of the following genotype of sweet pea plant is related with the production of purple colored flowers?

1. CcPp
2. CCpp
3. ccPP
4. Ccpp

Answer. 1. CcPp

Question 162. Select the odd one out with respect to polygenic inheritance:

1. Bell-shaped curve is obtained.
2. Also called quantitative inheritance.
3. Recessive alleles show cumulative effect.
4. Intermediate phenotypes are more frequent.

Answer. 3. Recessive alleles show cumulative effect.

Question 163. Select the correct match (with respect to dihybrid phenotypic ratio in F2 generation):

1. Recessive epistasis – 12:3:1
2. Dominant epistasis-9: 3:4
3. Collaborative gene-9:3:3:1
4. Duplicate genes – 9:7

Answer. 3. Collaborative gene-9:3:3:1

Question 164. Skin color in man is controlled by

1. Three pairs of polygenes
2. Duplicate genes
3. Six pairs of polygenes
4. Supplementary genes

Answer. 1. Three pairs of polygenes

Question 165. Select the odd one out with respect to the chromosomal theory of inheritance.

1. It was proposed by Sutton and Boveri.
2. The behavior of chromosomes is parallel to the behavior of genes.
3. Chromosomes and genes occur in pairs in diploid and haploid cells, respectively.
4. The paired condition of both, chromosomes as well as Mendelian factors, is restored during fertilization.

Answer. 3. Chromosomes and genes occur in pairs in diploid and haploid cells, respectively.

Question 166. The term gene for Mendelian factor was coined by

1. Sutton and Boveri
2. Morgan
3. Bateson
4. Johannsen

Answer. 4. Johannsen

Question 167. Morgan used Drosophila as experimental material because

1. It cannot be reared and bred under lab conditions
2. A single mating produces very few offsprings
3. It has large number of morphologically similar chromosomes
4. It has a short life span

Answer. 4. It has a short life span

Question 168. Who carried out several dihybrid crosses in Drosophila to study genes that were sex-linked?

1. Morgan
2. Sutton
3. Bateson
4. Punnet

Answer. 1. Morgan

Question 169. Coupling and repulsion hypothesis in sweet pea plant was explained by

1. Mendel
2. Bateson and Punnet
3. T.H. Morgan
4. Sutton and Boveri

Answer. 2. Bateson and Punnet

Question 170. Find the odd one out with respect to complete linkage:

1. 100% parental combinations in F2 generation.
2. F2 phenotypic ratio is 3: 1 in dihybrid cross.
3. Dihybrid test cross ratio is 1 : 1 in F2 generation.
4. Linked genes tend to separate frequently.

Answer. 4. Linked genes tend to separate frequently.

Question 171. The condition where an individual heterozygous for two pairs of linked genes (AaBb) possesses two dominant genes on one homologous chromosome pair and two recessive on the other is said to be

1. Cis-arrangement
2. Trans-arrangement
3. Partly cis partly trans
4. More than one option is correct

Answer. 1. Cis-arrangement

Question 172. How many linkage groups are present in human male?

1. 24
2. 23
3. 46
4. 22

Answer. 1. 24

Question 173. Linkage ratio of 7:1:1:7 in case of dihybrid test cross means that there are

1. 2 parental and 14 recombinant plants
2. 14 parental and 2 recombinant plants
3. 9 parental and 7 recombinant plants
4. 8 parental and 8 recombinant plants

Answer. 2. 14 parental and 2 recombinant plants

Question 174. Find the incorrect statement with respect to chromosomal mapping:

1. Crossing-over is important in locating genes on chromosome.
2. Recombination frequency depends on the distance between the genes.
3. Recombination frequency is inversely proportional to the distance between the genes.
4. The sequences and the relative distances between various genes are graphically represented in terms of recombination frequencies.

Answer. 3. Recombination frequency is inversely proportional to the distance between the genes.

Question 175. Individuals having homomorphic sex chromosomes produce

1. One type of gametes
2. Two types of gametes
3. No gametes
4. Only one gamete in complete life span

Answer. 1. One type of gametes

Question 176. Holandric genes are present on

1. X-chromosomes
2. Y-chromosomes
3. Sex chromosomes as well as autosomes
4. Autosomes

Answer. 2. Y-chromosomes

Question 177. Mark the incorrect pair (with respect to sex determination):

1. ZW-ZZ type-Fishes
2. ZO-ZZ type-Birds
3. XX-XO type-Dioscorea
4. XX-XY type-Melandrium

Answer. 2. ZO-ZZ type-Birds

Question 178. Which of the following statement about a Barr body is incorrect?

1. Observed by Barr and Bertram.
2. Can be seen in neutrophils of females as drumstick.
3. The number of Barr bodies is one less than the number of autosomes.
4. Normal male has no Barr body.

Answer. 3. The number of Barr bodies is one less than the number of autosomes.

Question 179. In the XX-XO type of sex determination,

1. Females produce only one type of eggs
2. Females have only one X-chromosome
3. Males have two X-chromosomes
4. Males are homogametic

Answer. 1. Females produce only one type of eggs

Question 180. Select the odd one out with respect to the genic balance theory of sex determination in Drosophila:

1. Y-chromosome plays no role in sex-determination.
2. Given by C.B. Bridges.
3. If X/A ratio is 1, super-females are produced.
4. If N/A ratio is less than 0.5, super-males are produced.

Answer. 3. If X/A ratio is 1, super-females are produced.

Question 181. Environmental mechanism of sex determination is seen in

1. Bonnelia
2. Crepidula
3. Grasshopper
4. More than one option is correct

Answer. 4. More than one option is correct

Question 182. Select the odd one out with respect to hemophilia:

1. X-linked dominant disorder
2. Bleeder’s disease
3. Criss-cross inheritance
4. X-linked recessive disorder

Answer. 4. X-linked recessive disorder

Question 183. Select the correct match:

1. Sex-limited trait-Colorblindness
2. Sex-limited trait-Expressed in both sexes
3. Sex-influenced trait-More frequent in one sex than in the other
4. Sex-influenced trait-Porcupine skin

Answer. 3. Sex-influenced trait-More frequent in one sex than in the other

Question 184. If a normal man marries a girl who is a carrier of hemophilia, then

1. All sons will be hemophilic
2. All daughters will be hemophilic
3. 75% of offsprings will be hemophilic
4. 50% of sons will be hemophilic

Answer. 4. 50% of sons will be hemophilic

Question 185. Mark the odd one (with respect to genomatic mutation):

1. Hypoploidy
2. Tetrasomy
3. Duplication
4. Allopolyploidy

Answer. 3. Duplication

Question 186. Find the incorrect match:

1. Somatic mutation – No evolutionary importance
2. Germinal mutation – Gametic mutation
3. Frame shift mutation – Gibberish mutation
4. Chromosomal mutation – Transversion

Answer. 4. Chromosomal mutation – Transversion

Question 187. The substitution of a purine with another type of purine is called

1. Transversion
2. Transition
3. Inversion
4. Translocation

Answer. 2. Transition

Question 188. Inversion without involving the centromere is called

1. Paracentric
2. Monosomy
3. Pericentric
4. Tautomerization

Answer. 1. Paracentric

Question 189. Aneuploidy which results in the loss of a complete homologous pair of chromosomes is

1. Trisomy
2. Tetrasomy
3. Nullisomy
4. Euploidy

Answer. 3. Nullisomy

Question 190. Which of the following chemical is a base analog?

1. 5-Bromouracil
2. Acridines
3. Nitrous acid
4. Hypoxanthine

Answer. 1. 5-Bromouracil

Question 191. Cytoplasmic male sterility in maize is due to defective

1. Mitochondria
2. Lysosome
3. Golgi body
4. Leucoplast

Answer. 1. Mitochondria

Question 192. Select the incorrect statement with respect to pedigree analysis:

1. Solid symbol shows the unaffected individual.
2. It is useful for genetic counselors.
3. Proband is the person from which case history starts.
4. It is an analysis of traits in several generations of a family.

Answer. 1. Solid symbol shows the unaffected individual.

Question 193. Which of the following abnormalities is due to X-linked recessive mutation?

1. Cystic fibrosis
2. Thalassaemia
3. Klinefelter’s syndrome
4. Lesch-Nyhan syndrome

Answer. 4. Lesch-Nyhan syndrome

Question 194. If the frequency of recessive allele is 0.3, then find out the frequency of heterozygous individuals in population?

1. 42%
2. 21%
3. 10%
4. 49%

Answer. 1. 42%

Question 195. According to Mendelism, which character is showing dominance?

1. Terminal position of flower
2. Green color in seed coat
3. Wrinkled seeds
4. Green pod color

Answer. 4. Green pod color

Question 196. Irregularity is found in Drosophila during the organ differentiation, e.g., in place of wing, long legs are formed. The gene responsible for this is

1. Double dominant gene
2. Homeotic gene
3. Complimentary gene
4. Plastid

Answer. 2. Homeotic gene

Question 197. Mendel obtained wrinkled seeds in pea due to the deposition of sugars instead of starch. It was due to which enzyme?

1. Amylase
2. Invertase
3. Diastase
4. Absence of starch branching enzyme

Answer. 4. Absence of starch branching enzyme

Question 198. A gene is said to be dominant if

1. It expresses its effect only in homozygous stage
2. It expresses its effect only in heterozygous condition
3. It expresses its effect both in homozygous and heterozygous conditions
4. It never expresses in any condition

Answer. 3. It expresses its effect both in homozygous and heterozygous conditions

Question 199. A plant of F, generation has genotype AABbCC. On selfing of this plant, what is the phenotypic ratio in F2 generation?

1. 3:1
2. 1:1
3. 9:3:3:1
4. 27:9:9:9:3:3:3:1

Answer. 1. 3:1

Question 200. In a plant, red fruit (R) is dominant over yellow fruit (r) and tallness (T) is dominant over shortness (t). If a plant with genotype RRTt is crossed with a plant with genotype rrtt, then

1. All the offsprings will be tall with red fruit
2. 25% will be tall with red fruit
3. 50% will be tall with red fruit
4. 75% will be tall with red fruit

Answer. 3. 50% will be tall with red fruit

Question 201. How many different types of gametes can be formed by F progeny resulting from the following cross: AA BB CC x aa bb cc?

1. 3
2. 8
3. 27
4. 64

Answer. 2. 8

Question 202. In order to find out the different types of gametes produced by a pea plant having genotype AaBb, it should be crossed with a plant with genotype

1. AaBb
2. aabb
3. ААВВ
4. aaBB

Answer. 2. aabb

Question 203. When a certain character is inherited only through the female parent, it probably represents the case of

1. Mendelian nuclear inheritance
2. Multiple plastid inheritance
3. Cytoplasmic inheritance
4. Incomplete dominance

Answer. 3. Cytoplasmic inheritance

Question 204. Which law would have been violated if Mendel had chosen eight characters in garden pea?

1. Law of dominance
2. Law of segregation
3. Principle of independent assortment
4. Law of purity of gametes

Answer. 3. Principle of independent assortment

Question 205. If Mendel would have studied 7 pairs of characters in a plant with 12 chromosomes instead of 14, then

1. He might have not discovered independent assortment
2. He might have not discovered linkage
3. He might have discovered crossing-over
4. He might have not observed dominance

Answer. 1. He might have not discovered independent assortment

Question 206. Plant that does not obey Mendel’s laws is

1. Mirabilis jalapa
2. Pisum sativum
3. Cicer aeritinum
4. Lberis amara

Answer. 1. Mirabilis jalapa

Question 207. In case of incomplete dominance, F2 generation has

1. Genotypic ratio equal to phenotypic ratio
2. Genotypic ratio 3:1
3. Phenotypic ratio 3:1
4. None

Answer. 1. Genotypic ratio equal to phenotypic ratio

Question 208. Genes controlling seven traits in pea studied by Mendel were actually located on

1. Seven chromosomes
2. Six chromosomes
3. Four chromosomes
4. Five chromosomes

Answer. 3. Four chromosomes

Question 209. When dominant and recessive alleles express themselves together, it is called

1. Co-dominance
2. Dominance
3. Amphidominance
4. Pseudo dominance

Answer. 1. Co-Dominance

Question 210. The nucleus of a donor embryonal cell/somatic cell is transferred to an enucleated egg cell. Then after the for- mation of organism, what shall be true?

1. Organism will have extra-nuclear genes of the donor cell.
2. Organism will have extra-nuclear genes of the recipient cell.
3. Organism will have extra-nuclear genes of both donor and recipient cells.
4. Organism will have nuclear genes of recipient cell.

Answer. 2. Organism will have extra-nuclear genes of the recipient cell.

Question 211. Genes for cytoplasmic male sterility in plants are generally located in

1. Chloroplast genome
2. Mitochondrial genome
3. Nuclear genome
4. Cytosol

Answer. 2. Mitochondrial genome

Question 212. Two crosses between the same pair of genotypes or phenotypes in which the source of the gametes is reversed in one cross is known as

1. Test cross
2. Reciprocal cross
3. Dihybrid cross
4. Reverse cross

Answer. 2. Reciprocal cross

Question 213. The genes controlling the seven pea characters studied by Mendel are known to be located on how many different chromosomes?

1. Seven
2. Six
3. Five
4. Four

Answer. 4. Four

Question 214. Extra-nuclear inheritance is a consequence of the presence of genes in

1. Lysosomes and ribosomes
2. Mitochondria and chloroplast
3. Endoplasmic reticulum and mitochondria
4. Ribosomes and chloroplast

Answer. 2. Mitochondria and chloroplast

Question 215. Genes for cytoplasmic male sterility in plants are generally located in

1. Nuclear genome
2. Chloroplast genome
3. Cytosol
4. Mitochondrial genome

Answer. 4. Mitochondrial genome

Question 216. Sickle-cell anemia is

1. Characterized by elongated sickle-like RBCs with a nucleus
2. An autosomal linked dominant trait
3. Caused by substitution of valine by glutamic acid in the beta globin chain of hemoglobin
4. Caused by a change in a single base pair of DNA

Answer. 4. Caused by a change in a single base pair of DNA

Question 217. Study the pedigree chart given.

What does it show?

1. Inheritance of a recessive sex-linked disease like hemophilia.
2. Inheritance of a sex-linked inborn error of metabo- lism like phenylketonuria.
3. Inheritance of a condition like phenylketonuria as an autosomal recessive trait.
4. The pedigree chart is wrong as this is not possible.

Answer. 3. Inheritance of a condition like phenylketonuria as an autosomal recessive trait.

Question 218. The most popularly known blood grouping is the ABO grouping. It is named ABO and not ABC, because “O” in it refers to having

1. No antigens A and B on RBCs
2. Other antigens besides A and B on RBCs
3. Over-dominance of this type on the genes for A and B types
4. One antibody only-either anti-A or anti-B-on the RBCs

Answer. 1. No antigens A and B on RBCs

Question 219. Select the incorrect statement from the following:

1. Baldness is a sex-limited trait.
2. Linkage is an exception to the principle of independent assortment in heredity.
3. Galactosemia is an inborn error of metabolism.
4. Small population size results in random genetic drift in a population.

Answer. 1. Baldness is a sex-limited trait.

Question 220. If selfing occurs in the plant having genotype RrYy, then the ratio of genotypes RRYY, RrYY, RRYY, RrYy will be

1. 1:2:2:4
2. 1:2:2:1
3. 1:1:1:1
4. 2:2:2:1

Answer. 1. 1:2:2:4

Question 221. What ratio is expected in offsprings if father is colorblind and mother’s father was colorblind?

1. 50% daughters are colorblind.
2. All sons are colorblind.
3. All daughters colorblind.
4. All sons are normal.

Answer. 1. 50% daughters are colorblind.

Question 222. Independent assortment of genes does not take place when

1. Genes are located on homologous chromosomes
2. Genes are linked and located on the same chromosome
3. Genes are located on non-homologous chromosomes
4. All the above

Answer. 2. Genes are linked and located on the same chromosome

Question 223. What is true for monoclonal antibodies?

1. These antibodies are obtained from one parent and for one antigen.
2. These are obtained from different parents and for one antigen.
3. These are obtained from one parent and for many antigens.
4. These are obtained from many parents and for many antigens.

Answer. 2. These are obtained from different parents and for one antigen.

Question 224. Ratio of complementary genes is

1. 9:3:4
2. 12:3:1
3. 9:3:3:4
4. 9:7

Answer. 4. 9:7

Question 225. Genes A and B are linked. What shall be the genotype of progeny in a cross bet: AB/ab and ab/ab?

1. AAbb and aabb
2. AaBb and aabb
3. AABB and aabb
4. None

Answer. 2. AaBb and aabb

Question 226. Two non-allelic genes produce new phenotype when present together but fail to do so independently. Then it is called

1. Epistasis
2. Polygene
3. Non-complimentary gene
4. Complimentary gene

Answer. 4. Complimentary gene

Question 227. Male XX and female XY sometimes occur due to

1. Deletion
2. Transfer of segments in X and Y chromosomes
3. Aneuploidy
4. Hormonal imbalance.

Answer. 2. Transfer of segments in X and Y chromosomes

Question 228. Which of the following is the example of pleiotropic gene?

1. Hemophilia
2. Thalassemia
3. Sickle-cell anemia
4. Colorblindness

Answer. 3. Sickle-cell anemia

Question 229. Pattern baldness, moustaches, and beard in human males are examples of

1. Sex-linked traits
2. Sex-limited traits
3. Sex-differentiating traits
4. Sex-determining traits

Answer. 2. Sex-limited traits

Question 230. When a cluster of genes show linkage behavior they

1. Do not show a chromosome map
2. Show recombination during meiosis
3. Do not show independent assortment
4. Induce cell division

Answer. 3. Do not show independent assortment

Question 231. Genetic map is one that

1. Establishes sites of genes on a chromosome
2. Establishes various stages in gene evolution
3. Shows the stage during cell division
4. Shows the distribution of various species in a region

Answer. 1. Establishes sites of genes on a chromosome

Question 232. One of the genes present exclusively on the X-chromo- some in humans is concerned with 

1. Baldness
2. Red green colorblindness
3. Facial hair/moustaches in males
4. Night blindness

Answer. 2. Red green colorblindness

Question 233. The recessive genes located on the X-chromosome in humans are always

1. Expressed in females
2. Lethal
3. Sub-lethal
4. Expressed in males

Answer. 4. Expressed in males

Question 234. Lack of independent assortment of two genes A and B in fruit fly Drosophila is due to

1. Crossing-over
2. Repulsion
3. Recombination
4. Linkage

Answer. 4. Linkage

Question 235. A normal woman whose father was colorblind is married to a normal man. The sons would be

1. All colorblind
2. 75% colorblind
3. 50% colorblind
4. All normal

Answer. 3. 50% colorblind

Question 236. If father shows normal genotype and mother shows a carrier trait for hemophilia,

1. All female children will be carrier
2. A male child has 50% chances of active disease
3. A female child has 50% chances of active disease
4. All female children will be colorblind

Answer. 2. A male child has 50% chances of active disease

Question 237. Which of the following is not a hereditary disease?

1. Hemophilia
2. Cretinism
3. Cystic fibrosis
4. Thalassemia

Answer. 2. Cretinism

Question 238. A woman with normal vision, but whose father was colorblind, marries a colorblind man. Suppose that the fourth child of this couple was a boy. This boy

1. Must have normal color vision
2. May be colorblind or may have normal vision
3. Will be partially colorblind since he is heterozygous for the colorblind mutant allele
4. Must be colorblind

Answer. 2. May be colorblind or may have normal vision

Question 239. Hemophilia is more commonly seen in human males than in human females because

1. This disease is due to a Y-linked recessive mutation
2. This disease is due to an X-linked recessive mutation
3. This disease is due to an X-linked dominant mutation
4. A greater proportion of girls die in infancy

Answer. 2. This disease is due to an X-linked recessive mutation

Question 240. A man and a woman, who do not show any apparent signs of a certain inherited disease, have seven children (2 daughters and 5 sons). Three of the sons suffer from the given disease but none of the daughters are affected. Which of the following mode of inheritance do you sug- gest for this disease?

