NEET Biology

NEET Biology For Sexual Reproduction In Flowering Plants Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. A stamen is regarded as a

1. Microsporophyll
2. Megasporophyll
3. Microsporangium
4. Megasporangium

Answer. 1. Microsporophyll

Question 2. A typical anther is generally

1. Bisporangiate
2. Tetrasporangiate
3. Monosporangiate
4. Multisporangiate

Answer. 2. Tetrasporangiate

Question 3. Development of anther in angiosperms is

1. Leptosporangiate
2. Eusporangiate
3. Gradate
4. Simple

Answer. 2. Eusporangiate

Question 4. The tapetal cells of anther show

1. Haploidy
2. Diploidy
3. Triploidy
4. Polyploidy

Answer. 4. Polyploidy

Question 5. Pro-Ubisch bodies are secreted by

1. Endothecium
2. Middle layers
3. Tapetum
4. Ubisch bodies

Answer. 3. Tapetum

Question 6. Fibrous bands present in endothecium of anther wall are made up of

1. Sporopollenin
2. α-cellulose
3. Pectin
4. Liguin

Answer. 2. α-cellulose

reproduction mcq

Question 7. Glandular type of tapetum secretes

1. Sporopollenin
2. Pollen kit
3. Compatibility proteins
4. All of these

Answer. 4. All of these

Question 8. The exine of pollen grains (microspores) is composed of

1. Pollen kit
2. α-cellulose
3. Sporopollenin
4. Lignin

Answer. 3. Sporopollenin

Question 9. The number of germ pores in dicots and monocots pollen grains are, respectively,

1. 1,3
2. 2,3
3. 3,1
4. 3,2

Answer. 2. 3,1

Question 10. The two cells at which pollen grains are discharged are

1. Larger generative cell and smaller vegetative cell
2. Larger vegetative cell and smaller body cell
3. Smaller vegetative cell and larger body cell
4. Smaller generative cell and larger vegetative cell

Answer. 4. Smaller generative cell and larger vegetative cell

Question 11. Minerals required for the germination of pollen grains on stigma are

1. Ca, B
2. Mn, Ca
3. N, S
4. Fe, Ca

Answer. 1. Ca, B

Question 12. Pollen tube is produced by

1. Exine
2. Mn, Ca
3. Both exine and intine
4. Fe, Ca

Answer. 2. Mn, Ca

Question 13. Number of male gametes in one pollen tube is

1. 1
2. 2
3. 4
4. 6

Answer. 2. 2

Question 14. The chemical complex which controls the chemotrophic movement of pollen tube in style is

1. K+, salts, amino acids
2. Organic acids, K+
3. Ca, B, inositol sugar complex
4. Phenols and lignins

Answer. 3. Ca, B, inositol sugar complex

Question 15. The_____serves as a landing platform for pollen grains.

1. Stigma
2. Style
3. Ovary
4. Pollen sac

Answer. 2. Style

Question 16. Chasmogamy is pollination in

1. Bud condition
2. Closed flowers
3. Open flowers
4. Unrelated flowers

Answer. 3. Open flowers

Question 17. Which of the following is/are ornithophilous?

1. Erythrina
2. Agave
3. Grevillea
4. All of these

Answer. 4. All of these

Question 18. Maturation of gynoecium before anthers of the same flower is called

1. Protogyny
2. Protandry
3. Heterogamy
4. Dichogamy

Answer. 1. Protogyny

Question 19. When pollen grains of a flower fall on the stigma of an- other flower of the same plant, this condition is called

1. Genetically self-pollination
2. Genetically self-pollination and ecologically cross- pollination
3. Ecologically cross-pollination
4. Genetically cross-pollination and ecologically self-pollination

Answer. 2. Genetically self-pollination and ecologically cross- pollination

Question 20. In geitonogamy, pollen grains are transferred to

1. Genetically different flower
2. Genetically similar flower
3. Stigma of another flower of a different plant
4. Stigma of the same flower

Answer. 2. Genetically similar flower

” endosperm is present in mature seeds of”

Question 21. Which is not a contrivance for self-pollination?

1. Homogamy
2. Bud pollination
3. Cleistogamy
4. Dichogamy

Answer. 4. Dichogamy

Question 22. Which is generally not a characteristic of anemophilous flower?

1. Unisexual nature
2. Abundant pollen grains
3. Bright color
4. Reduction in number of sepals, petals, and ovules

Answer. 3. Bright color

Question 23. A characteristic of entomophilous pollen grains is the presence of

1. Powdery nature
2. Sticky pollen kit material
3. Carotenoids
4. Ubisch bodies

Answer. 2. Sticky pollen kit material

Question 24. Dioecious condition and epihydrophily is found in

1. Vallisneria
2. Salvia
3. Zostera
4. Coconut

Answer. 1. Vallisneria

Question 25. Bats are pollinator of

1. Butea
2. Adansonia
3. Sunflower
4. Callistemon

Answer. 2. Adansonia

Question 26. Pollen tube in Portulaca was first observed by

1. P.Maheswari
2. R.Cameraius
3. G.B.Amici
4. Nawaschin

Answer. 3. G.B.Amici

Question 27. When some natural barriers exist between the stamens and pistil to check self-pollination, it is known as

1. Heterostyly
2. Dichogamy
3. Herkogamy
4. Dicliny

Answer. 3. Herkogamy

Question 28. When the pollen tube enters the embryo sac, which one of the following is always destroyed?

1. Antipodal
2. Egg
3. Synergid
4. Polar nucleus

Answer. 3. Synergid

Question 29. Germination of pollen grain on the stigma is called

1. Autogamy
2. In situ germination
3. In vivo germination
4. In vitro germination

Answer. 4. In vitro germination

Question 30. In pea, the pollen tube comes out of the pollen grains present on slide having 10% sugar solution in about

1. 5-10 min
2. 15-30 min
3. 5-7 days
4. 1 month

Answer. 2. 15-30 min

Question 31. Types of ovules in angiosperms are

1. 6
2. 5
3. 4
4. 3

Answer. 1. 6

Question 32. The tetrad of megaspores produced from the megaspore mother cell is

1. Isobilateral
2. Linear
3. Tetrahedral
4. Decussate

Answer. 2. Linear

Question 33. When the body of the ovule, the embryo sac, and the micropyle lie at right angles to the funiculus, the ovule is called

1. Amphitropous
2. Anatropous
3. Campylotropous
4. Hemianatropous

Answer. 4. Hemianatropous

Question 34. When the hilum, chalaza, and micropyle of ovule lie in the same long axis, it is known as

1. Amphitropous
2. Anatropous
3. Orthotropous
4. Campylotropous

Answer. 3. Orthotropous

Question 35. How many megaspore mother cells are required to produce 100 eggs during meiosis?

1. 1
2. 100
3. 50
4. 25

Answer. 2. 100

Question 36. Ategmic ovule is found in

1. Loranthus
2. Tagetes
3. Santalum
4. Both (1) and (3)

Answer. 4. Both (1) and (3)

Question 37. Polygonum type of embryo sac is

1. 7-celled, 8-nucleated structure
2. 8-celled, 8-nucleated structure
3. 6-celled, 8-nucleated structure
4. 6-celled, 6-nucleated structure

Answer. 1. 7-celled, 8-nucleated structure

Question 38. The fusion of second male gamete with secondary nucleus is called

1. Double fertilization
2. Triple fusion
3. Syngamy
4. Triple fertilization

Answer. 2. Triple fusion

Question 39. Egg apparatus is situated at the composed of______end and is______cells.

1. Micropylar, 2
2. Chalazal, 3
3. Micropylar, 3
4. Chalazal, 2

Answer. 3. Micropylar, 3

Question 40. The phenomenon of double fertilization was discovered by

1. Strasberger
2. P. Maheshwari
3. Amici
4. Nawaschin

Answer. 4. Nawaschin

Question 41. In female gametophyte, which cell is the mother cell of endosperm?

1. Synergid
2. Antipodal
3. Central cell
4. Egg

Answer. 3. Synergid

Question 42. Ploidy level of endosperm in angiosperm is generally

1. n
2. 2n
3. 3n
4. 6n

Answer. 3. 3n

Question 43. Most common type of endosperm is

1. Nuclear
2. Cellular
3. Helobial
4. Any of these

Answer. 1. Nuclear

Question 44. Coconut milk is a

1. Solid endosperm
2. Liquid endosperm
3. Helobial type of endosperm
4. Degenerated product of cellular endosperm

Answer. 2. Liquid endosperm

Question 45. Ruminate endosperm is commonly found in the seeds of

1. Euphorbiaceae
2. Cruciferae
3. Annonaceae (areca nut)
4. Compositae

Answer. 3. Annonaceae (areca nut)

Question 46. Perisperm is

1. Degenerate secondary nucleus
2. Remnant of nucellus
3. Peripheral part of endosperm
4. Degenerate synergids

Answer. 2. Remnant of nucellus

Question 47. Suspensor in a dicot embryogeny is

1. 6-10 celled
2. I-celled
3. 10-20 celled
4. Absent

Answer. 1. 6-10 celled

Question 48. Epiblast is

1. Reduced cotyledon in grass embryo
2. Embryo of grass
3. Covering of radical
4. Covering of plumule

Answer. 1. Covering of plumule

pollen tetrad

Question 49. Which is not true regarding gametophytic self-incompatibility?

1. It is controlled by multiple alleles.
2. It is due to genotype of pollen.
3. Germination of pollen grain is prevented.
4. Sporopollenin is involved.

Answer. 4. Sporopollenin is involved.

Question 50. The production of apomitic embryo from the cells of nucellus or integument is called

1. Parthenocarpy
2. Sporophytic budding
3. Adventive polyembryony
4. Both (2) and (3)

Answer. 2. Sporophytic building

Question 51. What will be the ploidy of endosperm and zygote if the cross is made between 6n plant and 4n plant?

1. 5n, 8n
2. 8n, 5n
3. 10n, 7n
4. 6n, 4n

Answer. 3. 10n, 7n

Question 52. Development of sporophyte without gametic fusion is known as

1. Apomixis
2. Apospory
3. Apogamy
4. Agamospermy

Answer. 4. Agamospermy

Question 53. Agamospermy is

1. Adventive embryony
2. Diplospory
3. Apospory
4. All of these

Answer. 3. Apospory

Question 54. The terms “sporoderm” and “spermoderm” are used to represent, respectively,

1. Spore wall and sperm wall
2. Anther wall and seed coat
3. Spore wall and seed coat
4. Integument of ovule and sperm wall

Answer. 4. Integument of ovule and sperm wall

Question 55. In some angiosperms and gymnosperms, multiple embryos are produced in which of the following way/ways?

1. By fertilization of synergids or antipodal cells by sperms.
2. By cleavage of single zygote.
3. One or more cells of the nucellus or integument develop into embryo.
4. All of these.

Answer. 3. One or more cells of the nucellus or integument develop into embryo.

Question 56. There exists a close association between the alga and the fungus within lichen. The fungus

1. Fixes atmospheric nitrogen for the alga
2. Provides protection, anchorage, and absorption for the alga
3. Provides food for the alga
4. Releases oxygen for the alga

Answer. 2. Provides protection, anchorage, and absorption for the alga

Question 57. Fungal flagellum originates from

1. Dictyosomes
2. Kinetosomes
3. Glyxisomes
4. Oxysomes

Answer. 2. Kinetosomes

Question 58. The famous Irish famine is related to a disease of potato known as

1. Late blight
2. Early blight
3. Dry rot of potato
4. None of the above

Answer. 1. Late blight

Question 59. ________ constitutes an edible fungus.

1. Agaricus
2. Morchella
3. Lycoperodon
4. Both (1) and (2)

Answer. 4. Both (1) and (2)

Question 60. Dolipore septum is only characteristic of

1. Phycomycetes
2. Zygomycetes
3. Ascomycetes
4. Basidiomycetes

Answer. 4. Basidiomycetes

Question 61. Vitamin B12 is released by [Maharashtra CET 2005]

1. Penicillium
2. Ustilago
3. Puccinia
4. Smut

Answer. 1. Penicillium

Question 62. Litmus is obtained from

1. Lecanora
2. Cetreria
3. Cladonia
4. None of the above

Answer. 1. Lecanora

Question 63. Zygospore formation occurs in

1. Mucor
2. Plasmodium
3. Lentinus
4. Peciza

Answer. 1. Mucor

Question 64. Fungi causing white rust belong to which order?

1. Ustilaginales
2. Chytridiates
3. Uredineles
4. Perenosporales

Answer. 2. Chytridiates

Question 65. Zygospore is formed from

1. Gametangial copulation
2. Gametic union
3. Zygote
4. Oogamy

Answer. 3. Zygote

Question 66. Fungi differ from algae in having

1. Chitinous cell wall and chlorophyll absent
2. Chitinous cell wall and chlorophyll present
3. Cellulosic cell wall and chlorophyll absent
4. Cellulosic cell wall and chlorophyll present

Answer. 1. Chitinous cell wall and chlorophyll absent

Question 67. In the following question, an Assertion (A) is followed by a corresponding Reason (R). Consider them and answer accordingly.

Assertion: Fungi are widespread in distribution and they even live on or inside other plants and animals.

Reason: Fungi are able to grow anywhere on land, water, or on other organisms because they have a variety of pig- ments, including chlorophyll, carotenoids, fucoxanthin, and phycoerythrin.

1. If A is correct and R is its explanation.
2. If A is correct and R is not its explanation.
3. If A is correct but R is wrong.
4. If both A and R are wrong.

Answer. 3. If A is correct but R is wrong.

Question 68. Which of the following fungus can cause diseases in humans?

1. Saccharomyces cerevisiae
2. Rhizopus stolonifer
3. Ashbya gossypii
4. Propionibacterium

Answer. 1. Saccharomyces cerevisiae

Question 69. Red rot of sugarcane and white rust of radish are, respectively, caused by

1. Albugo candida and Cercospora
2. Colletotrichum and Fusarium
3. Pythium and Phytophthora
4. Albugo candida and Puccinia graminis
5. Colletotrichum and Albugo candida

Answer. 5. Colletotrichum and Albugo candida

Question 70. Terrestrial fungus is

1. Utricularia
2. Sargassum
3. Agaricus
4. Albugo

Answer. 3. Agaricus

Question 71. The fungus in which sexual reproduction is absent or is under abnormal conditions is

1. Phycomycetes
2. Ascomycetes
3. Basidiomycetes
4. Deuteromycetes

Answer. 4. Deuteromycetes

Question 72. The edible part of mushroom is

1. Basidiocarp
2. Primary mycelium
3. Secondary mycelium
4. Tertiary mycelium

Answer. 1. Basidiocarp

Question 73. VAM stands for

1. Vesicular Arbuscular Mycorrhizae
2. Vesicle Arbuscular Mycorrhizae
3. Veremicular Arbuscular Mycorrhizae
4. Vacuolar Arbuscular Mycorrhizae

Answer. 1. Vesicular Arbuscular Mycorrhizae

Question 74. Ascomycetes are

1. Club fungi
2. Algal fungi
3. Pin molds
4. sac fungi

Answer. 4. sac fungi

Question 75. Genus Aspergillus and Claviceps belong to

1. Phycomycetes
2. Asomycetes
3. Basidiomycetes
4. Deuteromycetes

Answer. 2. Asomycetes

Question 76. Among rust, smut, and mushroom, all three

1. Are pathogens
2. Are saprobes
3. Bear ascocarbs
4. Bear basidiocarps

Answer. 4. Bear basidiocarps

Question 77. In the following table, identify the correct matching of the crop, its disease, and the corresponding pathogen:

Crop-Disease                            Pathogen
1. Citrus-Canker                        A. Pseudomonas rubrilineans
2. Potato-Late blight                 B. Fusarium udum
3. Root-Root-knot                    C. Meloidogyne injection
4. Pigeonpea-See gall              D. Phytophthora infestans

A      B      C     D
(1)      1      2      3      4
(2)      1      4      3      2
(3)      4      3      2      1
(4)      3      4      1      2

Answer. 2.  1    4   3    2

Question 78. The cell walls of fungi consist of

1. Cellulose
2. Hemicellulose
3. Chitin
4. Both (1) and (3)

Answer. 4. Both (1) and (3)

Question 79. Aspergillus niger is used for the manufacture of

1. Citric acid and gluconic acid
2. HCl and HNO₃
3. Fumaric and malic acids
4. Succinic and fumaric acids

Answer. 1. Succinic and fumaric acids

Question 80. Beedle and Tatum gave “one gene and one enzyme” hypothesis while working on

1. Salmonelly typhimurium
2. Neurospora crassa
3. Escherichia coli
4. Diplococcus pneumoniae

Answer. 2. Neurospora crassa

Question 81. An organism with eukaryotic multicellular nature obtains its nutrition through its cell wall. It should be placed under

1. Mycota
2. Plantae
3. Animalia
4. Monera

Answer. 1. Mycota

Question 82. Which of the following pair belongs to basidiomycetes?

1. Puffballs and Claviceps
2. Morchella and mushrooms
3. Peziza and stink horns
4. Bird’s nest fungi and puffballs

Answer. 4. Bird’s nest fungi and puffballs

what is monosporic development

Question 83. Toxins released by plants to save themselves from fungal attack are

1. Phytotoxins
2. Phytoalexins
3. Calmodulins
4. Aquaporins

Answer. 2. Phytoalexins

Question 84. LSD is extracted from

1. Claviceps
2. Cannabis
3. Agaricus
4. Amanita

Answer. 1. Claviceps

Question 85. The pathogen for leaf spot disease in Arachis hypogea is

1. Fusarium
2. Cercosporia
3. Alternaria
4. Hemianatropous

Answer. 2. Cercosporia

Question 86. Tundu disease of wheat is due to infection caused by

1. Nematode and fungi
2. Fungi and bacteria
3. Nematode and bacteria
4. Algae and fungi

Answer. 3. Nematode and bacteria

Question 87. “Ergot of rye” is caused by

1. Claviceps purpurea
2. Sclerospora graminicola
3. Cannabis sativa
4. Algae and fungi

Answer. 1. Claviceps purpurea

Question 88. Which of these is foliose lichen?

1. Cladonia
2. Graphis
3. Parmeia
4. Lecanora

Answer. 3. parmeia

Question 89. Saccharomyces is commercially used in industry.

1. Baking
2. Wine
3. Butter
4. Both (1) and (2)

Answer. 4. Both (1) and (2)

Question 90. Black rust of wheat is a fungal disease caused by

1. Puccinia tritici
2. Claviceps purpurea
3. Melampsora lini
4. Sclerospora graminicola

Answer. 1. Puccinia tritici

Question 91. Taxonomy of fungi is based on

1. Sexual reproduction
2. Nutrition
3. Shape of sporocarp
4. Cell wall

Answer. 1. Sexual reproduction

Question 92. Cellulose is a major component of cell walls of

1. Pythium
2. Xanthomonas
3. Pseudomonas
4. Saccharomyces

Answer. 1. Pythium

Question 93. Trichoderma harzianum has proved a useful microorganism for

1. Bioremediation of contaminated soils
2. Reclamation of wastelands
3. Gene transfer in higher plants
4. Biological control of soil-borne plant pathogens

Answer. 4. Biological control of soil-borne plant pathogens

Question 94. The athlete’s foot disease in humans is caused due to

1. Bacteria
2. Fungi
3. Virus
4. None of the above

Answer. 2. Fungi

Question 95. Which one is the wrong pairing for the disease and its causal organism?

1. Loose smut of wheat-Ustilago nuda
2. Root knot of vegetables-Meloidogyne sp.
3. Late blight of potato-Alternaria solani
4. Black rust of wheat-Puccinia graminis

Answer. 3. Late blight of potato-Alternaria solani

Question 96. Which one of the following has haplontic life cycle?

1. Ustilago
2. Wheat
3. Funaria
4. Polytrichum

Answer. 1. Ustilago

Question 97. Sexual reproduction in fungi may occur by means of

1. Sporangiospore, oospore, and ascospore
2. Zoospore, oospore, and ascospore
3. Sporangiospore, ascospore, and basidiospore
4. Oospore, ascospore, and basidiospore

Answer. 4. Oospore, ascospore, and basidiospore

Question 98. Lichens growing on tree bark are called

1. Lignicolous
2. Terricolous
3. Corticolous
4. Saxicolous

Answer. 3. Corticolous

Question 99. Common mycobionts and phycobionts of lichen body are, respectively,

1. Ascomycetes, Chlorophyceae
2. Ascomycetes, Cyanophyceae
3. Basidiomycetes, Chlorophyceae
4. Basidiomycetes, Cyanophyceae

Answer. 1. Ascomycetes, Chlorophyceae

Question 100. Foliose lichens are attached to the substratum at one or few places with the help of

1. Branched, multicellular rhizoids
2. Holdfast
3. Rhizines
4. Rhizomorph

Answer. 3. Rhizines

Question 101. Specialized structure in the thallus of lichen for nitrogen fixation and retaining moisture is

1. Cyphellae
2. Isidia
3. Cephalodia
4. Soredia

Answer. 3. Cephalodia

Question 102. Select the correct statement with respect to mycorrhizal roots:

1. These do not differ in shape from normal roots.
2. These often show a wooly covering.
3. These possess root cap but lack root hairs.
4. Fungal partner is commonly a member of ascomycetes.

Answer. 2. These often show a wooly covering.

Question 103. Which of the following feature is not related with virus?

1. Infectivity and host specificity.
2. Presence of genetic material.
3. Occurrence of certain enzymes.
4. Presence of respiration.

Answer. 4. Presence of respiration.

Question 104. Most of the viruses are/have

1. Enveloped nucleo-protein structure
2. Non-enveloped nucleo-protein structure
3. Infectious protein particles
4. Double-stranded DNA as well as dsRNA

Answer. 2. Non-enveloped nucleo-protein structure

Question 105. Infectious RNA particles without protein coat

1. Have high molecular weight
2. Were discovered by Alper
3. Are known to cause disease in plants only
4. More than one option is correct

Answer. 3. Are known to cause disease in plants only

Question 106. Yeast is used in the production of

1. Lipase and pectinase
2. Bread and beer
3. Cheese and butter
4. Citric acid and lactic acid

Answer. 2. Bread and beer

Question 107. Which one of the following microbes forms symbiotic association with plants and helps them in their nutrition?

1. Aspergillus
2. Glomus
3. Trichoderma
4. Azotobacter

Answer. 2. Glomus

Question 108. Which statement is wrong for viruses?

1. All of them have helical symmetry.
2. They have the ability to synthesize nucleic acids and proteins.
3. Antibiotics have no effect on them.
4. All are parasites.

Answer. 1. All of them have helical symmetry.

