NEET Biology Multiple Choice Questions – Human Health And Disease

by

Human Health And Disease Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. Health is defined as

  1. Complete physical well being
  2. Mental well being
  3. Social well being
  4. All of these

Answer. 4. All of these

Question 2. A disease which can be transferred from mother to child through placenta is

  1. German measles
  2. Syphilis
  3. AIDS
  4. All of these

Answer. 4. All of these

Question 3. Which of the following is a bacterial disease?

  1. Measles
  2. Chicken pox
  3. Rabies
  4. Tuberculosis

Answer. 4. Tuberculosis

Question 4. Different species of Mycobacterium cause

  1. Syphilis and diphtheria
  2. Whooping cough and leprosy
  3. Tuberculosis and leprosy
  4. Syphilis and gonorrhea

Answer. 3. Tuberculosis and leprosy

Question 5. A disease contracted through wounds, accidents, and improperly sterilized surgical instrument is

  1. Tetanus
  2. Gonorrhoea
  3. Mumps
  4. Amoebiasis

Answer. 1. Tetanus

Question 6. Which one is not spread by droplet infection?

  1. Tuberculosis
  2. Diphtheria
  3. Pertussis
  4. Gonorrhea

Answer. 4. Gonorrhea

Question 7. Entamoeba histolytica is transmitted through

  1. Insect bite
  2. Sweat
  3. Food and water contamination
  4. Bird droppings

Answer. 3. Food and water contamination

Question 8. Malarial parasite can be obtained in RBCs of patient

  1. When temperature reaches normal
  2. An hour before rise in temperature
  3. When temperature rises with rigor
  4. A few hours after temperature reaches normal

Answer. 3. When temperature rises with rigor

Question 9. Recurrent high fever in malaria is due to the completion of

  1. Erythrocytic schizogony
  2. Sporogony
  3. Gamogony
  4. Exoerythrocytic schizogony

Answer. 1. Eryth rocytic schizogony

Question 10. Which of the following disease has been eradicated?

  1. Plague
  2. Poliomyelitis
  3. Smallpox
  4. Kala-azar

Answer. 3. Smallpox

Question 11. Which infectious disease can be treated effectively using the oil of chenopodium?

  1. Ascariasis
  2. Filariasis
  3. Malaria
  4. Poliomyelitis

Answer. 1. Ascariasis

Question 12. In one of the following diseases, fever must not be man-aged using Aspirin; instead Paracetamol is used. Which is the one?

  1. Chikungunya
  2. Filariasis
  3. Pneumonia
  4. Dengue fever

Answer. 4. Dengue fever

Question 13. If you are advised to get a Widal test done for yourself, which disease is your doctor suspecting?

  1. Typhoid
  2. Cholera
  3. Pneumonia
  4. Filariasis

Answer. 1. Typhoid

Question 14. Your patient shows paroxysms of malaria after every 72 h. Which species of Plasmodium will be considered responsible to cause the infection?

  1. P. vivax
  2. P. ovals
  3. P. malariae
  4. P. falciparum

Answer. 3. P. malariae

Question 15. Which stage of Plasmodium parasite is infective for man?

  1. Schizont
  2. Gametocytes
  3. Sporozoite
  4. Merozoites

Answer. 3. Sporozoite

Question 16. A prescription letter reads the following treatment advise Metronidazole, Tinidazole, Emetine. Which amongst the following diseases is it dealing with?

  1. Dengue
  2. Malaria
  3. Amoebiasis
  4. Pneumonia

Answer. 3. Amoebiasis

Question 17. Which type of cancer can be caused by exposure to cadmium oxide over a long period of time?

  1. Vagina
  2. Prostate gland
  3. Skin
  4. Lung

Answer. 2. Prostate gland

Question 18. A plant called Sadabahar is known to produce an anti-cancer drug known as

  1. Taxol
  2. Vincristine
  3. Colchicine
  4. Cyciosporine

Answer. 2. Vincristine

Question 19. A cancerous condition known as Burkitt’s lymphoma is known to be caused by virus like

  1. Rous sarcoma virus
  2. Herpes simplex virus
  3. Epstein Barr virus
  4. Hepatitis B virus

Answer. 3. Epstein Barr virus

Question 20. The genome of HIV, the causative organism of AIDS, is made up of

  1. ssRNA
  2. ssDNA
  3. dsRNA
  4. dsDNA

Answer. 1. ssRNA

Question 21. Which molecule is used for the attachment of HIV to CD4 receptor on the cell?