1. Sex-limited recessive
2. Autosomal dominant
3. Sex-linked recessive
4. Sex-linked dominant

Answer. 3. Sex-linked recessive

Question 241. Grain color in wheat is determined by three pairs of polygenes. Following cross AABBCC (dark color) * aabbcc (light color), in F2 generation, what proportion of the progeny is likely to resemble either parent?

1. None
2. Less than 5%
3. One-third
4. Half

Answer. 2. Less than 5%

Question 242. The genotype of a plant showing dominant phenotype can be determined by

1. Test cross
2. Dihybrid cross
3. Pedigree analysis
4. Back cross

Answer. 1. Test cross

Question 243. ABO blood groups in humans are controlled by gene I. It has three alleles-IA, IB, and i. Since there are three different alleles, six different genotypes are possible. How many phenotypes can occur?

1. Three
2. One
3. Four
4. Two

Answer. 3. Four

Question 244. Select the correct statement from the ones given with respect to dihybrid cross?

1. Tightly linked genes on the same chromosome show higher recombinations.
2. Genes far apart on the same chromosome show very few recombinations.
3. Genes loosely linked on the same chromosome show similar recombinations as the tightly linked ones.
4. Tightly linked genes on the same chromosome show very few recombinations.

Answer. 4. Tightly linked genes on the same chromosome show very few recombinations.

Question 245. Hexaploid wheat developed through

1. Hybridomas
2. Chromosome doubling
3. Hybridization
4. Hybridization and chromosome doubling

Answer. 4. Hybridization and chromosome doubling

Question 246. Breeding is possible between two members of

1. Genus
2. Family
3. Order
4. Species

Answer. 4. Species

Question 247. In which one of the following combinations, (1)-(4), of the number of chromosomes is the present day hexaploid wheat correctly represented?

Answer. 4. Trisomic 41 21 40 43

Question 248. In a mutational event, when adenine is replaced by guanine, it is a case of

1. Frameshift mutation
2. Transcription
3. Transition
4. Transversion

Answer. 4. Transversion

Question 249. A normal-visioned man whose father was colorblind marries a woman whose father was also colorblind. They have their first child as a daughter. What are the chances that this child would be colorblind?

1. Zero percent
2. 25%
3. 50%
4. 100%

Answer. 1. Zero percent

Question 250. F2 generation in a Mendelian cross showed that both genotypic and phenotypic ratios are same as 1:21. It represents a case of

1. Dihybrid cross
2. Monohybrid cross with complete dominance
3. Monohybrid cross with incomplete dominance
4. Co-dominance

Answer. 3. Monohybrid cross with incomplete dominance 4. Co-dominance

Question 251. A certain road accident patient with unknown blood group needs immediate blood transfusion. His one doctor friend at once offers his blood. What was the blood group of the donor?

1. Blood group AB
2. Blood group O
3. Blood group A
4. Blood group B

Answer. 2. Blood group O

Reproductive Health Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. Which of the following cannot be considered as an ad- vantage of amniocentesis?

1. Prenatal diagnostics
2. Detection of biochemical abnormalities
3. Detection of congenital defects
4. Determination of sex to abort female fetus

Answer. 4. Determination of sex to abort female fetus

Question 2. Population growth rate depends upon

1. Birth rate
2. Death rate
3. Age-sex ratio
4. All of these

Answer. 4. All of these

Question 3. Replacement level is the number of children a couple must produce to replace themselves so as to maintain population at zero growth level. The value of replacement level for developed countries is

1. 2.7
2. 2.1
3. 1.9
4. 1.2

Answer. 2. 2.1

Question 4. Which of the following defines the stage of demographic transition?

1. Birth rate is higher than death rate.
2. Death rate is higher than birth rate.
3. Birth rate and death rate are equal.
4. Both (1) and (2).

Answer. 3. Birth rate and death rate are equal.

Question 5. The average number of children that would be borne by a female during her lifetime is called

1. Natality
2. Birth rate
3. Population growth rate
4. Total fertility rate

Answer. 4. Total fertility rate

Question 6. Which of the following can be included under natural methods of birth control?

1. Rhythm method
2. Coitus interruptus
3. Lactational amenorrhoea
4. All of these

Answer. 4. All of these

Question 7. Which of the following contraceptive devices also protect against sexually transmitted diseases?

1. Fem shield
2. Sponge
3. IUDs
4. LNG-20

Answer. 1. Fem shield

Question 8. Which of the following chemicals can be used under chemical methods for contraception?

1. Lactic acid
2. Boric acid
3. Citric acid
4. All of these

Answer. 4. All of these

Question 9. Which of the following is/are hormone-releasing IUDs?

1. Progestasert
2. Levonorgestrel
3. Both (1) and (2)
4. Lippe’s loop

Answer. 3. Both (1) and (2)

Question 10. Which of the following can be included under emergency contraception?

1. An antiprogesterone pill
2. Insertion of IUD within 72 h of unprotected sexual contact
3. Both (1) and (2)
4. Vasectomy

Answer. 3. Both (1) and (2)

Question 11. “Norplant” is the new form of birth control and it

1. Allows ovulation but does not allow fertilization
2. Makes the cervical mucus thin making sperm entry into the uterus difficult
3. Has progestin as the active ingredient
4. Is effective for a maximum of 1 year

Answer. 3. Has progestin as the active ingredient

Question 12. Which of the following is not included under barrier methods of birth control?

1. Vaginal pouch
2. Diaphragm
3. Cervical cap
4. Implant

Answer. 4. Implant

Question 13. Sexually transmitted diseases can get transmitted easily during the use of

1. Diaphragm
2. Cervical cap
3. Birth control pills
4. All of these

Answer. 4. All of these

Question 14. The diaphragm is rubber-dome-shaped structure that stops the sperms from entering into

1. Vestibule
2. Vagina
3. Cervix
4. Both (1) and (2)

Answer. 3. Cervix

Question 15. Among the following methods, which one has the highest failure rate?

1. Diaphragm with spermicide
2. Condom
3. Intra-uterine device
4. Rhythm method

Answer. 4. Rhythm method

Question 16. In case of a person suffering from syphilis, chancre formation occurs during

1. Primary stage
2. Secondary stage
3. Tertiary stage
4. Neurosyphilis stage

Answer. 1. Primary stage

Question 17. The “symptomless” period or latent period in case of syphilis may last for

1. 1-5 weeks
2. 6-24 weeks
3. 4-12 weeks
4. 20 years

Answer. 4. 20 years

Question 18. Which of the following STD and its causative agent is not correctly matched?

1. Genital warts: Haemophilus ducrei
2. Syphilis: Treponema pallidum
3. Genital herpes: Type 2 Herpes simplex virus (HSV-2)
4. Trichomoniasis: Trichomonas vaginalis

Answer. 1. Genital warts: Haemophilus ducrei

Question 19. India was amongst the first countries in the world to initiate action plans and programs at a national level to attain reproductive health. These programs called “family planning” were initiated in _____ in India.

1. 1951
2. 1976
3. 1901
4. 1987

Answer. 1. 1951

Question 20. All the following are uses of amniocentesis, but one is a misuse. Which one is it?

1. The centers for genetic counseling offer amniocentesis on request to women for chromosome analysis.
2. This technique has been developed for detecting fetal abnormalities by analyzing chromosomal defects.
3. It is used to study the metabolic defects of fetus, e.g., PKU (phenyl ketonuria).
4. It is done to examine the sex of the fetus leading to increasing female feticides.

Answer. 4. It is done to examine the sex of the fetus leading to increasing female feticides.

Question 21. Which of the following is world’s first non-hormonal oral contraceptive pill for females, developed by scientists at Central Drug Research Institute (CDRI) in Lucknow, India?

1. Mala-D
2. Saheli
3. MORNING
4. Pop

Answer. 2. Saheli

Question 22. Which of the following is hormone-releasing IUD?

1. Cu-T
2. LNG-20
3. Multiload 375
4. Implant

Answer. 2. LNG-20

Question 23. Contraceptive pills are very effective with lesser sideeffects and are well accepted by the females. They work by

1. Inhibiting ovulation
2. Inhibiting implantation
3. Altering the quality of cervical mucus to prevent/ retard the entry of sperms
4. All of these

Answer. 4. All of these

Question 24. Which of the following is a once-a-week pill with very few side-effects and high contraceptive value?

1. Mala-D
2. Saheli
3. Depo-Provera
4. Norplant

Answer. 2. Saheli

Question 25. A sterilization technique in females which blocks gamete transport and thereby prevents conception is

1. Vasectomy
2. Copper-T
3. Condom
4. Tubectomy

Answer. 4. Tubectomy

Question 26. Surrogate mother is

1. Mother without lactation
2. Future mother with embryo implanted from another
3. Carrying several embryos
4. Artificially inseminated female

Answer. 2. Future mother with embryo implanted from another

Question 27. The latest technique to produce a child is “GIFT.” The full form is

1. Gametic internal fertilization and transfer
2. Gametic intra-fallopian transfer
3. Gametic inter-fallopian transfer
4. General internal fallopian transfer

Answer. 2. Gametic intra-fallopian transfer

Question 28. Test-tube baby is the one

1. Who is reared on artificial medium outside the womb
2. In which growth of human baby takes place inside the fallopian tube instead of uterus
3. In which the ova from wife/donor (female) and sperms from husband/donor (male) are induced to form zygote by IVF and then implanted in female
4. In which baby is born after artificial insemination

Answer. 3. In which the ova from wife/donor (female) and sperms from husband/donor (male) are induced to form zygote by IVF and then implanted in female

Question 29. Which of the following is the most appropriate statement of infertility?

1. Couple is unable to produce children in spite of unprotected sexual cohabitation.
2. Infertility is defined as the inability to produce a viable offspring and is always due to defects/abnormalities in the female partner.
3. Infertility is due to immature sex organs.
4. Infertility cannot be helped by ART.

Answer. 1. Couple is unable to produce children in spite of unprotected sexual cohabitation.

Question 30. Which of the following STDs cannot be treated with antibiotics?

A. Gonorrhoea

B. Syphilis

C. Chlamydia

D. Genital herpes

1. (D) only
2. (B) and (D)
3. (C) and (D)
4. (C) only

Answer. 1. (D) only

Question 31. At which stage of the ovarian cycle are mammalian eggs most likely to become fertilized?

1. At the beginning of proliferative phase.
2. Immediately after ovulation.
3. During the middle of the secretory phase.
4. During the menstrual phase.

Answer. 2. Immediately after ovulation.

Question 32. World Population Day is

1. 11th July
2. 21st September
3. 7th April
4. 1st July

Answer. 1. 11th July

Question 33. MTPs are considered relatively safe up to of pregnancy.

1. 12 weeks
2. 20 weeks
3. 25 weeks
4. 18 weeks

Answer. 1. 12 weeks

Question 34. Most of the sexually transmitted diseases are completely curable if detected early and treated properly, except

1. Hepatitis-B
2. Genital herpes
3. HIV infections
4. All of these

Answer. 4. All of these

Question 35. Which of the following causative agents of STDs can cross the placenta?

1. Hepatitis-B
2. HIV
3. Syphilis
4. All of these

Answer. 4. All of these

Question 36. Which of the following methods of birth control can cause excessive menstrual bleeding and pain?

1. Condom
2. Cervical cap
3. Oral contraceptive
4. Intra-uterine device

Answer. 4. Intra-uterine device

Question 37. Which of the following is one of the safest method of birth control?

1. The rhythm method
2. Sterilization techniques
3. Use of physical barriers
4. Termination of unwanted pregnancy

Answer. 2. Sterilization techniques

Question 38. Tubectomy is to prevent

1. Coitus
2. Fertilization
3. Egg formation
4. Embryonic development

Answer. 2. Fertilization

Question 39. Preventive birth control measure is

1. MTP
2. Test-tube babies
3. Preventing union of sperm and ovum
4. Preventing sperms from entering uterus

Answer. 3. Preventing union of sperm and ovum

Question 40. Which of the following method of birth control is effective, easy to use, and less-expensive?

1. IUD
2. Condom
3. Implant
4. Diaphragm

Answer. 2. Condom

Question 41. Which of the following method of contraception is effective only up to a maximum period of 6 months following parturition?

1. Cortus interruptus
2. Lactational amenorrhea
3. Periodic abstinance
4. Condoms

Answer. 2. Lactational amenorrhea

Question 42. Which of the following are included in barrier method?

1. Condoms
2. Diaphrams
3. Cervical caps and vault
4. All of these

Answer. 4. All of these

Question 43. In oogenesis, haploid egg is fertilized by sperm at which stage?

1. Ovum
2. Oogonium
3. Primary oocyte
4. Secondary oocyte

Answer. 4. Secondary oocyte

Question 44. The first polar body is formed at which stage of oogenesis?

1. 1st meiosis
2. 2nd mitosis
3. 1st mitosis
4. Differentiation

Answer. 1. 1st meiosis

Question 45. Vitallogenesis occurs during the formation of

1. Ootid in the fallopian tube
2. Oogonial cell in the Graafian follicle
3. Secondary oocyte in the fallopian tube
4. Primary oocyte in the Graafian follicle

Answer. 4. Primary oocyte in the Graafian follicle

Question 46. Fetal ejection reflex in human females is induced by

1. Release of oxytocin from pituitary
2. Fully developed fetus and placenta
3. Differentiation of mammary glands
4. Pressure exerted by amniotic fluid

Answer. 2. Fully developed fetus and placenta

Question 47. Which of the following statements is correct?

1. Hormone releasing IUD make uterus unsuitable for implantation.
2. IUDs are ideal contraceptives for females who want to delay pregnancy.
3. IUD is the most widely accepted method of contraception in India.
4. All the above.

Answer. 4. All the above.

Question 48. Which of the following can be used as an emergency contraceptive to avoid possible pregnancy?

1. Progestogens
2. IUD, within 72 h
3. Diaphrams
4. (1) and (2)

Answer. 4. (1) and (2)

Question 49. Which of the following statements is correct?

1. MTP has a significant role in decreasing the population.
2. Government of India legalized MTP in 1977 with some strict conditions.
3. MTP is relatively safe during the first trimester.
4. All the above.

Answer. 4. All the above.

Question 50. Infertility cases due to the inability of male partner to inseminate the female are corrected by

1. ZIFT
2. GIFT
3. Artificial insemination
4. ICSI

Answer. 3. Artificial insemination

Question 51. In vitro fertilization is a technique that involves the transfer of which one of the following into the fallopian tube?

1. Either zygote or early embryo up to 8 cell stage
2. Embryo only, up to 8 cell stage
3. Embryo of 32 cell stage
4. Zygote only

Answer. 1. Either zygote or early embryo up to 8 cell stage

Question 52. Which of the following statement is not true with respect to tubectomy or tubal ligation?

1. It is more difficult than vasectomy and is even more difficult to reverse.
2. No ovulation occurs; hence, no fertilization is possible.
3. It involves ligation of both fallopian tubes.
4. The failure rate of this approach is almost zero percent.

Answer. 2. No ovulation occurs; hence, no fertilization is possible.

Question 53. Which of the following hormone/s is/are maintained at high level during hormonal method of birth control?

1. FSH
2. LH
3. Progesterone
4. Both (1) and (2)

Answer. 3. Progesterone

Question 54. Injectable form of hormone-based contraceptive is

1. Norplant
2. Depo-Provera
3. Mala-D
4. Saheli

Answer. 2. Depo-Provera

Question 55. In the rhythm method of birth control, the couple refrains from intercourse

1. One day before and after ovulation
2. Two days before and after ovulation
3. Three days before and after ovulation
4. One week before and after ovulation

Answer. 3. Three days before and after ovulation

Question 56. Which of the following method is used during abortion?

1. Vacuum aspiration
2. Infusion of a saline solution
3. Scraping
4. All of these

Answer. 4. All of these

Question 57. The action of which of the following hormone is blocked during the use of RU 486 (mifepristone)?

1. FSH
2. LH
3. Progesterone
4. hCG

Answer. 3. Progesterone

Question 58. Which of the following STD is not caused by a bacterium?

1. Chlamydia
2. Gonorrhea
3. Syphilis
4. Genital herpes

Answer. 4. Genital herpes

Question 59. Which of the following cannot be taken as the symptom of a female suffering from gonorrhea?

1. Inflammation of urethra with painful urination
2. Discharge of pus from vagina
3. Inflammation of uterine tubes
4. Peritonitis or inflammation of the peritoneum

Answer. 1. Inflammation of urethra with painful urination

Question 60. Which of the following stage of syphilis is characterized by skin rash, fever, and aches in joints and muscles?

1. Primary stage
2. Secondary stage
3. Tertiary stage
4. Neurosyphilis stage

Answer. 2. Secondary stage

Question 61. The use of which of the following contraceptive device has increased in recent years due to its additional benefit of protecting the user from contracting STDs and AIDS?

1. Coitus interruptus
2. IUDs (intra-uterine-devices)
3. Condoms
4. Vasectomy

Answer. 3. Condoms

Question 62. Which of the following have been found to be very effective as emergency contraceptives as they can be used to avoid possible pregnancy due to rape if given within 72 h?

A. Administration of progestogens

B. Progestogen-estrogen combination

C. IUDs

D. Condoms

1. (D) only
2. (A) and (B)
3. (A), (B), and (C)
4. (A), (B), (C), and (D)

Answer. 3. (A), (B), and (C)

Question 63. All the following statements about ZIFT are correct, but one is wrong. Which one is wrong?

1. It is zygote intra-fallopian transfer (ZIFT).
2. Zygote is transferred into the fallopian tube after IVF.
3. Early embryos up to 8 blastomeres can also be transferred into the fallopian tubes.
4. Embryos with more than 8 blastomeres are also transferred into the fallopian tubes.

Answer. 4. Embryos with more than 8 blastomeres are also transferred into the fallopian tubes.

Question 64. If a person is suffering from severe male infertility, in which the ejaculate contains very few sperms (oligozoospermia) or even no live sperm (azoospermia), it can be overcome by This should offer couples an alternative to using donor sperm.

1. GIFT
2. ZIFT
3. ICSI
4. IVF

Answer. 3. ICSI

Question 65. Which of the following sexually transmitted diseases is caused by a protozoan?

1. Gonorrhoea
2. Trichomoniasis
3. Chlamydiasis
4. Syphilis

Answer. 2. Trichomoniasis

Question 66. Which of the following contraceptive is an injectable form of the “birth control pill hormones” that prevent ovulation?

1. Norplant
2. Depo-Provera
3. Saheli
4. Mala-D

Answer. 2. Depo-Provera

Question 67. Which of the following STDs is caused by the human papilloma virus (HPV) and is transmitted through intimate contact with infected person?

1. Genital herpes
2. Genital warts
3. AIDS
4. Chlamydia

Answer. 2. Genital warts

Question 68. Norplant is

1. A kind of plant
2. A fertilizer factory
3. A contraceptive
4. A power generation plant

Answer. 3. A contraceptive

Question 69. Which of the following is an important detection technique for syphilis?

1. Gram staining of the discharge
2. Nucleic acid hybridization, PCR
3. Antibody detection, c.g., VDRL
4. Microscopic examination of culture

Answer. 3. Antibody detection, c.g., VDRL

Question 70. Which of the following virus has dsDNA as the genetic material and is transmitted mainly by sexual contact?

1. Hepatitis-A
2. Hepatitis-B
3. Hepatitis-C
4. All of these

Answer. 2. Hepatitis-B

Question 71. Which of the following drug and acts as an abortion drug?

1. Saheli
2. Mifepristone
3. Mala-N
4. Depo-Provera

Answer. 2. Mifepristone

Question 72. An important function of progesterone is

A. To prepare uterus for pregnancy

B. Implantation of embryo

C. Maintenance of pregnancy

D. To stimulate ADH

Codes:

1. (A) and (B) are correct.
2. (B) and (D) are correct.
3. (A) and (C) are correct.
4. (A), (B), and (C) are correct.

Answer. 4. (A), (B), and (C) are correct.

Question 73. Menstrual cycle is controlled by

A. Estrogen and progesterone of ovary

B. FSH of pituitary

C. FSH and LH of pituitary

D. Oxytocin hormone

Codes:

1. (A) and (B) are correct.
2. (B) and (D) are correct.
3. (A) and (C) are correct.
4. (A), (B), and (C) are correct.

Answer. 4. (A), (B), and (C) are correct.