Question 109. Bacteria can be considered to be a plant because

1. Some bacteria are photosynthetic
2. Some bacteria have chlorophyll
3. Some bacteria can make their own food
4. Bacteria have cell wall

Answer. 4. Bacteria have cell wall

Question 110. The major component of bacterial cell wall is a polymer called

1. Chitin
2. Xytan
3. Cellulose
4. Peptidoglycan

Answer. 4. Peptidoglycan

Question 111. Oxytetracycline is produced by

1. Mycoplasma
2. Actinomycetes
3. Cyanobacteria
4. Eubacteria

Answer. 2. Actinomycetes

Question 112. Cyanobacteria existed

1. 2.9 billion
2. 3.4 billion
3. 1 million
4. Peptidoglycan

Answer. 2. 3.4 billion

Question 113. Which of the following is nonsymbiotic, anaerobic, non- photosynthetic nitrogen-fixing bacteria?

1. Clostridium
2. Nostoc
3. Anabaena
4. Azotobacter

Answer. 1. Clostridium

Question 114. Bacterial cell includes all except

1. Nuclear material without membrane
2. Cell wall of murein
3. DNA compound with histones
4. Ribosomes

Answer. 3. DNA compound with histones

Question 115. Pigments phycocyanin and phycoerythrin are present in

1. Bacillariophyceae
2. Archeabacteria
3. Eubacteria
4. Cyanobacteria

Answer. 4. Cyanobacteria

Question 116. Barophilic prokaryotes

1. Grow slowly in highly alkaline frozen lakes at high altitudes
2. Occur in water containing high concentration of barium hydroxide
3. Grow and multiply in very deep marine sediments
4. Readily grow and divide in sea water enriched in any soluble salt of barium

Answer. 3. Grow and multiply in very deep marine sediments

Question 117. Teichoic acid is present in

1. Gram +ve bacteria
2. Gram-ve bacteria
3. Spirochaete
4. Actinomycetes

Answer. 2. Gram-ve bacteria

Question 118. For retting of jute, the fermenting microbe used is

1. Helicobacter pylori
2. Mesophilic bacteria
3. Streptococcus lactis
4. Butyric acid bacteria

Answer. 4. Butyric acid bacteria

Question 119. Free-living aerobic nitrogen-fixing bacterium is

1. Azotobacter
2. Rhizobium
3. Clostridium
4. Anabaena

Answer. 1. Azotobacter

Question 120. Cyanobacteria is

1. Nitrogen-fixing free-living photosynthetic organism
2. Symbiotic mycorrhizae
3. Photosynthetic algae
4. Saprophytic fungus

Answer. 1. Nitrogen-fixing free-living photosynthetic organism

Question 121. Genetic elements which may be present inside as well as in extrachromosomal entities are

1. Episomes
2. Mesosomes
3. Oxysomes
4. Autosomes

Answer. 1. Episomes

Question 122. The bacterial cell wall is made up of

1. Cellulose
2. Hemicellulose
3. Both (1) and (2)
4. Peptidoglycan
5. Glycogen

Answer. 4. Peptidoglycan

Question 123. The most widely used bioweapon is

1. Bacillus subtilis
2. Pseudomonas putida
3. Bacillus anthracis
4. None of the above

Answer. 3. Bacillus anthracis

Question 124. A bacterial cell divides once every minute and it takes 1 h to fill a cup. How much time will it take to fill half the cup?

1. 30 min
2. 60 min
3. 29 min
4. 59 min

Answer. 4. 59 min

Question 125. Bacteria is pathogenic due to

1. Mitochondria
2. Cell membrane
3. Cell wall
4. Nuclic acid

Answer. 4. Nuclic acid

Question 126. Which of the following is non-pathogenic bacteria of colon?

1. Escherichia coli
2. Balantidium coli
3. Entamoeba coli
4. Enterobius vermicularis

Answer. 2. Balantidium coli

Question 127. Treponema pallidum is

1. Causative agent of syphilis
2. The example of spirochaete bacterium
3. The causative agent of sexually transmitted disease
4. All are correct

Answer. 4. All are correct

Question 128. Which of the following is correct?

1. Bacteria are only autotrophic.
2. Bacteria are only heterotrophic.
3. Most are heterotrophic but a few are autotrophic.
4. Most bacteria are autotrophic but a few are heterotrophic.

Answer. 3. Most are heterotrophic but a few are autotrophic.

Question 129. The Widal test is performed as diagnostic value in

1. Tuberculosis
2. Typhoid
3. Cholera
4. Tetanus

Answer. 2. Typhoid

Question 130. The two bacteria found to be very useful in genetic engineering experiments are

1. Nitrosomonas and Klebsiella
2. Escherichia and Agrobacterium
3. Nitrobacter and Azotobacter
4. Rhizobium and Diplococcus

Answer. 2. Escherichia and Agrobacterium

Question 131. Pili of bacteria are useful for

1. Locomotion
2. Sexual contacts
3. Asexual reproduction
4. Transformation
5. Feeding

Answer. 2. Sexual contacts

Question 132. The bacterium (Clostridium botulinum) that causes botulism is

1. An obligate acrobe
2. A facultative anaerobe
3. An obligate anaerobe
4. A facultative acrobe

Answer. 3. An obligate anerobe

Question 133. In prokaryotes, what helps in anaerobic respiration?

1. Mitochondria
2. Folds of plasma membrane
3. Ribosomes
4. Cell wall

Answer. 2. Folds of plasma membrane

Question 134. Blue green algae as Nostoc and Anabaena can photosynthesize due to the presence of 

1. Heterocysts
2. Akinetes
3. Chromatophores
4. Leghemoglobin

Answer. 3. Chromatophores

Question 135. The exceptional feature of blue green algae which is the basis of their study is

1. Aplanospores
2. Sclerodia
3. Heterocysts
4. Haplospores

Answer. 3. Heterocysts

Question 136. Crown galls are caused in plants due to the infection of

1. Insects
2. Virus
3. Bacteria
4. Fungi

Answer. 3. Bacteria

Question 137. Curing of tea leaves is brought about by the activity of

1. Fungi
2. Bacteria
3. Micorrhizae
4. Viruses

Answer. 2. Bacteria

Question 138. In prokaryotes, chromatophores are

1. Specialized granules responsible for coloration of cells
2. Structures responsible for organizing the shape of the organism
3. Inclusion bodies lying free inside the cells for carry- ing out various metabolic activities
4. Internal membrane systems that may become exten- sive and complex in photosynthesis bacteria

Answer. 4. Internal membrane systems that may become exten- sive and complex in photosynthesis bacteria

Question 139. Which one of the following pathogens causes canker discase?

1. Meloidogyne ineognita
2. Anguina tritici
3. Xanthomonas citri
4. Pseudomonas rubilineans
5. Phytophthora infestans

Answer. 3. Xanthomonas citri

Question 140. Find out the pairs which are correctly matched:

(a) Cyanobacteria           (1) Biopesticides

(b) Mycorrhiza                (2) Solubilization of phosphate

(c) Bacillus                       (3) Cry protein thuringiensis

(d) Single-cell protein     (4) Rhizobia

1. (a) and (2)
2. (b) and (3)
3. (c) and (3)
4. (a) and (3)
5. (b) and (4)

Answer. 2. (b) and (3)

Question 141. Which one of the following statements about mycoplasma is wrong?

1. They are pleomorphic.
2. They are sensitive to penicillin.
3. They cause diseases in plants.
4. They are called PPLO (pleuropneumonia-like organisms).

Answer. 2. They are sensitive of penicillin.

Question 142. The presence of a cluster of polar flagella is termed as

1. Monotrichous
2. Amphitrichous
3. Lophotrichous
4. Peritrichous

Answer. 3. Lophotrichous

Question 143. Some bacteria can live also in the absence of oxygen. These are

1. Obligate aerobes
2. Facultative aerobes
3. Obligate anaerobes
4. Facultative anaerobes

Answer. 2. Facultative aerobes

Question 144. What are the infoldings of plasma membrane called in prokaryotes which store respiratory pigments?

1. Glyoxysomes
2. Oxysomes
3. Mesosomes
4. Cristae

Answer. 3. Mesosomes

Question 145. Plasmid is

1. Small extrachromosomal circular self-replicating DNA that can carry genes into the host organism
2. Bacteriophage
3. DNA found in mitochondria
4. DNA incorporated in bacteria

Answer. 1. Small extrachromosomal circular self-replicating DNA that can carry genes into the host organism

Question 146. Difference between Gram -ve and Gram +ve bacteria is in their

1. Cell membrane
2. Cell wall
3. Ribosome
4. Mitochondria

Answer. 2. Hemicellulose

Question 147. The cell wall of bacterium is made up of

1. Cellulose
2. Hemicellulose
3. Lignin
4. Peptidoglycan
5. Glycogen

Answer. 4. Peptidoglycan

Question 148. Which of the following monerans lack cell wall?

1. Actinomycetes
2. Photosynthetic bacteria
3. Eubacteria
4. None of the above

Answer. 4. None of the above

Question 149. Bacteria can live under sub-zero temperature for

1. More than 1000 years
2. 100-1000 years
3. Few years
4. Few days

Answer. 1. More than 1000 years

Question 150. Set of bacterial diseases is

1. Diphtheria, leprosy, and plague
2. Malaria, mumps, and polio
3. Cholera, typhoid, and mumps
4. Tetanus, TB, and malaria

Answer. 1. Diphtheria, leprosy, and plague

Question 151. In prokaryotes, genetic recombination can occur during

1. Transduction
2. Transformation
3. Conjugation
4. All of these

Answer. 1. Transduction

Question 152. Thermococcus, Methanococcus, and Methanobacterium exemplify

1. Archaebacteria that contain protein homologous to eukaryotic core histones
2. Archaebacteria that lack any histones resembling those found in eukaryotes but whose DNA is negatively supercoiled
3. Bacteria whose DNA is relaxed or positively su- percoiled but which have a cytoskeleton as well as mitochondria
4. Bacteria that contain a cytoskeleton and ribosomes

Answer. 1. Archaebacteria that contain protein homologous to eukaryotic core histones

Question 153. Which one of the following is not a characteristic of Gram-positive bacteria?

1. Cell wall is smooth.
2. Mesosomes are distinctively prominent.
3. Basal body of flagellum contains two rings.
4. Outer membrane is present.
5. Murein content of cell wall is 70-80%.

Answer. 1. Cell wall is smooth.

Question 154. Pathogenicity of bacteria causing tuberculosis and leprosy is due to

1. Cholesterol
2. Ergosterol
3. Prostaglandins
4. Glycerol
5. Wax-D

Answer. 5. Wax-D

Question 155. Bacterial leaf blight of rice is caused by a species of

1. Xanthomonas
2. Pseudomonas
3. Alternaria
4. Erwinia

Answer. 4. Erwina

Question 156. Streptomyces griseus gives which of these antibiotics?

1. Chloramphenicol
2. Sterptomycin
3. Tetracycline
4. Penicillin

Answer. 1. Chloramphenicol

Question 157. Indirect transfer of genetic material from one bacterium to another through bacteriophase is

1. Transduction
2. Transcription
3. Conjugation
4. Translation
5. Transformation

Answer. 2. Transcription

Question 158. Bacterial brown rot of potato is caused by

1. Xanthomonas citri
2. Escherichia coli
3. Agrobacterium tumefaciens
4. Pseudomonas solanacearum
5. Salmonella typhosa

Answer. 1. Xanthomonas citri

Question 159. Which of the following is a bacterial disease?

1. Red rust of tea
2. Citrus canker
3. Red rot of sugarcane
4. Late blight of potato

Answer. 4. Late blight of potato

Question 160. Shorter generation time of E. coli compared to eukaryotes may be explained on the basis of

1. Shape
2. Large surface: volume ratio
3. Presence of cell wall
4. Absence of organelles

Answer. 2. Large surface: volume ratio

Question 161. Division in a bacteria cell is carried out through

1. Multiple fission
2. Binary fission
3. Budding
4. Plasmotomy

Answer. 2. Binary fission

Question 162. Antibiotic resistance genes are present on

1. Plastid
2. DNA
3. Plasmid
4. RNA

Answer. 2. DNA

Question 163. Cyanobacteria is the member of

1. Fungi
2. Protozoa
3. Monera
4. Pteridophytes

Answer. 3. Monera

Question 164. The Gram-negative bacteria detect and respond to the chemicals in their surroundings by

1. Muramic acid
2. Lipopolysaccharide
3. Volutin granules
4. Porins

Answer. 3. Volutin granules

Question 165. Which of the following is not a bacterium?

1. Methanogens
2. Diatoms
3. Archaebacteria
4. Blue green algae

Answer. 2. Diatoms

Question 166. A bacterium is capable of withstanding extreme heat, dryness, and toxic chemicals. This indicates that it is probably able to form

1. A thick peptidoglycan wall
2. Endospores
3. Endotoxins
4. Endogenous buds

Answer. 2. Endospores

Question 167. The vector for plague is

1. Anopheles
2. Aedes
3. Xenopsylla
4. Culex

Answer. 2.

Question 168. Lung tuberculosis is caused by

1. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
2. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
3. Streptococcus pneumoniae
4. Escherichia coli

Answer. 3. Streptococcus pneumoniae

Question 169. An example of symbiotic bacteria is

1. Erwinia amylovora
2. Rhizobium leguminosarum
3. Xanthomonas campestris
4. Agrobacterium tumefaciens

Answer. 2.

Question 170. Nonpathogenic bacteria found in our vermiform appendix is

1. Entamoeba histolytica
2. Shigella
3. Escherichia coli
4. Ascaris

Answer. 2. Shigella

Question 171. Which one of the following organisms possesses characteristics of both plant and animal?

1. Euglena
2. Bacteria
3. Mycoplasma
4. Paramecium

Answer. 3. Mycoplasma

Question 172. The scientist who coined the term “protista” to include both plant- and animal-like unicellular organisms was

1. Robert Koch
2. (2) E.F. Haeckel
3. L. Pasteur
4. Joseph Lister

Answer. 1. Robert Koch

Question 173. Protista includes

1. Protozoa, algae, and fungi
2. Algae, bryophyta, bacteria, and fungi
3. Fungi, slime molds, and vascular plants
4. Protozoa, bacteria, algae, and bryophyta

Answer. 2. Algae, bryophyta, bacteria, and fungi

Question 174. Slime molds belong to kingdom

1. Monera
2. Protista
3. Plantae
4. Animalia

Answer. 1. Monera

Question 175. Which protist reproduces both by binary fission and conjugation?

1. Amoeba
2. Paramecium
3. Euglena
4. Monocystis

Answer. 2. Paramecium

Question 176. Total parasites belongs to protozoan group

1. Sporozoa
2. Ciliata
3. Sarcodina
4. Zooflagellata

Answer. 2. Ciliata

Question 177. Protozoan protists respire through

1. Pseudopodia
2. Contractile vacuole
3. Mitochondria
4. General surface

Answer. 1. Pseudopodia

Question 178. Which one is not a protozoan protist?

1. Plasmodium vivax
2. Paramecium caudatum
3. Enterobius vermiclaris
4. Trypanosoma gambiense

Answer. 2. Paramecium caudatum

Question 179. Protozoan protists are differentiated on the basis of

1. Nuclei
2. Size
3. Shape
4. Locomotory structures

Answer. 3. Shape

Question 180. Endoparasitic protistan protozoans belong to

1. Sporozoa
2. Ciliata
3. Sarcodina
4. Mastigophora

Answer. 4. Mastigophora

Question 181. Protozoan found commonly in human colon is

1. Entamoeba coli
2. Plasmodium. vivax
3. Aedes. aegypti
4. All of these

Answer. 1. Entamoeba coli

Question 182. Primary grouping of protozoan protists is based on

1. Locomotor organelles
2. Size and shape
3. Mode of feeding
4. Mode of reproduction

Answer. 1. Locomotor organelles

Question 183. Protozoans are able to live efficiently due to their

1. Motility
2. Rapid reproduction
3. Ability to manufacture food
4. Specialized organelles

Answer. 1. Motility

Question 184. Protista contains

1. Euglena, dinoflagellates, and yeast
2. Amoeba, Paramecium, and Hydra
3. Euglena, Paramecium, and mushroom
4. Amoeba, Paramecium, and dinoflagellates

Answer. 4. Amoeba, Paramecium, and dinoflagellates

Question 185. Cyanobacteria are also referred to as

1. Golden algae
2. Slime molds
3. Blue green algae
4. Protists

Answer. 3. Blue green algae

Question 186. Which one of the following does not differ in E.coli and Chlamydomonas?

1. Chromosomal organization
2. Cell wall
3. Cell membrane
4. Ribosomes

Answer. 3. Cell membrane

Question 187. Nuclear membrane is absent in

1. Agaricus
2. Volvox
3. Nostoc
4. Penicillium

Answer. 3. Nostoc

Question 188. Maximum nutritional diversity is found in the group

1. Antimalia
2. Monera
3. Plantae
4. Fungi

Answer. 2. Monera

Question 189. The most abundant prokaryotes helpful to humans in making curd from milk and in the production of antibiotics are the ones categorized as

1. Archaebacteria
2. Chemosynthetic autotrophs
3. Heterotrophic bacteria
4. Cyanobacteria

Answer. 3. Heterotrophic bacteria

NEET Biology For Reproduction In Organisms Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. Which of the following is not an artificial method of vegetative reproduction?

1. Cutting
2. Grafting
3. Layering
4. Bulbils

Answer. 4. Bulbils

Question 2. The plant propagated through roots is

1. Sweet potato
2. Asparagus
3. Dahlia
4. All of these

Answer. 4. All of these

Question 3. In grafting, scion belongs to

1. Plant having superior or desirable characters
2. Plant having well-developed root system
3. Plant resistant to diseases
4. Both (2) and (3)

Answer. 2. Plant having well-developed root system

Question 4. Gootee (air layering) is common in

1. Bryophyllum
2. Lemon
3. Eichhornia
4. Tapioca

Answer. 2. Lemon

Question 5. Stem cuttings are commonly used in the propagation of

1. Mango
2. Cotton
3. Rose
4. Banana

Answer. 3. Rose

Question 6. Ginger is multiplied vegetatively by means of

1. Bud
2. Tuber
3. Corm
4. Rhizome

Answer. 4. Rhizome

reproduction mcq

Question 7. The piece of plant part used in tissue culture is called

1. Explant
2. Inoculant
3. Somaclone
4. Clone

Answer. 1. Explant

Question 8. Secondary nucleus present in the middle of embryo sac is

1. Tetraploid
2. Triploid
3. Diploid
4. ??

Answer. 3. Diploid

Question 9. In angiosperms, syngamy is required for

1. Endosperm
2. Embryo
3. Fruit wall
4. Suspensor

Answer. 2. Embryo

Question 10. A piece of potato tuber will form a new plant if it possesses

1. Roots
2. Eyes
3. Stored food
4. Branches

Answer. 2. Eyes

Question 11. Layering is used in the vegetative propagation of

1. Jasmine
2. Rose
3. Mango
4. All the above

Answer. 1. Jasmine

Question 12. Which is not involved in embryogenesis?

1. Cell multiplication
2. Cell differentiation
3. Equational division
4. Reduction division

Answer. 4. Reduction division

Question 13. A method in which roots are induced on the stem branch, while it is still attached to the parent plant, is called

1. Cutting
2. Grafting
3. Layering
4. Vivipary

Answer. 4. Vivipary

Question 14. If a plant fails to develop viable seeds, it could best be grown by

1. Cutting
2. Grafting
3. Layering
4. Micropropagation

Answer. 4. Micropropagation

Question 15. The study of formation, growth, and development of a new individual from an egg is known as

1. Cytology
2. Embryology
3. Histology
4. Genetics

Answer. 2. Embryology

Question 16. A leaf cell of a flowering plant has 22 chromosomes. Then the number of chromosomes would be

1. 11 in gametes
2. 22 in gametes
3. 44 in embryo
4. 11 in a cell of stem

Answer. 1. 11 in gametes

Question 17. The tegmen of a seed develops from

1. Perisperm
2. Funicle
3. Inner integument
4. Outer integument

Answer. 3. Inner integument

Question 18. In angiosperm, the female gametophyte is the

1. Egg apparatus
2. Embryo
3. Synergids
4. Embryo sac

Answer. 4. Embryo sac

” ginger vegetative propagation”

Question 19. The nucle of the sperm and the egg fuse as a result of

1. Base pair relation of DNA and RNA
2. Formation of hydrogen bonds
3. Mutual attraction caused by differences in electrical charges
4. Attraction of protoplasts of the egg and the sperm

Answer. 4. Attraction of protoplasts of the egg and the sperm

Question 20. Parthenogenesis is defined as the development of organism directly from

1. Egg without fertilization
2. Synergids without fertilization
3. Fruits without fertilization
4. Fruit without pollination

Answer. 3. Fruits without fertilization

Question 21. How many meiotic divisions are necessary for the formation of 100 grains of wheat?

1. 100
2. 125
3. 25
4. 50

Answer. 1. 100

Question 22. The most significant property of vegetative propagation is that

1. It enables the rapid production of genetic variation.
2. It is a means of production of genetic individuals genetically identical to the parent.
3. It ensures that the progeny are safe from the attack of diseases and pests.
4. It is an ancient practice.

Answer. 4. It is an ancient practice.

Question 23. The zygospore of Chlamydomonas gives rise to

1. Zoospore
2. Aplanospore
3. Hypnospore
4. Parthenospore

Answer. 1. Zoospore

Question 24. The antherozoids of Chara are

1. Non-motile
2. Uniflagellate
3. Biflagellate
4. Multiflagellate

Answer. 1. Non-motile

Question 25. Find the odd one with respect to sexuality.