Question 74. Which hormone level reaches its peak during the luteal phase of menstrual cycle?

1. Estrogen
2. Progesterone
3. Luteinizing hormone
4. Follicle stimulating hormone

Answer. 2. Progesterone

Question 75. The 32-cells stage of the human embryo is

1. Smaller than the fertilized egg
2. Of the same size as the fertilized egg
3. Two times the size of the fertilized egg
4. Four times the size of the fertilized egg

Answer. 2. Of the same size as the fertilized egg

Question 76. Which one of the following is the correct matching of events occurring during menstrual cycle?

1. Menstruation: Breakdown of myometrium and ovum not fertilized
2. Ovulation: LH and FSH attain peak level and sharp fall in the secretion of progesterone
3. Proliferative: Rapid regeneration of myometrium and maturation of Graafian phase follicle
4. Corpus luteum: Development of secretory phase and increased secretion of progesterone

Answer. 4. Corpus luteum: Development of secretory phase and increased secretion of progesterone

Question 77. RCH stands for

1. Routine check-up of health
2. Reproduction cum hygiene
3. Reversible contraceptive hazards
4. Reproduction and child healthcare

Answer. 4. Reproduction and child healthcare

Question 78. What is true about “Saheli””?

(1) Developed at CDRL, Lucknow

(2) Contains a steroidal preparation

(3) “Once-a-week” pill

(4) Many side-effects

(5) High contraceptive value

(6) Very few side-effects

(7) Low contraceptive value

1. (1), (2), (3), (5), (6)
2. (1), (3), (5), (4)
3. (2), (3), (4), (5)
4. (1), (3), (4), (5)

Answer. 2. (1), (3), (5), (4)

Question 79. Which of the following statements is correct with reference to a test-tube baby?

1. Fertilization of egg is completed outside the body; the fertilized egg is then placed in the womb of the mother where gestation is completed.
2. Fertilization of egg is completed in the female genital tract. It is then taken out and grown in a large test tube.
3. A prematurely born baby is reared in an incubator.
4. Fertilization of egg and growth of embryo is completed in a large test tube.

Answer. 1. Fertilization of egg is completed outside the body; the fertilized egg is then placed in the womb of the mother where gestation is completed.

Question 80. A test-tube baby means

1. Fertilization and development both in uterus
2. Fertilization in vitro and then transplantation in uterus
3. A baby grown in test tube
4. Fertilized and developed embryo in test tube

Answer. 2. Fertilization in vitro and then transplantation in uterus

Question 81. What is the work of copper-T?

1. To inhibit ovulation
2. To inhibit fertilization
3. To inhibit implantation of blastocyst
4. To inhibit gametogenesis

Answer. 2. To inhibit fertilization

Question 82. What is the work of progesterone which is present in oral contraceptive pills?

1. To inhibit ovulation
2. To check oogenesis
3. To check entry of sperms into cervix and to make them inactive
4. To check sexual behavior

Answer. 1. To inhibit ovulation

Question 83. Which is showing accurate pairing?

1. Syphilis-Treponema pallidum
2. AIDS-Bacillus conjugalis
3. Gonorrhoea-Leishmania donovani
4. Typhoid-Mycobacterium leprae

Answer. 1. Syphilis-Treponema pallidum

Question 84. Test-tube baby means a baby born when

1. It is developed in a test tube
2. It is developed through tissue culture method
3. The ovum is fertilized externally and thereafter implanted in the uterus
4. It develops from a non-fertilized uterus

Answer. 3. The ovum is fertilized externally and thereafter implanted in the uterus

Question 85. Given below are four methods (A)-(D) and their modes of action (1)-(4) in achieving contraception. Select their correct matching from the four options that follow:

Method                        Mode of action

A. The pill                    (1) Prevents sperms reaching cervix

B. Condom                  (2) Prevents implantation

C. Vasectomy              (3) Prevents ovulation

D. Copper-T               (4) Semen contains no sperms

1. A-(3), B-(4), C-(1), D-(2)
2. A-(2), B(3), C-(1), D-(4)
3. A-(3), B-(1), C-(4), D-(2)
4. A-(4), B-(1), C-(2), D-(3)

Answer. 3. A-(3), B-(1), C-(4), D-(2)

Question 86. Consider the statements given below regarding contra- ception and answer as directed thereafter.

1. Medical termination of pregnancy (MTP) during first trimester is generally safe.

2. Generally, the chances of conception are nil until mother breast-feeds the infant up to two years.

3. Intra-uterine devices such as copper-T are effective contraceptives.

4. Contraception pills may be taken up to 1 week after coitus to prevent conception.

Which two of the above statements are correct?

1. (1), (3)
2. (1), (2)
3. (2), (3)
4. (3), (4)

Answer. 1. (1), (3)

Question 87. Amniocentesis is

1. Digestion of amino acid
2. Conversion of glucose to amino acids
3. Taking out of cells near the fetus
4. Killing of child before birth

Answer. 3. Taking out of cells near the fetus

Question 88. What is the function of copper-T?

1. Checks mutation
2. Stops zygote formation
3. Stops fertilization
4. Stops obliteration of blastocoel

Answer. 3. Stops fertilization

Question 89. AIDS disease was first reported in

1. Russia
2. USA
3. Germany
4. France

Answer. 2. USA

Question 90. Tubectomy prevents pregnancy by

1. Preventing fertilization
2. Preventing ovulation
3. Altering FSH levels in ovary
4. Altering LH levels in ovary

Answer. 1. Preventing fertilization

Question 91. Progesterone pill helps in preventing pregnancy by not allowing

1. Ova formation
2. Fertilization
3. Implantation
4. None of these

Answer. 1. Ova formation

Question 92. Oral contraceptive pills function by

1. Inhibiting ovulation
2. Stimulating ovulation
3. Stimulating the motility and secretory activity of oviduct
4. None of the above

Answer. 1. Inhibiting ovulation

Question 93. The most important component of oral contraceptive pills is

1. Progesterone-estrogen
2. Growth hormone
3. Thyroxine
4. Luteinizing hormone

Answer. 1. Progesterone-estrogen

Question 94. Amniocentesis is a technique to

1. Determine any disease in heart
2. Determine any hereditary disease in the embryo
3. Know about the disease of brain
4. Grow cell on culture medium

Answer. 2. Determine any hereditary disease in the embryo

Question 95. Which of the following is a technique of direct introduction of gametes into the oviduct?

1. MTS
2. ET
3. IVF
4. POST

Answer. 3. IVF

Question 96. Syphilis is caused by

1. Treponema pallidum
2. Plasmodium
3. Neisseria gonorrhea
4. Entamoeba histolytica

Answer. 1. Treponema pallidum

Question 97. Gonorrhoea is caused by

1. Treponema pallidum
2. Entamoeba gingivalis
3. Mycobacterium leprae
4. Neisseria gonorrhiae

Answer. 4. Neisseria gonorrhiae

Question 98. Which is non-invasive technique of genetic counseling?

1. Amniocentesis
2. Chorionic biopsy
3. Fetal blood sampling
4. Ultrasonography

Answer. 4. Ultrasonography

Question 99. Which one of the following organisms cause syphilis?

1. Neisseria gonorrhoae
2. Treponema pallidum
3. Pasteurella pestis
4. Clostridium botulinum

Answer. 2. Treponema pallidum

Question 100. The common means of transmission of AIDS is

1. Sexual intercourse
2. Blood transfusion
3. Placental transfer
4. All of these

Answer. 4. All of these

Question 101. AIDS is transmitted

1. Sexually
2. Parenterally
3. Vertically
4. All of these

Answer. 4. All of these

Question 102. Which is the causal agent for syphilis?

1. Haemophilus durei
2. Treponema pallidum
3. Chlamydia trachomatis
4. All of the above

Answer. 2. Treponema pallidum

Question 103. Component of oral pills is

1. Progesterone
2. Oxytocin
3. Relaxin
4. None of these

Answer. 1. Progesterone

Question 104. Contraceptive oral pills help birth control by

1. Preventing ovulation
2. Killing the sperms
3. Forming barriers between sperms-ova
4. Killing the ova

Answer. 1. Preventing ovulation

Question 105. GIFT involves transfer of

1. A mixture of sperms and ova into the uterus
2. Embryo into the uterus
3. A mixture of sperms and ova into the fallopian tube
4. Zygote into the fallopian tube

Answer. 3. A mixture of sperms and ova into the fallopian tube

Question 106. In the production of test-tube babies,

1. Fertilization and fetus formation is external
2. Fertilization and fetus formation is internal
3. Fertilization is internal and fetus formation is external
4. Fertilization is external and fetus formation is internal

Answer. 4. Fertilization is external and fetus formation is internal

Question 107. The first case of IVF-ET technique success was reported by

1. Louis Joy Brown and Banting Best
2. Patrick Steptoe and Robert Edwards
3. Robert Steptoe and Gilbert Brown
4. Baylis and Starling Taylor

Answer. 2. Patrick Steptoe and Robert Edwards

Question 108. Which of the following is a mechanical barrier used in birth control?

1. Loop
2. Dalkon shield
3. Copper-T
4. Diaphragm

Answer. 4. Diaphragm

Question 109. Which of the following birth control measure can be considered as the safest?

1. The rhythm method
2. The use of physical barriers
3. Termination of unwanted pregnancy
4. Sterilization techniques

Answer. 4. Sterilization techniques

Question 110. A sexually transmitted disease symptomized by the development of chancre on the genitals is caused by the infection of

1. Treponema pallidum
2. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
3. Human immuno deficiency virus
4. Hepatitis B virus

Answer. 1. Neisseria gonorrhoeae

Question 111. Surgical removal of vas deferens is called

1. Tubectomy
2. Vasectomy
3. Vasectolysis
4. None of these

Answer. 2. Vasectomy

Question 112. Amniocentesis is a technique used to

1. Determine errors in amino acid metabolism in embryo
2. Pinpoint specific cardiac ailments in embryo
3. Determine any hereditary genetic abnormality in embryo
4. All of the above

Answer. 3. Determine any hereditary genetic abnormality in embryo

Question 113. Oral contraceptives are prescribed in females to check

1. Entry of sperms in vagina
2. Implantation
3. Ovulation
4. Fertilization

Answer. 3. Ovulation

Question 114. Which one of the following is a sexually transmitted disease?

1. Cancer
2. Syphilis
3. Diphtheria
4. Myocarditis

Answer. 2. Syphilis

Question 115. The status of the fetus for genetic counseling can be determined by

1. Amniocentesis
2. Amniocentesis
3. Aminoacidopathy
4. Fetocentesis

Answer. 2. Amniocentesis

Question 116. The test which is misused for the identification of an un born baby is

1. Clotting test
2. Amniocentesis
3. Erythroblastosis
4. Angiogram

Answer. 2. Amniocentesis

Question 117. Amniocentesis detects

1. Deformity in brain
2. Deformity in heart
3. Hereditary disease
4. All of these

Answer. 4. All of these

Question 118. Which of the following is a method of birth control?

1. IUD
2. GIFT
3. HTF
4. IVF-ET

Answer. 1. IUD

Question 119. Tubectomy

1. Prevents implantation
2. Prevents fetal development
3. Prevents fertilization
4. All of the above

Answer. 3. Prevents fertilization

Question 120. The present population of the world is about

1. 500 million
2. 100 million
3. 15 billion
4. 6 billion

Answer. 4. 6 billion

Question 121. GIFT is

1. Embryo implantation after in vivo fertilization
2. Sperm injection for in vivo fertilization
3. Embryo implantation after in vitro fertilization
4. Egg implantation for in vitro fertilization

Answer. 2. Sperm injection for in vivo fertilization

Question 122. Copper-T acts by

1. Suppression of fertilization by fanning a membrane
2. Disturbing the site of implantation of blastocyst
3. Acting as a barrier
4. None of these

Answer. 2. Disturbing the site of implantation of blastocyst

Question 123. Each couple should produce only two children which will help in

1. Checking pollution
2. Stabilizing the ecosystem
3. Fertility of soil
4. Improving food-web

Answer. 2. Stabilizing the ecosystem

Question 124. Amniocentesis has helped

1. The childless couples
2. In establishment of biological superiority of females
3. In waste of money

Answer. 2. In establishment of biological superiority of females

Question 125. The technique which makes use of amniotic fluid for the detection of prenatal disorder is called

1. Laparoscopy
2. Amniocentesis
3. Endoscopy
4. Ultrasound

Answer. 2. Amniocentesis

Question 126. In vitro fertilization is a technique that involves the transfer of which one of the following into the fallopian tube?

1. Zygote only
2. Embryo only, up to 8 cell stage
3. Either zygote or early embryo up to 8 cell stage
4. Embryo of 32 cell stage

Answer. 3. Either zygote or early embryo up to 8 cell stage

Question 127. The permissible use of the technique amniocentesis is for

1. Detecting any genetic abnormality
2. Detecting sex of the unborn fetus
3. Artificial insemination
4. Transfer of embryo into the uterus of a surrogate mother

Answer. 1. Detecting any genetic abnormality

Question 128. Cu ions released from copper-releasing intra-uterine devices (IUDs)

1. Prevent ovulation
2. Make uterus unsuitable for implantation
3. Increase phagocytosis of sperms
4. Suppress sperm motility

Answer. 4. Suppress sperm motility

Question 129. Which of the following cannot be considered as assisted reproductive technology?

1. In vitro fertilization (IVF)
2. Medical termination of pregnancy (MTP)
3. Gamete intra-fallopian transfer (GIFT)
4. Intra-cytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI)

Answer. 2. Medical termination of pregnancy (MTP)

Question 130. What is the figure given showing in particular?

1. Uterine cancer
2. Tubectomy
3. Vasectomy
4. Ovarian cancer

Answer. 2. Tubectomy

Question 131. The Test-Tube Baby Program employs which one of the following techniques?

1. Intra-uterine insemination (IUI)
2. Gamete intra-fallopian transfer (GIFT)
3. Zygote intra-fallopian transfer (ZIFT)
4. Intra-cytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI)

Answer. 3. Zygote intra-fallopian transfer (ZIFT)

Question 132. Identify the human developmental stage shown in the figure as well as the related right place of its occurrence in a normal pregnant woman. Select the right option for the two together.

Options:

Developmental stage                     Site of occurrence

Late morula                                   Middle part of fallopian tube

Blastula                                         End part of fallopian tube

Blastocyst                                     Uterine wall

8-celled morula                           Starting point of fallopian tube

Answer. 3. Blastocyst Uterine wall

Question 133. One of the legal methods of birth control is

1. By abstaining from coitus from day 10 to 17 of the menstrual cycle
2. By having coitus at the time of day break
3. By premature ejaculation during coitus
4. Abortion by taking an appropriate medicine

Answer. 4. Abortion by taking an appropriate medicine

Question 134. Artificial insemination means

1. Transfer of sperms of husband to a test tube containing ova
2. Artificial introduction of sperms of a healthy donor into the vagina
3. Introduction of sperms of a healthy donor directly into the ovary
4. Transfer of sperms of a healthy donor to a test tube containing ova

Answer. 2. Artificial introduction of sperms of a healthy donor into the vagina

NEET Biology Human Reproduction Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. Temperature in scrotum necessary for sperm formation should be

1. 2°C above body temperature
2. 2°C below body temperature
3. 8°C above body temperature
4. 8°C below body temperature

Answer. 2. 2°C below body temperature

Question 2. Cryptorchidism is

1. Non-development of testes
2. Non-descent of testes into scrotum
3. Removal of scrotum
4. Breaking connection of vas deferens

Answer. 2. Non-descent of testes into scrotum

Question 3. Tubuli recti of seminiferous tubules open into

1. Epididymis
2. Vasa efferentia
3. Vasa deferentia
4. Rete testis

Answer. 4. Rete testis

Question 4. Common duct formed by the union of vas deferens and the duct of seminal vesicle is

1. Urethra
2. Tunica vasculosa
3. Ejaculatory
4. Spermatic duct

Answer. 3. Ejaculatory

Question 5. Accessory glands of male reproductive system are

1. Prostate and seminal vesicles
2. Prostate, Bartholin’s glands, and seminal vesicles
3. Seminal vesicles and Bartholin’s glands
4. Prostate, Cowper’s glands, and seminal vesicles

Answer. 4. Prostate, Cowper’s glands, and seminal vesicles

Question 6. Scrotal sacs of man are connected with the abdominal cavity by

1. Inguinal canal
2. Haversian canal
3. Spermatic canal
4. Rete testis

Answer. 1. Inguinal canal

Question 7. Sperms are stored and nourished inside

1. Cowper’s gland
2. Epididymis
3. Seminiferous tubules
4. Vasa efferentia

Answer. 2. Epididymis

Question 8. The role of the Leydig cells of testis is

1. To provide nourishment to sperms
2. To provide motility to sperms
3. To bring about maturation of sperms
4. Synthesis of testosterone hormone

Answer. 4. Synthesis of testosterone hormone

Question 9. Vas deferens arises from

1. Cauda epididymis
2. Caput epididymis
3. Corpus epididymis
4. Rete testis

Answer. 1. Cauda epididymis

Question 10. Epididymis is

1. Network of sinuses between seminiferous tubules and vasa efferentia
2. Intermediate structure between rete testis and vasa efferentia
3. A long coiled tube between vasa efferentia and vas deferens
4. Connection between vas deferens and seminal vesicle

Answer. 3. A long coiled tube between vasa efferentia and vas deferens

Question 11. Failure of testis to descend in scrotal sac is known as

1. Impotency
2. Castration
3. Synorchidism
4. Cryptorchidism

Answer. 4. Cryptorchidism

Question 12. Which of the following releases inhibin to control spermatogenesis?

1. Rete testis
2. Follicular cells
3. Sustentacular cells
4. Leydig’s cells

Answer. 3. Sustentacular cells

Question 13. Testosterone is secreted by

1. Sertoli cells
2. Sustentacular cells
3. Both (1) and (2).
4. Leydig cell or interstitial cell

Answer. 4. Leydig cell or interstitial cell

Question 14. Vas deferens starts from which part of epididymis?

1. Caput epididymis
2. Corpus epididymis
3. Cauda epididymis
4. None of these

Answer. 3. Cauda epididymis

Question 15. Rete testis is a highly anastomosing labyrinth lined by

1. Simple squamous epithelium
2. Cuboidal epithelium
3. Columnar epithelium
4. Tessalated epithelium

Answer. 2. Cuboidal epithelium

Question 16. Which of the following gland is a collection of 30-40 tubuloalveolar glands and surrounds the first part of urethra?

1. Corpus spongiosum
2. Corpus cavernosum
3. Prostate
4. Cowper’s gland

Answer. 3. Prostate

Question 17. In man, the sperms released from the testis take which of the following route to reach the urethera?

1. Vasa efferentia, Bidder’s canal, uriniferous tubule
2. Vasa efferentia, epididymis, vas deferens
3. Vasa efferentia, Bidder’s canal, nephrostome
4. Vasa efferentia, collecting tubules, and Bidder’s canal

Answer. 2. Vasa efferentia, epididymis, vas deferens

Question 18. The life span of a human sperm in male genital duct is

1. 24 h
2. 48 h
3. 72 h
4. Many weeks

Answer. 4. Many weeks

Question 19. Mesovarium is the peritoneal covering of

1. Ovary
2. Testis
3. Kidney
4. Liver

Answer. 1. Ovary

Question 20. Ostium is an aperture present in

1. Ampulla part
2. Fallopian funnel
3. Ovisac
4. Cloaca

Answer. 2. Fallopian funnel

Question 21. The lower narrow end of uterus is called

1. Urethra
2. Cervix
3. Clitoris
4. Vulva

Answer. 2. Cervix

Question 22. Which group represents the external genitalia of human female?