1. Papaya
2. Date palm
3. Tree of heaven
4. Sago palm

Answer. 1. Papaya

Question 26. In Marchantia, the meiosis is

1. Zygotic
2. Gametic
3. Both (1) and (2)
4. Sporic

Answer. 2. Gametic

Question 27. The star-shaped bodies meant for the vegetative reproduction of Chara are rich in

1. Starch
2. Lipids
3. Proteins
4. Mannitol

Answer. 1. Starch

Question 28. The nucule of Chara is capped by

1. Nodal cells
2. Internodal cells
3. Tube cells
4. Coronary cells

Answer. 4. Coronary cells

Question 29. External fertilization is not observed in

1. Yeast
2. Spirogyra
3. Chlamydomonas
4. Ulothrix

Answer. 2. Spirogyra

Question 30. The conidia of Penicillium are

1. Thick walled, uninucleate
2. Thin walled, uni- or multinucleate
3. Thick walled, multinucleate
4. Thin or thick walled, multinucleate

Answer. 4. Thin or thick walled, multinucleate

Question 31. The sequence of structures in a penicillus of Penicillium digitatum shall be

1. Conidiophore → Rami → Phialides → Metulae → Conidia
2. Conidiophore → Rami → Metulae → Phialides → Conidia
3. Ramus → Conidiophore → Metulae → Phialides → Conidia
4. Metulae → Rami → Conidiophore → Phialides → Conidia

Answer. 2. Conidiophore → Rami → Metulae → Phialides → Conidia

Question 32. The type of gamete found in FLICLIS is

1. Isogamete
2. Coenogamete
3. Heterogamete
4. Multicellular gamete

Answer. 3. Heterogamete

Question 33. In bryophytes, the diploid number of chromosomes occurs in

1. Gametes
2. Spores
3. Nuclei of gametophyte
4. Spore mother cells

Answer. 4. Spore mother cells

Question 34. Gametophytic generation is dominant in

1. Pteridophytes
2. Gymnosperms
3. Angiosperms
4. Bryophytes

Answer. 4. Bryophytes

Question 35. Riccia fluitans multiplies vegetatively by

1. Rhizoids
2. Tubers
3. Adventitious branches
4. Gemmae

Answer. 3. Adventitious branches

Question 36. The number of thallus formed by a gemma of Marchantia upon successful germination is

1. One only
2. Two only
3. Four only
4. Several

Answer. 2. Two only

Question 37. During regeneration, modification of an organ to other organ is known as:

1. Morphogenesis
2. Epimorphosis
3. Morphallaxis
4. Accretionary growth

Answer. 2. Epimorphosis

Question 38. What is true for cleavage?

1. Size of embryo increase
2. Size of cells decrease
3. Size of cells increase
4. Size of embryo decrease

Answer. 2. Size of cells decrease

Question 39. Vegetative propagation in mint occurs by:

1. Sucker
2. Runner
3. Offset
4. Rhizome

Answer. 1. Sucker

Question 40. The “Eyes” of the potato tuber are:

1. axillary buds
2. root buds
3. flower buds
4. shoot buds

Answer. 1. axillary buds

Question 41. Which one of the following is correctly matched?

1. Chlamydomonas – Conidia
2. Yeast – Zoospores
3. Onion – Bulb
4. Ginger – Sucker

Answer. 3. Onion – Bulb

Question 42. Meiosis takes place in:

1. Meiocyte
2. Conidia
3. Gemmule
4. Megaspore

Answer. 1. Meiocyte

” ncert reproduction in organisms “

Question 43. Monoecious plant of Chara shows occurrence of:

1. Antheridiophore and archegoniophore on the same plant
2. Stamen and carpel on the same plant
3. Upper antheridium and lower oogonium on the same plant
4. Upper oogonium and lower antheridium on the same plant

Answer. 4. Upper oogonium and lower antheridium on the same plant

Question 44. Select the wrong statement:

1. Isogametes are similar in structure, function and behavior
2. Anisogametes differ either in structure, function of behaviour
3. In oomycetes female gamete is smaller and motile, while male gamete is larger and non-motile
4. Chlamydomonas exhibits both isogamy and anisogamy and Fucus shows oogamy

Answer. In oomycetes female gamete is smaller and motile, while male gamete is larger and non-motile

NEET Biology For Chemical Coordination And Integration Multiple Choice Questions And Answers

Question 1. Which of the following hormones is/are stored in Herring bodies?

1. Somatocrinin
2. Vasopressin
3. Oxytocin
4. Both 2 and 3

Answer: 4. Both 2 and 3

Question 2. Which of the following is an incorrect match?

1. Thyroxine—Iodinatcd tyrosine
2. Aldosterone Polypeptide hormone
3. Estrogen—A steroid hormone
4. Thyrotropin—Glycoprotein hormone

Answer: 2. Aldosterone Polypeptide hormone

Question 3. Which of the following hormones prevent water loss in urine?

1. Oxytocin
2. Vasopressin
3. Somatocrinin
4. Somatostatin

Answer: 2. Vasopressin

Question 4. Which of the following lobes of pituitary atrophies during fetal development is smaller in adults?

1. Pars distalis
2. Pars intermedia
3. Adenohypophysis
4. Neurohypophysis

Answer: 2. Pars intermedia

Question 5. Which of the following anterior pituitary hormones is linked directly to the body whereas other hormones mostly control other glands?

1. Somatotropin
2. Somatocrinin
3. Somatostatin
4. Pitocin

Answer: 1. Somatotropin

Question 6. Which of the following pituitary hormones is known to have a diabetogenic effect?

1. TSH
2. LH
3. GH
4. PRL

Answer: 3. GH

Question 7. The pituitary gland is lodged in a bony cavity of which skull bone?

1. Temporal
2. Occipital
3. Sphenoid
4. Parietal

Answer: 3. Sphenoid

Question 8. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

1. Pars intermedia atrophies during fetal development.
2. The pituitary gland is lodged in sella turcica.
3. Neurohypophysis synthesizes two hormones.
4. Herring bodies are present in the neurohypophysis.

Answer: 3. Neurohypophysis synthesizes two hormones.

Question 9. Supra-optic nuclei (in the hypothalamus) secrete the hormone

1. ADH
2. Oxytocin
3. Pitocin
4. Both 2 and 3

Answer: 1. ADH

Question 10. Which of the following hormones is secreted by corticotrophs in humans?

1. ACTH
2. MSH
3. PRL
4. Both 1 and 2

Answer: 4. Both 1 and 2

Question 11. Which of the following can be included under the heterocrine gland?

1. Thyroid
2. Pineal gland
3. Gonads
4. Thymus

Answer: 3. Gonads

Question 12. Which of the following techniques is used to measure the hormones, their precursor, and their metabolic end products quantitatively in the living body?

1. RIA
2. Chromatography
3. Oscilloscope
4. None of these

Answer: 1. RIA

Question 13. The hypophysis is linked with the hypothalamus through

1. Isthmus
2. Infundibulum
3. Epiphysis
4. Intermediate lobe

Answer: 2. Infundibulum

Question 14. Regulating hormones from the hypothalamus reach adenohypophysis through ‘

1. Neuron
2. Neuroendocrine cells
3. Portal blood vessel
4. Diffusion

Answer: 3. Portal blood vessel

Question 15. The cell type responsible for the release of MSH is

1. Somatotroph
2. Lactotroph
3. Corticotroph
4. None of these

Answer: 3. Corticotroph

Question 16. The Disproportionate growth of bones of body parts due  to the over-secretion of GH after adolescence is known as

1. Gigantism
2. Acromegaly
3. Dwarfism
4. None of these

Answer: 2. Acromegaly

Question 17. The primary target of the hormones of the hypothalamus is

1. Pineal gland
2. Thymus
3. Pituitary
4. Testis

Answer: 3. Pituitary

Question 18. The anterior pituitary hormone that does not stimulate another endocrine gland is

1. Somatotrophin
2. Thyrotrophin
3. Gonadotrophin
4. Adrenocorticotrophin

Answer: 1. Somatotrophin

Question 19. Luteinizing hormone (LH) in females

1. Helps in the appearance of secondary sexual characters
2. Stimulates ovary to secrete oestradiol
3. Helps in the release of the ovum from the ovary
4. Controls the blood pressure

Answer: 3. Helps in the release of the ovum from the ovary

Question 20. On the surgical removal of the pituitary gland, there is a fall in sodium level and a rise in potassium in serum. This is because

1. Oxytocin is no longer available from the pituitary
2. Atrophy of the adrenal medulla
3. Atrophy of the adrenal cortex
4. LTH from the pituitary is no longer available

Answer: 3. Atrophy of adrenal cortex

Question 21. Continued secretion of milk is maintained by

1. Prolactin
2. LH
3. Relaxin
4. STH

Answer: 1. Prolactin

Question 22. Which one of the following is called a milk ejection hormone and birth hormone?

1. Vasopressin
2. Oxytocin
3. Somatotrophic hormone
4. Pancreozymin

Answer: 2. Oxytocin

Question 23. Which pituitary hormone is responsible for enhancing arterial blood pressure by causing the narrowing of arterioles?

1. ACTH
2. Somatotropin
3. AOH
4. LTH

Answer: 3. AOH

Question 24. The largest endocrine gland is

1. Thyroid gland
2. Adrenal gland
3. Thymus
4. Pituitary gland

Answer: 1. Thyroid gland

Question 25. Maximum iodine is stored in

1. Parathyroid
2. Thyroid
3. Pituitary
4. All of these

Answer: 1. Parathyroid

Question 26. The failure of thyroid secretion from infancy leading to dwarfism and mental retardation is included under

1. Grave’s disease
2. Cretinism
3. Simple goiter
4. Myxedema

Answer: 2. Cretinism

Question 27. Name the non-iodinized hormone secreted by parafollicular cells of the thyroid.

1. Calcitonin
2. Oxytocin
3. Vasopressin
4. Gonadotropin

Answer: 1. Calcitonin

Question 28. Exophthalmic goiter is caused due to

1. Hyperthyroidism
2. Hypothyroidism
3. Hyperparathyroidism
4. Hypoparathyroidism

Answer: 1. Hyperthyroidism

Question 29. Symptoms such as pot-bellied, pigeon-like chest, protruding tongue, and mental retardation are of

1. Myxedema
2. Cretinism
3. Cushing’s syndrome
4. Addison’s disease

Answer: 2. Cretinism

Question 30. The hormone responsible for cretinism is

1. Thyroxine
2. Parathormone
3. Growth Hormone
4. Calcitonin

Answer: 1. Thyroxine

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Question 31. Excessive amount of calcium is regulated by

1. Thyroxine
2. Calcitonin
3. Epinephrine
4. Progesterone

Answer: 2. Calcitonin

Question 32. An increase in the excitability of nerves and muscles leading to the sustained contraction of the muscles of the larynx, face, hand, and feet is due to

1. Hyperactivity of thyroid
2. Hyperactivity of parathyroid
3. Hypoactivity of thyroid
4. Hypoactivity of parathyroid

Answer: 4. Hypoactivity of parathyroid

Question 33. Hormones secreted during allergy is

1. Glucocorticoid
2. Mineralocorticoid
3. Insulin
4. Thyroxine

Answer: 1. Glucocorticoid

Question 34. Deficiency of the adrenal cortex activity leads to

1. Cushing’s disease
2. Conn’s syndrome
3. Addison’s disease
4. Simmonds’ disease

Answer: 3. Addison’s disease

Question 35. One of the following symptoms pertains to Addison’s disease.

1. Low plasma Na⁺, high plasma K⁺, increased urinary Na⁺, low blood sugar, vomiting, nausea, and diarrhea.
2. High blood sugar, obesity, wasting of limb muscles, fall in plasma K⁺, high blood Na⁺, rise in blood volume, and high blood pressure.
3. Stunted growth, retarded sexual development, and mental backwardness.
4. Increased heartbeat, rise in blood pressure, nervousness, bulging eyes, and warm skin.

Answer: 1. Low plasma Na⁺, high plasma K⁺, increased urinary Na⁺, low blood sugar, vomiting, nausea, and diarrhea.

Question 36. Adrenal virilism results due to

1. Poor secretion of sex corticoids
2. Excess secretion of sex corticoids
3. Excess secretion of aldosterone
4. Poor secretion of aldosterone

Answer: 2. Excess secretion of sex corticoids

Question 37. Secretion of aldosterone in birds, man, and other mammals is stimulated by

1. Fall in the concentration of Na⁺ in blood plasma
2. Rise in the concentration of K⁺ in blood plasma
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Fall in the Ca⁺⁺ concentration in blood plasma

Answer: 3. Both 1 and 2

Question 38. A patient who excretes a large quantity of sodium in urine has

1. Diseased adrenal medulla
2. Diseased adrenal cortex
3. Diseased pancreas
4. Diseased thymus

Answer: 2. Diseased adrenal cortex

Question 39. After receiving a hormonal shot, an asthma patient will get relief from exhaling the air. The hormone injected will be

1. Oxytocin
2. Adrenalin
3. Insulin
4. Thyroxine

Answer: 2. Adrenalin

Question 40. The hormones produced during emotional stress is

1. Melatonin
2. Thyroxine
3. Calcitonin
4. Adrenaline

Answer: 4. Adrenaline

Question 41. When the normal heart of a man is injected with a physiological concentration of adrenaline, it shows

1. Systolic arrest
2. Decreased rate
3. Sustained increased rate
4. First increased than normal rate

Answer: 4. First increased than normal rate

Question 42. The hormone somatostatin is responsible for inhibiting motility and absorption in the digestive tract. It also inhibits the release of insulin and glucagon hormone and is released by which type of cells of the pancreas?

1. Alpha
2. Beta
3. Delta
4. F cells

Answer: 3. Delta

Question 43. Which of the following is the function of insulin?

1. Promotes synthesis of fats from glucose by adipose tissue
2. Promotes protein synthesis by promoting the uptake of amino acids by liver and muscle cells
3. Promotes the conversion of glucose into glycogen
4. All of these

Answer: 4. All of these

Question 44. The organ which was considered vestigial till recently but is now confirmed to be an endocrine gland is

1. Thymus
2. Pancreas
3. Pineal
4. Pituitary

Answer: 3. Pineal

Question 45. Which of the statements is incorrect w.r.t. melatonin hormone?

1. Shows diurnal variation
2. Antigonadial hormone
3. Secreted by pineal body
4. Poorly vascularized

Answer: 4. Poorly vascularized

Question 46. The mammalian thymus is mainly concerned with

1. Regulation of body temperature
2. Regulation of body growth
3. Immunological functions
4. Secretion of thyrotropin

Answer: 3. Immunological functions

Question 47. Which of the following glands grows to the maximum size at puberty and then diminishes gradually?

1. Thymus
2. Pituitary
3. Thyroid
4. Adrenal

Answer: 1. Thymus

Question 48. Relaxin is secreted by which endocrine gland?

1. Corpus luteum
2. Pituitary
3. Pineal
4. Ovary

Answer: 1. Corpus luteum

Question 49. Gynecomastia condition can develop due to

1. Temporary increase in circulating estrogen in neonates
2. Temporary increase in circulating estrogen at puberty
3. Decreased testosterone in later life
4. All of these

Answer: 4. All of these

Question 50. A placental hormone called chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) which stimulates the secretion of progesterone by the ovary during pregnancy is

1. Proteinaceous in nature
2. Steroid in nature
3. Biogenic amine
4. Both 1 and 2

Answer: 1. Proteinaceous in nature

Question 51. High-pitch juvenile voice in males can be retained by

1. Ovariectomy
2. Castration
3. Synorcliidistn
4. Eunuchoidism

Answer: 2. Castration

Question 52. Find the odd one out with respect to the site of hormone production.

1. Epinephrine, nor-epinephrine, thyroxine
2. FSH, STH, TSH
3. Progesterone, testosterone, mineralocorticoid
4. Insulin, glucagon, oxytocin

Answer: 2. FSH, STH, TSH

Question 53. Find the odd one out.

1. Glucocorticoids, mincralocorticoids, scxcorticoids
2. Nor-epinephrine, epinephrine, adrenaline
3. Rclaxin, oestrogen, progesterone
4. Insulin, glucagon, thymosin

Answer: 4. Insulin, glucagon, thymosin

Question 54. Which one of the following is a secondary messenger?

1. c-AMP
2. ATP
3. ADP
4. DNA

Answer: 1. c-AMP

Question 55. Which of the following products of PIP₂ diffuses into the cytoplasm triggering the release of Ca²⁺ for intracellular calcium-mediated processes?

1. IP₃
2. DG
3. c-AMP
4. Protein kinase

Answer: 1. IP₃

Question 56. The secondary messenger that shows an antagonistic effect to c-AMP in heart muscle is

1. Ca²⁺
2. Inositol triphosphate (IP₃)
3. DAG
4. c-GMP

Answer: 4. c-GMP

Question 57. The hormone that acts through intracellular receptor proteins is

1. Growth hormone
2. Prolactin
3. Thyroxine
4. Adrenaline

Answer: 3. Thyroxine

Question 58. During the mechanism of action of insulin, protein kinase C is activated by

1. PIP₂
2. IP₃
3. DG
4. Ca²⁺

Answer: 3. DG

Question 59. Which of the following acts as a secondary messenger?

1. DG
2. IP₃
3. cAMP
4. All of these

Answer: 4. All of these

Question 60. Production, secretion, and ejection of milk require the synergistic effects of prolactin and

1. Estrogen
2. Progesterone
3. Oxytocin
4. All of these

Answer: 4. All of these

Question 61. Which of the following hormones is used in transplantation surgery to suppress immunity, and thus, chances of organ rejection by the recipient’s body are decreased?

1. Thyroxine
2. Cortisol
3. Aldosterone
4. Steroid hormone

Answer: 2. Cortisol

Question 62. Which of the following diseases is not related to hyper- or hyposecretion of hormones?

1. IDDM
2. NIDDM
3. Grave’s disease
4. Gull’s disease

Answer: 2. NIDDM

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Question 63. Mark incorrect match.

Answer: 3.

Question 64. Which of the following characters is not related to adrenal virilism?

1. Male-type external sex characters in female
2. Deep voice
3. Gynecomastia
4. Appearance of beard and moustaches

Answer: 3. Gynecomastia

Question 65. Which of the following disorders is not due to hypersecretion of a hormone?

1. Osteitis fibrosa cystica
2. Grave’s disease
3. Cushing’s syndrome
4. Addison’s disease

Answer: 4. Addison’s disease

Question 66. Which of the following is an action not produced by sym- pathetico-adrenal system?

1. Constriction of skin and visceral smooth muscle
2. Dilation of arterioles of the heart and skeletal muscles
3. Constriction of pupils
4. Dilation of bronchioles

Answer: 3. Constriction of pupils

Question 67. Mark the second messenger in case of heart in response to the parasympathetic nervous system.

1. cAMP
2. cGMP
3. IP₃
4. DG

Answer: 2. cGMP

Question 68. The effect of thyroxine on BMR is

1. Increase
2. Decrease
3. Uncertain
4. No effect

Answer: 1. Increase

Question 69. Neurohypohysis secretes-

1. Vasopressin and growth hormone
2. Oxytocin and estrogen
3. Vasopressin and oxytocin
4. Vasopressin and estrogen

Answer: 3. Vasopressin and oxytocin

Question 70. Adrenal cortex produces

1. Adrenaline
2. Epinephrine
3. Aldosterone
4. Calcitonin

Answer: 3. Aldosterone

Question 71. When the parathyroid gland degenerates, which activity i disturbed?

1. Growth
2. Calcium concentration
3. Potassium concentration
4. Sodium concentration

Answer: 2. Calcium concentration

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Question 72. The main effect of prolactin Iannone is on

1. Liver
2. Pancreas
3. Mammary glands
4. Bones

Answer: 3. Mammary glands

Question 73. Dwarfism is due to

1. Absence of insulin
2. Hyposecretion of GH during childhood
3. Hyposecretion of GH during adult stage
4. Excessive secretion of adrenaline

Answer: 2. Hyposecretion of GH during childhood

Question 74. Excessive secretion of adrenaline  Glucagon is produced by

1. Peptic cell
2. Oxyntic cells
3. Alpha cells
4. Beta cells

Answer: 3. Alpha cells

Question 75. The female sex hormone is

1. Estrogen
2. Androgen
3. Insulin
4. Adrenaline

Answer: 1. Estrogen

Question 76. The function of the thymus is

1. Immunity
2. Growth
3. Formation of RBCs
4. Emergency hormone

Answer: 1. Immunity

Question 77. Vasopressin performs

1. Muscle contraction
2. Increases blood pressure
3. Decrease in blood pressure
4. Both 1 and 2

Answer: 4. Both 1 and 2

Question 78. Progesterone is secreted by

1. Corpus luteum
2. Thyroid
3. Thymus
4. Testis

Answer: 1. Corpus luteum

Question 79. Insulin is secreted by

1. Pituitary
2. Adrenals
3. Thyroid
4. Islets of Langerhans

Answer: 4. Islets of Langerhans

Question 80. Ca²⁺ level is controlled by

1. Thyroid
2. Hypothalamus
3. Pituitary
4. Thyroid and parathyroids

Answer: 4. Thyroid and parathyroids

Question 81. Which one is not secreted by the pituitary?

1. Thyroxine
2. FSH
3. GH
4. ACTH

Answer: 1. Thyroxine

Question 82. Iodine is present in the secretion of

1. Adrenal
2. Thyroid
3. Pancreas
4. Pituitary

Answer: 2. Thyroid

Question 83. Which is correct?

1. Glucagon and insulin are secreted by the same cells.
2. Glucagon and insulin are secreted by different cells.
3. Glucagon and insulin are secreted by different cells and have opposite effects.
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Glucagon and insulin are secreted by different cells.

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Question 84. Which gland is often referred to in connection with AIDS?

1. Thymus
2. Thyroid
3. Adrenal
4. Pancreas

Answer: 1. Thymus

Question 85. A temporary endocrine gland formed in the ovary after ovulation is

1. Corpus uteri
2. Corpus albicans
3. Corpus callosum
4. Corpus luteum

Answer: 4. Corpus luteum

Question 86. The endocrine gland for combating emergencies is

1. Adrenal cortex
2. Adrenal medulla
3. Pancreas
4. Parathyroid

Answer: 2. Adrenal medulla

Question 87. Glucagon produced by a-cells of islets of Langerhans

1. Converts glucose to glycogen
2. Converts glycogen to glucose
3. Decreases the concentration of glucose in the blood
4. None of these

Answer: 2. Converts glycogen to glucose

Question 88. Basal metabolic rate is under the control of

1. Glucagon
2. Insulin
3. Thyroxine
4. Both 1 and 2

Answer: 3. Thyroxine

Question 89. Hormones involved in carbohydrate metabolism are

1. Insulin, glucagon, epinephrine, and parathormone
2. Insulin, glucagon, epinephrine, and glucocorticoids
3. Insulin, glucagon, glucocorticoids, and calcitonin
4. Insulin, glucagon, nor-epinephrine, and melatonin

Answer: 2. Insulin, glucagon, epinephrine, and glucocorticoids

Question 90. Blood calcium is increased by the administration of

1. Glucagon
2. Thyroxine
3. Parathormone
4. Calcitonin

Answer: 3. Parathormone

Question 91. Parathormone deficiency causes

1. Goiter
2. Hypocalcemia
3. Hypercalcemia
4. All of the above

Answer: 2. Hypocalcemia

Question 92. Which hormone facilitates childbirth?

1. Oxytocin
2. FSH
3. LH
4. Prolactin

Answer: 1. Oxytocin

Question 93. Insulin is a/an

1. Vitamin
2. Proteinaceous hormone
3. Amine hormone
4. Steroid

Answer: 2. Proteinaceous hormone

Question 94. FSH is involved in

1. Ovulation
2. Spermatogenesis
3. Control of blood sugar
4. Growth

Answer: 2. Spermatogenesis

Question 95. GH controls growth through

1. rRNA
2. t-RNA
3. m-RNA
4. None of the above

Answer: 3. m-RNA

Question 96. Thyroxine is a/an

1. Vitamin
2. Enzyme
3. Hormone
4. Excretory product

Answer: 3. Hormone

Question 97. Hormone is a/an

1. Enzyme
2. Chemical messenger
3. Excretory product
4. Glandular secretion

Answer: 2. Chemical messenger

Question 98. The pituitary gland occurs in

1. Trachea
2. Abdomen
3. Gonads
4. Brain

Answer: 4. Brain

Question 99. Thyrocalcitonin

1. Elevates K⁺ level in blood
2. Lowers Ca⁺⁺ level in blood
3. Elevates Ca²⁺ level in blood
4. None of the above

Answer: 2. Lowers CaH level in blood

Question 100. Hormones connected with an increased rate of glycogenosis, blood pressure, and heartbeat is

1. Insulin
2. Glucagon
3. Adrenaline
4. FSH

Answer: 3. Adrenaline

Question 101. The removal or absence of the thymus in early life shall bring about

1. Lack of lymphocytes
2. Lack of antibodies
3. Lack of lymph nodes
4. All the above

Answer: 1. Lack of lymphocytes

Question 102. Which one controls the secretion of estrogen?

1. HCG
2. Progesterone
3. LH
4. FSH

Answer: 4. FSH

Question 103. The adrenal medulla is derived from

1. Ectoderm
2. Mesoderm
3. Endoderm
4. Both 1 and 2

Answer: 1. Ectoderm

Question 104. Removal of the thymus gland in the early life of an experimental mammal will cause

1. Lack of lymphocytes
2. Lack of antibodies
3. Lack of lymph nodes and lymph vessels
4. All of the above

Answer: 1. Lack of lymphocytes

Question 105. The hormones controlling secondary sexual characters include

1. Thyroxine
2. FSH and LH
3. GH and FSH
4. Testosterone and estrogen

Answer: 4. Testosterone and estrogen

Question 106. The endocrine gland responsible for immunity is

1. Pineal
2. Thymus
3. Pituitary
4. Adrenal

Answer: 2. Thymus

Question 107. The hormone that promotes cell division, protein synthesis, and bone growth is

1. ADH
2. ACTH
3. PTH
4. GH

Answer: 4. GH

Question 108. Which of the following takes part in salt balancing?

1. Mineralocorticoid
2. Glucocorticoid
3. Somatotrophin
4. None

Answer: 1. Mineralocorticoid

Question 109. Which one exclusively comprises endocrine glands?

1. Pituitary, salivary, adrenals, ovary, testis
2. Pituitary, thyroid, adrenals, ovary, testis
3. Salivary, thyroid, adrenals, ovary, testis
4. Adrenals, ovary, testis, salivary, liver

Answer: 2. Pituitary, thyroid, adrenals, ovary, testis

hormone secreted by kidney

Question 110. Thyroxin is secreted by which gland?

1. Adrenal
2. Parathyroid
3. Pituitary
4. Thyroid

Answer: 4. Thyroid

Question 111. Thymosin stimulates

1. Milk secretion
2. Erythrocytes
3. T-Lymphocytes
4. Melanocytes

Answer: 3. T-Lymphocytes

Question 112. Which gland is concerned with salt equilibrium in the body?

1. Anterior pituitary
2. Pancreas
3. Adrenal
4. Thyroid

Answer: 3. Adrenal

Question 113. Steroid hormones

1. Have only cell surface receptors
2. Are lipophobic
3. Act by altering the activity of proteins in the target cell
4. Are produced by only the adrenal cortex

Answer: 3. Act by altering the activity of proteins in the target cell

Question 114. Which temporary endocrine gland forms in the ovary after ovulation?

1. Corpus callosum
2. Corpus albicans
3. Corpus luteum
4. Corpus striata

Answer: 3. Corpus luteum

Question 115. Insulin differs from growth hormone in the fact that it

1. Increases activity of m-RNA and ribosomes
2. Increases the permeability of cell membrane
3. Affects the metabolism of fats by inducing lipogenic- is
4. Increases protein synthesis

Answer: 3. Affects the metabolism of fats by inducing lipogenic- is

Question 116. Melanin protects from

1. UV rays
2. Visible rays
3. Infrared rays
4. X-rays

Answer: 1. UV rays

Question 117. Which of the following acts as a local messenger?

1. Carrier protein
2. Glycoprotein
3. Phospholipid
4. Glycolipid

Answer: 1. Carrier protein

Question 118. Which one of the following pairs correctly matches a hormone with the disease resulting from its deficiency?

1. Insulin—Diabetes insipidus
2. Thyroxine—Tetany
3. Parathyroid hormone—Diabetes mellitus
4. Luteinizing hormone—Failure of ovulation

Answer: 4. Luteinizing hormone—Failure of ovulation

Question 119. Which hormone causes dilation of blood vessels, increased oxygen consumption, and gluconeogenesis?

1. Adrenalin
2. Glucagon
3. ACTH
4. Insulin

Answer: 1. Adrenalin

Question 120. Sertoli cells are regulated by the pituitary hormone known as

1. Prolactin
2. LH
3. FSH
4. GH

Answer: 3. FSH

Question 121. Which one of the following is not a secondary messenger in hormone action?

1. Sodium
2. c-AMP
3. c-GMP
4. Calcium

Answer: 1. Sodium

Question 122. Insulin is secreted by

1. α-cell of islets of Langerhans
2. δ-cell of islets of Langerhans
3. β-cell of islets of Langerhans
4. Pancreatic acinar cell

Answer: 3. β-cell of islets of Langerhans

Question 123. ADH is responsible for the reabsorption of water and reduction of urine secretion and is synthesized by

1. Posterior pituitary gland
2. Juxtaglomerular apparatus
3. Anterior pituitary gland
4. Hypothalamus

Answer: 4. Anterior pituitary gland

Question 124. In heart cells, which of the following serves as a secondary messenger, speeding up muscle cell contraction in response to adrenaline?

1. CAMP
2. CGMP
3. GTP
4. ATP

Answer: 1. CAMP

Question 125. Which one of the following endocrine glands functions as a biological clock and neurosecretory transducer?

1. Adrenal gland
2. Thyroid gland
3. Pineal gland
4. Thymus gland

Answer: 3. Pineal gland

Question 126. Match the hormones in column 1 with their functions in column 2.

1. 1- E, 2- D, 3- A, 4- B
2. 1- C, 2- D, 3- A, 4- B
3. 1- D, 2- C, 3- B, 4- A
4. 1- A, 2- B, 3- C, 4- D

Answer: 1. 1- E, 2- D, 3- A, 4- B

Question 127. LH and FSH are collectively called

1. Oxytocin
2. Somatotrophins
3. Luteotrophic
4. Gonadotrophins

Answer: 4. Gonadotrophins

Question 128. The mammalian thymus is mainly concerned with

1. Regulation of body temperature
2. Regulation of body growth
3. Immunological functions
4. Secretion of thyrotropin

Answer: 3. Immunological functions

Question 129. During an emergency, which of the following hormones is secreted?

1. Aldosterone
2. Thyroxine
3. Adrenaline
4. Calcitonin

Answer: 3. Adrenaline

Question 130. Insulin is produced from

1. α-cells
2. β-cells
3. Adrenal cortex
4. Testes

Answer: 2. β-cells

Question 131. Which of the following is a secondary messenger?

1. ATP
2. Cyclic AMP
3. GTP
4. ATP and AMP

Answer: 2. Cyclic AMP

Question 132. Blood pressure is controlled by

1. Thyroid gland
2. Thymus gland
3. Adrenal gland
4. Parathyroid gland

Answer: 3. Adrenal gland

Question 133. The hormone responsible for ovulation is

1. LH
2. GSH
3. Progesterone
4. Testosterone

Answer: 1. LH

Question 134. Match the items in column 1 with those given in column 2

Answer: 3.

Question 135. A patient with diabetes mellitus excreted glucose in urine even when he was kept on a carbohydrate-free diet. It is because

1. Fats are catabolized to form glucose
2. Amino acids are catabolized in the liver
3. Amino acids are discharged in the stream from the liver
4. Glycogen from muscles is discharged in the stream from the liver

Answer: 1. Fats are catabolized to form glucose

Question 136. The placenta produces which hormone?

1. GH
2. Gastrin
3. ACTH
4. Progesterone

Answer: 4. Progesterone

Question 137. The hormone that controls the level of calcium and phosphorus in the blood is secreted by

1. Thyroid
2. Parathyroid
3. Pituitary
4. Thymus

Answer: 2. Parathyroid

Question 138. FSH is produced by

1. Adrenal cortex
2. Anterior lobe of the pituitary gland
3. Middle lobe of pituitary gland
4. Posterior lobe of pituitary gland

Answer: 2. Anterior lobe of the pituitary gland

Question 139. Which hormone is responsible for the maintenance of pregnancy?

1. HCG
2. Progesterone
3. Estrogen
4. Prostaglandin

Answer: 2. Progesterone

Question 140. If the ADH level of blood is less, then

1. The volume of urine increases
2. The volume of urine decreases
3. The volume of urine is normal
4. The volume of urine is unaffected

Answer: 1. The volume of urine increases

Question 141. Increasing glucose levels in humans is called

1. Hypoglycemia
2. Hyperglycemia
3. Hyposuria
4. Hypersuria

Answer: 2. Hyperglycemia

Question 142. Spermatogenesis is influenced by

1. Progesterone
2. FSH
3. STH
4. LTH

Answer: 2. FSH

Question 143. Which hormone is responsible for ovulation?

1. FSH
2. LH
3. Testosterone
4. Oestrogen

Answer: 2. LH

Question 144. Progesterone is secreted by

1. Corpus luteum
2. Corpus albicans
3. Corpus callosum
4. Corpus striatum

Answer: 1. Corpus luteum

Question 145. Female hormone is

1. Progesterone
2. Estrogen
3. Estradiol
4. All of these

Answer: 4. All of these

Question 146. Which of the following hormones helps in the contraction of the uterus during childbirth?

1. ADH
2. Androgen
3. Oxytocin
4. Glucocorticoid

Answer: 3. Oxytocin

Question 147. Which of the following hormones stimulates the secretion of milk from females?

1. LH
2. Prolactin
3. Oxytocin
4. Progesterone

Answer: 2. Prolactin

Question 148. Parathormone is secreted during

1. Increased blood calcium level
2. Decreased blood calcium level
3. Increased blood sugar level
4. Decreased blood sugar level

Answer: 4. Decreased blood sugar level

Question 149. The formation of egg and sperm is affected by

1. LH
2. MSH
3. TSH
4. FSH

Answer: 4. FSH

Question 150. ACTH is secreted by

1. Thyroid gland
2. Thymus gland
3. Pituitary gland
4. Islets of Langerhans

Answer: 3. Pituitary gland

Question 151. Mammalian prolactin is secreted by

1. Adenohypophysis
2. Neurohypophysis
3. Adrenal cortex
4. Adrenal medulla

Answer: 1. Adenohypophysis

Question 152. Fight and flight hormone is

1. Adrenaline
2. Thyroxine
3. ADH
4. Oxytocin

Answer: 1. Adrenaline

Question 153. Blood pressure is controlled by

1. Thyroid gland
2. Thymus gland
3. Adrenal gland
4. Parathyroid gland

Answer: 3. Adrenal gland

Question 154. A hormone which is responsible for the maintenance of the corpus luteum is

1. Estrogen
2. Aldosterone
3. Progesterone
4. Testosterone

Answer: 3. Progesterone

Question 155. The effect caused by the non-functioning islets of Langerhans is

1. Heartbeat rate increase
2. Increased BMR
3. Hyperglycaemia
4. Tetany

Answer: 3. Hyperglycaemia

Question 156. The emergency hormone is

1. Thyroxine
2. Adrenaline
3. Insulin
4. Progesterone

Answer: 2. Adrenaline

Question 157. In men, the removal of the parathyroid gland leads to

1. Acromegaly
2. Tetany
3. Polyuria
4. Diabetes insipidus

Answer: 2. Tetany

Question 158. Parathormone induces

1. Increase in blood sugar level
2. Decrease in serum calcium level
3. Increase in serum calcium level
4. Decrease in blood sugar level

Answer: 3. Increase in serum calcium level

Question 159. Which one secretes fight and flight hormone?

1. Pituitary gland
2. Pineal gland
3. Adrenal gland
4. Thyroid gland

Answer: 3. Adrenal gland

Question 160. The name secondary messenger is given to

1. ATP
2. Cyclic AMP
3. AMP
4. Both ATP and AMP

Answer: 2. Cyclic AMP

Question 161. The function of the glucagon hormone is

1. To increase glycogenesis
2. To decrease blood sugar level
3. To release glucose from liver cells and glycogenolysis promotion
4. To increase the absorption of glucose and fatty acids through cell

Answer: 3. To release glucose from liver cells and glycogenolysis promotion

Question 162. Which of the following pituitary hormones is a direct action hormone?

1. MSH
2. ICSH
3. ACTH
4. TSH

Answer: 1. ICSH

Question 163. The adrenal gland is derived from

1. Ectoderm
2. Mesoderm
3. Ectoderm and mesoderm
4. Ectoderm and endoderm

Answer: 3. Ectoderm and mesoderm

Question 164. We know that thyroxine controls the metabolism body. An autoimmune disease where the body owns antibodies attack the cells of the thyroid is called

1. Hyperthyroidism
2. Hashimoto’s disease
3. Grave’s disease
4. Turner syndrome

Answer: 2. Hashimoto’s disease

Question 165. The blood calcium level is lowered by the deficiency of

1. Both calcitonin and parathormone
2. Calcitonin
3. Parathormone
4. Thyroxine

Answer: 3. Parathormone

Question 166. In human adult females, oxytocin

1. Stimulates pituitary to secrete vasopressin
2. Causes strong uterine contractions during parturition
3. Is secreted by the anterior pituitary
4. Stimulates the growth of mammary glands

Answer: 2. Causes strong uterine contractions during parturition

Question 167. A health disorder that results from the deficiency of thy rexine in adults and is characterized by

1. A low metabolic rate,

2. Increase in body weight, and

3. The tendency to retain water in tissues is

1. Cretinism
2. Myxedema
3. Simple goiter
4. Hypothyroidism

Answer: 2. Myxedema

Question 168. Goiter can occur as a consequence of all of the following  except

1. Grave’s disease
2. Iodine deficiency
3. Pituitary adenoma
4. Excessive intake of exogenous thyroxine

Answer: 4. Excessive intake of exogenous thyroxine

Question 169. The hormone that increases the blood calcium level and decreases its excretion by the kidney is:

1. insulin
2. thyroxine
3. calcitonin
4. Parathormone

Answer: 4. Parathormone

Question 170. Which of the following hormones is not a steroid?

1. Androgen
2. Vasopressin
3. Aldosterone
4. Testosterone

Answer: 2. Vasopressin

Question 171. Which of the following hormones does not contain a polypeptide?

1. Insulin
2. Oxytocin
3. Prostaglandin
4. Antidiuretic hormone

Answer: 3. Prostaglandin

Question 172. Steroid hormones easily pass through the plasma membrane by simple diffusion because they

1. Are lipid-soluble
2. Are water-soluble
3. Enter through pores
4. Contains carbon and hydrogen

Answer: 1. Are lipid-soluble

Question 173. Estrogen and testosterone are steroid hormones and are most likely to bind

1. Cytoplasmic receptors
2. Membrane ions channels
3. Enzyme-linked membrane receptors
4. G-protein-linked membrane receptors

Answer: 1. Cytoplasmic receptors

Question 174. Which is a 32-amino-acid water-soluble peptide hormone?

1. Gastrin
2. Calcitonin
3. Glucagon
4. Insulin

Answer: 2. Calcitonin

Question 175. Parathormone influences calcium absorption in the small intestine by regulating the metabolism of

1. Vitamin C
2. Vitamin D
3. Vitamin B₆
4. Enterogastrone

Answer: 2. Vitamin D

Question 176. Toxic agents present in food which interfere with thyroxine synthesis lead to the development of

1. Toxic goiter
2. Cretinism
3. Simple goiter
4. Thyrotoxicosis

Answer: 3. Simple goiter

Question 177. Endemic goiter is a state of

1. Increased thyroid function
2. Normal thyroid function
3. Decreased thyroid function
4. Moderate thyroid function

Answer: 3. Decreased thyroid function

Question 178. The hormone which regulates the sleep-wake cycle in men is

1. Oxytocin
2. Vasopressin
3. Thyroxine
4. Melatonin

Answer: 4. Melatonin

Question 179. Which one of the following pairs is incorrectly matched?

1. Glucagon—Beta cells (Source)
2. Somatostatin—Delta cells (Source)
3. Corpus luteum—Relaxin (Secretion)
4. Diabetes mellitus (Disease)

Answer: 1. Glucagon—Beta cells (Source)

Question 180. Which of the following is not a function of insulin?

1. Increases the permeability of cell membrane to glucose
2. Increases the oxidation of glucose in the cells
3. Initiates the conversion of glycogen to glucose
4. Initiates the formation of hepatic glycogen from excess glucose

Answer: 3. Initiates the conversion of glycogen to glucose

Question 181. Human chorionic gonadotropin is secreted by

1. Chorion
2. Amnion
3. Corpus luteum
4. Placenta

Answer: 4. Placenta

Question 182. What is correct to say about the hormone action in humans?

1. The secretion of thymosin is stimulated with aging.
2. In females, FSH first binds with specific receptors on the ovarian cell membrane.
3. FSH stimulates the secretion of estrogen and progesterone.
4. Glucagon is secreted by β-cells of islets of Langer- hans and stimulates glycogenolysis.

Answer: 2. In females, FSH first binds with specific receptors on the ovarian cell membrane.

Question 183. In a normal pregnant woman, the amount of total gonadotropin activity was assessed. The result expected was

1. High-level circulating HCG to stimulate endometrial thickening.
2. High levels of FSH and LH in the uterus stimulate endometrial thickening.
3. High level of circulating HCG to stimulate estrogen and progesterone synthesis.
4. High levels of circulating FSH and LH in the uterus stimulate the implantation of the embryo.

Answer: 3. High level of circulating HCG to stimulate estrogen and progesterone synthesis.

Question 184. A person entering an empty room suddenly finds a snake right in front of opening the door. Which one of the following is likely to happen in his neuro-hormonal control system?

1. Neurotransmitters diffuse rapidly across the cleft and transmit a nerve impulse.
2. The hypothalamus activates the parasympathetic division of the brain.
3. The sympathetic nervous system is activated releasing epinephrine and nor-epinephrine from the adrenal cortex.
4. The sympathetic nervous system is activated releasing epinephrine and nor-epinephrine from the adrenal medulla.

Answer: 4. The Sympathetic nervous system is activated releasing epinephrine and nor-epinephrine from the adrenal medulla.

Question 185. Which one of the following pairs of hormones are the examples of those that can easily pass through the cell membrane of the target cell and bind to a receptor inside it (mostly in the nucleus)

1. Thyroxin, insulin
2. Somatostatin, oxytocin
3. Cortisol, testosterone
4. Insulin, glucagon

Answer: 3. Cortisol, testosterone

Question 186. Which of the following statements is correct in relation to the endocrine system?

1. Organs in the body such as the gastrointestinal tract, heart,
2. Non-nutrient chemicals produced by the body in trace amounts that net as intercellular messengers are known as hormones,
3. Releasing and inhibitory hormones are produced by the pituitary gland.
4. The adenohypophysis is under direct neural regulation of the hypothalamus.

Answer: 2. Non-nutrient chemicals produced by the body in trace amounts that net as intercellular messengers are known as hormones,

Question 187. A pregnant female delivers a baby who suffers from stunted growth, mental retardation, low intelligence quotient, and abnormal skin. This is the result of

1. Low secretion of growth hormone
2. Cancer of the thyroid gland
3. Over secretion of pars distalis
4. Deficiency of iodine in diet

Answer: 4. Deficiency of iodine in diet

NEET Biology For Locomotion And Movement Multiple Choice Questions And Answers

Question 1. Cyclosis is a characteristic of plant cells such as Amoeba and vertebrate WBCs. This movement is due to

1. Sliding microtubule
2. Cytoplasmic streaming
3. Beating of cilia
4. Podia formation

Answer: 2. Cytoplasmic streaming

Question 2. A sheet or broad band of fibrous connective tissue that is deep to the skin and surrounds muscles and other organs of the body are

1. Epimysium
2. Pasicule
3. Endomysium
4. Fascia

Answer: 4. Fascia

Question 3. The contractile unit of muscle is a part of myofibril between

1. Z line and I band
2. Z line and Z line
3. Z line and A band
4. A band and I band

Answer: 2. Z line and Z line

Question 4. The number of thick myofilaments (myosin) surrounding a single thin myofilament (actin) are

1. 3
2. 6
3. 2
4. 4

Answer: 1. 3

Question 5.At rest, when muscle is relaxed, thin filaments interdigit- tate with thick filaments only

1. Outside A band
2. Outside 11 band
3. Inside A band
4. Inside M line

Answer: 2. Outside 11 band

Question 6. The ion that must be present in an adequate amount for the binding of cross-bridges with actin is

1. Ca²⁺
2. Na⁺
3. K⁺
4. Mg²⁺

Answer: 1. Cn²⁺

Question 7. In which category of muscle fibers, contraction can be regulated by acetylcholine neurotransmitter?

1. Skeletal muscle fibers
2. Cardiac muscle fibers
3. Smooth muscle fibers
4. All of these

Answer: 4. All of these

Question 8. According to the sliding filament theory of muscle contraction, the filament that moves to shorten a muscle arc

1. Myosin
2. Actin
3. Collagen
4. Creatine phosphate

Answer: 2. Actin

Question 9. Anaerobic work becomes painful due to the accumulation of

1. Ca²⁺ ions
2. Myosin
3. Lactic acid
4. Creatine phosphate

Answer: 3. Lactic acid

Question 10. The lactic acid generated during muscle contraction is finally converted to glycogen in

1. Muscle
2. Kidney
3. Liver
4. Pancreas

Answer: 3. Liver

” spinal cord passes through “

Question 11. The contraction of the muscle of the shortest duration is seen in

1. Jaws
2. Eyelids
3. Heart
4. Intestine

Answer: 2. Eyelids

Question 12. The time period between the beginning of the electrical response and the peak of tension recorded is called

1. Contraction time
2. Latent period
3. Refractory period
4. Relaxation time

Answer: 1. Contraction time

Question 13. Muscle fatigue occurs due to the accumulation of

1. CO₂
2. Lactic acid
3. Creatine phosphate
4. Myosin ATPase

Answer: 2. Lactic acid

Question 14. In a contracted skeletal muscle fiber,

1. M line disappears
2. H zone elongates
3. I band remains constant
4. A band disappears

Answer: 1. M line disappears

Question 15. Which one of the following ions is essential for muscular contraction?