1. Labium minora, labium majora, vagina
2. Labium majora, labium minora, oviduct
3. Labium minora, labium majora, cervix
4. Labium majora, labium minora, clitoris

Answer. 4. Labium majora, labium minora, clitoris

Question 23. The layers of ovum from outside to inside are

1. Corona radiata, zona pellucida, vitelline membrane
2. Zona pellucida, corona radiata, vitelline membrane
3. Vitelline membrane, zona pellucida, corona radiata
4. Zona pellucida, vitelline membrane, corona radiata

Answer. 1. Corona radiata, zona pellucida, vitelline membrane

Question 24. In human females, ova are produced in

1. Ovary
2. Oviduct
3. Uterus
4. Vagina

Answer. 1. Ovary

Question 25. Hormone responsible for ovulation and development of corpus luteum is

1. FSH
2. LH
3. LTH
4. ICSH

Answer. 2. LH

Question 26. When egg is not fertilized, yellow colored corpus lutem degenerates to form

1. Corpus albicans
2. Corpus callosum
3. Corpora bigemina
4. Corpora quadrigemina

Answer. 1. Corpus albicans

Question 27. In the absence of pregnancy, corpus luteum

1. Becomes active and secretes FSH and LH
2. Produces a lot of oxytocin and relaxin
3. Degenerates after some time
4. Is maintained by progesterone

Answer. 3. Degenerates after some time

Question 28. Egg is liberated from ovary and enters the fallopian tube in

1. Secondary oocyte stage
2. Primary oocyte stage
3. Oogonial stage
4. Mature ovum stage

Answer. 1. Secondary oocyte stage

Question 29. Lower narrow end of uterus is called

1. Urethra
2. Cervix
3. Clitoris
4. Vulva

Answer. 2. Cervix

Question 30. Which one of the following is adapted for receiving the male’s penis during copulation and for serving as the birth canal during parturition?

1. Cervix
2. Vagina
3. Fundus
4. Body

Answer. 2. Vagina

Question 31. Clitoris in a human female is

1. Vestigial organ
2. Analogous to penis in male
3. Homologous to penis in male
4. None of these

Answer. 3. Homologous to penis in male

Question 32. Which of the following is not true for clitoris?

1. It is the erectile part of female reproductive system.
2. It ends in glans clitoridis.
3. It has three erectile bodies with it.
4. Its end is covered with prepuce.

Answer. 3. It has three erectile bodies with it.

Question 33. During spermatogenesis, meiosis occurs in

1. Primary spermatocytes
2. Secondary spermatocytes
3. Both (1) and (2)
4. Spermatogonia

Answer. 3. Both (1) and (2)

Question 34. Spermiogenesis changes

1. Spermatogonium to primary spermatocytes
2. Primary spermatocytes to secondary spermatocytes
3. Secondary spermatocytes to spermatids
4. Spermatids to sperms

Answer. 4. Spermatids to sperms

Question 35. In spermatogenesis, a primary spermatocyte produces four similar sperms while in oogenesis, a primary oocyte forms

1. Four similar ova
2. Three large ova and one polar body
3. Two large ova and two polar bodies
4. One large ova and 2-3 polar bodies

Answer. 2. Three large ova and one polar body

Question 36. Minute cells separating from ova are

1. Primary oogonia
2. Polar bodies
3. Secondary oogonia
4. Primary spermatogonia

Answer. 2. Polar bodies

Question 37. What are the diploid stages in spermatogenesis?

1. Spermatogonia and spermatids
2. Spermatogonia and primary spermatocytes
3. Spermatogonia and primary spermatocytes
4. Primary spermatocytes and secondary spermatocytes

Answer. 2. Spermatogonia and primary spermatocytes

Question 38. The extrusion of second polar body from the egg nucleus occurs

1. After the entry of sperm and before the completion of fertilization
2. After the completion of fertilization
3. Before the entry of sperm
4. Without any relation with sperm entry

Answer. 1. After the entry of sperm and before the completion of fertilization

Question 39. Spermatogenesis and sperm differentiation are under the control of

1. FSH only
2. LH
3. Testosterone and FSH
4. Parathyroid hormone

Answer. 3. Testosterone and FSH

Question 40. The middle piece of mammalian sperm possesses

1. Mitochondria
2. Centriole only
3. Acrosome
4. Parathyroid hormone

Answer. 1. Mitochondria

Question 41. A change in ovum after the penetration of sperm is

1. Formation of first polar body
2. Second meiosis start
3. First meiosis
4. Formation of second polar body

Answer. 4. Formation of second polar body

Question 42. Which of the following structures produces energy for them ability of mature sperm?

1. Nucleus in head region
2. Mitochondria in head region
3. Axial filament in tail
4. Mitochondria in middle piece

Answer. 4. Mitochondria in middle piece

Question 43. Axial filament of the sperm arises from

1. Proximal centriole
2. Distal centriole
3. Acrosome
4. Nucleus

Answer. 2. Distal centriole

Question 44. Acrosome of sperm develops from

1. Mitochondria
2. Golgi complex
3. Ribosomes
4. Centriole

Answer. 2. Golgi complex

Question 45. The phase of transformation of spermatid into sperm is called

1. Spermiogenesis
2. Spermateleosis
3. Gametogenesis
4. Both (1) and (2)

Answer. 4. Both (1) and (2)

Question 46. Amoeboid sperms or tail-less, non-flagellated sperms are found in

1. Earthworm
2. Taenia
3. Ascaris
4. All of these

Answer. 3. Ascaris

Question 47. Oogenesis in a human female starts

1. At puberty (8 years of age)
2. At puberty (13 years of age)
3. At menarche
4. Before birth

Answer. 4. Before birth

Question 48. The hormone that is present in the greatest concentration in the blood during ovulation in a female is

1. FSH
2. LH
3. Prolactin
4. Progesterone

Answer. 2. LH

Question 49. In menstrual cycle of 28/29 days, ovum is released during

1. Beginning of the cycle
2. Middle of the cycle
3. End of the cycle
4. Any time during the cycle

Answer. 2. Middle of the cycle

Question 50. Loss of reproductive capacity in women after the age of 45 years is

1. Menstruation
2. Ageing
3. Menopause
4. Menarche

Answer. 3. Menopause

Question 51. The correct sequence of hormones secreted from the be- ginning of menstrual cycle is

1. FSH, estrogen, progesterone
2. Estrogen, FSH, progesterone
3. FSH, progesterone
4. Estrogen, progesterone, FSH

Answer. 1. FSH, estrogen, progesterone

Question 52. The phase of menstrual cycle in humans that lasts for 7-8 days is

1. Follicular phase
2. Ovulatory phase
3. Luteal phase
4. Menstruation

Answer. 1. Follicular phase

Question 53. Menstrual cycle occurs in

1. All females
2. Mammalian females
3. Primate females
4. Rabbits

Answer. 3. Primate females

Question 54. The withdrawal of which hormone is the immediate cause of menstruation?

1. Estrogen
2. FSH
3. FSH-LH
4. Progesterone

Answer. 4. Progesterone

Question 55. LH surge occurs during which phase of menstrual cycle?

1. Menstrual phase
2. Beginning of proliferative phase
3. Secretory phase
4. At the middle of the cycle

Answer. 4. At the middle of the cycle

Question 56. Estrous cycle is the characteristic of

1. Human females
2. Mammalian females
3. Mammalian females other than primates
4. Primate females

Answer. 3. Mammalian females other than primates

Question 57. Monoestrous animals have

1. One ovulation each month
2. One heat period each month
3. One breeding season in a year
4. One menstrual cycle each month

Answer. 3. One breeding season in a year

Question 58. Which hormone level reaches peak during the luteal phase of menstrual cycle?

1. Luteinising hormone
2. Progesterone
3. FSH
4. Estrogen

Answer. 2. Progesterone

Question 59. Menses occurs in

1. Human beings only
2. Old world monkeys and apes (primates)
3. Every mammal
4. Both (1) and (2)

Answer. 4. Both (1) and (2)

Question 60. Secondary oocyte is

1. Haploid
2. Diploid
3. Polyploid
4. None of these

Answer. 1. Haploid

Question 61. Oral contraceptives check

1. Ovulation
2. Fertilization
3. Implantation
4. Entry of sperm into vagina

Answer. 1. Ovulation

Question 62. Which part of the ovary in mammals acts as an endocrine gland after ovulation?

1. Vitelline membrane
2. Graffian follicle
3. Corpus luteum
4. Germinal epithelium

Answer. 3. Corpus luteum

Question 63. The transparent layer found around the outer surface of a developing ovum is called

1. Zona radiata
2. Zona pellucida
3. Theca externa
4. Theca interna

Answer. 2. Zona pellucida

Question 64. Cessation of menstrual cycle is called

1. Ovulation
2. Puberty
3. Menopause
4. Implantation

Answer. 3. Menopause

Question 65. Based on the distribution of yolk, the egg of humans is

1. Telolecithal
2. Centrolecithal
3. Microlecithal
4. Alecithal

Answer. 4. Alecithal

Question 66. Egg will be having moderate amount of yolk in case of

1. Sea urchin
2. Starfish
3. Frog
4. All of these

Answer. 3. Frog

Question 67. Vitelline layer around the egg is deposited by

1. Ovary
2. Oviduct
3. Egg itself
4. Coelom

Answer. 3. Egg itself

Question 68. In bony fishes, reptiles, and birds, the cleavage pattern is

1. Meroblastic centrolecithal
2. Holoblastic unequal
3. Meroblastic discoidal
4. Holoblastic radial

Answer. 3. Meroblastic discoidal

Question 69. The eggs of insects are

1. Homolecithal
2. Centrolecithal
3. Meiolecithal
4. Telolecithal

Answer. 2. Centrolecithal

Question 70. Spiral cleavage is found in

1. Coelenterates
2. Annelids
3. Echinodermata
4. Mollusca

Answer. 2. Annelids

Question 71. Leathery eggs are found in

1. Amphibians
2. Reptiles
3. Birds
4. Mammals

Answer. 2. Reptiles

Question 72. An avian blastula is called

1. Coeloblastula
2. Stereoblastula
3. Discoblastula
4. Periblastula

Answer. 3. Stereoblastula

Question 73. When blastomeres from the outer surface are rolled in, into the interior of developing embryo, it is called

1. Invagination
2. Involution
3. Ingression
4. Delamination

Answer. 2. Involution

Question 74. After a sperm has penetrated an ovum in the process of fertilization, the entry of further sperms is prevented by

1. Development of the vitelline membrane
2. Development of the pigment coat
3. Condensation of yolk
4. Formation of fertilization membrane

Answer. 4. Formation of fertilization membrance

Question 75. Fertilization in human beings occurs in

1. Fallopian tube
2. Uterus
3. Ampulla part of oviduct
4. Isthmus part of oviduct

Answer. 3. Ampulla part of oviduct

Question 76. The function of hyaluronidase is

1. To form cone of reception in egg
2. To dissolve the cementing part of granulosa cells
3. To release second polar body
4. None of these

Answer. 2. To dissolve the cementing part of granulosa cells

Question 77. Fertilizin proteins are associated with

1. Corona radiata of the ovum
2. Zona pellucida of the ovum
3. Acrosome of the sperm
4. Tail part of the sperm

Answer. 2. Zona pellucida of the ovum

Question 78. Blastocyst comes out of slit of zona pellucida in

1. Ampulla part of fallopian tube
2. Isthmus part of fallopian tube
3. Uterine part of fallopian tube
4. Uterus

Answer. 4. Uterus

Question 79. Cervical gland starts secreting viscous mucus for filling the cervical canal to form a protective plug during pregnancy under the influence of

1. FSH
2. LH.
3. Progesterone
4. Oxytocin

Answer. 3. Progesterone

Question 80. Skeleton and muscles in a vertebrate embryo develop from

1. Ectoderm
2. Mesoderm
3. Endo-mesoderm
4. Endoderm

Answer. 2. Mesoderm

Question 81. Gestation period in a man is about

1. 10 weeks
2. 28 weeks
3. 36 weeks
4. 38 weeks

Answer. 4. 38 weeks

Question 82. Umbilical cord suspends embryo in amniotic cavity and is attached to the midgut region of the embryo. In cutherians, this umbilical cord is formed of the stalk of

1. Yolk sac and amnion
2. Allantois and chorion
3. Yolk sac and chorion
4. Allantois and yolk sac

Answer. 2. Allantois and chorion

Question 83. If both the ovaries of a pregnant female are removed in the second trimester, it will lead to

1. Abortion
2. Slow development of fetus
3. Normal development
4. Premature birth

Answer. 3. Normal development

Question 84. Amniotic fluid comes out through vagina during which stage of parturition?

1. Dilation stage
2. Expulsion stage
3. After birth stage
4. None of these

Answer. 1. Dilation stage

Question 85. The placenta in mammals is formed by

1. Allantois
2. Amnion
3. Chorion
4. Both (1) and (3)

Answer. 4. Both (1) and (3)

Question 86. The placenta in man is

1. Haemochorial
2. Epitheliochorial
3. Syndesmochorial
4. Haemo-endothelial

Answer. 1. Haemochorial

Question 87. The stage of embryo development at which implantation occurs in human females is

1. Morula
2. Zygote
3. Blastocyst
4. Transient three-celled stage

Answer. 3. Blastocyst

Question 88. In ectopic pregnancy, fetus grows in

1. Fundus part of uterus
2. Fallopian tube
3. Uterus
4. Both (1) and (3)

Answer. 2. Fallopian tube

Question 89. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

1. Fertilization occurs in fallopian tube.
2. Fertilization is a physio-chemical process/event.
3. Cleavage produces morula.
4. Cleavage leads to increased mass of protoplasm.

Answer. 4. Cleavage leads to increased mass of protoplasm.

Question 90. Cortical granules are associated with

1. Oogenesis
2. Spermatogenesis
3. Cleavage
4. Fertilization

Answer. 4. Fertilization

Question 91. Termination of gastrulation is marked by

1. Closure of primitive gut
2. Obliteration of archenteron
3. Obliteration of blastocoel
4. Closure of neural tube

Answer. 3. Obliteration of blastocoel

Question 92. Onset of pregnancy

1. Stimulates testosterone secretion
2. Leads to degeneration ovary
3. Inhibits further ovulation
4. Inhibits fusion of egg and sperm nuclei

Answer. 3. Inhibits further ovulation

Question 93. Site of fertilization in a mammal is

1. Ovary
2. Uterus
3. Vagina
4. Fallopian tube

Answer. 4. Fallopian tube

Question 94. Placenta is

1. Channel for providing essential requirements for growth of embryo
2. Storage organ
3. Conductor for nerve impulse
4. Meant for protection of embryo from shocks

Answer. 1. Channel for providing essential requirements for growth of embryo

Question 95. After a sperm has penetrated an ovum, the entry of other sperms is prevented by

1. Condensation of yolk
2. Formation of pigment coat
3. Development of vitelline
4. Development of fertilization membrane

Answer. 4. Development of fertilization membrane

Question 96. Two offsprings developed in the same uterus from the fertilization of two different ova are

1. Monozygotic twins
2. Dizygotic twins
3. Fraternal twins
4. Both (2) and (3)

Answer. 4. Both (2) and (3)

Question 97. Type of parthenogenesis in the honey bee is

1. Complete, thelytoky
2. Incomplete, thelytoky
3. Complete, arrhenotoky
4. Incomplete, arrhenotoky

Answer. 4. Incomplete, arrhenotoky

Question 98. The main white fibrous cover around the testis is called

1. Tunica vasculosa
2. Tunica albuginea
3. Tunica vaginalis
4. Tunica media

Answer. 2. Tunica albuginea

Question 99. The muscles playing major role in the positioning of the testis are

1. Cremaster
2. Dartos
3. Detrusor
4. Both (1) and (2)

Answer. 4. Both (1) and (2)

Question 100. Which of the following is not the part of intratesticular genital duct system?

1. Rete testis
2. Tubuli recti
3. Vas deferens
4. Vas efferens

Answer. 3. Vas deferens

Question 101. Ampulla part in the male reproductive system is related to

1. Epididymis
2. Vas deferens
3. Fallopian tube
4. Tubuli recti

Answer. 2. Vas deferens

Question 102. The inhibin hormone is released by

1. Medulla
2. Granulosa cells
3. Theca cells
4. Zona pellucida

Answer. 2. Granulosa cells

Question 103. Ostium is the aperture present in

1. Oviduct
2. Fallopian funnel
3. Ovisac
4. Cloaca

Answer. 2. Fallopian funnel

Question 104. In humans, perineum refers to the space between

1. Incisor and premolar teeth
2. Mouth and nostril
3. Upper and lower lips
4. Anus and vulva

Answer. 4. Anus and vulva

Question 105. The scrotal sac of a male mammal is homologous to which part of female genitalia?

1. Vagina
2. Uterus
3. Clitoris
4. Labia majora

Answer. 4. Labia majora

Question 106. The function of Bartholin’s gland in a female is

1. To nourish the growing embryo
2. To neutralize the acidity of vagina
3. Secretion of fructose
4. To render the vagina slimy

Answer. 4. To render the vagina slimy

Question 107. If in a sperm the proximal centriole becomes non-functional, which of the following shall not occur?

1. First cleavage
2. Second cleavage
3. Maturation of oocyte
4. Spermiogenesis

Answer. 1. First cleavage

Question 108. Which of the following plays important role in concentrating testosterone in the seminiferous tubules?

1. Leydig’s cells
2. Sertoli cells (ABP)
3. Granulosa cells
4. Tubuli recti

Answer. 2. Sertoli cells (ABP)

Question 109. The fall in the number of sperms per millimeter of semen causes sterility. This is due to insufficient amount of

1. Acid phosphates
2. Alkaline phosphates
3. Testosterone
4. Hyaluronidase

Answer. 3. Testosterone

Question 110. Anestrum state is

1. Non-ovulation in human female
2. Suspension of menstrual cycle in human female
3. Suspension of estrous cycle in non-primates
4. “Period of heat” in non-primates

Answer. 3. Suspension of estrous cycle in non-primates

Question 111. The principle chemical components of yolk are

1. Proteins and carbohydrates
2. Proteins, phospholipids, and fats
3. Proteins and vitamins
4. Carbohydrates and lipids

Answer. 2. Proteins, phospholipids, and fats

Question 112. Vitelline membrane is a

1. Primary egg membrane
2. Secondary egg membrane
3. Tertiary egg membrane
4. None of these

Answer. 1. Primary egg membrane

Question 113. Which of the following around a hen’s egg is a tertiary membrane?

1. Albumen
2. Shell membranes
3. Calcareous shell
4. All of these

Answer. 4. All of these

Question 114. When cleavage furrow bisects both poles of the egg passing through the animal-vegetal axis, the plane of cleavage is called

1. Meridional
2. Equatorial
3. Vertical
4. Horizontal

Answer. 1. Meridional

Question 115. Which one of the following is not a characteristic of cleavage?

1. Mitotic divisions
2. Increase in the synthesis of DNA
3. Increase of protoplasm
4. Cells of continuously smaller size

Answer. 3. Increase of protoplasm

Question 116. Right and left sides of an embryo become apparent during

1. Radial cleavage
2. Bilateral cleavage
3. Spiral cleavage
4. Biradial cleavage

Answer. 2. Bilateral cleavage

Question 117. A blastula consisting of a blastoderm of one or several layers of cells arranged around a spacious blastocoel is termed as

1. Periblastula
2. Coeloblastula
3. Stereoblastula
4. Discoblastula

Answer. 2. Coeloblastula

Question 118. The movement of micromeres over the surface of blastula, resulting in the elongation of embryo, is known as

1. Divergence
2. Convergence
3. Involution
4. Epiboly

Answer. 4. Epiboly

Question 119. Blastodisc is restricted to a small area in

1. Eutherian egg
2. Avian egg
3. Ascaris egg
4. Amphibian egg

Answer. 2. Avian egg

Question 120. Mosaic or determinate cleavage is found in

1. Sponges, echinoderms, and eutherian mammals
2. Cyclostomes, elasmobranchs, dipnoi, amphibian, and cephalopod molluscs
3. Coelenterates
4. Nematodes and amphioxus

Answer. 4. Nematodes and amphioxus

Question 121. Which of the following is involved in capacitation?

1. Removal of membrane cholesterol present over acrosome
2. Entry of Ca2⁺ into sperms
3. Dilution of decapacitation factors
4. All of these

Answer. 4. All of these

Question 122. The function of cortical granules in the cortex of the ovum is the formation of

1. Vitelline membrane
2. Perivitelline membrane
3. Fertilization membrane
4. Plasma membrane

Answer. 3. Fertilization membrane

Question 123. The fertilization membrane is secreted because

1. It checks the entry of more sperms after fertilization
2. It checks the entry of antigens in ovum
3. It checks syngamy
4. None of these

Answer. 1. It checks the entry of more sperms after fertilization

Question 124. Which of the following is involved in slow block to the polyspermy?