1. Na⁺, Ca⁺⁺
2. Mg⁺⁺, Ca⁺⁺
3. Mg⁺⁺, K⁺
4. K⁺,Na⁺

Answer: 2.  Mg⁺⁺, Ca⁺⁺

Question 16. The potential difference across the membrane of a relaxed muscle fiber is called resting potential. It amounts to about

1. -70 mV
2. 50 mV
3. l00mV
4. 50-100 mV

Answer: 1. -70 mV

Question 17. The longest individual muscle in the human body is

1. Quadriceps femoris
2. Gluteus maximus
3. Sartorius
4. Latissimusdorsi

Answer: 3. Sartorius

Question 18. In which one of the following functions, white muscles are not used?

1. Moving of eyeballs
2. Fast and strenuous work for a short duration
3. For sustained work at a slow rate for a prolonged duration
4. Fast flights as in sparrows

Answer: 3. For sustained work at a slow rate for a prolonged duration

Question 19. Cori cycle involves

1. Liver
2. Muscles
3. Liver and muscles both
4. None of these

Answer: 3. Liver and muscles both

Question 20. Which one of the following is a viral disease that weakens the muscles?

1. Atrophy
2. Poliomyelitis
3. Dystrophy
4. Muscular hypertrophy

Answer: 2. Poliomyelitis

Question 21. On one of the lateral surfaces of the humerus, a muscle called

1. Biceps brachii
2. Oeltoidius
3. Sartorius
4. Messenger

Answer: 2. Oeltoidius

Question 22.In birds, which flight muscle is well-developed?

1. Atari
2. Biceps
3. Gastrocnemius
4. Pectoralis major

Answer: 4. Pectoralis major

Question 23. The backward bending of the shank is worked out by

1. Gluteus maximus
2. Quadriceps femoris muscles
3. Adductor group of muscles
4. Gastrocnemius and hamstrings

Answer: 4. Gastrocnemius and hamstrings

Question 24. The longest visceral muscles are found in

1. Vas deferens
2. Normal uterus
3. Pregnant uterus
4. Abdomen

Answer: 4. Abdomen

Question 25. Which one is not the character of red skeletal muscle?

1. Smaller diameter
2. More mitochondria
3. More sarcoplasmic reticulum
4. More blood capillaries

Answer: 3. More sarcoplasmic reticulum

Question 26. Which of the following is an example of multiunit smooth muscles?

1. Smooth muscle with blood vessels
2. Smooth muscle with intestine
3. Masseter muscle of the jaw
4. Arrector pili muscle of skin

Answer: 4. Arrector pili muscle of skin

Question 27. The least blood supply will be present in the case of

1. Skeletal muscle
2. Smooth muscle
3. Cardiac muscle
4. None of these

Answer: 2. Smooth muscle

red muscle

Question 28. The part of the skull that includes the cranium, olfactory capsules, and optic capsules is known as

1. Splanchnocranium
2. Dermocranium
3. Neurocranium
4. Cranium

Answer: 3. Neurocranium

Question 29. The only movable bone in the skull is

1. Mandible
2. Vomer
3. Maxilla
4. Palatine

Answer: 1. Mandible

Question 30. Which one of the following is the bone enclosing the tympanum in mammals?

1. Tympanic membrane
2. Tympanic bulla
3. Masloid
4. Periodic and tympanic bulla

Answer: 2. Tympanic bulla

Question 31. Sella turcica, a depression enclosing the pituitary gland is found in

1. Temporal bone
2. Parietal bone
3. Sphenoid bone
4. Frontal bone

Answer: 3. Sphenoid bone

Question 32. The number of unpaired bones in the cranium is

1. 2
2. 4
3. 6
4. 1

Answer: 2. 4

Question 33. Foramen magnum is associated with which bone?

1. Frontal
2. Parietal
3. Temporal
4. Occipital

Answer: 4. Occipital

Question 34. Tongue bone is

1. Mandible
2. Hyoid
3. Flat bone
4. Coccyx

Answer: 2. Hyoid

Question 35. The odontoid process is present with which vertebrae of the vertebral column?

1. Atlas vertebrae
2. Axis vertebrae
3. Vertebra prominent
4. Lumbar vertebrae

Answer: 2. Axis vertebrae

Question 36. The number of anterior curves present in the human vertebral column is

1. 2
2. 4
3. 6
4. 1

Answer: 1. 2

Question 37. The total number of movable vertebrae in our body are

1. 26
2. 24
3. 31
4. 30

Answer: 2. 24

Question 38. Vertebra prominens is present with

1. First thoracic vertebrae,
2. First lumbar vertebrae
3. Seventh cervical vertebrae
4. First cervical vertebrae

Answer: 3. Seventh cervical vertebrae

Question 39. Cervical vertebrae can be distinguished from other vertebrae on the basis of

1. Odontoid processes
2. Transverse processes
3. Amphiplatyan centrum
4. Vertebra-arterial canals

Answer: 4. Vertebra-arterial canals

Question 40. The heaviest and largest vertebrae are

1. Thoracic
2. Lumbar
3. Cervical
4. Sacral

Answer: 2. Lumbar

Question 41. Typical thoracic vertebrae are

1. 12
2. 1,9,10,11,12
3. 1,2, 7
4. 2 to 8

Answer: 4. 2 to 8

Question 42. In birds, vertebrae in the neck region are

1. Amphiplatyan
2. Heterocoelous
3. Opisthocoelous
4. Amphicoelous

Answer: 2. Heterocoelous

Question 43. The centrum of a vertebra which is concave on both sides is called as

1. Amphicoelous
2. Opisthocoelous
3. Acoelous
4. Procoelaus

Answer: 1. Amphicoelous

Question 44. The type of vertebrae in the case of humans is

1. Amphiplatyan
2. Procoelous
3. Amphicoelous
4. Heterocoelous

Answer: 1. Amphiplatyan

“red muscle fibres are rich in “

Question 45. How many vertebra-chondral ribs are present in the human?

1. 7 pairs
2. 2 pairs
3. 3 pairs
4. 12 pairs

Answer: 3. 3 pairs

Question 46. The number of floating ribs is

1. 2 pairs
2. 12 pairs
3. 7 pairs
4. 3 pairs

Answer: 1. 2 pairs

Question 47. The glenoid cavity is associated with

1. Pelvic girdle
2. Coracoid
3. Clavicle
4. Scapula

Answer: 4. Scapula

Question 48. Deltoid ridge is found in which one of the following bones?

1. Radius
2. Tibia
3. Femur
4. Humerus

Answer: 4. Humerus

Question 49. Olecranon fossa is present with

1. Radius
2. Ulna
3. Humerus
4. Femur

Answer: 3. Humerus

Question 50. Sigmoid notch is present in

1. Femur
2. Tibio-fibula
3. Humerus
4. Radio-ulna.

Answer: 4. Radio-ulna.

Question 51. Mark the odd one out.

1. Scaphoid
2. Lunate
3. Pisiform
4. Calcaneum

Answer: 4. Calcaneum

Question 52. The phalangeal formula for the hand is

1. 23333
2. 33333
3. 33322
4. 32333

Answer: 1. 23333

Question 53. When we move the palm in the upward direction by the action of the supinator muscle, the position of the ulna is

1. Toward thumb side
2. Toward little finger
3. Toward the thumb side in the right hand only
4. Toward little finger in left hand only

Answer: 2. Toward little finger

Question 54. Which one of the following is called hip bone?

1. Innominate
2. Scapula
3. Manubrium
4. Coracoid

Answer: 1. Innominate

Question 55. The obturator foramen is enclosed between

1. Ilium, ischium, and pubis
2. Ischium and pubis
3. Ilium and ischium
4. Ilium and pubis

Answer: 2. Ischium and pubis

Question 56. Which of the following are involved in the formation of acetabulum?

1. Ilium

2. Ischium

3. Pubis

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: 4. 1, 2 and 3

Question 57. A saddle joint is present between

1. Radius and ulna
2. Carpals
3. Carpal and metacarpal of thumb
4. Ulna and humerus

Answer: 3. Carpal and metacarpal of thumb

Question 58. The hinge joint is present between

1. Humerus and radio-ulna
2. Femur and pelvic girdle
3. Femur and acetabulum
4. Humerus and pectoral girdle

Answer: 1. Humerus and radio-ulna

Question 59. Which of the following movements in the mammalian skeleton represent the leverage of the third order (force applied at a point between the fulcrum and the point of resistance)?

1. Biceps muscle flexing arm at elbow
2. Triceps muscle extending arm at the elbow
3. The Gastrocnemius muscle raises the weight of the body on the toes
4. Movement of the head of the femur in the acetabulum of the pelvic girdle

Answer: 1. Biceps muscle flexing arm at elbow

Question 60. Which of the following abnormalities will include the secretion of abnormal granules—pannus?

1. Osteoarthritis
2. Rheumatoid arthritis
3. Gout
4. Osteoporosis

Answer: 2. Rheumatoid arthritis

Question 61. The cells responsible for the resorption of bone matrix during the growth and remodeling of the skeleton are called

1. Osteoblasts
2. Osteoclasts
3. Chondroblasts
4. Chondroclasts

Answer: 2. Osteoclasts

Question 62. Find the odd one out.

1. Humerus, thigh, tibia, fibula, radius, and ulna
2. Metacarpals and metatarsals, phalanges of fingers and toes
3. Scapula of shoulder bone, sternum, cranial bones, vertebrae
4. Carpals of wrist and tarsals of ankle

Answer: 3. Scapula of shoulder bone, sternum, cranial bones, vertebrae

Question 63. Find the odd one out.

1. Ilium, ischium, pubis
2. Deltoid ridge, olecranon process, trochanter
3. Suprascapula, coracoid, scapula, trochlea
4. Epiphysis, xiphistemum, olecranon notch

Answer: 1. Ilium, ischium, pubis

Question 64. When a bone breaks into more than two pieces, such a fracture is called

1. Simple fracture
2. Greenstick fracture
3. Comminuted fracture
4. Compound fracture

Answer: 3. Comminuted fracture

Question 65. Bone formed by the ossification of tendon is called as

1. Sesamoid
2. Cartilage or replacing bone
3. Investing or dermal bone
4. Membranous bone

Answer: 1. Sesamoid

Question 66.“All or none” rule cannot be implicated on

1. Non-striated muscles
2. Cardiac muscles
3. Striated muscles
4. All the above

Answer: 4. All the above

Question 67. Each myofibril has a diameter of

1. 1-2 mm
2. 0.1-0.2 mm
3. 0.001-0.002 mm
4. None of the above

Answer: 3. 0.001-0.002 mm

Question 68. Myosin filaments are localized in

1. Zband
2. H band
3. A band
4. None of the above

Answer: 3. A band

Question 69. Chemical ions responsible for muscle contraction are

1. Ca⁺⁺ and K⁺
2. Na⁺ and K⁺
3. Na⁺ and Ca⁺⁺
4. Ca⁺⁺ and Mg⁺⁺ ions

Answer: 4. Ca⁺⁺ and Mg⁺ ions

Question 70. Muscles get fatigued due to the accumulation of

1. Adenosine triphosphate
2. CO₂
3. Lactic acid
4. Phosphate molecules

Answer: 3. Lactic acid

Question 71. The basic unit of muscle contraction is

1. Actin
2. Myosin
3. Sarcomere
4. Tropomyosin

Answer: 3. Sarcomere

Question 72. Muscle fibers having rounded ends are

1. Unstriped muscles
2. Smooth muscles
3. Striped muscles
4. All the above

Answer: 1. Unstriped muscles

Question 73. The transmitter substance released at the synapse is

1. Secretin
2. Cholecystokinin
3. Cholesterol
4. Acetylcholine

Answer: 4. Acetylcholin

Question 74. Part of the pectoral girdle is

1. Ileum
2. Glenoid cavity
3. Acetabulum
4. Sternum

Answer: 2. Glenoid cavity

Question 75. The cervical vertebra is differentiated from another vertebra by

1. Presence of odontoid
2. Presence of a transverse process
3. Amphiplatyan centrum
4. Presence of vertebrarterial canal

Answer: 4. Presence of vertebrarterial canal

“vertebrochondral ribs “

Question 76. The exoskeleton of a rabbit has

1. Hair
2. Hair and hoof
3. Hair and claws
4. Hair, claws, and hoof

Answer: 3. Hair and claws

Question 77. The humerus is different from the femur due to the presence of

1. Spines
2. Deltoid ridge
3. Glenoid cavity
4. Vertebral column

Answer: 2. Deltoid ridge

Question 78. The scapula is a part of

1. Skull
2. Pelvic girdle
3. Pectoral girdle
4. Vertebral column

Answer: 3. Pectoral girdle

Question 79. The obturator foramen is present between

1. Ilium and ischium
2. Ischium and pubis
3. Ilium and pubis
4. None

Answer: 2. Ischium and pubis

Question 80. The long neck of a giraffe or camel is due to

1. More number of cervical vertebra
2. More length of cervical vertebra
3. Presence of muscular pads between cervical vertebrae
4. Presence of extra bony plates

Answer: 2. More length of cervical vertebra

Question 81. The strongest bone is

1. Tibia
2. Femur
3. Humerus
4. Ulna

Answer: 1. Tibia

Question 82. The number of tarsal bones

1. 2
2. 7
3. 6
4. 5

Answer: 3. 6

Question 83. The heel bone of a rabbit is

1. Central
2. Mesocuneiform
3. Ectocuneiform
4. Calcaneal process

Answer: 4. Calcaneal process

Question 84. The sesamoid bone of the knee is

1. Patella
2. Patella and two fabellae
3. Fabellae
4. Pisiform

Answer: 2. Patella and two fabellae

Question 85. The number of bones present in the tarsals is

1. 2,2, 1
2. 2,3,1
3. 2. 1.3
4. 1,2,3

Answer: 3. 2. 1.3

Question 86. The sacroiliac joint is

1. Movable
2. Immovable
3. Imperfect
4. None

Answer: 2. Immovable

Question 87. Which bone does not participate in the formation of acetabulum?

1. Pubis
2. Ilium
3. Ischium
4. None

Answer: 1. Pubis

Question 88. In rabbits, the bone present between the pubis and acetabulum is

1. Cotyloid
2. Scapula
3. Astragalus
4. Cuboid

Answer: 1. Cotyloid

Question 89. The supratrochlear fossa is present in the

1. Humerus of Ifog
2. Humerus of rabbit
3. Radius of rabbit
4. Radius of frog

Answer: 2. Humerus of rabbit

Question 90. Trochlea of which bone fits in the sigmoid notch of the ulna?

1. Humerus
2. Radius
3. Femur
4. Scaphoid

Answer: 1. Humerus

Question 91. Acromian process is present in

1. The pectoral girdle of frog
2. The pectoral girdle of rabbit
3. The pelvic girdle of rabbit
4. The pelvic girdle of frog

Answer: 2. Pectoral girdle of rabbit

Question 92. The shoulder joint is present between

1. The glenoid cavity of the pectoral girdle and head of the humerus
2. Coracoid process of the pectoral girdle and head of the humerus
3. Both
4. None

Answer: 2. Coracoid process of the pectoral girdle and head of the humerus

Question 93. A typical vertebra of a rabbit is

1. Acoelous
2. Procoelous
3. Amphicoelous
4. Amphiplatyan

Answer: 4. Amphiplatyan

Question 94. A feature of the vertebra of mammals is

1. Centrum is amphiplatyan
2. Epiphysis is present
3. Inter vertebral disc present between two bones
4. All the above

Answer: 4. All the above

Question 95. False rib in humans is

1. 8th, 9th, and 10th rib
2. 7th, 8th. and 9th rib
3. 9th, 10th, and11th rib
4. 6th, 7th, and 8th rib

Answer: 1. 8th, 9th, and 10th rib

Question 96. The type of suspension in the lower jaw of a rabbit is

1. Craniostylic
2. Autostylic
3. Both
4. None

Answer: 1. Craniostylic

Question 97. The number of bones in the

1. 132
2. 128
3. 80
4. 126

Answer: 1. 132

Question 98. The hinge joint is an

1. Elbow joint
2. Ankle joint
3. Interphalangeal joint
4. All

Answer: 4. All

Question 99. Pivot joint is

1. Atlanto-axial joint
2. Shoulder joint
3. Hip joint
4. None

Answer: 1. Atlanto-axial joint

Question 100. The study of joints is known as

1. Osteology
2. Arthrology
3. Craniology
4. Kinesiology

Answer: 2. Arthrology

Question 101. A vertebra having convexity both in front and behind is

1. Acoelous
2. Procoelous
3. Amphicoelous
4. Amphiplatyon

Answer: 4. Amphiplatyon

Question 102. Long bones function in

1. Support
2. Support, erythrocyte, and leucocyte synthesis
3. Support and erythrocyte synthesis
4. Erythrocyte formation

Answer: 2. Support, erythrocyte and leucocyte synthesis

Question 103. Trochanters occur in

1. Humerus
2. Femur
3. Radio-ulna
4. Tibia-fibula

Answer: 2. Femur

“myosin filament “

Question 104. The Acromion process is part of

1. Vertebral column
2. Pelvic girdle
3. Femur
4. Pectoral girdle

Answer: 2. Pelvic girdle

Question 105. Part of the body having a single pair of bones is

1. Pelvic girdle
2. External ear
3. Wrist
4. Lower jaw

Answer: 1. Pelvic girdle

Question 106. The comparative study of skulls is

1. Craniology
2. Conchology
3. Malacology
4. Osteology

Answer: 1. Craniology

Question 107. The longest bone of a frog is

1. Humerus
2. Tibia-fibula
3. Femur
4. Radio-ulna

Answer: 2. Tibia-fibula

Question 108. The Haversian system is the diagnostic feature of

1. Avian bones
2. Reptilian bones
3. Mammalian bones
4. Bone of all animal

Answer: 3. Mammalian bones

Question 109. The feeling of fatigue after running fast for some time is due to

1. Loss of energy
2. Accumulation of lactic acid in muscle
3. Formation of succinic acid
4. Formation of biuret crystals

Answer: 2. Accumulation of lactic acid in muscle

Question 110. In mammals the lower jaw is made of-

1. Maxilla
2. Dentary
3. Mandible
4. Ethmoid

Answer: 3. Mandible

Question 112. Which one has the maximum glycogen-

1. Liver
2. Muscles
3. Nerves
4. Kidneys

Answer: 2. Muscles

Question 113. Ankle joint is

1. Pivot joint
2. Ball and socket joint
3. Hinge joint
4. Gliding joint

Answer: 3. Hinge joint

Question 114. The epiphysial plate is involved in

1. Formation of bone
2. Elongation of bone
3. Thickness of bone
4. All the above

Answer: 2. Elongation of bone

Question 115. Inter-articular disc occurs in

1. Wall of heart
2. Wall of liver
3. Pubic symphysis
4. In between two vertebrae

Answer: 4. In between two vertebrae

Question 116. Acetabulum is part of

1. Pelvic girdle
2. Pectoral girdle
3. Forearm
4. Upper arm

Answer: 1. Pelvic girdle

Question 117. The number of bones in the hind limb of a human is

1. 21
2. 24
3. 30
4. 14

Answer: 3. 30

Question 118. The number of vertebrae in the axial skeleton of a frog living uro- style is

1. 10
2. 12
3. 15
4. 9

Answer: 4. 9

Question 119. Biceps are attached with

1. Radius
2. Ulna
3. Femur
4. Humerus

Answer: 4. Humerus

Question 120. Bones of the pelvic girdle form a cavity in which the head of the femur is fitted and are

1. Ilium only
2. Ilium and ischium
3. Ilium, ischium, and pubis
4. Ischium and pubis

Answer: 3. Ilium, ischium, and pubis

Question 121. The lower jaw of the rabbit articulates with

1. Jugal
2. Alisphenoid
3. Squamosal
4. Parietal

Answer: 3. Squamosal

Question 122. Which of the following is not an odd digitate pentadactyl?

1. Donkey
2. Camel
3. Zebra
4. Rhinoceros

Answer: 1. Donkey

Question 123. The joint between the atlas and the axis is

1. Pivot joint
2. Saddle joint
3. Angular joint
4. Hinge joint

Answer: 1. Pivot joint

Question 124. Astragalus and calcaneum are part of

1. Forelimb
2. Hind limb
3. Scapula
4. Clavicle

Answer: 2. Hind limb

“sliding theory “

Question 125. Coracoid is the component of

1. Forelimb
2. Skull
3. Pectoral girdle
4. Pelvic girdle

Answer: 3. Pectoral girdle

Question 126. The olecranon process occurs in

1. Femur
2. Radius
3. Humerus
4. Ulna

Answer: 4. Ulna

Question 127. Two halves of the pelvic girdle are joined together by

1. Pubic symphysis
2. Ischiac symphysis
3. Ischiopubic symphysis
4. By fusion

Answer: 1. Pubic symphysis

Question 128. The deltoid groove is present in

1. Radio-ulna
2. Femur
3. Tibio-fibula
4. Humerus

Answer: 4. Humerus

Question 129. Sutural joints are present between

1. Thumb and metatarsal
2. Humerus and radio-ulna
3. Parietal of skull
4. Glenoid cavity and pectoral girdle

Answer: 3. Parital of skull

Question 130. Which one is the bone of a skull?

1. Atlas
2. Femur
3. Tibia
4. Pterygoid

Answer: 4. Pterygoid

Question 131. The joint of the sternum and ribs is called

1. Cartilaginous
2. Fibrous joint
3. Angular joint
4. Hinge joint

Answer: 1. Cartilaginous

Question 132. Myoglobin occurs in

1. White muscle fibers
2. Red muscle fibers
3. Involuntary muscles
4. All the above

Answer: 2. Red muscle fibers

Question 133. Coccygeal bone occurs in

1. Skull
2. Pectoral girdle
3. Vertebral column
4. Pelvic girdle

Answer: 3. Vertebral column

Question 134. The immediate source of energy for muscle contraction is

1. Glucose
2. GTP
3. Creatine phosphate
4. ATP

Answer: 4. ATP

Question 135. Synovial fluid is present in

1. Spinal cavity
2. Cranial cavity
3. Freely movable joints
4. Fixed joints

Answer: 3. Freely movable joints

Question 136. EDTA injected into muscles combines with Caand

1. Stops contraction
2. Causes contraction
3. Slows down contraction
4. None of the above

Answer: 1. Stops contraction

Question 137. Mentomeckelian is especially a characteristic bone of

1. Ran a tigrina
2. Aquas
3. Bos indicus
4. Felis domestics

Answer: 1. Ran a tigrina

Question 138. Haversian canals are found in the

1. Bones of birds
2. Bones of mammals
3. Bones of frog
4. Cartilage

Answer: 2. Bones of mammals

Question 139. From outer to inner side, the sequence of three bones present in the middle ear of mammals is

1. Incus, malleus, stapes
2. Malleus, incus, stapes
3. Malleus, stapes, incus
4. Stapes, malleus, incus

Answer: 2. Malleus, incus, stapes

Question 140. Obturator foramen is present in the

1. The pectoral girdle of frog
2. The pectoral girdle of rabbit
3. The pelvic girdle of frog
4. The pelvic girdle of rabbit

Answer: 4. Pelvic girdle of rabbit

Question 141. In frogs, the vertebra with an anterior convex surface is

1. Atlas
2. Urostyle
3. 8th vertebra
4. 9th vertebra

Answer: 4. 9th vertebra

Question 142. Obturator foramen is found in

1. Frog’s pelvic girdle
2. Frog’s pectoral girdle
3. Rabbit’s pelvic girdle
4. Rabbit’s pectoral girdle

Answer: 3. Rabbit’s pelvic girdle

Question 143. Which is the largest bone of the middle ear?