1. Cortical reaction
2. Zona reaction
3. Depolarization starting at the fertilization cone
4. Both (1) and (2)

Answer. 4. Both (1) and (2)

Question 125. “Cells of Rauber” are

1. Trophoblast cells in contact with embryonal knob
2. Cells of inner cell mass
3. Cells present in the blastocoel
4. Uterine epithelial cells making contact with blastocyst

Answer. 1. Trophoblast cells in contact with embryonal knob

Question 126. The part of decidua present between embryo and the lu- men of uterus is called

1. Decidua basalis
2. Decidua capsularis
3. Decidua parietalis
4. Perimetrium

Answer. 2. Decidua capsularis

Question 127. Which of the following is true regarding the first germinal layer to differentiate during embryonic development?

1. Endoderm, epiblast
2. Endoderm, hypoblast
3. Mesoderm, epiblast
4. Mesoderm, hypoblast

Answer. 1. Endoderm, epiblast

Question 128. Ontogenetically, liver and pancreas are

1. Ectodermal
2. Mesodermal
3. Endodermal
4. None of these

Answer. 3. Endodermal

Question 129. The mesoderm gives rise to all structures except

1. Nervous system
2. Muscular system
3. Circulatory system
4. Gonads

Answer. 1. Nervous system

Question 130. The effect of teratogens is maximum during

1. First trimester
2. Second trimester
3. Third trimester
4. Both (2) and (3)

Answer. 1. First trimester

Question 131. Hormone administered for hastening child birth is meant for

1. Stimulating striped muscles
2. Raising blood pressure
3. Increasing energy availability
4. Contraction of smooth muscles

Answer. 4. Contraction of smooth muscles

Question 132. Gestation period in humans is

1. 10 weeks
2. 28 weeks
3. 32 weeks
4. 38 weeks

Answer. 4. 38 weeks

Question 133. Extra-embryonic membrane amnion provides

1. Cells to embryo
2. Protection to embryo
3. Nutrition to embryo
4. Both (1) and (2)

Answer. 2. Protection to embryo

Question 134. Active in rolling of endodermal and mesodermal cells into the interior of embryo is

1. Ingression
2. Involution
3. Inversion
4. Epiboly

Answer. 2. Involution

Question 135. Gastrulation comprises

1. Morphogenetic movements
2. Differentiation of archenteron
3. Differentiation of three germ layers
4. All of these

Answer. 4. All of these

Question 136. During embryonic development, which of the following organs is formed first?

1. Heart
2. Brain
3. Neural tube
4. Skin

Answer. 3. Neural tube

Question 137. Which of the following are the derivatives of endoderm?

1. Muscles and blood
2. Alimentary canal and respiratory organs
3. Excretory and reproductive organs
4. Skin and nerve cord

Answer. 2. Alimentary canal and respiratory organs

Question 138. Fetal ejection reflex in a human female is induced by

1. Release of oxytocin from pituitary gland
2. Pressure exerted by amniotic fluid
3. Differentiation of mammary glands
4. Fully developed fetus and placenta

Answer. 4. Fully developed fetus and placenta

Question 139. Find the incorrect match with respect to increase in the levels of following hormones:

1. Oxytocin-Uterine contraction during labor
2. Prolactin-Lactation after child birth
3. Progesterone – Uterine contraction
4. Luteinizing hormone – Stimulates ovulation

Answer. 3. Progesterone – Uterine contraction

Question 140. Kidneys, heart, and gonads are formed from

1. Ectoderm
2. Endoderm
3. Inner cell mass
4. Mesoderm

Answer. 4. Mesoderm

Question 141. The lytic enzyme present in semen is

1. Ligase
2. Estrogenase
3. Androgenase
4. Hyaluronidase

Answer. 4. Hyaluronidase

Question 142. Progesterone is secreted by

1. Corpus aorta
2. Corpus albicans
3. Corpus luteum
4. Corpus callosum

Answer. 3. Corpus luteum

Question 143. Which of the following causes abortion in ladies?

1. Virus
2. Bacteria
3. Mycoplasma
4. None of these

Answer. 2. Bacteria

Question 144. Accessory sexual character in female is promoted by

1. Androgen
2. Progesterone
3. Estrogen
4. Testosterone

Answer. 3. Estrogen

Question 145. Sertoli cells are found in testis. These cells are

1. Nurse cell
2. Reproductive cell
3. Receptor cell
4. None of these

Answer. 1. Nurse cell

Question 146. Cryptorchidism is a condition in which

1. Testis does not descend into scrotal sac
2. Sperm in not found
3. Male hormones are not reactive
4. Ovaries are removed

Answer. 1. Testis does not descend into scrotal sac

Question 147. The cellular layer that disintegrates and regenerates again and again in humans is

1. Endometrium of uterus
2. Cornea of eye
3. Dermis of skin
4. Endothelium of blood vessels

Answer. 1. Endometrium of uterus

Question 148. The functional maturation of sperms takes place in

1. Oviduct
2. Epididymis
3. Vagina
4. All of these

Answer. 2. Epididymis

Question 149. Surgical removal or cutting and ligation of the ends of oviduct is known as

1. Tubectomy
2. Oviductomy
3. Castration
4. Vasectomy

Answer. 1. Vasectomy

Question 150. The follicle that ruptures at the time of ovulation promptly fills with blood forming

1. Corpus haemorrhagicum
2. Corpus luteum
3. Corpus albicans
4. Corpus callosum

Answer. 1. Corpus haemorrhagicum

Question 151. In mammals, estrogens are secreted by the Graafian follicle from its

1. External theca
2. Internal theca
3. Zona pellucida
4. Corona radiata

Answer. 2. Internal theca

Question 152. Supporting cells found in the germinal epithelium of tes- tis are called

1. Interstitial cells of Leydig
2. Sertoli cells
3. Granular cells
4. Phagocytes

Answer. 2. Sertoli cells

Question 153. In mammals, the female secondary sexual characters are developed mainly by the hormone

1. Relaxin
2. Estrogens
3. Progesterone
4. Gonadotropins

Answer. 2. Estrogens

Question 154. Cryptorchidism is a condition of testes

1. Unable to descend in scrotal sacs
2. Unable to produce sperms
3. Having been surgically removed
4. Having remained undeveloped

Answer. 1. Unable to descend in scrotal sacs

Question 155. In between spermatogonia are found

1. Germinal cells
2. Sertoli cells
3. Epithelial cells
4. Lymph space

Answer. 2. Sertoli cells

Question 156. Which accessory genital gland occurs only in male mammal?

1. Bartholin’s gland
2. Perineal gland
3. Prostate gland
4. All

Answer. 3. Prostate gland

Question 157. During differentiation, the spermatids remain associated with

1. Leydig’s cells
2. Kupffer’s cells
3. Spermatogonia
4. Sertoli cell

Answer. 4. Sertoli cell

Question 158. What would happen if vasa deferentia of man are cut?

1. Sperms will be non-nucleate.
2. Spermatogenesis will not occur.
3. Semen will be without sperms.
4. Sperm will be non-motile.

Answer. 3. Semen will be without sperms.

Question 159. The Sertoli cells occur in

1. Human testis
2. Frog testis
3. Human ovary
4. Frog ovary

Answer. 1. Human testis

Question 160. Which one of the following is primary sex organ?

1. Scrotum
2. Penis
3. Testis
4. Prostrate

Answer. 3. Testis

Question 161. If somatic chromosomes’ number is 40, what shall be the chromosomal number in the cell of seminiferous tubules?

1. 40
2. 20
3. 10
4. 40 and 20

Answer. 4. 40 and 20

Question 162. Eggs are liberated from ovary in humans in the

1. Secondary oocyte stage
2. Primary oocyte stage
3. Oogonial stage
4. Mature ovum stage

Answer. 1. Secondary oocyte stage

Question 163. The Graafian follicles are found in

1. Testis of mammal
2. Ovary of frog
3. Ovary of cockroach
4. Ovary of mammals

Answer. 4. Ovary of mammals

Question 164. The site of fertilization in

1. Ovary
2. Uterus
3. Vagina
4. Fallopian tube

Answer. 4. Fallopian tube

Question 165. Endometrium is lining of

1. Testis
2. Urinary bladder
3. Uterus
4. Ureter

Answer. 3. Uterus

Question 166. A secondary sexual character is

1. Breast
2. Ovary
3. Testis
4. Thyroid

Answer. 1. Breast

Question 167. Expanded proximal part of oviduct in females is

1. Uterus
2. Fallopian tube
3. Fimbriated funnel
4. Vestibule

Answer. 3. Fimbriated funnel

Question 168. The endocrinal structure formed after ovulation (release of ovum from the Graafian follicle) is

1. Corpus albicans
2. Corpus callosum
3. Corpus luteum
4. Corpus striatum

Answer. 3. Corpus luteum

Question 169. Corpus luteum is

1. Excretory
2. Endocrine
3. Digestive
4. Reproductive

Answer. 2. Endocrine

Question 170. A female gland corresponding to the prostrate of males is

1. Bartholin’s gland
2. Bulbourethral gland
3. Clitoris
4. None

Answer. 4. None

Question 171. Progesterone is secreted by

1. Corpus luteum
2. Thyroid
3. Thymus
4. Testis

Answer. 1. Corpus luteum

Question 172. Spermatogenesis and sperm differentiation are under the control of

1. FSH
2. LH
3. Progesterone
4. Parathyroid hormone

Answer. 1. FSH

Question 173. During pregnancy, the urine of woman contains

1. LH
2. Progesterone
3. FSH
4. HCG

Answer. 4. HCG

Question 174. In the absence of pregnancy, corpus luteum

1. Becomes active, secretes FSH and LH
2. Produces lot of oxytocin and relaxin
3. Degenerates after some time
4. Is maintained by progesterone

Answer. 3. Degenerates after some time

Question 175. 10 oogonia yield 10 primary oocytes. Then how many ova are produced on the completion of oogenesis?

1. 5
2. 10
3. 20
4. 40

Answer. 2. 10

Question 176. Parturition duct in females is called

1. Uterus
2. Oviduct
3. Vagina
4. Cervix

Answer. 3. Vagina

Question 177. Which temporary endocrine gland forms in ovary after ovulation?

1. Corpus callosum
2. Corpus albicans
3. Corpus luteum
4. Corpus striatum

Answer. 3. Corpus luteum

Question 178. In mammals, the maturation of sperms take place at a temperature

1. Equal to that of body
2. Higher than that of body
3. Lower than that of body
4. At any piece of mammalian sperm

Answer. 3. Lower than that of body

Question 179. Onset of pregnancy

1. Stimulates testosterone secretion
2. Inhibits further ovulation
3. Leads to degeneration of ovary
4. Inhibits fusion of egg and sperm nuclei

Answer. 2. Inhibits further ovulation

Question 180. Graffian follicles contain

1. Corpus luteum
2. Corpus albicans
3. Theca externa and theca interna
4. Oogonial cells

Answer. 3. Theca externa and theca interna

Question 181. Bartholin’s glands occur in

1. Females and help in vestibular lubrication
2. Females and produce oestrogen for regulating secondary sexual characters
3. Males and form liquid part of spermatic field
4. Males and produce alkaline fluid for neutralizing urethral acidity

Answer. 1. Females and help in vestibular lubrication

Question 182. Which is correct?

1. Menstrual cycle is present in all mammals.
2. Menstrual cycle is present in all primates.
3. Estrous cycle occurs in all mammals.
4. Most mammals are ovoviviparous.

Answer. 2. Menstrual cycle is present in all primates.

Question 183. Yellow corpus luteum occurs in mammals in

1. Heart to initiate heartbeat
2. Skin to function as pain receptor
3. Brain and connects cerebral hemisphere
4. Ovary for secretion of progesterone

Answer. 4. Ovary for secretion of progesterone

Question 184. Human sperm was discovered by

1. Leeuwenhoek
2. Aristotle
3. Graaf
4. Pander

Answer. 1. Leeuwenhoek

Question 185. Corpus luteum secretes

1. LH
2. Estrogen
3. Progesterone
4. FSH

Answer. 3. Progesterone

Question 186. In case of non-fertilization, corpus luteum

1. Stops secreting progesterone
2. Changes to corpus albicans
3. Starts producing progesterone
4. None of the above

Answer. 2. Changes to corpus albicans

Question 187. Correct sequence of hormone secretion from the beginning of menstruation is

1. FSH, progesterone, estrogen
2. Estrogen, FSH, progesterone
3. FSH, estrogen, progesterone
4. Esterogen, progesterone, FSH

Answer. 3. FSH, estrogen, progesterone

Question 188. Graafian follicle contains

1. Many oocytes
2. Many sperms
3. A single oocyte
4. Site for egg fertilization

Answer. 3. A single oocyte

Question 189. Progesterone level falls leading to

1. Gestation
2. Menopause
3. Lactation
4. Menstruation

Answer. 4. Menstruatioin

Question 190. Head of epididymis present at the head of testis is

1. Caput epididymis
2. Cauda epidiymis
3. Vas deferens
4. Gubernaculum

Answer. 1. Caput epididymis

Question 191. Human female reaches menopause at the age of about

1. 25 years
2. 35 years
3. 50 years
4. 70 years

Answer. 3. 50 years

Question 192. Glands secreting male sex hormone are

1. Leydig cells
2. Seminiferous tubules
3. Vasa deferentia
4. Testes

Answer. 4. Testes

Question 193. Estrogen is secreted by

1. Corpus luteum
2. Graafian follicle
3. Germinal epithelium of ovary
4. Pituitary

Answer. 2. Graafian follicle

Question 194. Testes descent into scrotum in mammals for

1. Spermatogenesis
2. Fertilization
3. Development of sex organs
4. Development of visceral organs

Answer. 1. Spermatogenesis

Question 195. The phase of menstrual cycle in humans that lasts for 7-8 days is

1. Follicular phase
2. Ovulatory phase
3. Luteal phase
4. Menstruation

Answer. 1. Follicular phase

Question 196. Menstruation is caused by

1. Increase in FSH level
2. Fall in oxytocin level
3. Fall in progesterone level
4. Increase in oestrogen level

Answer. 3. Fall in progesterone level

Question 197. In the urinogenital system, one of the following part is present in males and not in females:

1. Urethra
2. Fallopian tube
3. Vagina
4. Vas deferens

Answer. 4. Vas deferens

Question 188. Number of sperms formed from four spermatocytes is

1. 4
2. 1
3. 16
4. 32

Answer. 3. 16

Question 199. In human females, ova are produced in

1. Ovarian follicles
2. Oviduct
3. Uterus
4. Vagina

Answer. 1. Ovarian follicles

Question 200. Which is correctly matched in a normal menstrual cycle?

1. Endometrium regenerates-5 to 10 days
2. Release of egg- 5th day
3. Endometrium secretes nutrients for implantation – 11 to 18 days
4. Rise in progesterone level – 1 to 15 days

Answer. 1. Endometrium regenerates-5 to 10 days

Question 201. Spermatogonia develop into the

1. Ovary
2. Ovum
3. Sperm
4. Zygote

Answer. 3. sperm

Question 202. Spermatogonia develop through division

1. Amitosis
2. Mitosis
3. Meiosis 1
4. Meiosis 2

Answer. 2. Mitosis

Question 203. Graafian follicles occur in

1. Ovary
2. Testis
3. Egg
4. Sperm

Answer. 1. Ovary

Question 204. Ovulation occurs in and on

1. Ovary
2. About 14th day
3. Both (1) and (2)
4. None of these

Answer. 3. Both (1) and (2)

Question 205. Blastopore occurs in

1. Gastrula
2. Blastula
3. Blastocoel
4. Morula

Answer. 1. Gastrula

Question 206. Mesoderm is formed through invagination of

1. Ectoderm
2. Endoderm
3. Inner mass of cells
4. Primitive streak

Answer. 4. Primitive streak

Question 207. Secretion of which structure uterus for implantation?

1. Ovary
2. Corpus luteum
3. Pituitary gland
4. Ovarian follicle

Answer. 2. Corpus luteum

Question 208. Energy center of sperm is

1. Head
2. Middle piece
3. Entire sperm
4. Tail

Answer. 2. Middle piece

Question 209. Fusion of sperm and ovum is

1. Amphimixis
2. Regeneration
3. Fertilization
4. None of the above

Answer. 3. Fertilization

Question 210. Embryo at 16-celled stage is called

1. Morula
2. Blastula
3. Blastomere
4. Gastrula

Answer. 1. Morula

Question 211. Layers of ovum from outside to inside are

1. Corona radiata, zona pellucida, vitelline membrane
2. Zona pellucida, corona radiata, vitelline membrane
3. Vitelline membrane, zona pellucida, corona radiata
4. Zona pellucida, vitelline membrane, corona radiata

Answer. 1. Corona radiata, zona pellucida, vitelline membrane

Question 212. Which layer of embryo is formed first?

1. Ectoderm
2. Mesoderm
3. Endoderm
4. Both (2) and (3)

Answer. 3. Endoderm

Question 213. In which phase of cell division are oogonia arrested?

1. Anaphase 2
2. Anaphase 1
3. Interphase
4. Both (1) and (2)

Answer. 2. Anaphase 1

Question 214. Capacitation of sperms occurs in

1. Female genital tract
2. Vagina
3. Vas efferens
4. Vas deferens

Answer. 1. Female genital tract

Question 215. Fertilization of ovum occurs in

1. Fimbriae of oviduct
2. Isthmus of oviduct
3. Ampulla of oviduct
4. None of the above

Answer. 3. Ampulla of oviduct

Question 216. Function of the Sertoli cells is controlled by

1. Estrogen
2. FSH
3. Testosterone
4. ACTH

Answer. 2. FSH

Question 217. Corpus spongiosum occurs in

1. Ovary
2. Penis
3. Egg
4. Sperm

Answer. 2. Penis

Question 218. Cytoplasm of ovum does not possess

1. Golgi complex
2. Mitochondria
3. Centrosome
4. Ribosomes

Answer. 3. Centrosome

Question 219. Which of the following provides nutrition to maturing sperms?

1. Leydig cell
2. Scrotum
3. Epididymis
4. Sertoli cells

Answer. 4. Sertoli cells

Question 220. LH and FSH are collectively called

1. Oxytocin
2. Somatotropins
3. Gonadotropins
4. Luteotropins

Answer. 3. Gonadotropins

Question 221. Mammalian blastula is known as

1. Trophoderm
2. Blastocyst
3. Fetal blastula
4. Oedema

Answer. 2. Blastocyst

Question 222. Acrosome of sperm contains

1. Hydrolytic enzymes
2. DNA
3. Fructose
4. Mitochondria

Answer. 1. Hydrolytic enzymes

Question 223. Radial cleavage is found in

1. Tunicates
2. Protozoans
3. Coelenterates
4. Annelids

Answer. 3. Coelenterates

Question 224. Cavity formed during gastrulation is

1. Primitive gut
2. Gastrocoel
3. Archenteron
4. All of the above

Answer. 2. Gastrocoel

Question 225. Menstrual phase is followed by

1. Luteal phase
2. Follicular phase
3. Fertilization
4. Implantation

Answer. 2. Follicular phase

Question 226. If for some reason, the vasa efferentia in the human re-productive system get blocked, the gametes will not be transported from

1. Testes to epididymis
2. Epididymis to vas deferens
3. Ovary to uterus
4. Vagina to uterus

Answer. 1. Testes to epididymis

Question 227. The testes in humans are situated outside the abdominal cavity inside a pouch called scrotum. The purpose served is for

1. Maintaining the scrotal temperature lower than the internal body temperature
2. Escaping any possible compression by the visceral organs
3. Providing more space for the growth of epididymis
4. Providing a secondary sexual feature for exhibiting the male sex

Answer. 1. Maintaining the scrotal temperature lower than the internal body temperature

Question 228. The figure given depicts a diagrammatic sectional view of the human female reproductive system. Which set of three parts out of I-VI have been correctly identified? 

1. (2) endometrium, (3) infundibulum, (4) fimbriae
2. (3) infundibulum, (4) fimbriae, (5) cervix
3. (4) oviducal funnel, (5) uterus, (6) cervix
4. (1) perimetrium, (2) myometrium, (3) fallopian tube

Answer. 2. (3) infundibulum, (4) fimbriae, (5) cervix

Question 229. Singnals for parturition originate from

1. Oxytocin released from maternal pituitary
2. Placenta only
3. Fully developed fetus only
4. Both placenta as well as fully developed fetus

Answer. 4. Both placenta as well as fully developed fetus

Question 230. The secretory phase in the human menstrual cycle is also called 

1. Luteal phase and lasts for about 6 days
2. Follicular phase and lasts for about 6 days
3. Luteal phase and lasts for about 13 days
4. Follicular phase and lasts for about 13 days

Answer. 3. Luteal phase and lasts for about 13 days

Question 231. Human placenta is

1. Haemochorial
2. Syndesmochorial
3. Yolk sac
4. Haemo-endothelial

Answer. 1. Haemochorial

Question 232. Human eggs are

1. Alecithal
2. Microlecithal
3. Mesolecithal
4. Macrolecithal

Answer. 1. Alecithal

Question 233. Human egg has

1. One Y-chromosome
2. One X-chromosome
3. Two Y-chromosomes
4. One X-chromosome and one Y-chromosome

Answer. 2. One X-chromosome and one Y-chromosome

Question 234. Fertilizins are emitted by

1. Immature eggs
2. Mature eggs
3. Sperms
4. Polar bodies

Answer. 2. Mature eggs

Question 235. During cleavage, what is true about embryo?

1. Nucleocytoplasmic ratio remains unchanged
2. Size does not increase
3. There is less consumption of oxygen
4. The division is like meiosis

Answer. 2. Size does not increase

Question 236. At the end of first meiotic division, male germ cell differentiates into

1. Secondary spermatocyte
2. Primary spermatocyte
3. Spermatogonium
4. Spermatid

Answer. 1. Secondary spermatocyte

Question 237. A mature sperm has

1. A pair of flagella
2. A nucleus, an acrosome, and a centriole
3. A nucleus, an acrosome, a pair of centrioles
4. A nucleus, an acrosome, a pair of centrioles and a tail

Answer. 4. A nucleus, an acrosome, a pair of centrioles and a tail

Question 238. Ovulation occurs under the influence of

1. LH
2. FSH
3. Estrogen
4. Progesterone

Answer. 1. LH

Question 239. Part of sperm involved in penetrating egg membrane is

1. Tail
2. Acrosome
3. Allosome
4. Autosome

Answer. 2. Acrosome

Question 240. Type of cleavage in an egg is determined by

1. Amount and distribution of yolk
2. Number of egg membranes
3. Size and location of nucleus
4. Shape and size of sperm

Answer. 1. Amount and distribution of yolk

Question 241. Fertilization is fusion of

1. Diploid spermatozoan with diploid ovum to form diploid zygote
2. Haploid spermatozoan with diploid ovum to from diploid zygote
3. Diploid spermatozoan with haploid ovum to form diploid zygote
4. Haploid spermatozoan with haploid ovum to form diploid zygote

Answer. 4. Haploid spermatozoan with haploid ovum to form diploid zygote

Question 242. Correct sequence in development is

1. Fertilization → Zygote → Cleavage → Morula → Blastula → Gastrula
2. Fertilization → Zygote → Blastula → Morula → Cleavage → Gastrula
3. Fertilization → Cleavage → Morula → Zygote → Blastula → Gastrula
4. Cleavage Zygote Fertilization → Morula → Blastula → Gastrula

Answer. 1. Fertilization → Zygote → Cleavage → Morula → Blastula → Gastrula

Question 243. Middle piece of mammalian sperm contains

1. Nucleus
2. Vacuoles
3. Mitochondria
4. Centriole

Answer. 3. Mitochondria

Question 244. Immediately after ovulation, the mammalian egg is covered by a membrane called

1. Chorion
2. Zona pellucida
3. Corona raidata
4. Both (2) and (3)

Answer. 4. Both (2) and (3)

Question 245. Cleavage in the fertilized egg of humans

1. Starts in uterus
2. Is meroblastic
3. Starts when egg is in fallopian tube
4. Is discoidal

Answer. 3. Starts when egg is in fallopian tube

Question 246. Polar body is produced during the formation of

1. Sperm
2. Secondary oocyte
3. Oogonium
4. Spermatocytes

Answer. 2. Secondary oocyte

Question 247. The head of mature mammalian sperm is made of

1. An acrosome
2. Elongated nucleus covered by acrosome
3. Two centrioles and an axial filament
4. Nucleus, acrosome, cytoplasm, and mitochondrial sheath

Answer. 2. Elongated nucleus covered by acrosome

Question 248. Oocyte is liberated from ovary under the influence of LH, after completing

1. Mitosis and before liberating polar bodies
2. Meiosis 1 and before liberating second polar bodies
3. Meiosis
4. Meiosis 2 after the release of the first polar body

Answer. 3. Meiosis

Question 249. Which cell division is found during cleavage?

1. Amitosis
2. Mitosis
3. Closed mitosis
4. Meiosis

Answer. 2. Mitosis

Question 250. 10 oogonia yield 10 primary oocytes. Then how many ova are produced on the completion of oogenesis?

1. 5
2. 10
3. 20
4. 40

Answer. 2. 10

Question 251. At the time of fertilization, sperm head enters in the egg from

1. Anywhere
2. Animal pole
3. Vegetal pole
4. Lateral side of egg

Answer. 3. Vegetal pole

Question 252. In which stage of development the embryonic cells form the germinal layers by the movement?

1. Morula
2. Blastula
3. Gastrula
4. Nerula

Answer. 2. Blastula

Question 253. In mammals, eggs are microlecithal and isolecithal because these are

1. Oviparou
2. Viviparous
3. Ovoviviparous
4. None of these

Answer. 2. Viviparous

Question 254. Which of the following is not correct for gastrulation?

1. Archenteron is formed.
2. All germinal layers are formed.
3. Morphogenetic movements.
4. Some blastomeres and blastocoel degenerate.

Answer. 4. Some blastomeres and blastocoel degenerate.

Question 255. At which stage of spermatogenesis, sperms acquire their whole structural maturity and they contain a haploid nucleus and other organs?

1. Spermiogenesis
2. Growth phase
3. Multiplication phase
4. Maturation phase

Answer. 1. Spermiogenesis

Question 256. Sperm enters from which part of egg?

1. Anywhere in unfertilized egg from vegetal pole
2. From animal pole in unfertilized egg
3. In unfertilized egg from vegetal pole
4. None

Answer. 2. From animal pole in unfertilized egg

Question 257. Completion of gastrulation is indicated by

1. Obliteration of archenterone
2. Obliteration of blastocoel
3. Closing of blastopore
4. Closing of neural tube

Answer. 2. Closing of neural tube

Question 258. In mammals, egg is fertilized in

1. Ovary
2. Fallopian tube
3. Uterus
4. Vagina

Answer. 2. Fallopian tube

Question 259. What is formed at the time of gastrulation?

1. Gills
2. Heart
3. Myotome
4. Archenteron

Answer. 4. Archenteron

Question 260. Which part of spermatid forms the acrosomes of sperm?

1. Mitochondria
2. Golgi body
3. Nucleus
4. Lysosome

Answer. 2. Golgi body

Question 261. How many sperms are formed by one primary spermatocyte?

1. 4
2. 3
3. 2
4. 1

Answer. 1. 4

Question 262. The chemical in ovum which attracts sperms is

1. Fertilizin
2. Antifertilizin
3. Agglutinin
4. Thrombin

Answer. 1. Fertilizin

Question 263. Which of the following organ is differentiated first during development?

1. Heart
2. Skin
3. Brain
4. Neural tube

Answer. 3. Brain

Question 264. In a vertebrate, which germ layer forms the skeletal muscles?

1. Ectoderm
2. Endoderm
3. Mesoderm
4. Both (1) and (2)

Answer. 3. Mesoderm

Question 265. Which layer develops first during embryonic development?

1. Ectoderm
2. Mesoderm
3. Endoderm
4. Both (1) and (3)

Answer. 3. Endoderm

Question 266. The whole nervous system including neuron in a frog and other vertebrates is derived from

1. Ectoderm
2. Endoderm
3. Mesoderm
4. All of these

Answer. 1. Ectoderm

Question 267. In a sperm, the mitochondria occurs

1. In tail
2. In acrosome
3. In middle piece
4. In head

Answer. 3. In middile piece

Question 268. Which set of enzymes is found in the acrosome of mammalian spermatozoa?

1. Hyaluronidase, corona penetrating enzyme (CPE)
2. Hyaluronidase, CPE, zona lysine
3. Hyaluronidase, CPE, peptidase
4. Hyaluronidase only

Answer. 2. Hyaluronidase, CPE, zona lysine

Question 269. Fixing up of blastocyst in the wall of the uterus is known as

1. Fertilization
2. Implantation
3. Impregnation
4. Placentation

Answer. 2. Implantation

Question 270. The type of placenta found in human beings is

1. Diffuse
2. Zonary
3. Cotyledonary
4. Discoidal

Answer. 4. Discoidal

Question 271. The number of fetal membranes in a man is

1. 1
2. 3
3. 4
4. 0

Answer. 3. 4

Question 272. Placenta in human beings is formed by

1. Amnion
2. Chorion
3. Allantois
4. Allantois, chorion, and uterine wall

Answer. 4. Allantois, chorion, and uterine wall

Question 273. The phenomenon of nuclear fusion of sperm and egg is known as

1. Karyogamy
2. Parthenogenesis
3. Vitellogenesis
4. Oogenesis

Answer. 1.

Question 274. Arrchenteron cavity is found in

1. Blastula
2. Gastrula
3. Morula
4. Planula

Answer. 2. Gastrula

Question 275. Mammalian placenta originates from

1. Allantois and chorion
2. Yolk sac
3. Allantois
4. Amnion

Answer. 1. Allantois and chorion

Question 276. What is true for cleavage?

1. Size of cell increases.
2. Size of embryo increases.
3. Size of cell decreases.
4. Size of embryo decreases.

Answer. 3. Size of cell increases.

Question 277. A blastopore is found in

1. Blastula and is the opening of blastocoel
2. Gastrula and is the opening of blastocoel
3. Blastula and is the opening of archenteron
4. Gastrula and is the opening of archenteron

Answer. 4. Gastrula and is the opening of archenteron

Question 278. The extraembryonic membranes of mammalian embryo are derived from

1. Trophoblast
2. Follicle cells
3. Formative cells
4. Inner cell mass

Answer. 1. Trophoblast

Question 279. Find out the wrong statement:

1. In mammals, allantois is not excretory in function.
2. Amnion is the outer layer containing amniotic fluid that acts as shock absorber to the soft embryo.
3. Yolk sac is a fetal membrane that helps in the nourishment of the embryo in general.
4. Chorio-allantoic membrane develops villi and contributes much to the development of placenta.

Answer. 2. Amnion is the outer layer containing amniotic fluid that acts as shock absorber to the soft embryo.

Question 280. The woman who consumed the drug thalidomide for relief from vomiting during early months of pregnancy gave birth to children with 

1. Harelip
2. No spleem
3. Extra fingers and toes
4. Underdeveloped limbs

Answer. 4. Underdeveloped limbs

Question 281. The chemical substance released by activated spermatozoa that acts on the ground substance of the follicle cells is known as

1. Relaxin
2. Teratogen
3. Progesterone
4. Hyaluronidase

Answer. 4. Hyaluronidase

Question 282. Menstrual flow occurs due to lack of

1. FSH
2. Oxytocin
3. Vasopressin
4. Progesterone

Answer. 4. Progesterone

Question 283. What is the correct sequence of sperm formation?

1. Spermatogonia, spermatocyte, spermatozoa, spermatid
2. Spermatogonia, spermatozoa, spermatocyte, spermatid
3. Spermatogonia, spermatocyte, spermatid, spermatozoa
4. Spermatid, spermatocyte, spermatogonia, spermatozoa

Answer. 3. Spermatogonia, spermatocyte, spermatid, spermatozoa

Question 284. Which one of the following is not the function of placenta? It

1. Secretes estrogen
2. Facilitates removal of carbon dioxide and waste material from embryo
3. Secretes oxytocin during parturition
4. Facilitates supply of oxygen and nutrients to embryo

Answer. 3. Secretes oxytocin during parturition

Sexual Reproduction In Flowering Plants Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. A stamen is regarded as a

1. Microsporophyll
2. Megasporophyll
3. Microsporangium
4. Megasporangium

Answer. 1. Microsporophyll

Question 2. A typical anther is generally

1. Bisporangiate
2. Tetrasporangiate
3. Monosporangiate
4. Multisporangiate

Answer. 2. Tetrasporangiate

Question 3. Development of anther in angiosperms is

1. Leptosporangiate
2. Eusporangiate
3. Gradate
4. Simple

Answer. 2. Eusporangiate

Question 4. The tapetal cells of anther show

1. Haploidy
2. Diploidy
3. Triploidy
4. Polyploidy

Answer. 4. Polyploidy

Question 5. Pro-Ubisch bodies are secreted by

1. Endothecium
2. Middle layers
3. Tapetum
4. Ubisch bodies

Answer. 3. Tapetum

Question 6. Fibrous bands present in endothecium of anther wall are made up of

1. Sporopollenin
2. α-cellulose
3. Pectin
4. Liguin

Answer. 2. α-cellulose

Question 7. Glandular type of tapetum secretes

1. Sporopollenin
2. Pollen kit
3. Compatibility proteins
4. All of these

Answer. 4. All of these

Question 8. The exine of pollen grains (microspores) is composed of

1. Pollen kit
2. α-cellulose
3. Sporopollenin
4. Lignin

Answer. 3. Sporopollenin

Question 9. The number of germ pores in dicots and monocots pollen grains are, respectively,

1. 1,3
2. 2,3
3. 3,1
4. 3,2

Answer. 2. 3,1

Question 10. The two cells at which pollen grains are discharged are

1. Larger generative cell and smaller vegetative cell
2. Larger vegetative cell and smaller body cell
3. Smaller vegetative cell and larger body cell
4. Smaller generative cell and larger vegetative cell

Answer. 4. Smaller generative cell and larger vegetative cell

Question 11. Minerals required for the germination of pollen grains on stigma are

1. Ca, B
2. Mn, Ca
3. N, S
4. Fe, Ca

Answer. 1. Ca, B

Question 12. Pollen tube is produced by

1. Exine
2. Mn, Ca
3. Both exine and intine
4. Fe, Ca

Answer. 2. Mn, Ca

Question 13. Number of male gametes in one pollen tube is

1. 1
2. 2
3. 4
4. 6

Answer. 2. 2

Question 14. The chemical complex which controls the chemotrophic movement of pollen tube in style is

1. K+, salts, amino acids
2. Organic acids, K+
3. Ca, B, inositol sugar complex
4. Phenols and lignins

Answer. 3. Ca, B, inositol sugar complex

Question 15. The_____serves as a landing platform for pollen grains.

1. Stigma
2. Style
3. Ovary
4. Pollen sac

Answer. 2. Style

Question 16. Chasmogamy is pollination in

1. Bud condition
2. Closed flowers
3. Open flowers
4. Unrelated flowers

Answer. 3. Open flowers

Question 17. Which of the following is/are ornithophilous?

1. Erythrina
2. Agave
3. Grevillea
4. All of these

Answer. 4. All of these

Question 18. Maturation of gynoecium before anthers of the same flower is called

1. Protogyny
2. Protandry
3. Heterogamy
4. Dichogamy

Answer. 1. Protogyny

Question 19. When pollen grains of a flower fall on the stigma of an- other flower of the same plant, this condition is called

1. Genetically self-pollination
2. Genetically self-pollination and ecologically cross- pollination
3. Ecologically cross-pollination
4. Genetically cross-pollination and ecologically self-pollination

Answer. 2. Genetically self-pollination and ecologically cross- pollination

Question 20. In geitonogamy, pollen grains are transferred to

1. Genetically different flower
2. Genetically similar flower
3. Stigma of another flower of a different plant
4. Stigma of the same flower

Answer. 2. Genetically similar flower

Question 21. Which is not a contrivance for self-pollination?

1. Homogamy
2. Bud pollination
3. Cleistogamy
4. Dichogamy

Answer. 4. Dichogamy

Question 22. Which is generally not a characteristic of anemophilous flower?

1. Unisexual nature
2. Abundant pollen grains
3. Bright color
4. Reduction in number of sepals, petals, and ovules

Answer. 3. Bright color

Question 23. A characteristic of entomophilous pollen grains is the presence of

1. Powdery nature
2. Sticky pollen kit material
3. Carotenoids
4. Ubisch bodies

Answer. 2. Sticky pollen kit material

Question 24. Dioecious condition and epihydrophily is found in

1. Vallisneria
2. Salvia
3. Zostera
4. Coconut

Answer. 1. Vallisneria

Question 25. Bats are pollinator of

1. Butea
2. Adansonia
3. Sunflower
4. Callistemon

Answer. 2. Adansonia

Question 26. Pollen tube in Portulaca was first observed by

1. P.Maheswari
2. R.Cameraius
3. G.B.Amici
4. Nawaschin

Answer. 3. G.B.Amici

Question 27. When some natural barriers exist between the stamens and pistil to check self-pollination, it is known as

1. Heterostyly
2. Dichogamy
3. Herkogamy
4. Dicliny

Answer. 3. Herkogamy

Question 28. When the pollen tube enters the embryo sac, which one of the following is always destroyed?

1. Antipodal
2. Egg
3. Synergid
4. Polar nucleus

Answer. 3. Synergid

Question 29. Germination of pollen grain on the stigma is called

1. Autogamy
2. In situ germination
3. In vivo germination
4. In vitro germination

Answer. 4. In vitro germination

Question 30. In pea, the pollen tube comes out of the pollen grains present on slide having 10% sugar solution in about

1. 5-10 min
2. 15-30 min
3. 5-7 days
4. 1 month

Answer. 2. 15-30 min

Question 31. Types of ovules in angiosperms are

1. 6
2. 5
3. 4
4. 3

Answer. 1. 6

Question 32. The tetrad of megaspores produced from the megaspore mother cell is

1. Isobilateral
2. Linear
3. Tetrahedral
4. Decussate

Answer. 2. Linear

Question 33. When the body of the ovule, the embryo sac, and the micropyle lie at right angles to the funiculus, the ovule is called

1. Amphitropous
2. Anatropous
3. Campylotropous
4. Hemianatropous

Answer. 4. Hemianatropous

Question 34. When the hilum, chalaza, and micropyle of ovule lie in the same long axis, it is known as

1. Amphitropous
2. Anatropous
3. Orthotropous
4. Campylotropous

Answer. 3. Orthotropous

Question 35. How many megaspore mother cells are required to produce 100 eggs during meiosis?

1. 1
2. 100
3. 50
4. 25

Answer. 2. 100

Question 36. Ategmic ovule is found in

1. Loranthus
2. Tagetes
3. Santalum
4. Both (1) and (3)

Answer. 4. Both (1) and (3)

Question 37. Polygonum type of embryo sac is

1. 7-celled, 8-nucleated structure
2. 8-celled, 8-nucleated structure
3. 6-celled, 8-nucleated structure
4. 6-celled, 6-nucleated structure

Answer. 1. 7-celled, 8-nucleated structure

Question 38. The fusion of second male gamete with secondary nucleus is called

1. Double fertilization
2. Triple fusion
3. Syngamy
4. Triple fertilization

Answer. 2. Triple fusion

Question 39. Egg apparatus is situated at the composed of______end and is______cells.

1. Micropylar, 2
2. Chalazal, 3
3. Micropylar, 3
4. Chalazal, 2

Answer. 3. Micropylar, 3

Question 40. The phenomenon of double fertilization was discovered by

1. Strasberger
2. P. Maheshwari
3. Amici
4. Nawaschin

Answer. 4. Nawaschin

Question 41. In female gametophyte, which cell is the mother cell of endosperm?