1. Incus
2. Malleus
3. Stapes
4. Cochlea

Answer: 2. Malleus

Question 144. The largest smooth muscle is present in

1. Leg
2. Thigh
3. The uterus of a pregnant woman
4. Urethra

Answer: 3. Uterus of pregnant woman

Question 145. The pelvic girdle of a rabbit consists of

1. Ilium, ischium, and pubis
2. Ilium, ischium, and coracoid
3. Coracoid, scapula, and clavicle
4. Ilium, coracoid and scapula

Answer: 1. Ilium, ischium, and pubis

Question 146. Bone formed by the ossification of a tendon is called

1. Membrane bone
2. Dermal bone
3. Sesamoid bone
4. Cartilage

Answer: 3. Sesamoid bone

Question 147. Fibular bones are associated with

1. Elbow joint
2. Knee joint
3. Neck joint
4. Angular joint

Answer: 2. Knee joint

Question 148. The thoracic cage of man is formed by

1. Ribs and thoracic vertebrae
2. Ribs, sternum, and thoracic vertebrae
3. Ribs and sternum
4. Ribs, sternum, and lumbar vertebrae

Answer: 2. Ribs, sternum and thoracic vertebrae

Question 149. Jaw suspension characteristic of mammals is

1. Amphistylic
2. Craniostylic
3. Autocliastylic
4. Hyostylic

Answer: 2. Craniostylic

Question 150. The joint between the humerus and ulna is

1. Saddle joint
2. Hinge joint
3. Fibrous joint
4. Ball and socket

Answer: 2. Hinge joint

Question 151. The parasphenoid bone in frogs forms

1. Base of cranium
2. Floor of cranium
3. The dorsal side of the cranium
4. The dorsolateral side of the cranium

Answer: 2. Floor of the cranium

Question 152. Ear ossicle, incus, is the modified form of which bone?

1. Jugal
2. Articular
3. Quadrate
4. Hyomandibular

Answer: 3. Quadrate

Question 153. An acromion process is characteristically found in the

1. The pelvic girdle of mammals
2. The pectoral girdle of mammals
3. Skull of frog
4. Sperm of mammals

Answer: 2. Pectoral girdle of mammals

Question 154. The smallest bone in rabbits is

1. Femur
2. Carpals
3. Stapes
4. Nasal

Answer: 3. Stapes

Question 155. Metabolic arthritis is commonly called as

1. Rheumatism
2. Gout
3. Tuberculosis
4. Cancer

Answer: 2. Gout

Question 156. In the human body, which one of the following is anatomically correct?

1. Collar bones—3 pairs
2. Salivary glands—1 pairs
3. Cranial nerves—10 pairs
4. Floating ribs—2 pairs

Answer: 4. Floating ribs—2 pairs

Question 157. The characteristics and an example of a synovial joint in humans is Characteristics

1. Fluid-filled between, two joints, provides a cushion
2. The fluid-filled synovial cavity between two bones
3. Lymph-filled between two bones, limited movement gliding
4. Fluid cartilage between two bones, limited movements

Answer: 2. The fluid-filled synovial cavity between two bones

Question 158. Select the correct statement with respect to locomotion in humans.

1. The accumulation of uric acid crystals in joints causes inflammation.
2. The vertebral column has 10 thoracic vertebrae.
3. The joint between adjacent vertebrae is a fibrous joint.
4. A decreased level of progesterone causes osteoporosis in old people.

Answer: 1. The accumulation of uric acid crystals in joints causes inflammation

NEET Biology For Excretory Products And Their Elimination Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. The animals which do not actively control the osmotic condition of their body fluids are

1. Osmoconformers
2. Osmoregulatory
3. Hyperosmotic
4. Hypertonic

Answer: 1. Osmoconformers

Question 2. Which of the following can be termed as osmocon formers?

1. All marine invertebrates
2. Hagfish
3. All freshwater invertebrates
4. Both 1 and 2

Answer: 4. Both 1 and 2

Question 3. A freshwater fish maintains osmoregulation by

1. Continuously taking in water and eliminating excess salts
2. Eliminating excess of water and taking up salts from the environment
3. Taking both water and salt from the environment
4. Eliminating both salt and water into the environment

Answer: 2. Eliminating excess of water and taking up salts from the environment

Question 4. Which of the following means is used by freshwater organisms to prevent net gain of water or net loss of body salts?

1. Contractile vacuole
2. The large volume of dilute urine
3. Ionocytes
4. All of these

Answer: 4. All of these

Question 5. Marine bony fish have body fluids hypotonic to seawater and tend to lose water from the body through

1. Gill membrane

2. Oral membrane

3. Anal membrane

1. 1 only
2. 1,2, and 3
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 2 and 3 only

Answer: 2. 1,2, and 3

excretion neet questions

Question 6. Divalent cations are generally eliminated in marine fish through

1. Gill membrane
2. Anal membrane
3. Fecal matter
4. Oral membrane

Answer: 3. Fecal matter

Question 7. The body fluids of sharks and coelacanths can be termed as

1. Hyperosmotic and hypoionic to seawater
2. Hypo-osmotic and hypoionic to seawater
3. Hyperosmotic and hyperionic to seawater
4. Hypo-osmotic and hyperionic to seawater

Answer: 1. Hyperosmotic and hypoionic to seawater

Question 8. Consider the following water conservation mechanisms:

1. Nasal countercurrent mechanism

2. Dependence on metabolic water

3. Highly hypertonic urine

4. Living more on a protein-rich diet

A kangaroo rat living in a desert can survive without drinking water because of

1. 1, 2, and 3
2. 1, 2, and 4
3. 2, 3, and 4
4. 1, 3, and 4 only

Answer: 1. 1, 2, and 3

Question 9. Select the true statement.

1. In fish, the kidney plays a major role in ammonia excretion.
2. Ammonia is 100,000 times less toxic than urea.
3. Sharks retain a large amount of urea in the blood as a major osmolyte to balance the osmolarity of the body fluids.
4. Most terrestrial reptiles excrete ammonia.

Answer: 3. Sharks retain a large amount of urea in the blood as a major osmolyte to balance the osmolarity of the body fluids.

Question 10. One of the following can retain a large amount of urea in the blood and tissue fluid.

1. Mammals including man
2. Toad, frog, prawn
3. Sharks, electric ray, sting ray
4. Alligators, terrapins, turtles

Answer: 3. Sharks, electric ray, sting ray

Question 11. Deamination is the first step in urea formation. It means

1. Reduction of ammonia
2. Oxidation of ammonia
3. Addition of amino group to a non-amino organic molecule
4. Removal of an amino group from an amino acid

Answer: 4. Removal of an amino group from an amino acid

Question 12. Removal of metabolic waste in the form of urea is called

1. Ammoniotelism
2. Ureotelism
3. Uricotelism
4. Aminotelism

Answer: 2. Ureotelism

Question 13. Uric acid is produced by the breakdown of

1. Proteins
2. Amino acids
3. Nucleic acids
4. Starch

Answer: 3. Nucleic acids

Question 14. Guano, the fecal matter of birds contains

1. Insoluble crystals of uric acid
2. Insoluble crystals of urates
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Urea

Answer: 3. Both 1 and 2

Question 15. Flame cells (solenocytes) are excretory structures of

1. Annelida
2. Arthropoda
3. Flatworms
4. Crustaceans (prawn)

Answer: 3. Flatworms

Question 16. Antennary or green glands which are excretory and osmoregulatory organs of crustaceans consist of

1. End sac
2. Renal sac
3. Antenna
4. Lateral and transverse ducts

Answer: 1. End sac

Question 17. The kidneys not only remove the waste products from the blood but also play a very important role in maintaining

1. Equilibrium of the body
2. Temperature of the body
3. Constant composition of the blood irrespective of the nature of the food or fluid intake
4. Blood pressure constant

Answer: 3. Constant composition of the blood irrespective of the nature of the food or fluid intake

Question 18. The outer cortex of the kidney in a TS appears granular or dotted because of

1. Granular cytoplasm
2. The presence of a loop of Henle
3. The presence of collecting ducts
4. Much convoluted uriniferous tubules and Malpighian corpuscles in this region

Answer: 4. Much convoluted uriniferous tubules and Malpighian corpuscles in this region

Question 19. The concavity on the medial side of the kidney is known as

1. Renal pelvis
2. Hilum
3. Calyces
4. Pyramid

Answer: 2. Hilum

Question 20. Podocytes are associated with

1. PCT part of the nephron
2. Glomerulus
3. Bowman’s capsule
4. Loop of Henle

Answer: 3. Bowman’s capsule

Question 21. The smallest functional unit of the kidney is

1. Nephron
2. Collecting tubule
3. Glomerulus
4. Bowman’s capsule

Answer: 1. Nephron

Question 22. Henle’s loops are found in those animals that excrete hypertonic urine. One of the following does not have Henle’s loop.

1. Birds
2. Mammals
3. Frogs
4. None of these

Answer: 3. Frogs

excretory products

Question 23. The thin segment of the descending limb of Loop of Henle is lined by

1. Columnar cells
2. Flat cells
3. Cuboidal cells
4. Pyramidal cells with characteristic brush border

Answer: 2. Flat cells

Question 24. Collecting tubes or ducts combine to form

1. Duct of Bellini
2. Bidder’s canal
3. Columns of Bertin
4. Ureter

Answer: 1. Duct of Bellini

Question 25. Brush border surface can be taken as the characteristic feature of

1. PCT
2. Bowman’s capsule
3. Loop of Henle
4. OCT

Answer: 1. PCT

Question 26. The first, and fourth portion of the descending limb is lined by

1. Simple squamous epithelium
2. Stratified squamous epithelium
3. Cuboidal epithelium
4. Columnar epithelium

Answer: 3. Cuboidal epithelium

Question 27. Which of the following statements is not true w.r.t. nephron?

1. Cortical nephrons are more common.
2. Cortical nephrons lack vasa recta.
3. In juxtamedullary nephrons, the blood first passes through the vasa recta and then through the
   capillaries of glomerulus
4. The glomeruli of juxtamedullary nephrons are placed close to the inner margin of the cortex.

Answer: 3. In juxtamedullary nephrons, the blood first passes through the vasa recta and then through the capillaries of the glomerulus

Question 28. Which of the following defines the net filtration pressure (NFP)?

1. BCOP – (GHP + CHP)
2. GHP-(BCOP + CHP)
3. (BCOP + GHP) – CHP
4. (GHP – CHP) + BCOP

Answer: 2. GHP-(BCOP + CHP)

Question 29. Which of the following is correct?

1. The afferent arteriole is narrower than the efferent arteriole.
2. An efferent venule is narrower than a vein.
3. An efferent arteriole is narrower than an afferent arteriole.
4. Both afferent and efferent arterioles are of the same diameter.

Answer: 3. An efferent arteriole is narrower than an afferent arteriole.

Question 30. The glomerular filtration rate is

1. 125mL/min
2. 180 L/day
3. 1300 mL/min
4. Both 1 and 2

Answer: 4. Both 1 and 2

Question 31. If the GFR is 125 mL/min and the renal plasma flow is 700 mL/min, the filtration fraction is

1. About 6%
2. About 18%
3. About 12%
4. About 24%

Answer: 2. About 18%

Question 32. Which of the following mechanisms will operate mainly to check variation in flow to the glomerulus in case of fluctuation in blood pressure?

1. Counter current mechanism
2. Myogenic mechanism
3. Adam’s stroke condition
4. Neurogenic mechanism

Answer: 2. Myogenic mechanism

Question 33. One of the following is impermeable to water

1. PCT
2. DCT
3. Descending limb of Henle’s loop
4. Ascending limb of Henle’s loop

Answer: 4. Ascending limb of Henle’s loop

Question 34. Active reabsorption of Na⁺, K⁺ takes place in

1. DCT
2. PCT
3. Ascending limb of Henle’s loop
4. All of these

Answer: 4. All of these

Question 35. Tubular secretion helps to maintain a proper acid-base balance by removing one of the following from the blood

1. H⁺ions and ammonia
2. Uric acid
3. H⁺ ions and urea
4. Ammonia and creatinine

Answer: 1. H⁺ions and ammonia

Question 36. The concentration of sodium and chloride ions is the lowest

1. Near the cortex
2. Deep in medulla
3. In the interstitial fluid
4. In the middle of Henle’s loop

Answer: 1. Near the cortex

Question 37. Which statement is wrong?

1. The counter-current mechanism changes the isotonic glomerular filtrate into hypertonic urine by
   increasing salt concentration around the nephron and collecting the tubule.
2. The wall of the collecting tubule is permeable to water whereas the ascending limb is impermeable to water.
3. The absorption of water in DCT is facultative.
4. As the filtrate passes through the ascending limb, sodium is transported passively in an ascending thick segment.

Answer: 4. As the filtrate passes through the ascending limb, sodium is transported passively in the ascending thick segment.

excretory products and their elimination questions and answers

Question 38. Which one of the following is produced in the kidneys?

1. Rennm
2. Renin
3. Unease
4. Arginase

Answer: 2. Renin

Question 39. Angiotensin-2 increases the blood volume by

1. Signaling PCT to reabsorb more NaCl and water
2. Stimulating the adrenal gland to release aldosterone
3. By stimulating the release of ADH
4. All of these

Answer: 4. All of these

Question 40. Reabsorption of Na⁺ is controlled by

1. Vasopressin or ADH
2. Aldosterone
3. Renin
4. Rennin

Answer: 2. Aldosterone

Question 41.When the volume of body fluid falls below normal, ADH

1. Decreases permeability of distal convoluted tubule and collecting tubule
2. Increases permeability of distal convoluted tubule and collecting tubule
3. Has nothing to do with the permeability of convoluted tubule
4. Decreases permeability of proximal convoluted tubule

Answer: 2. Increases permeability of distal convoluted tubule and collecting tubule

Question 42. The reabsorption of water in the kidneys is under the control of a hormone

1. STH
2. ACTH
3. LH
4. ADH

Answer: 4. ADH

Question 43. The yellow color of urine is due to

1. Uric acid
2. Urea
3. Urochrome
4. Melanin

Answer: 3. Urochrome

Question 44. Vitamin excreted by urine in higher vertebrates is

1. A
2. D
3. K
4. C

Answer: 4. K

Question 45. Hematuria is a disorder involving

1. Loss of blood through the urine
2. Loss of hemoglobin in RBC
3. Loss of glucose in the urine
4. Increase in the concentration of blood urea

Answer: 1. Loss of blood through the urine

Question 46. The retroperitoneal kidney is

1. Kidney of fish
2. Kidney covered by peritoneum on ventral side
3. Kidney covered by peritoneum on the dorsal side
4. Kidney uncovered by peritoneum on dorsal side.

Answer: 4. Kidney uncovered by peritoneum on the dorsal side.

Question 47. The difference between glomerular filtrate and plasma is of

1. Proteins
2. Potassium
3. The first is white whereas the latter is yellow
4. The first is yellow whereas the latter is white

Answer: 1. Proteins

Question 48. A condition of failure of the kidney to form urine is called

1. Diuresis
2. Hematuria
3. Anuria
4. Ketonuria

Answer: 3. Anuria

Question 49. Diuresis is a condition in which

1. The excretory volume of urine increases
2. The excretory volume of urine decreases
3. The kidney fails to excrete urine
4. The water balance of the body is disturbed

Answer: 1. The excretory volume of urine increases

Question 50. The presence of RBC in urine is called

1. Anuria
2. Hematuria
3. Glycosuria
4. Ketonuria

Answer: 2. Hematuria

Question 51. Ornithine cycle is related to

1. Respiration
2. Excretion
3. Digestion
4. Nutrition

Answer: 2. Excretion

Question 52. The volume of urine is regulated by

1. Aldosterone
2. Aldosterone and ADH
3. Aldosterone, ADH and testosterone
4. ADH

Answer: 2. Aldosterone and ADH

Question 53. Reabsorption of glucose from glomerular filtrate occurs in

1. Collecting tube
2. Loop of Henle
3. Proximal convoluted tubule
4. Distal convoluted tubule

Answer: 3. Proximal convoluted tubule

Question 54. Patients with diabetes have glucose in their urine because

1. Glucose is not absorbed from GF
2. Glucose is absorbed from GF
3. Glandular cells secreted glucose in GF
4. The concentration of glucose is higher in GF as compared to its normal amount

Answer: 4. The Concentration of glucose is higher in GF as compared to its normal amount

Question 55. The number of pyramids in the kidney of a man is

1. 4
2. 6
3. 8
4. 12

Answer: 4. 12

Question 56. Na⁺ and Cl^– both are removed by

1. Ascending limb of Henle’s loop
2. Proximal convoluted tubule
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Descending limb of Henle’s loop

Answer: 3. Both 1 and 2

Question 57. Excretion involves a process in which

1. Harmful substances are stored in cells before being eliminated
2. Urine is forced out from the urinary bladder and sweat from the skin
3. Harmful substances in the body are chemically changed
4. Substances of no further use or those present in excessive quantities are thrown out of the body

Answer: 4. Substances of no further use or those present in excessive quantities are thrown out of the body

Question 58. Which of the following sets of animals produce the same substance as their chief excretory product?

1. Camel, housefly, and snake
2. Fish, pigeon, and frog
3. Amoeba, ant, and antelope
4. Frog, monkey, and dog

Answer: 4. Frog, monkey, and dog

Question 59. Column of Bcrtini is found in

1. Liver
2. Kidney
3. Ovaries
4. Testes

Answer: 2. Kidney

“excretory products and their elimination bank of biology “

Question 60. Which feature enables the mammalian kidney to concentrate urine in the medullary region?

1. Rapid removal of sodium ions from medullary tissues.
2. Maintaining a high osmotic pressure in the tissues between the tubules.
3. High oxidative metabolism of medullary cells.
4. Rapid flow of blood through the medulla.

Answer: 2. Maintaining a high osmotic pressure in the tissues between the tubules.

Question 61. In the kidney of the rabbit, the loop of Henle is the part of

1. Collecting duct
2. Glomerulus
3. Uriniferous tubule
4. Bowman’s capsule

Answer: 3. Uriniferous tubule

Question 62. In the kidney, the foundation of urine involves the following processes arranged as

1. Reabsorption, filtration, and secretion
2. Glomerular filtration, selective reabsorption, and tubular secretion
3. Filtration, secretion, and reabsorption
4. Secretion, absorption, and filtration

Answer: 2. Glomerular filtration, selective reabsorption, and tubular secretion

Question 63. A severe fall in blood pressure disturbs the function of the kidneys and reduces

1. Reabsorption of useful substances
2. Glomerular filtration
3. Secretion of nitrogenous waste
4. Renal filtration

Answer: 2. Glomerular filtration

Question 64. In a glomerulus,

1. Afferent capillaries are thicker than efferent capillaries
2. Afferent arteriole is thicker than efferent arteriole
3. Afferent arteriole is thinner than efferent arteriole
4. Afferent capillaries are thinner than efferent capillaries

Answer: 2. Afferent arteriole is thicker than efferent arteriole

Question 65. High blood pressure is maintained in glomeruli than in other capillaries because

1. The variability of the diameters of arterioles causes higher resistance to blood flowing out of the glomeruli than that flowing out of the capillaries
2. Glomerulus has lower hydrostatic pressure than capillary
3. Capillary has a lesser diameter than glomerulus
4. All the above

Answer: 1. The variability of the diameters of arterioles causes higher resistance to blood flowing out of the glomeruli than that flowing out of the capillaries

Question 66. Ultrafiltration occurs in a glomerulus when

1. Osmotic pressure exceeds hydrostatic pressure
2. Hydrostatic pressure exceeds osmotic pressure
3. Colloidal osmotic pressure plus capsular pressure remains less than glomerular hydrostatic pressure
4. Capsular hydrostatic pressure exceeds glomerular hydrostatic pressure

Answer: 3. Colloidal osmotic pressure plus capsular pressure remain less than glomerular hydrostatic pressure

Question 67. Workers in deep mines usually suffer from dehydration because

1. Water is lost due to defecation
2. Water is lost due to evaporation
3. Water is lost along with salts in the form of sweat
4. Water is lost in the form of urine

Answer: 3. Water is lost along with salts in the form of sweat

Question 68. Aquatic animals are mostly ammonotclic because the Excretion of ammonia requires large amounts of water

1.  Excretion of ammonia requires a large amount of water which is available to these animals
2. Ammonia helps in checking the inflow of water into the body
3. They get less light
4. Water contains less nitrogen

Answer: 1. Excretion of ammonia requires a large amount of water which is available to these animals

Question 69. Aldosterone stimulates the reabsorption of

1. Keto acids
2. Glucose
3. K⁺ ions
4. Na⁺ ions

Answer: 4. Na⁺ ions

Question 70. The glomerular filtration rate would be decreased by

1. An increase in the renal blood flow
2. Compression of the renal capsule
3. An increase in the afferent arteriolar pressure
4. Constriction of the efferent arteriole

Answer: 2. Compression of the renal capsule

Question 71. In which part of the excretory system of mammals can you first use the term “urine” for contained fluid?

1. Urinary bladder
2. Collecting tubule
3. Bowman’s capsule
4. Loop of Henle

Answer: 2. Collecting tubule

Question 72. In public urinals, the urine on standing gives a pungent smell due to

1. Conversion of uric acid into ammonia by ornithine cycle
2. Conversion of both urea and uric acid into ammonia
3. Conversion of urea into ammonia by bacteria
4. None of these

Answer: 3. Conversion of urea into ammonia by bacteria

Question 73. A person who is starving, that is, not having food, water, and beverages, will have

1. Less urea in his urine
2. Less fat in his urine
3. More glucose in his blood
4. More urea in his blood

Answer: 1. Less urea in his urine

Question 74. What is the “renal threshold”?

1. The highest concentration of substances up to which it is totally reabsorbed from glomerular filtrate.
2. At which all the substances are reabsorbed.
3. At which the filtration of a substance starts.
4. At which no substance is filtered in the glomerulus.

Answer: 1. The highest concentration of substances up to which it is totally reabsorbed from glomerular filtrate.

Question 75.The glomerular filtrate contains

1. Blood minus cells
2. Blood minus cells and proteins
3. Plasma minus cells and proteins
4. Blood minus proteins

Answer: 2. Blood minus cells and proteins

Question 76. Which of the following terms refers to painful urination?

1. Enuresis
2. Dysuria
3. Anuria
4. Ketosis

Answer: 2. Dysuria

Question 77. In diabetes mellitus, the patient drinks more water as there is urinary loss of

1. Protein
2. Salt
3. Insulin
4. Glucose

Answer: 4. Glucose

Question 78. A patient who excretes a large quantity of sodium in urine has

1. Diseased adrenal cortex
2. Diseased adrenal medulla
3. Diseased parathyroid
4. Diseased thymus

Answer: 1. Diseased adrenal cortex

Question 79. A kidney stone is

1. Deposition of sand in kidney
2. Blockage by fats
3. Blockage by proteins
4. A salt such as oxalate crystallizes in the pelvis

Answer: 4. A salt such as oxalate crystallized in the pelvis

Question 80. Glycosuria is the term used for

1. Loss of glucose in the urine
2. Loss of blood in the urine
3. Loss of salts in the urine
4. None of these

Answer: 1. Loss of glucose in the urine

Question 81. Part not belonging to the uriniferous tubule is

1. Glomerulus
2. Henle’s
3. Distal convoluted tubule
4. Collecting duct

Answer: 4. Collecting duct

Question 82. Which pair is correct?

1. Sweat—Temperature regulation
2. Saliva—Sense of food taste
3. Sebum—Sexual attraction
4. Humerus—Hind leg

Answer: 1. Sweat—Temperature regulation

Question 83. Malpighian corpuscles are present in

1. Cortex
2. Medulla
3. Germinal cells
4. None of them

Answer: 1. Cortex

Question 84. In rabbits and humans, the kidney is

1. Metanephric
2. Mesonephric
3. Pronephric
4. Opisthonephric

Answer: 1. Metanephric

Question 85. Brush border is characteristic of

1. Neck of nephron
2. Collecting tube
3. Proximal convoluted tubule
4. All the above

Answer: 3. Proximal convoluted tubule

Question 86. The difference between glomerular filtrate and plasma is of

1. Proteins
2. Potassium
3. The first is white whereas the latter is yellow
4. The first is yellow whereas the latter is white

Answer: 1. Proteins

Question 87. Nitrogenous waste products are eliminated mainly as

1. Urea in tadpoles and ammonia in adult frog
2. Ammonia in tadpoles and urea in adult frog
3. Urea in both tadpole and adult frog
4. Urea in tadpoles and uric acid in adult frog

Answer: 2. Ammonia in tadpoles and urea in adult frog

Question 88. Reabsorption of useful substances from glomerular filtrate occurs in

1. Collecting tube
2. Loop of Henle
3. Proximal convoluted tubule
4. Distal convoluted tubule

Answer: 3. Proximal convoluted tubule

Question 89. ADH controls the water permeability of

1. Collecting tube (distal part)
2. Proximal convoluted tubule
3. Distal convoluted tubule (distal part)
4. All the above

Answer: 3. Distal convoluted tubule (distal part)

Question 90. What will happen if one kidney is removed from the body of a human being?

1. Death due to poisoning
2. Uremia and death
3. Stoppage of urination
4. Nothing, the person will survive and remain normal kidney will become hypertrophied.

Answer: 4. Nothing, the person will survive and remain normal kidney will become hypertrophied.

Question 91. The total filtrate formed in 24 h in the human kidney is

1. 1.8 L
2. 8.0 L
3. 18 L
4. 180 L

Answer: 4. 180 L

Question 92. Ammonia is converted into urea in 

1. Heart
2. Spleen
3. Liver
4. Brain

Answer: 3. Liver

Question 93. Which vitamin is excreted out in high quantity through urine in man?

1. Vitamin C
2. VitaminB
3. Vitamin E
4. Vitamin K

Answer: 1. Vitamin C

Question 94. If the afferent arteriole diameter is less than the efferent arteriole, then what happens?

1. No effect
2. Ultrafiltration reaction is slow.
3. Ultrafiltration is not possible.
4. Ultrafiltration will stop and tubular secretion will start.

Answer: 3. Ultrafiltration is not possible.

Question 95. The concentration of urine depends upon which organ?

1. Bowman’s capsule
2. Length of Henle’s loop
3. PCT
4. Network of capillaries arising from glomerulus

Answer: 2. Length of Henle’s loop

Question 96. Conversion of ammonia to urea is done by

1. Ornithine cycle
2. Arginine cycle
3. Fumaric cycle
4. Citrulline cycle

Answer: 1. Ornithine cycle

Question 97. The movement of ions against the concentration gradient will be

1. Active transport
2. Osmosis
3. Diffusion
4. All of these

Answer: 1. Active transport

Question 98. If Henle’s loop were absent from mammalian nephron, which of the following is to be expected

1. There will be no urine formation
2. There will be hardly any change in the quality and quantity of urine formed
3. The urine will be more concentrated
4. The urine will be more dilute

Answer: 4. The urine will be more dilute

Question 99. The correct order of excretory organs in cockroaches, earthworms, and rabbits is, respectively,

1. Skin, Malpighi tubules, kidney
2. Malpighi tubules, kidney
3. Nephridia, Malpighi tubules, kidney
4. Nephridia, kidney, green gland

Answer: 2. Malpighi tubules, kidney

Question 100. The net pressure gradient that causes the fluid to filter out of the glomeruli into the glomeruli into the capsule is

1. 20 mm Hg
2. 50 mm Hg
3. 75 mm Hg
4. 30 mm Hg

Answer: 1. 20 mm Hg

Question 101. Which one of the following blood vessels in mammals contains the least amount of urea?

1. Hepatic portal vein
2. Hepatic vein
3. Dorsal aorta
4. Renal vein

Answer: 4. Renal vein

Question 102. A person who is on a long hunger strike and is surviving only on water will have

1. Less urea in his urine
2. More sodium in his urine
3. Less amino acids in his urine
4. More glucose in his blood

Answer: 1. Less urea in his urine

Question 103. Water reabsorption in the distal parts of kidney tubules is regulated by

1. STH
2. TSH
3. ADH
4. MSH

Answer: 3. ADH

Question 104. Due to insufficient filtration in the How man’s capsule, all are likely to happen except

1. Accumulation of fluid in the body
2. Increase in blood pressure
3. Increase in blood urea level
4. Loss of glucose through urine

Answer: 4. Loss of glucose through urine

Question 105. The appearance of albumin in the urine is most likely due to

1. Increase in blood pressure
2. Decrease in the blood osmotic pressure
3. Damage to the Malpighian corpuscles
4. Damage to the proximal convoluted tubules

Answer: 3. Damage to the Malpighian corpuscles

Question 106. Urinary excretion of Na is regulated by

1. Anterior pituitary
2. Posterior pituitary
3. Adrenal cortex
4. Adrenal medulla

Answer: 3. Adrenal cortex

Question 107. Kidney crystals are solid clusters of

1. Calcium nitrate and uric acid
2. Phosphate and uric acid
3. Calcium carbonate and uric acid
4. Calcium metabisulphite and uric acid

Answer: 2. Phosphate and uric acid

Question 108. The yellow color of the urine of vertebrates is due to

1. Cholesterol
2. Urochrome
3. Uric acid
4. Melanin

Answer: 2. Urochrome

Question 109. Which one of the four parts mentioned below does not constitute a part of a single uriniferous tubule

1. Bowman’s capsule
2. Distal convoluted tubule
3. Loop of Henle
4. Collecting duct

Answer: 4. Collecting duct

Question 110. Diuresis is a specific pathological condition that leads to

1. Increased volume of urine excretion
2. Decreased volume of urine excretion
3. Increased glucose excretion
4. Decreased electrolyte concentration

Answer: 1. Increased volume of urine excretion

Question 111. Which one of the following pairs of waste substances is removed from blood in the ornithine cycle?

1. CO₂ and urea
2. Ammonia and urea
3. CO₂ and ammonia
4. Urea and sodium salt

Answer: 3. CO₂ and ammonia

Question 112. The term hematuria is used to describe

1. Internal bleeding
2. Blood in urine
3. Blood cancer
4. Blood poisoning

Answer: 2. Blood in urine

Question 113. In the kidney, the formation of urine involves the following processes arranged as

1. Glomerular filtration, reabsorption, and tubular secretion
2. Reabsorption, filtration, and secretion
3. Secretion, absorption, and filtration
4. Filtration, secretion, and reabsorption

Answer: 1. Glomerular filtration, reabsorption, and tubular secretion

Question 114. An advantage of excreting nitrogenous wastes in the form of uric acid is that

1. Uric acid can be excreted in almost solid form
2. The formation of uric acid requires a great deal of energy
3. Uric acid is the first metabolic breakdown product of acids
4. Uric acid may be excreted through the lungs

Answer: 1. Uric acid can be excreted in almost solid form

Question 115. If Hetile’s loop were absent from mammalian nephron, which of the following is to be expected?

1. The urine will be more in volume.
2. There will be no urine formation.
3. There will be hardly any change in the quality and quantity of urine formed.
4. The urine will be more concentrated.

Answer: 1. The urine will be more in volume.

Question 116. A condition of the failure of the kidney to form urine is called

1. Deamination
2. Entropy
3. Anuria
4. None of these

Answer: 3. Anuria

Question 117. Which of the following is the characteristic of a metanephric kidney?

1. Hypotonic urine production
2. Excess secretion of uric acid
3. Loop of Henle
4. Hormone production

Answer: 3. Loop of Henle

Question 118. The hormone secreted by the kidney is

1. Gastrin
2. Secretin
3. Erythropoietin
4. Aldosterone

Answer: 3. Erythropoietin

Question 119. Which of the following are uricotelic animals?

1. Rolm and frog
2. Lizard and crow
3. Camel and frog
4. Earthworm and eagle

Answer: 2. Lizard and crow,

Question 120.Marine teleosts. undergoing putrefaction, emit a sharp characteristic foul odor, which is due to the production of

1. Trimethylamine
2. Hydrogen sulfide
3. Ammonia
4. Lactic Acid

Answer: 1. Trimethylamine

Question 121. Freshwater bony fishes maintain water balance by

1. Excreting a hypotonic urine
2. Excreting salt across their gills
3. Drinking a small amount of water
4. Excreting wastes in the form of uric acid

Answer: 1. Excreting a hypotonic urine

Question 122. Which is mismatched?

1. Bowman’s capsule—Glomerular Alteration
2. PCT—Absorption of Na⁺ and K⁺
3. DCT—Absorption of glucose
4. None of these

Answer: 3. DCT—Absorption of glucose

Question 123. Loop of Henle is associated with

1. Excretory system
2. Respiratory system
3. Reproductive system
4. Digestive system

Answer: 1. Excretory system

Question 124. The complete reabsorption of glucose takes place in

1. Collecting tubule
2. Distal tubule
3. Proximal convoluted tubule
4. Henle loop

Answer: 3. Proximal convoluted tubule

Question 125. Which of the following is the metabolic waste of protein metabolism?

1. NH₃, urea, and CO₂
2. Urea, oxygen, and N₂
3. Urea, ammonia, and alanine
4. Urea, ammonia, and creatinine

Answer: 1. NH₃, urea, and CO₂

Question 126. Glomerular filtrate contains

1. Blood without blood cells and proteins
2. Plasma without sugar
3. Blood with proteins but without cells
4. Blood without urea

Answer: 1. Blood without blood cells and proteins

Question 127. Glomerular hydrostatic pressure is present in

1. Tubule of kidney
2. Bowman’s capsule
3. Glomerulus or uriniferous tubule
4. Malpighian tubule

Answer: 3. Glomerulus or uriniferous tubule

Question 128. Diuresis is a condition which is characterized by

1. Increase in urine volume
2. Increased sugar excretion
3. Decrease in urine volume
4. Decrease in ionic balance

Answer: 1. Increase in urine volume

Question 129. A liquid which collects in the cavity of Bowman’s capsule is

1. Blood plasma minus blood proteins
2. Glycogen and water
3. Urea, glycogen, and water
4. Urea

Answer: 1. Blood plasma minus blood proteins

Question 130. The mammalian kidney resembles the contractile vacuole of Amoeba in the excretion of

1. Glucose
2. Excess water
3. Urea
4. Ammonia

Answer: 2. Excess water

Question 131. ADH acts on the

1. Collecting tubule of the kidney
2. Loop of Henle
3. Collecting ducts of tests
4. None of the above

Answer: 1. Collecting tubule of kidney

Question 132. Enzyme “renin” is secreted by

1. Cells of stomach
2. Cells of intestine
3. Cortical cells of the kidney
4. Cells of juxtaglomerular apparatus of kidney

Answer: 4. Cells of the juxtaglomerular apparatus of the kidney

Question 133. Absorption of Na⁺ and K⁺ ions does not occur in

1. Bowman’s capsule
2. Loop of Henle
3. Distal convoluted tubule
4. Proximal convoluted tubule

Answer: 1. Bowman’s capsule

Question 134. Urea synthesis takes place in

1. Urinary bladder
2. Alimentary canal
3. Liver
4. Kidney

Answer: 3. Liver

Question 135. Glycosuria is the condition

1. In which a man eats more sugar
2. In which a man excretes sugar in urine
3. In which sugar is excreted in feces
4. A man has low sugar levels in the blood

Answer: 2. In which a man excretes sugar in urine

Question 136. Find the incorrect statement regarding the mechanism of urine formation in man.

1. Tubular secretion takes place in the PCT.
2. Aldosterone induces greater reabsorption of sodium.
3. The counter-current systems contribute to diluting the urine.
4. The glomerular filtration rate is about 125 mL/min.

Answer: 3. The counter-current systems contribute to diluting the urine.

Question 137. If 1L of water is introduced into human blood, then

1. BMR increases
2. BMR decreases
3. RBC collapses and urine production increases
4. RBC collapses and urine production decreases

Answer: 3. RBC collapses and urine production increases

Question 138. In which of the following organisms, the excretory organs are correctly stated?

1. Human—Kidneys, sebaceous glands, and tear glands
2. Earthworm—Pharyngeal, integumentary, and septal nephridia
3. Cockroach—Malpighian tubules and enteric caeca
4. Frog—Kidneys, skin, and buccal epithelium

Answer: 3. Cockroach—Malpighian tubules and enteric caeca

Question 139. Urea synthesis takes place primarily in the liver because

1. Enzyme arginase is present in the liver only.
2. NH₃ and CO₂ are present in the liver only.
3. Hormone ADH is found in the liver only.
4. A kidney is smaller than a liver.

Answer: 1. Enzyme arginase is present in the liver only.

Question 140. Which one of the following correctly explains the function of a specific part of a human nephron?

1. Podocytes: Create minute spaces (slit pores) for the filtration of blood into the Bowman’s capsule.
2. Henle’s loop: Most reabsorption of the major substances from the glomerular filtrate.
3. Distal convoluted tubule: Reabsorption of Kh ions into the surrounding blood capillaries.
4. Afferent arteriole: carries the blood away from the glomerular towards the renal vein.

Answer: 1. Podocytes: Create minute spaces (slit pores) for the filtration of blood into the Bowman’s capsule.

Question 141. The uricotelic mode of passing out nitrogenous wastes is  found in

1. Reptiles and bird
2. Birds and annelids
3. Amphibians and reptiles
4. Insects and amphibians

Answer: 1. Reptiles and bird

Question 142. Ureters act as urogenital ducts in

1. Male humans
2. Female humans
3. Both male and female frogs
4. Male frogs

Answer: 4. Male frogs

Question 143. The maximum amount of electrolytes and water (70-80%) from the glomerular filtrate is reabsorbed in which part of the nephron?

1. Distal convoluted tubule
2. Proximal convoluted tubule
3. Descending limb of the loop of Henle
4. Ascending limb of the loop of Henle

Answer: 2. Proximal convoluted tubule

Question 144. Which one of the following options gives the correct categorization of six animals according to the type of nitrogenous wastes (A, B, C) they give out?

Answer: 3

Question 145. A fall in glomerular filtration rate (GFR) activates

1. Juxtaglomerular cells release renin
2. Adrenal cortex to release aldosterone
3. The adrenal medulla releases adrenaline
4. Posterior pituitary to release vasopressin

Answer: 1. Juxtaglomerular cells release renin

Question 146. Which one of the following characteristics is common both in humans and adult frogs?

1. Four-chambered heart
2. Internal fertilization
3. Nucleated RBCs
4. Ureotelic mode of excretion

Answer: 4. Ureotelic mode of excretion

Question 147. Human urinary system with structures labeled A-D. Select the option which correctly identifies them and gives their characteristics and/or functions.

1. B → Pelvis → Broad, funnel-shaped space inner to the hilum, directly connected to the loop of Henle.
2. C → Medulla → The inner zone of the kidney and contains complete nephrons.
3. D → Cortex → The outer part of the kidney and does not contain any part of nephrons.
4. A → Adrenal gland → Located at the anterior part of the kidney. Secretes catecholamine which stimulates glycogen breakdown.

Answer: 4. A → Adrenal gland → Located at the anterior part of the kidney. Secretes catecholamine which stimulates glycogen breakdown.

NEET Biology For Body Fluids And Circulation Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. There is no capillary system in the case of most invertebrates except

1. Crustaceans
2. Cephalopods
3. Insects
4. Gastropods

Answer: 2. Cephalopods

Question 2. Which of the following cannot be taken as a feature of an open type of circulatory system?

1. Low-pressure system
2. Well-regulated blood supply to different organs
3. Blood returns to the heart slowly
4. Non-perforation of capillaries

Answer: 2. Well-regulated blood supply to different organs

Question 3. In cockroaches, the dorsal chamber of the hemocoel is called

1. Pericardial sinus
2. Perivisceral sinus
3. Perineural sinus
4. Peritoneal sinus

Answer: 1. Pericardial sinus

Question 4. A pair of triangular muscles in each segment, present on either side of a cockroach heart, is of

1. Alary muscles
2. Tergostemal muscles
3. Intercostal muscles
4. Phrenic muscles

Answer: 1. Alary muscles

Question 5. Which is not a function of blood in cockroaches?

1. Transport of nutrients
2. Transport of gases
3. Reservoir of water
4. Main hydrostatic pressure

Answer: 2. Transport of gases

body fluids and circulation

Question 6. In cockroaches, the anterior end of the heart opens into

1. Pericardia sinus
2. Perivisceral sinus
3. Perineural sinus
4. Head sinus

Answer: 4. Head sinus

Question 7. A single type of circulation of blood is found in

1. Fish
2. Frog
3. Man
4. Lizard

Answer: 1. Fish

Question 8. Fishes have venous hearts. The heart receives deoxygenated blood from all over the body except

1. Fins
2. Hindlimbs
3. Gills
4. Forelimbs

Answer: 3. Gills

Question 9. Find the odd one out.

1. Prawn and insects
2. Frog and snails
3. Snails and mussels
4. Prawn and mussels

Answer: 2. Frogs and snails

Question 10. Blood is red but no RBCs are found in

1. Frog
2. Rabbit
3. Man
4. Earthworm

Answer: 4. Earthworm

Question 11. If 1L of blood is drawn out of 5L from the body of a man, how much blood would be left by the next day?

1. 5L
2. 4.5L
3. 4L
4. 3L

Answer: 1. 5L

Question 12. Ringer solution contains

1. Iodine and salt
2. Acetic acid and wax
3. Sodium and potassium ions
4. Water and acid fuchsine

Answer: 3. Sodium and potassium ions

Question 13. Which of the following has a neurogenic heart?

1. Cockroach
2. Octopus
3. Frog
4. Both 1 and 2

Answer: 1. Cockroach

Question 14. Which layer of the heart is responsible for the differential thickness of different chambers?

1. Epicardium
2. Myocardium
3. Endocardium
4. Pericardium

Answer: 2. Myocardium

Question 15. The two auricles are demarcated externally from the ventricle by an irregular groove called

1. Inter-auricular septum
2. Inter-ventricular septum
3. Coronary sulcus
4. Inter-ventricular groove

Answer: 3. Coronary sulcus

Question 16. Which of the following pulmonary bypasses are present in the circulatory system before birth?

1. Foramen ovale
2. Ductus arteriosus
3. Conus arteriosus
4. Both 1 and 2

Answer: 4. Both and

Question 17. The opening of the superior vena cava is guarded by

1. Semilunar valves
2. Columnae came
3. Principal septum
4. None of these

Answer: 4. None of these

Question 18. The opening of the pulmonary vein is without valves because

1. It is a very small aperture
2. It has low blood pressure
3. Its opening is oblique
4. None of these

Answer: 3. Its opening is oblique

Question 19. The aperture between the right auricle and the right ventricle is guarded by a one-way valve called

1. Semilunar valve
2. Tricuspid valve
3. Bicuspid valve
4. Valve of inferior vena cava

Answer: 2. Tricuspid valve

Question 20. Chordae tendinae in the heart are found in

1. Ventricle
2. Left auricle
3. Right auricle
4. None of these

Answer: 1. Ventricle

“mcq on body fluids and circulation pdf “

Question 21.One of the following lies in the wall of the right auricle

1. Purkinje fibers
2. Bundle of His
3. SA node
4. Chordae tendinae

Answer: SA node

Question 22. Ventricular systole is stimulated by

1. SA node
2. AV valve
3. AV node
4. AV aperture

Answer: 3. AV node

Question 23. The Center for Heartbeat Regulation is present in

1. Pons Varolii
2. Cerebrum
3. Cerebellum
4. Medulla

Answer: 4. Medulla

Question 24. A cardiac cycle involves

1. Joint diastole-ventricular systole-auricular systole
2. Auricular systole-ventricular systole-complete cardiac diastole
3. Auricular systole-joint diastole-ventricular systole
4. Auricular systole-ventricular diastole-joint diastole

Answer: 2. Auricular systole-ventricular systole-complete cardiac diastole

Question 25. Mammals are said to have a double circulatory system. It means that

1. There are two types of blood vessels attached to every organ, for example, an artery and a vein.
2. There are two systems, one from the heart to the lungs and back to the rest of the body via the Heart.
3. The blood circulates twice in the heart.
4. Both 2 and 3

Answer: 4. Both 2 and 3

Question 26. The duration of the ventricular diastole in a normal cardiac cycle is

1. 0.3 s
2. 0.5 s
3. 0.4 s
4. 0.7 s

Answer: 2. 0.5 s

“body fluids and circulation neetprep “

Question 27. The time interval between the closure of the semilunar valve and the closure of the AV valve is

1. 0.3 s
2. 0.5 s
3. 0.1 s
4. 0.7 s

Answer: 2. 0.5s

Question 28. The walls of arteries and veins differ from each other mainly w.r.t.