1. Synergid
2. Antipodal
3. Central cell
4. Egg

Answer. 3. Synergid

Question 42. Ploidy level of endosperm in angiosperm is generally

1. n
2. 2n
3. 3n
4. 6n

Answer. 3. 3n

Question 43. Most common type of endosperm is

1. Nuclear
2. Cellular
3. Helobial
4. Any of these

Answer. 1. Nuclear

Question 44. Coconut milk is a

1. Solid endosperm
2. Liquid endosperm
3. Helobial type of endosperm
4. Degenerated product of cellular endosperm

Answer. 2. Liquid endosperm

Question 45. Ruminate endosperm is commonly found in the seeds of

1. Euphorbiaceae
2. Cruciferae
3. Annonaceae (areca nut)
4. Compositae

Answer. 3. Annonaceae (areca nut)

Question 46. Perisperm is

1. Degenerate secondary nucleus
2. Remnant of nucellus
3. Peripheral part of endosperm
4. Degenerate synergids

Answer. 2. Remnant of nucellus

Question 47. Suspensor in a dicot embryogeny is

1. 6-10 celled
2. I-celled
3. 10-20 celled
4. Absent

Answer. 1. 6-10 celled

Question 48. Epiblast is

1. Reduced cotyledon in grass embryo
2. Embryo of grass
3. Covering of radical
4. Covering of plumule

Answer. 1. Covering of plumule

Question 49. Which is not true regarding gametophytic self-incompatibility?

1. It is controlled by multiple alleles.
2. It is due to genotype of pollen.
3. Germination of pollen grain is prevented.
4. Sporopollenin is involved.

Answer. 4. Sporopollenin is involved.

Question 50. The production of apomitic embryo from the cells of nucellus or integument is called

1. Parthenocarpy
2. Sporophytic budding
3. Adventive polyembryony
4. Both (2) and (3)

Answer. 2. Sporophytic building

Question 51. What will be the ploidy of endosperm and zygote if the cross is made between 6n plant and 4n plant?

1. 5n, 8n
2. 8n, 5n
3. 10n, 7n
4. 6n, 4n

Answer. 3. 10n, 7n

Question 52. Development of sporophyte without gametic fusion is known as

1. Apomixis
2. Apospory
3. Apogamy
4. Agamospermy

Answer. 4. Agamospermy

Question 53. Agamospermy is

1. Adventive embryony
2. Diplospory
3. Apospory
4. All of these

Answer. 3. Apospory

Question 54. The terms “sporoderm” and “spermoderm” are used to represent, respectively,

1. Spore wall and sperm wall
2. Anther wall and seed coat
3. Spore wall and seed coat
4. Integument of ovule and sperm wall

Answer. 4. Integument of ovule and sperm wall

Question 55. In some angiosperms and gymnosperms, multiple embryos are produced in which of the following way/ways?

1. By fertilization of synergids or antipodal cells by sperms.
2. By cleavage of single zygote.
3. One or more cells of the nucellus or integument develop into embryo.
4. All of these.

Answer. 3. One or more cells of the nucellus or integument develop into embryo.

Question 56. There exists a close association between the alga and the fungus within lichen. The fungus

1. Fixes atmospheric nitrogen for the alga
2. Provides protection, anchorage, and absorption for the alga
3. Provides food for the alga
4. Releases oxygen for the alga

Answer. 2. Provides protection, anchorage, and absorption for the alga

Question 57. Fungal flagellum originates from

1. Dictyosomes
2. Kinetosomes
3. Glyxisomes
4. Oxysomes

Answer. 2. Kinetosomes

Question 58. The famous Irish famine is related to a disease of potato known as

1. Late blight
2. Early blight
3. Dry rot of potato
4. None of the above

Answer. 1. Late blight

Question 59. ________ constitutes an edible fungus.

1. Agaricus
2. Morchella
3. Lycoperodon
4. Both (1) and (2)

Answer. 4. Both (1) and (2)

Question 60. Dolipore septum is only characteristic of

1. Phycomycetes
2. Zygomycetes
3. Ascomycetes
4. Basidiomycetes

Answer. 4. Basidiomycetes

Question 61. Vitamin B12 is released by [Maharashtra CET 2005]

1. Penicillium
2. Ustilago
3. Puccinia
4. Smut

Answer. 1. Penicillium

Question 62. Litmus is obtained from

1. Lecanora
2. Cetreria
3. Cladonia
4. None of the above

Answer. 1. Lecanora

Question 63. Zygospore formation occurs in

1. Mucor
2. Plasmodium
3. Lentinus
4. Peciza

Answer. 1. Mucor

Question 64. Fungi causing white rust belong to which order?

1. Ustilaginales
2. Chytridiates
3. Uredineles
4. Perenosporales

Answer. 2. Chytridiates

Question 65. Zygospore is formed from

1. Gametangial copulation
2. Gametic union
3. Zygote
4. Oogamy

Answer. 3. Zygote

Question 66. Fungi differ from algae in having

1. Chitinous cell wall and chlorophyll absent
2. Chitinous cell wall and chlorophyll present
3. Cellulosic cell wall and chlorophyll absent
4. Cellulosic cell wall and chlorophyll present

Answer. 1. Chitinous cell wall and chlorophyll absent

Question 67. In the following question, an Assertion (A) is followed by a corresponding Reason (R). Consider them and answer accordingly.

Assertion: Fungi are widespread in distribution and they even live on or inside other plants and animals.

Reason: Fungi are able to grow anywhere on land, water, or on other organisms because they have a variety of pig- ments, including chlorophyll, carotenoids, fucoxanthin, and phycoerythrin.

1. If A is correct and R is its explanation.
2. If A is correct and R is not its explanation.
3. If A is correct but R is wrong.
4. If both A and R are wrong.

Answer. 3. If A is correct but R is wrong.

Question 68. Which of the following fungus can cause diseases in humans?

1. Saccharomyces cerevisiae
2. Rhizopus stolonifer
3. Ashbya gossypii
4. Propionibacterium

Answer. 1. Saccharomyces cerevisiae

Question 69. Red rot of sugarcane and white rust of radish are, respectively, caused by

1. Albugo candida and Cercospora
2. Colletotrichum and Fusarium
3. Pythium and Phytophthora
4. Albugo candida and Puccinia graminis
5. Colletotrichum and Albugo candida

Answer. 5. Colletotrichum and Albugo candida

Question 70. Terrestrial fungus is

1. Utricularia
2. Sargassum
3. Agaricus
4. Albugo

Answer. 3. Agaricus

Question 71. The fungus in which sexual reproduction is absent or is under abnormal conditions is

1. Phycomycetes
2. Ascomycetes
3. Basidiomycetes
4. Deuteromycetes

Answer. 4. Deuteromycetes

Question 72. The edible part of mushroom is

1. Basidiocarp
2. Primary mycelium
3. Secondary mycelium
4. Tertiary mycelium

Answer. 1. Basidiocarp

Question 73. VAM stands for

1. Vesicular Arbuscular Mycorrhizae
2. Vesicle Arbuscular Mycorrhizae
3. Veremicular Arbuscular Mycorrhizae
4. Vacuolar Arbuscular Mycorrhizae

Answer. 1. Vesicular Arbuscular Mycorrhizae

Question 74. Ascomycetes are

1. Club fungi
2. Algal fungi
3. Pin molds
4. sac fungi

Answer. 4. sac fungi

Question 75. Genus Aspergillus and Claviceps belong to

1. Phycomycetes
2. Asomycetes
3. Basidiomycetes
4. Deuteromycetes

Answer. 2. Asomycetes

Question 76. Among rust, smut, and mushroom, all three

1. Are pathogens
2. Are saprobes
3. Bear ascocarbs
4. Bear basidiocarps

Answer. 4. Bear basidiocarps

Question 77. In the following table, identify the correct matching of the crop, its disease, and the corresponding pathogen:

Crop-Disease                            Pathogen
1. Citrus-Canker                        A. Pseudomonas rubrilineans
2. Potato-Late blight                 B. Fusarium udum
3. Root-Root-knot                    C. Meloidogyne injection
4. Pigeonpea-See gall              D. Phytophthora infestans

A      B      C     D
(1)      1      2      3      4
(2)      1      4      3      2
(3)      4      3      2      1
(4)      3      4      1      2

Answer. 2.  1    4   3    2

Question 78. The cell walls of fungi consist of

1. Cellulose
2. Hemicellulose
3. Chitin
4. Both (1) and (3)

Answer. 4. Both (1) and (3)

Question 79. Aspergillus niger is used for the manufacture of

1. Citric acid and gluconic acid
2. HCl and HNO₃
3. Fumaric and malic acids
4. Succinic and fumaric acids

Answer. 1. Succinic and fumaric acids

Question 80. Beedle and Tatum gave “one gene and one enzyme” hypothesis while working on

1. Salmonelly typhimurium
2. Neurospora crassa
3. Escherichia coli
4. Diplococcus pneumoniae

Answer. 2. Neurospora crassa

Question 81. An organism with eukaryotic multicellular nature obtains its nutrition through its cell wall. It should be placed under

1. Mycota
2. Plantae
3. Animalia
4. Monera

Answer. 1. Mycota

Question 82. Which of the following pair belongs to basidiomycetes?

1. Puffballs and Claviceps
2. Morchella and mushrooms
3. Peziza and stink horns
4. Bird’s nest fungi and puffballs

Answer. 4. Bird’s nest fungi and puffballs

Question 83. Toxins released by plants to save themselves from fungal attack are

1. Phytotoxins
2. Phytoalexins
3. Calmodulins
4. Aquaporins

Answer. 2. Phytoalexins

Question 84. LSD is extracted from

1. Claviceps
2. Cannabis
3. Agaricus
4. Amanita

Answer. 1. Claviceps

Question 85. The pathogen for leaf spot disease in Arachis hypogea is

1. Fusarium
2. Cercosporia
3. Alternaria
4. Hemianatropous

Answer. 2. Cercosporia

Question 86. Tundu disease of wheat is due to infection caused by

1. Nematode and fungi
2. Fungi and bacteria
3. Nematode and bacteria
4. Algae and fungi

Answer. 3. Nematode and bacteria

Question 87. “Ergot of rye” is caused by

1. Claviceps purpurea
2. Sclerospora graminicola
3. Cannabis sativa
4. Algae and fungi

Answer. 1. Claviceps purpurea

Question 88. Which of these is foliose lichen?

1. Cladonia
2. Graphis
3. Parmeia
4. Lecanora

Answer. 3. parmeia

Question 89. Saccharomyces is commercially used in industry.

1. Baking
2. Wine
3. Butter
4. Both (1) and (2)

Answer. 4. Both (1) and (2)

Question 90. Black rust of wheat is a fungal disease caused by

1. Puccinia tritici
2. Claviceps purpurea
3. Melampsora lini
4. Sclerospora graminicola

Answer. 1. Puccinia tritici

Question 91. Taxonomy of fungi is based on

1. Sexual reproduction
2. Nutrition
3. Shape of sporocarp
4. Cell wall

Answer. 1. Sexual reproduction

Question 92. Cellulose is a major component of cell walls of

1. Pythium
2. Xanthomonas
3. Pseudomonas
4. Saccharomyces

Answer. 1. Pythium

Question 93. Trichoderma harzianum has proved a useful microorganism for

1. Bioremediation of contaminated soils
2. Reclamation of wastelands
3. Gene transfer in higher plants
4. Biological control of soil-borne plant pathogens

Answer. 4. Biological control of soil-borne plant pathogens

Question 94. The athlete’s foot disease in humans is caused due to

1. Bacteria
2. Fungi
3. Virus
4. None of the above

Answer. 2. Fungi

Question 95. Which one is the wrong pairing for the disease and its causal organism?

1. Loose smut of wheat-Ustilago nuda
2. Root knot of vegetables-Meloidogyne sp.
3. Late blight of potato-Alternaria solani
4. Black rust of wheat-Puccinia graminis

Answer. 3. Late blight of potato-Alternaria solani

Question 96. Which one of the following has haplontic life cycle?

1. Ustilago
2. Wheat
3. Funaria
4. Polytrichum

Answer. 1. Ustilago

Question 97. Sexual reproduction in fungi may occur by means of

1. Sporangiospore, oospore, and ascospore
2. Zoospore, oospore, and ascospore
3. Sporangiospore, ascospore, and basidiospore
4. Oospore, ascospore, and basidiospore

Answer. 4. Oospore, ascospore, and basidiospore

Question 98. Lichens growing on tree bark are called

1. Lignicolous
2. Terricolous
3. Corticolous
4. Saxicolous

Answer. 3. Corticolous

Question 99. Common mycobionts and phycobionts of lichen body are, respectively,

1. Ascomycetes, Chlorophyceae
2. Ascomycetes, Cyanophyceae
3. Basidiomycetes, Chlorophyceae
4. Basidiomycetes, Cyanophyceae

Answer. 1. Ascomycetes, Chlorophyceae

Question 100. Foliose lichens are attached to the substratum at one or few places with the help of

1. Branched, multicellular rhizoids
2. Holdfast
3. Rhizines
4. Rhizomorph

Answer. 3. Rhizines

Question 101. Specialized structure in the thallus of lichen for nitrogen fixation and retaining moisture is

1. Cyphellae
2. Isidia
3. Cephalodia
4. Soredia

Answer. 3. Cephalodia

Question 102. Select the correct statement with respect to mycorrhizal roots:

1. These do not differ in shape from normal roots.
2. These often show a wooly covering.
3. These possess root cap but lack root hairs.
4. Fungal partner is commonly a member of ascomycetes.

Answer. 2. These often show a wooly covering.

Question 103. Which of the following feature is not related with virus?

1. Infectivity and host specificity.
2. Presence of genetic material.
3. Occurrence of certain enzymes.
4. Presence of respiration.

Answer. 4. Presence of respiration.

Question 104. Most of the viruses are/have

1. Enveloped nucleo-protein structure
2. Non-enveloped nucleo-protein structure
3. Infectious protein particles
4. Double-stranded DNA as well as dsRNA

Answer. 2. Non-enveloped nucleo-protein structure

Question 105. Infectious RNA particles without protein coat

1. Have high molecular weight
2. Were discovered by Alper
3. Are known to cause disease in plants only
4. More than one option is correct

Answer. 3. Are known to cause disease in plants only

Question 106. Yeast is used in the production of

1. Lipase and pectinase
2. Bread and beer
3. Cheese and butter
4. Citric acid and lactic acid

Answer. 2. Bread and beer

Question 107. Which one of the following microbes forms symbiotic association with plants and helps them in their nutrition?

1. Aspergillus
2. Glomus
3. Trichoderma
4. Azotobacter

Answer. 2. Glomus

Question 108. Which statement is wrong for viruses?

1. All of them have helical symmetry.
2. They have the ability to synthesize nucleic acids and proteins.
3. Antibiotics have no effect on them.
4. All are parasites.

Answer. 1. All of them have helical symmetry.

Question 109. Bacteria can be considered to be a plant because

1. Some bacteria are photosynthetic
2. Some bacteria have chlorophyll
3. Some bacteria can make their own food
4. Bacteria have cell wall

Answer. 4. Bacteria have cell wall

Question 110. The major component of bacterial cell wall is a polymer called

1. Chitin
2. Xytan
3. Cellulose
4. Peptidoglycan

Answer. 4. Peptidoglycan

Question 111. Oxytetracycline is produced by

1. Mycoplasma
2. Actinomycetes
3. Cyanobacteria
4. Eubacteria

Answer. 2. Actinomycetes

Question 112. Cyanobacteria existed

1. 2.9 billion
2. 3.4 billion
3. 1 million
4. Peptidoglycan

Answer. 2. 3.4 billion

Question 113. Which of the following is nonsymbiotic, anaerobic, non- photosynthetic nitrogen-fixing bacteria?

1. Clostridium
2. Nostoc
3. Anabaena
4. Azotobacter

Answer. 1. Clostridium

Question 114. Bacterial cell includes all except

1. Nuclear material without membrane
2. Cell wall of murein
3. DNA compound with histones
4. Ribosomes

Answer. 3. DNA compound with histones

Question 115. Pigments phycocyanin and phycoerythrin are present in

1. Bacillariophyceae
2. Archeabacteria
3. Eubacteria
4. Cyanobacteria

Answer. 4. Cyanobacteria

Question 116. Barophilic prokaryotes

1. Grow slowly in highly alkaline frozen lakes at high altitudes
2. Occur in water containing high concentration of barium hydroxide
3. Grow and multiply in very deep marine sediments
4. Readily grow and divide in sea water enriched in any soluble salt of barium

Answer. 3. Grow and multiply in very deep marine sediments

Question 117. Teichoic acid is present in

1. Gram +ve bacteria
2. Gram-ve bacteria
3. Spirochaete
4. Actinomycetes

Answer. 2. Gram-ve bacteria

Question 118. For retting of jute, the fermenting microbe used is

1. Helicobacter pylori
2. Mesophilic bacteria
3. Streptococcus lactis
4. Butyric acid bacteria

Answer. 4. Butyric acid bacteria

Question 119. Free-living aerobic nitrogen-fixing bacterium is

1. Azotobacter
2. Rhizobium
3. Clostridium
4. Anabaena

Answer. 1. Azotobacter

Question 120. Cyanobacteria is

1. Nitrogen-fixing free-living photosynthetic organism
2. Symbiotic mycorrhizae
3. Photosynthetic algae
4. Saprophytic fungus

Answer. 1. Nitrogen-fixing free-living photosynthetic organism

Question 121. Genetic elements which may be present inside as well as in extrachromosomal entities are

1. Episomes
2. Mesosomes
3. Oxysomes
4. Autosomes

Answer. 1. Episomes

Question 122. The bacterial cell wall is made up of

1. Cellulose
2. Hemicellulose
3. Both (1) and (2)
4. Peptidoglycan
5. Glycogen

Answer. 4. Peptidoglycan

Question 123. The most widely used bioweapon is

1. Bacillus subtilis
2. Pseudomonas putida
3. Bacillus anthracis
4. None of the above

Answer. 3. Bacillus anthracis

Question 124. A bacterial cell divides once every minute and it takes 1 h to fill a cup. How much time will it take to fill half the cup?

1. 30 min
2. 60 min
3. 29 min
4. 59 min

Answer. 4. 59 min

Question 125. Bacteria is pathogenic due to

1. Mitochondria
2. Cell membrane
3. Cell wall
4. Nuclic acid

Answer. 4. Nuclic acid

Question 126. Which of the following is non-pathogenic bacteria of colon?

1. Escherichia coli
2. Balantidium coli
3. Entamoeba coli
4. Enterobius vermicularis

Answer. 2. Balantidium coli

Question 127. Treponema pallidum is

1. Causative agent of syphilis
2. The example of spirochaete bacterium
3. The causative agent of sexually transmitted disease
4. All are correct

Answer. 4. All are correct

Question 128. Which of the following is correct?

1. Bacteria are only autotrophic.
2. Bacteria are only heterotrophic.
3. Most are heterotrophic but a few are autotrophic.
4. Most bacteria are autotrophic but a few are heterotrophic.

Answer. 3. Most are heterotrophic but a few are autotrophic.

Question 129. The Widal test is performed as diagnostic value in

1. Tuberculosis
2. Typhoid
3. Cholera
4. Tetanus

Answer. 2. Typhoid

Question 130. The two bacteria found to be very useful in genetic engineering experiments are

1. Nitrosomonas and Klebsiella
2. Escherichia and Agrobacterium
3. Nitrobacter and Azotobacter
4. Rhizobium and Diplococcus

Answer. 2. Escherichia and Agrobacterium

Question 131. Pili of bacteria are useful for

1. Locomotion
2. Sexual contacts
3. Asexual reproduction
4. Transformation
5. Feeding

Answer. 2. Sexual contacts

Question 132. The bacterium (Clostridium botulinum) that causes botulism is

1. An obligate acrobe
2. A facultative anaerobe
3. An obligate anaerobe
4. A facultative acrobe

Answer. 3. An obligate anerobe

Question 133. In prokaryotes, what helps in anaerobic respiration?