1. Tunica adventitia
2. Tunica media
3. Tunica externa
4. Tunica intima

Answer: 2. Tunica media

Question 29. The course of blood from the heart to the lungs and back to the heart is called

1. Systemic circulation
2. Pulmonary circulation
3. Single circulation
4. Double circulation

Answer: 2. Pulmonary circulation

Question 30. The superior mesenteric artery supplies blood to

1. Pancreas and ileum
2. Hepatic and lien gastric arteries
3. Both (1) and (2)
4. The caucus and proximal half of the large intestine

Answer: 1. Pancreas and ileum

Question 31. The blood from the diaphragm is collected by

1. Phrenic vein
2. Iliac vein
3. Hepatic vein
4. Renal vein

Answer: 1. Phrenic vein

Question 32. The hypogastric artery supplies blood to

1. Urinary bladder
2. Pancreas
3. Abdominal body wall
4. Both 2 and 3

Answer: 1. Urinary bladder

Question 33. A portal system is one in which

1. A vein starts from an organ and ends up in the heart
2. A vein starts from an organ and ends up in another organ
3. A vein starts from the heart and ends up in the lungs
4. None of these

Answer: 2. A vein starts from an organ and ends up in another organ

Question 34. The hepatic portal system is present in

1. Fishes, amphibians, and reptiles
2. Reptiles and birds
3. All mammals
4. All vertebrates

Answer: 4. All vertebrates

Question 35. The middle man of the body is

1. Blood
2. Plasma
3. Lymph
4. Scrum

Answer: 3. Lymph

Question 36. Lymph differs from blood in possessing

1. More proteins and fewer waste products
2. Fewer proteins and more waste products
3. More proteins and waste products
4. Fewer proteins and waste products

Answer: 2. Fewer proteins and more waste products

Question 37. Lymphatic vessels from the lower body part form

1. Right lymphatic duct
2. Thoracic duct
3. Carotid duct
4. Jugular duct

Answer: 2. Thoracic duct

Question 38. The thoracic duct opens into

1. Right subclavian artery
2. Left subclavian artery
3. Right subclavian vein
4. Left subclavian vein

Answer: 4. Left subclavian vein

“notes of body fluids and circulation class 11 “

Question 39. Which of the following waves of ECG shows ventricular depolarization?

1. P wave
2. QRS wave
3. T wave
4. U wave

Answer: 2. QRS wave

Question 40. The time taken by the impulse to travel through the atria, AV node, and the rest of the conducting tissue is

1. PQ interval
2. PQRS interval
3. QRS interval
4. ST segment

Answer: 1. PQ interval

Question 41. PQ interval gets lengthened during

1. Rheumatic fever
2. Arteriosclerotic heart (plaque formation)
3. Arteriosclerotic heart (calcification)
4. All of these

Answer: 4. All of these

Question 42. William Harvey is known for the discovery of

1. Blood transfusion
2. Blood clotting
3. Blood circulation
4. Blood purification

Answer: 3. Blood circulation

Question 43. Which one of the following does not have an open circulatory system?

1. Chelone
2. Cockroach
3. Frog’s tadpole
4. 1 and 2 both

Answer: 4. 1 and 2 both

Question 44. The heart of a crocodile consists of

1. A single auricle and two ventricles
2. Two auricles and a single ventricle
3. Two auricles and two ventricles
4. A single auricle and a single ventricle

Answer: 3. Two auricles and two ventricles

Question 45. Which of the following has a myogenic heart?

1. Frog
2. Humans
3. Rabbit
4. All of the above

Answer: 4. All of the above

Question 46. Purkinje fibers are special types of

1. Muscle fibers located in the heart
2. Nerve fibers located in the cerebrum
3. Connective tissue fibers joining one bone to another bone
4. Sensory fibers extending from the retina into the optic nerve

Answer: 1. Muscle fibers located in the heart

Question 47. The regulation of heartbeat in mammals is due to

1. The volume of blood in the circulatory system
2. The presence of excess oxygen in the blood
3. The presence of thyroxine in blood
4. The presence of a pacemaker in the heart

Answer: 4. The presence of a pacemaker in the heart

Question 48. The first heart sound is

1. “LUb” sound at the end of systole
2. “Dub” sound at the end of systole
3. “Lub” sound at the beginning of systole
4. “Dub” sound at the beginning of systole

Answer: 3. “Lub” sound at the beginning of systole

Question 49. Which one is the correct route through which pulse-making impulse travels in the heart?

1. SA node → Purkinje fibers Bundle of His → AV node → Heart muscles
2. AV node → SA node → Purkinje fibers Bundle of Mis → Heart muscles
3. AV node —> Bundle of Mis —> SA node —> Purkinje fibers Heart muscles
4. SA node → AV node → Bundle of Mis → Purkinje fibers Heart muscles

Answer: 4. SA node → AV node → Bundle of Mis → Purkinje fibers Heart muscles

Question 50. If the vagus branch of the frog is stimulated, the heart will show

1. Stoppage of heartbeat
2. Decreased heartbeat
3. Increased heartbeat
4. No change

Answer: 2. Decreased heartbeat

Question 51. During diastole

1. Blood enters lungs
2. Blood leaves the ventricle
3. Blood leaves the heart
4. Blood enters the heart

Answer: 4. Blood enters the heart

Question 52. During the systole of the ventricle

1. Blood enters the heart
2. Blood leaves the heart
3. Blood leaves the ventricle
4. Blood enters lungs

Answer: 3. Blood leaves the ventricle

Question 53. The apex beat of the heart is synchronous with

1. First sound
2. Second sound
3. Third sound
4. Fourth sound

Answer: 1. First sound

Question 54. Covering of the heart is called

1. Pericardium
2. Peritoneum
3. Perineurium
4. Periosteum

Answer: 1. Pericardium

Question 55. Post caval in the right auricle is guarded by

1. Eustachian valve
2. Bicuspid valve
3. Tricuspid valve
4. Atrioventricular valve

Answer: 1. Eustachian valve

Question 56. Tunica media of an elastic artery is made up of mainly

1. Smooth muscle fiber
2. Loose alveolar tissue
3. Elastic fibers
4. Collagen fibers

Answer: 1. Smooth muscle fiber

Question 57. How much of the total blood volume is present in the heart

1. 2.5 %
2. 17%
3. 9%
4. 15%

Answer: 3. 9%

Question 58. Pylangium is part of

1. Truncus arteriosus
2. Left atrium
3. Right atrium
4. Ventricles

Answer: 1. Truncus arteriosus

Question 59. The coronary sinus in the heart is situated along its

1. Left margin
2. Right margin
3. Diaphragmatic surface
4. The lower border of the heart

Answer: 2. Right margin

Question 60. In all the leads of ECG, all the following waves except

1. P
2. Q
3. R
4. T

Answer: 2. Q

Question 61. Cardiac output signifies

1. The amount of blood entering the heart per unit of time
2. The amount of blood entering the lung per unit time
3. The amount of blood leaving the heart per unit of time
4. The amount of blood leaving the lung per unit time

Answer: 3. The amount of blood leaving the heart per unit of time

Question 62. Heartbeat in vertebrates is

1. Neurogenic
2. Myogenic
3. Both
4. None

Answer: 2. Myogenic

Question 63. Single heart circuit occurs in

1. Fishes
2. Frog
3. Reptiles
4. Man

Answer: 1. Fishes

Question 64. Which of these has a closed type of circulatory system?

1. Cockroach
2. Fish
3. Mollusca
4. Scorpion

Answer: 2. Fish

Question 65. The study of the blood circulation system is called

1. Angiology
2. Cardiology
3. Hematology
4. Osteology

Answer: 1. Angiology

Question 66. The Father of angiology is

1. William Harvey
2. Batson
3. Marcello Malpighi
4. Landstar

Answer: 1. William Harvey

Question 67. The color of lymph is

1. White
2. Pale yellow
3. Colorless
4. Milky

Answer: 3. Colorless

Question 68. Lymph nodes in man are found abundantly in

1. Fingers
2. Neck
3. Arms
4. Legs

Answer: 2. Neck

Question 69. Coagulation of lymph is

1. Faster than blood
2. Not possible
3. Slower than blood
4. A passive process

Answer: 3. Slower than blood

Question 70. An artery can be distinguished from a vein in having

1. Thicker wall
2. Lesser lumen
3. No valves
4. All of the above

Answer: 4. All of the above

“body fluids and circulation neet prep “

Question 71. Glucose is carried from the digestive tract to the liver by

1. Hepatic artery
2. Hepatic portal vein
3. Pulmonary vein
4. None of the above

Answer: 2. Hepatic portal vein

Question 72. The pulmonary artery differs from the pulmonary vein in having

1. Thick wall
2. Thin wall
3. Valves
4. Both 2 and 3

Answer: 1. Thick wall

Question 73. Ventricular contraction is in the command of

1. SA node
2. Purkinje fibers
3. AV node
4. Papillary muscles

Answer: 1. SA node

Question 74. Fully digested food reaches to liver by

1. Hepatic portal vein.
2. Hepatic artery
3. Hepatic vein
4. All the above

Answer: 1. Hepatic portal vein.

Question 75. The impulse of heartbeat originates from

1. SA node
2. AV node
3. Vagus nerve
4. Cardiac nerve

Answer: 1. SA node

Question 76. Which of the following statements is true for lymph?

1. WBC and serum
2. All components of blood except RBCs, platelets, and some proteins
3. RBCs, WBCs, and plasma
4. RBCs, proteins, and platelets

Answer: 2. All components of blood except RBCs, platelets, and some proteins

Question 77. Bundle of His is a network of

1. Muscle fibers distributed throughout the hem I walls
2. Muscle fibers found only in the ventricle wall
3. Nerve fibers distributed in ventricles
4. Nerve fibers found throughout the heart

Answer: 2. Muscle fibers found only in the ventricle wall

Question 78. Systemic heart refers to

1. The heart contracts under stimulation from the nervous system
2. Left auricle and left ventricle in higher vertebrates
3. Entire heart in lower vertebrates
4. The two ventricles together in humans

Answer: 2. Left auricle and left ventricle in higher vertebrates

Question 79. The cardiac pacemaker in a patient fails to function normally. The doctors find that an artificial pacemaker is to be grafted into him. It is likely that it will be drafted at the site of

1. Purkinje system
2. SA node
3. AV node
4. AV bundle

Answer: 2. SA node

Question 80. Which of the following has no muscular wall?

1. Artery
2. Vein
3. Arteriole
4. Capillary

Answer: 4. Capillary

Question 81. The process of blood clot formation within the circulatory system is 

1. Thrombosis
2. Thrombocytes
3. Thrombin
4. Thrombocytopenia

Answer: 1. Thrombosis

Question 82. When the right ventricle contracts, the blood goes into

1. Aorta
2. Brain
3. Pulmonary artery
4. None

Answer: 3. Pulmonary artery

Question 83. The splenic artery arises from

1. Anterior mesenteric artery
2. Coeliac artery
3. Posterior mesenteric artery
4. Intestinal artery

Answer: 3. Posterior mesenteric artery

Question 84. Which of the following carries glucose from the digestive tract to the liver

1. Hepatic artery
2. Hepatic portal vein
3. Pulmonary vein
4. None of these

Answer: 2. Hepatic portal vein

Question 85. Systemic heart refers to

1. The two ventricles together in humans
2. The heart contracts under stimulation from the nervous system
3. Left auricle and left ventricle in higher vertebrates
4. Entire heart in lower vertebrates

Answer: 3. Left auricle and left ventricle in higher vertebrates

Question 86. Carotid artery carries

1. Impure blood from the brain
2. Oxygenated blood to the anterior region of the body or to the brain
3. Impure blood to the kidney
4. Oxygenated blood to the heart

Answer: 3. Impure blood to the kidney

Question 87. Blood circulation that starts in capillaries and ends in capillaries is called

1. Mortal circulation
2. Hepatic emulation
3. Cardiac circulation
4. None of these

Answer: 2. Hepatic emulation

Question 88. A portal system is a system in which

1. A vein starts in front of an organ and ends up in the heart
2. An artery breaks up in an organ ami visits by the union of its capillaries.
3. The blood from the gut is brought into the kidney before it is poured into the posterior vena cava.
4. A vein breaks up in an organ into capillaries and restarts by their union as a new vein in the same organ.

Answer: 1. A vein starts in front of an organ and ends up in the heart

Question 89. Spleen is

1. Hematopoietic
2. Lymphoid
3. Reproductive
4. Celluloid

Answer: 2. Lymphoid

Question 90. In connection with the circulatory system, valves are present

1. Not only in heart and blood vessels or vertebrates and invertebrates but in vertebrate lymphatics as well
2. In vertebrate hearts only
3. In both vertebrate and invertebrate hearts
4. In both vertebrate and invertebrate hearts and their blood vessels as well

Answer: 2. In vertebrate hearts only

Question 91. The function of the human spleen is

1. Control the pulse rate
2. Secrete hormone
3. Stimulate heart
4. Control blood volume

Answer: 4. Control blood volume

Question 92. The “Bundle of His” is a part of which one of the following organs in humans?

1. Brain
2. Heart
3. Kidney
4. Pancreas

Answer: 2. Heart

Question 93. Arteries are best defined as the vessels which

1. Supply oxygenated blood to different organs
2. Break up into capillaries which reunite to form a vein
3. Break up into capillaries which reunite to form an artery
4. Carry blood from one visceral organ to another visceral organ

Answer: 1. Supply oxygenated blood to different organs

Question 94. The ECG of a normal human. Which one of its components in humans is correctly interpreted below

1. Complex QRS—One complete Pulse
2. Peak T—Initiation of total cardiac contraction
3. Peak P and R together—Systolic and diastolic blood pressures
4. Peak P—Initiation of left atrial contraction only

Answer: 2. Peak T—Initiation of total cardiac contraction

Question 95.In a standard ECG, which one of the following alphabets is the correct representation of the respective activity of the human heart?

1. P: depolarization of the atria
2. R: repolarization of ventricles
3. S: start of systole
4. T: end of diastole

Answer: 1. P: depolarization of the atria

Question 96. If due to some injury, the chordae tendinae of the tricuspid valve of the human heart is partially non-functional, what will be the immediate effect?

1. The pacemaker will stop working.
2. The blood will tend to flow back into the left atrium.
3. The flow of blood into the aorta will be slowed down.
4. The flow of blood into the pulmonary artery will be reduced.

Answer: 4. The flow of blood into the pulmonary artery will be reduced.

Question 97. The fastest distribution of some injectable material/medicine with no risk of any kind can be achieved by injecting it into the

1. Muscles
2. Arteries
3. Veins
4. Lymph vessels

Answer: 3. Veins

Question 98. Which statement is true about the venous blood vessels of frogs?

1. Lingual and submandibular unite to form internal jugular.
2. Musculocutaneous and brachial unite to form the subclavian.
3. The ventral abdominal vein drains into the posterior vena cava.
4. The pelvic veins unite from the renal portal vein.

Answer: 3. The ventral abdominal vein drains into the posterior vena cava.

Question 99. Which of the following is not a major organ of the lymphatic system?

1. Spleen
2. Kidney
3. Thymus
4. Lymph nodes

Answer: 2. Kidney

Question 100. Lymph vessels are united to form

1. Lymph heart
2. Cisterna chyli
3. Thoracic duct
4. Jugular vein

Answer: 3. Thoracic duct

Question 101. Cardiac output is determined by

1. Heat rate
2. Stroke volume
3. Blood flow
4. Both 1 and 2

Answer: 4. Both 1 and 2

Question 102. In the frog heart, there are cardiac muscles that consist of fibers called

1. Myonemes
2. Telodendria
3. Purkinje fibers
4. Columnae came

Answer: 3. Purkinje fibers

Question 103. During high blood pressure, regulation of heartbeat and circulation is controlled by

1. Vasodilator and vasconstrictor centers
2. Cardio-stimulatory and vasoconstrictor centers
3. Cardio-inhibitory and vasoconstrictor centers
4. Cardio-inhibitory and vasodilator centers

Answer: 4. Cardio-inhibitory and vasodilator centers

Question 104. Blood pressure is measured by

1. Sphygmomanometer
2. Phonocardiogram
3. Electrocardiogram
4. Stethoscope

Answer: 1. Sphygmomanometer

Question 105. All veins have deoxygenated blood except

1. Renal vein
2. Hepatic vein
3. Hepatic portal vein
4. Pulmonary veins

Answer: 4. Pulmonary veins

Question 106. Common thrombosis leading to myocardial infarction is of

1. Right circumflex coronary artery
2. Left circumflex coronary artery
3. Left anterior descending artery
4. Right coronary artery

Answer: 3. Left anterior descending artery

Question 107.Thrombosis in which coronary artery is met most frequently in myocardial infarction?

1. Right coronary artery
2. Left anterior descending artery
3. Left circumflex coronary artery
4. Right circumflex coronary artery

Answer: 2. Left anterior descending artery

Question 108. Which organ receives only oxygenated blood?

1. Gill
2. Spleen
3. Lung
4. Liver

Answer: 2. Spleen

Question 109. Which blood vessel brings oxygenated blood to the left auricle?

1. Pre caval vein
2. Post caval vein
3. Pulmonary vein
4. Pulmonary artery

Answer: 3. Pulmonary vein

Question 110. Oxygenated blood is carried by

1. Pulmonary vein
2. Pulmonary artery
3. Renal vein
4. Hepatic portal vein

Answer: 1. Pulmonary vein

Question 111. The blood vessel that brings oxygenated blood from the lungs toward the heart of the frog is

1. Pre cava
2. Postcaval
3. Pulmonary vein
4. Pulmonary artery

Answer: 3. Pulmonary vein

Question 112. All arteries carry oxygenated blood except

1. Systemic
2. Hepatic
3. Pulmonary
4. Cardiac

Answer: 3. Pulmonary

Question 113. The blood vessel of a frog which opens in its right ventricle bringing oxygenated blood is

1. Pulmocutaneous artery
2. Inferior vena cava
3. Pulmocutaneous vein
4. Superior vena cava

Answer: 1. Pulmocutaneous artery

Question 114. A yellow substance oozing out from the wound has

1. Lymph + RBC + WBC
2. Lymph + RBC + Dead bacteria
3. Lymph + WBC + Dead bacteria
4. Lymph + Dead leucocytes

Answer: 3. Lymph + WBC + Dead bacteria

Question 115. Which organ is considered as “graveyard of RBCs,” where most of them are destroyed by macrophages?

1. Red bone marrow
2. Spleen
3. Kidney
4. Intestine

Answer: 2. Spleen

Question 116. The Iliac artery carries blood to

1. Hind limb
2. Forelimb
3. Lung
4. Brain

Answer: 1. Hind limb

Question 117. The hypophyseal portal system is found in

1. Kidney
2. Liver
3. Brain
4. Heart

Answer: 3. Brain

Question 118. The standard ECG of a normal person. The P-wave represents the

1. Initiation of the ventricular contraction
2. Beginning of the system
3. End of systole
4. Contraction of both the atria

Answer: 4. Contraction of both the atria

Question 119. The schematic plan of blood circulation in humans with labels A to D. Identify the label and give its functions.

1. B—Pulmonary artery—takes blood from heart to lungs, po₂ = 90 mm Hg
2. C—Vena Cava—takes blood from body parts to the right auricle, pco₂ = 45 mm Hg
3. D —Dorsal aorta—takes blood from the heart to body parts, po₂ = 95 mm Hg
4. A—Pulmonary vein—takes impure blood from body parts, po₂ = 60 mm Hg

Answer: 2. C—Vena Cava—takes blood from body parts to the right auricle, pco₂ = 45 mm Hg

NEET Biology For Breathing And Exchange Of Gases Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. Which of the following structures is not supported by incomplete cartilaginous rings?

1. Trachea
2. Secondary bronchi
3. Terminal bronchioles
4. Primary bronchi

Answer: 3. Trachea

Question 2. Teacher is a straight tube extending up to the mid-thoracic cavity, which divides at the level of

1. Second cervical vertebra
2. Fifth cervical vertebra
3. Fifth thoracic vertebra
4. Fifth lumbar vertebra

Answer: 3. Fifth thoracic vertebra

Question 3. The outer pleural membrane is in close contact with

1. Surface of lungs
2. Thoracic cavity
3. Both (1) and (2)
4. Alveoli.

Answer: 2. Thoracic cavity

Question 4. The volume of air remaining in the lungs even after a forcible expiration is

1. Expiratory reserve volume
2. Expiratory capacity
3. Residual volume
4. Both (1) and (2)

Answer: 3. Residual volume

Question 5. The maximum volume of air a person can breathe in after a forced expiration is

1. Vital capacity
2. ERV + TV + JRV
3. TLC + RV
4. All of these

Answer: 4. All of these

Question 6. Which of the following statements is incorrect w.r.t. the mechanism of breathing?

1. The movement of air into and out of the lungs is carried out by creating a pressure gradient between the lungs and the atmosphere.
2. Inspiration is initiated by the contraction of the diaphragm which increases the volume of the thoracic chamber.
3. The contraction of external intercostal muscles lifts up the ribs and sternum causing a decrease in the volume of the thoracic chamber.
4. On average, a healthy human breathes 12-16 times/ min.

Answer: 3. The contraction of external intercostal muscles lifts up the ribs and sternum causing a decrease in the volume of the thoracic chamber.

Question 7. The thoracic cage of man is formed of

1. Ribs and sternum
2. Ribs, sternum, and thoracic vertebrae
3. Ribs, sternum, and lumbar vertebrae
4. Ribs and thoracic vertebrae

Answer: 2. Ribs, sternum, and thoracic vertebrae

Question 8. The Trachea is lined with incomplete rings of

1. Fibrous cartilage
2. Calcified cartilage
3. Elastic cartilage
4. Hyaline cartilage

Answer: 4. Hyaline cartilage

Question 9. Lungs have a large number of alveoli for

1. Having a spongy texture and proper shape
2. More surface area for diffusion of gases
3. More space for increasing the volume of inspired air
4. More nerve supply

Answer: 2. More surface area for diffusion of gases

Question 10. In mammals, ventilation movements of the lungs are governed by

1. Muscular wall of lungs
2. Intercostal muscles
3. Diaphragm
4. Diaphragm and intercostal muscles

Answer: 4. Diaphragm and intercostal muscles

Question 11. What will be the po₂ and pco₂ in the atmospheric air as compared to those in the alveolar air?