1. Mitochondria
2. Folds of plasma membrane
3. Ribosomes
4. Cell wall

Answer. 2. Folds of plasma membrane

Question 134. Blue green algae as Nostoc and Anabaena can photosynthesize due to the presence of 

1. Heterocysts
2. Akinetes
3. Chromatophores
4. Leghemoglobin

Answer. 3. Chromatophores

Question 135. The exceptional feature of blue green algae which is the basis of their study is

1. Aplanospores
2. Sclerodia
3. Heterocysts
4. Haplospores

Answer. 3. Heterocysts

Question 136. Crown galls are caused in plants due to the infection of

1. Insects
2. Virus
3. Bacteria
4. Fungi

Answer. 3. Bacteria

Question 137. Curing of tea leaves is brought about by the activity of

1. Fungi
2. Bacteria
3. Micorrhizae
4. Viruses

Answer. 2. Bacteria

Question 138. In prokaryotes, chromatophores are

1. Specialized granules responsible for coloration of cells
2. Structures responsible for organizing the shape of the organism
3. Inclusion bodies lying free inside the cells for carry- ing out various metabolic activities
4. Internal membrane systems that may become exten- sive and complex in photosynthesis bacteria

Answer. 4. Internal membrane systems that may become exten- sive and complex in photosynthesis bacteria

Question 139. Which one of the following pathogens causes canker discase?

1. Meloidogyne ineognita
2. Anguina tritici
3. Xanthomonas citri
4. Pseudomonas rubilineans
5. Phytophthora infestans

Answer. 3. Xanthomonas citri

Question 140. Find out the pairs which are correctly matched:

(a) Cyanobacteria           (1) Biopesticides

(b) Mycorrhiza                (2) Solubilization of phosphate

(c) Bacillus                       (3) Cry protein thuringiensis

(d) Single-cell protein     (4) Rhizobia

1. (a) and (2)
2. (b) and (3)
3. (c) and (3)
4. (a) and (3)
5. (b) and (4)

Answer. 2. (b) and (3)

Question 141. Which one of the following statements about mycoplasma is wrong?

1. They are pleomorphic.
2. They are sensitive to penicillin.
3. They cause diseases in plants.
4. They are called PPLO (pleuropneumonia-like organisms).

Answer. 2. They are sensitive of penicillin.

Question 142. The presence of a cluster of polar flagella is termed as

1. Monotrichous
2. Amphitrichous
3. Lophotrichous
4. Peritrichous

Answer. 3. Lophotrichous

Question 143. Some bacteria can live also in the absence of oxygen. These are

1. Obligate aerobes
2. Facultative aerobes
3. Obligate anaerobes
4. Facultative anaerobes

Answer. 2. Facultative aerobes

Question 144. What are the infoldings of plasma membrane called in prokaryotes which store respiratory pigments?

1. Glyoxysomes
2. Oxysomes
3. Mesosomes
4. Cristae

Answer. 3. Mesosomes

Question 145. Plasmid is

1. Small extrachromosomal circular self-replicating DNA that can carry genes into the host organism
2. Bacteriophage
3. DNA found in mitochondria
4. DNA incorporated in bacteria

Answer. 1. Small extrachromosomal circular self-replicating DNA that can carry genes into the host organism

Question 146. Difference between Gram -ve and Gram +ve bacteria is in their

1. Cell membrane
2. Cell wall
3. Ribosome
4. Mitochondria

Answer. 2. Hemicellulose

Question 147. The cell wall of bacterium is made up of

1. Cellulose
2. Hemicellulose
3. Lignin
4. Peptidoglycan
5. Glycogen

Answer. 4. Peptidoglycan

Question 148. Which of the following monerans lack cell wall?

1. Actinomycetes
2. Photosynthetic bacteria
3. Eubacteria
4. None of the above

Answer. 4. None of the above

Question 149. Bacteria can live under sub-zero temperature for

1. More than 1000 years
2. 100-1000 years
3. Few years
4. Few days

Answer. 1. More than 1000 years

Question 150. Set of bacterial diseases is

1. Diphtheria, leprosy, and plague
2. Malaria, mumps, and polio
3. Cholera, typhoid, and mumps
4. Tetanus, TB, and malaria

Answer. 1. Diphtheria, leprosy, and plague

Question 151. In prokaryotes, genetic recombination can occur during

1. Transduction
2. Transformation
3. Conjugation
4. All of these

Answer. 1. Transduction

Question 152. Thermococcus, Methanococcus, and Methanobacterium exemplify

1. Archaebacteria that contain protein homologous to eukaryotic core histones
2. Archaebacteria that lack any histones resembling those found in eukaryotes but whose DNA is negatively supercoiled
3. Bacteria whose DNA is relaxed or positively su- percoiled but which have a cytoskeleton as well as mitochondria
4. Bacteria that contain a cytoskeleton and ribosomes

Answer. 1. Archaebacteria that contain protein homologous to eukaryotic core histones

Question 153. Which one of the following is not a characteristic of Gram-positive bacteria?

1. Cell wall is smooth.
2. Mesosomes are distinctively prominent.
3. Basal body of flagellum contains two rings.
4. Outer membrane is present.
5. Murein content of cell wall is 70-80%.

Answer. 1. Cell wall is smooth.

Question 154. Pathogenicity of bacteria causing tuberculosis and leprosy is due to

1. Cholesterol
2. Ergosterol
3. Prostaglandins
4. Glycerol
5. Wax-D

Answer. 5. Wax-D

Question 155. Bacterial leaf blight of rice is caused by a species of

1. Xanthomonas
2. Pseudomonas
3. Alternaria
4. Erwinia

Answer. 4. Erwina

Question 156. Streptomyces griseus gives which of these antibiotics?

1. Chloramphenicol
2. Sterptomycin
3. Tetracycline
4. Penicillin

Answer. 1. Chloramphenicol

Question 157. Indirect transfer of genetic material from one bacterium to another through bacteriophase is

1. Transduction
2. Transcription
3. Conjugation
4. Translation
5. Transformation

Answer. 2. Transcription

Question 158. Bacterial brown rot of potato is caused by

1. Xanthomonas citri
2. Escherichia coli
3. Agrobacterium tumefaciens
4. Pseudomonas solanacearum
5. Salmonella typhosa

Answer. 1. Xanthomonas citri

Question 159. Which of the following is a bacterial disease?

1. Red rust of tea
2. Citrus canker
3. Red rot of sugarcane
4. Late blight of potato

Answer. 4. Late blight of potato

Question 160. Shorter generation time of E. coli compared to eukaryotes may be explained on the basis of

1. Shape
2. Large surface: volume ratio
3. Presence of cell wall
4. Absence of organelles

Answer. 2. Large surface: volume ratio

Question 161. Division in a bacteria cell is carried out through

1. Multiple fission
2. Binary fission
3. Budding
4. Plasmotomy

Answer. 2. Binary fission

Question 162. Antibiotic resistance genes are present on

1. Plastid
2. DNA
3. Plasmid
4. RNA

Answer. 2. DNA

Question 163. Cyanobacteria is the member of

1. Fungi
2. Protozoa
3. Monera
4. Pteridophytes

Answer. 3. Monera

Question 164. The Gram-negative bacteria detect and respond to the chemicals in their surroundings by

1. Muramic acid
2. Lipopolysaccharide
3. Volutin granules
4. Porins

Answer. 3. Volutin granules

Question 165. Which of the following is not a bacterium?

1. Methanogens
2. Diatoms
3. Archaebacteria
4. Blue green algae

Answer. 2. Diatoms

Question 166. A bacterium is capable of withstanding extreme heat, dryness, and toxic chemicals. This indicates that it is probably able to form

1. A thick peptidoglycan wall
2. Endospores
3. Endotoxins
4. Endogenous buds

Answer. 2. Endospores

Question 167. The vector for plague is

1. Anopheles
2. Aedes
3. Xenopsylla
4. Culex

Answer. 2.

Question 168. Lung tuberculosis is caused by

1. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
2. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
3. Streptococcus pneumoniae
4. Escherichia coli

Answer. 3. Streptococcus pneumoniae

Question 169. An example of symbiotic bacteria is

1. Erwinia amylovora
2. Rhizobium leguminosarum
3. Xanthomonas campestris
4. Agrobacterium tumefaciens

Answer. 2.

Question 170. Nonpathogenic bacteria found in our vermiform appendix is

1. Entamoeba histolytica
2. Shigella
3. Escherichia coli
4. Ascaris

Answer. 2. Shigella

Question 171. Which one of the following organisms possesses characteristics of both plant and animal?

1. Euglena
2. Bacteria
3. Mycoplasma
4. Paramecium

Answer. 3. Mycoplasma

Question 172. The scientist who coined the term “protista” to include both plant- and animal-like unicellular organisms was

1. Robert Koch
2. (2) E.F. Haeckel
3. L. Pasteur
4. Joseph Lister

Answer. 1. Robert Koch

Question 173. Protista includes

1. Protozoa, algae, and fungi
2. Algae, bryophyta, bacteria, and fungi
3. Fungi, slime molds, and vascular plants
4. Protozoa, bacteria, algae, and bryophyta

Answer. 2. Algae, bryophyta, bacteria, and fungi

Question 174. Slime molds belong to kingdom

1. Monera
2. Protista
3. Plantae
4. Animalia

Answer. 1. Monera

Question 175. Which protist reproduces both by binary fission and conjugation?

1. Amoeba
2. Paramecium
3. Euglena
4. Monocystis

Answer. 2. Paramecium

Question 176. Total parasites belongs to protozoan group

1. Sporozoa
2. Ciliata
3. Sarcodina
4. Zooflagellata

Answer. 2. Ciliata

Question 177. Protozoan protists respire through

1. Pseudopodia
2. Contractile vacuole
3. Mitochondria
4. General surface

Answer. 1. Pseudopodia

Question 178. Which one is not a protozoan protist?

1. Plasmodium vivax
2. Paramecium caudatum
3. Enterobius vermiclaris
4. Trypanosoma gambiense

Answer. 2. Paramecium caudatum

Question 179. Protozoan protists are differentiated on the basis of

1. Nuclei
2. Size
3. Shape
4. Locomotory structures

Answer. 3. Shape

Question 180. Endoparasitic protistan protozoans belong to

1. Sporozoa
2. Ciliata
3. Sarcodina
4. Mastigophora

Answer. 4. Mastigophora

Question 181. Protozoan found commonly in human colon is

1. Entamoeba coli
2. Plasmodium. vivax
3. Aedes. aegypti
4. All of these

Answer. 1. Entamoeba coli

Question 182. Primary grouping of protozoan protists is based on

1. Locomotor organelles
2. Size and shape
3. Mode of feeding
4. Mode of reproduction

Answer. 1. Locomotor organelles

Question 183. Protozoans are able to live efficiently due to their

1. Motility
2. Rapid reproduction
3. Ability to manufacture food
4. Specialized organelles

Answer. 1. Motility

Question 184. Protista contains

1. Euglena, dinoflagellates, and yeast
2. Amoeba, Paramecium, and Hydra
3. Euglena, Paramecium, and mushroom
4. Amoeba, Paramecium, and dinoflagellates

Answer. 4. Amoeba, Paramecium, and dinoflagellates

Question 185. Cyanobacteria are also referred to as

1. Golden algae
2. Slime molds
3. Blue green algae
4. Protists

Answer. 3. Blue green algae

Question 186. Which one of the following does not differ in E.coli and Chlamydomonas?

1. Chromosomal organization
2. Cell wall
3. Cell membrane
4. Ribosomes

Answer. 3. Cell membrane

Question 187. Nuclear membrane is absent in

1. Agaricus
2. Volvox
3. Nostoc
4. Penicillium

Answer. 3. Nostoc

Question 188. Maximum nutritional diversity is found in the group

1. Antimalia
2. Monera
3. Plantae
4. Fungi

Answer. 2. Monera

Question 189. The most abundant prokaryotes helpful to humans in making curd from milk and in the production of antibiotics are the ones categorized as

1. Archaebacteria
2. Chemosynthetic autotrophs
3. Heterotrophic bacteria
4. Cyanobacteria

Answer. 3. Heterotrophic bacteria

NEET Biology Multiple Choice Questions – Reproduction In Organisms

Question 1. Which of the following is not an artificial method of vegetative reproduction?

1. Cutting
2. Grafting
3. Layering
4. Bulbils

Answer. 4. Bulbils

Question 2. The plant propagated through roots is

1. Sweet potato
2. Asparagus
3. Dahlia
4. All of these

Answer. 4. All of these

Question 3. In grafting, scion belongs to

1. Plant having superior or desirable characters
2. Plant having well-developed root system
3. Plant resistant to diseases
4. Both (2) and (3)

Answer. 2. Plant having well-developed root system

Question 4. Gootee (air layering) is common in

1. Bryophyllum
2. Lemon
3. Eichhornia
4. Tapioca

Answer. 2. Lemon

Question 5. Stem cuttings are commonly used in the propagation of

1. Mango
2. Cotton
3. Rose
4. Banana

Answer. 3. Rose

Question 6. Ginger is multiplied vegetatively by means of

1. Bud
2. Tuber
3. Corm
4. Rhizome

Answer. 4. Rhizome

Question 7. The piece of plant part used in tissue culture is called

1. Explant
2. Inoculant
3. Somaclone
4. Clone

Answer. 1. Explant

Question 8. Secondary nucleus present in the middle of embryo sac is

1. Tetraploid
2. Triploid
3. Diploid
4. ??

Answer. 3. Diploid

Question 9. In angiosperms, syngamy is required for

1. Endosperm
2. Embryo
3. Fruit wall
4. Suspensor

Answer. 2. Embryo

Question 10. A piece of potato tuber will form a new plant if it possesses

1. Roots
2. Eyes
3. Stored food
4. Branches

Answer. 2. Eyes

Question 11. Layering is used in the vegetative propagation of

1. Jasmine
2. Rose
3. Mango
4. All the above

Answer. 1. Jasmine

Question 12. Which is not involved in embryogenesis?

1. Cell multiplication
2. Cell differentiation
3. Equational division
4. Reduction division

Answer. 4. Reduction division

Question 13. A method in which roots are induced on the stem branch, while it is still attached to the parent plant, is called

1. Cutting
2. Grafting
3. Layering
4. Vivipary

Answer. 4. Vivipary

Question 14. If a plant fails to develop viable seeds, it could best be grown by

1. Cutting
2. Grafting
3. Layering
4. Micropropagation

Answer. 4. Micropropagation

Question 15. The study of formation, growth, and development of a new individual from an egg is known as

1. Cytology
2. Embryology
3. Histology
4. Genetics

Answer. 2. Embryology

Question 16. A leaf cell of a flowering plant has 22 chromosomes. Then the number of chromosomes would be

1. 11 in gametes
2. 22 in gametes
3. 44 in embryo
4. 11 in a cell of stem

Answer. 1. 11 in gametes

Question 17. The tegmen of a seed develops from

1. Perisperm
2. Funicle
3. Inner integument
4. Outer integument

Answer. 3. Inner integument

Question 18. In angiosperm, the female gametophyte is the

1. Egg apparatus
2. Embryo
3. Synergids
4. Embryo sac

Answer. 4. Embryo sac

Question 19. The nucle of the sperm and the egg fuse as a result of

1. Base pair relation of DNA and RNA
2. Formation of hydrogen bonds
3. Mutual attraction caused by differences in electrical charges
4. Attraction of protoplasts of the egg and the sperm

Answer. 4. Attraction of protoplasts of the egg and the sperm

Question 20. Parthenogenesis is defined as the development of organism directly from

1. Egg without fertilization
2. Synergids without fertilization
3. Fruits without fertilization
4. Fruit without pollination

Answer. 3. Fruits without fertilization

Question 21. How many meiotic divisions are necessary for the formation of 100 grains of wheat?

1. 100
2. 125
3. 25
4. 50

Answer. 1. 100

Question 22. The most significant property of vegetative propagation is that

1. It enables the rapid production of genetic variation.
2. It is a means of production of genetic individuals genetically identical to the parent.
3. It ensures that the progeny are safe from the attack of diseases and pests.
4. It is an ancient practice.

Answer. 4. It is an ancient practice.

Question 23. The zygospore of Chlamydomonas gives rise to

1. Zoospore
2. Aplanospore
3. Hypnospore
4. Parthenospore

Answer. 1. Zoospore

Question 24. The antherozoids of Chara are

1. Non-motile
2. Uniflagellate
3. Biflagellate
4. Multiflagellate

Answer. 1. Non-motile

Question 25. Find the odd one with respect to sexuality.

1. Papaya
2. Date palm
3. Tree of heaven
4. Sago palm

Answer. 1. Papaya

Question 26. In Marchantia, the meiosis is

1. Zygotic
2. Gametic
3. Both (1) and (2)
4. Sporic

Answer. 2. Gametic

Question 27. The star-shaped bodies meant for the vegetative reproduction of Chara are rich in

1. Starch
2. Lipids
3. Proteins
4. Mannitol

Answer. 1. Starch

Question 28. The nucule of Chara is capped by

1. Nodal cells
2. Internodal cells
3. Tube cells
4. Coronary cells

Answer. 4. Coronary cells

Question 29. External fertilization is not observed in

1. Yeast
2. Spirogyra
3. Chlamydomonas
4. Ulothrix

Answer. 2. Spirogyra

Question 30. The conidia of Penicillium are

1. Thick walled, uninucleate
2. Thin walled, uni- or multinucleate
3. Thick walled, multinucleate
4. Thin or thick walled, multinucleate

Answer. 4. Thin or thick walled, multinucleate

Question 31. The sequence of structures in a penicillus of Penicillium digitatum shall be

1. Conidiophore → Rami → Phialides → Metulae → Conidia
2. Conidiophore → Rami → Metulae → Phialides → Conidia
3. Ramus → Conidiophore → Metulae → Phialides → Conidia
4. Metulae → Rami → Conidiophore → Phialides → Conidia

Answer. 2. Conidiophore → Rami → Metulae → Phialides → Conidia

Question 32. The type of gamete found in FLICLIS is

1. Isogamete
2. Coenogamete
3. Heterogamete
4. Multicellular gamete

Answer. 3. Heterogamete

Question 33. In bryophytes, the diploid number of chromosomes occurs in

1. Gametes
2. Spores
3. Nuclei of gametophyte
4. Spore mother cells

Answer. 4. Spore mother cells

Question 34. Gametophytic generation is dominant in

1. Pteridophytes
2. Gymnosperms
3. Angiosperms
4. Bryophytes

Answer. 4. Bryophytes

Question 35. Riccia fluitans multiplies vegetatively by

1. Rhizoids
2. Tubers
3. Adventitious branches
4. Gemmae

Answer. 3. Adventitious branches

Question 36. The number of thallus formed by a gemma of Marchantia upon successful germination is

1. One only
2. Two only
3. Four only
4. Several

Answer. 2. Two only

Question 37. During regeneration, modification of an organ to other organ is known as:

1. Morphogenesis
2. Epimorphosis
3. Morphallaxis
4. Accretionary growth

Answer. 2. Epimorphosis

Question 38. What is true for cleavage?

1. Size of embryo increase
2. Size of cells decrease
3. Size of cells increase
4. Size of embryo decrease

Answer. 2. Size of cells decrease

Question 39. Vegetative propagation in mint occurs by:

1. Sucker
2. Runner
3. Offset
4. Rhizome

Answer. 1. Sucker

Question 40. The “Eyes” of the potato tuber are:

1. axillary buds
2. root buds
3. flower buds
4. shoot buds

Answer. 1. axillary buds

Question 41. Which one of the following is correctly matched?

1. Chlamydomonas – Conidia
2. Yeast – Zoospores
3. Onion – Bulb
4. Ginger – Sucker

Answer. 3. Onion – Bulb

Question 42. Meiosis takes place in:

1. Meiocyte
2. Conidia
3. Gemmule
4. Megaspore

Answer. 1. Meiocyte

Question 43. Monoecious plant of Chara shows occurrence of:

1. Antheridiophore and archegoniophore on the same plant
2. Stamen and carpel on the same plant
3. Upper antheridium and lower oogonium on the same plant
4. Upper oogonium and lower antheridium on the same plant

Answer. 4. Upper oogonium and lower antheridium on the same plant

Question 44. Select the wrong statement:

1. Isogametes are similar in structure, function and behavior
2. Anisogametes differ either in structure, function of behaviour
3. In oomycetes female gamete is smaller and motile, while male gamete is larger and non-motile
4. Chlamydomonas exhibits both isogamy and anisogamy and Fucus shows oogamy

Answer. In oomycetes female gamete is smaller and motile, while male gamete is larger and non-motile