  1. GP120
  2. P24
  3. GP41
  4. P17

Answer. 1. GP120

Question 22. Which term would you use for the combination of diseases such as Kaposi’s sarcoma, Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia, and Leukoplakia?

  1. Contagious diseases
  2. Opportunistic diseases
  3. Diarrhoeal diseases
  4. Autoimmune diseases

Answer. 2. Opportunistic diseases

Question 23. Which amongst the following can be considered as a part of ART (anti-retroviral therapy)?

  1. Procaine
  2. Novacaine
  3. Zidovudine
  4. Colchicine

Answer. 3. Zidovudine

Question 24. Which of the following will be included under innate immunity?

  1. Mucus membrane
  2. Interferons
  3. Natural killer cells
  4. All of these

Answer. 4. All of these

Question 25. Interferon is a protein that

  1. Inactivates a virus
  2. Protects unattacked cells from virus
  3. Prevents viruses from taking over the cellular ma- chinery
  4. Both (2) and (3)

Answer. 4. Both (2) and (3)

Question 26. Which of the following is not true for interferon?

  1. These act outside the cells.
  2. These are quick acting.
  3. Their action is long lasting.
  4. These act against viruses.

Answer. 3. Their action is long lasting.

Question 27. What is the role of complement in the body’s defense?

  1. It interferes with viral replication.
  2. It is involved with antibody production.
  3. It aids antigen presentation.
  4. It causes cell lysis.

Answer. 4. It causes cell lysis.

Question 28. Natural killer (NK) cells can destroy

  1. Invading microorganisms
  2. Virus infected cells
  3. Some tumor cells
  4. All of these

Answer. 4. All of these

Question 29. The opposite to innate immunity is

  1. Passive immunity
  2. T-cells immunity
  3. Phagocytosis
  4. Acquired immunity

Answer. 4. Acquired immunity

Question 30. Active immunity is obtained by

  1. Natural resistance
  2. Antibiotics
  3. Weakened germs infection
  4. None of these

Answer. 3. Weakened germs infection

Question 31. Immunity acquired after an infection is

  1. Active immunity
  2. Passive immunity
  3. Innate immunity
  4. Both (2) and (3)

Answer. 1. Active immunity

Question 32. Which of the following immunity is conferred by the transfer of immune products such as antibodies from an individual into a non-immune individual?

  1. Adaptive immunity
  2. Specific immunity
  3. Active immunity
  4. Passive immunity

Answer. 4. Passive immunity

Question 33. Active immunity is due to

  1. Memory cells
  2. Killer T-cells
  3. Helper T-cells
  4. Suppressor T-cells

Answer. 1. Memory cells

Question 34. The cell which plays a major role in host defense against tumor cells and the cells infected with viruses is

  1. B lymphocytes
  2. Interterons
  3. NK cell
  4. Neutrophils

Answer. 3. NK cell

Question 35. Antigenic determinant sites bind to which portions of an antibody molecule?

  1. Light chains
  2. Heavy chains
  3. Intermediate chains
  4. Both (1) and (2)

Answer. 4. Both (1) and (2)

Question 36. Antibody is

  1. A substance that specifically inactivates an antigen
  2. Phagocyle that feeds on invading pathogen
  3. Cellular component of blood
  4. Secretion of ABC

Answer. 1. A substance that specifically inactivates an antigen

Question 37. The type of immunoglobulin present in the colostrum secreted by mammary glands is

  1. IgD
  2. IgE
  3. IgG
  4. IgA

Answer. 4. IgA

Question 38. The type of immunoglobulin whose function is possible antigen recognition by B-cells may be

  1. IgE
  2. IgA
  3. IgD
  4. IgG

Answer. 3. IgD

Question 39. Opsonization is carried out by

  1. IgM
  2. IgA
  3. IgD
  4. IgG

Answer. 4. IgG

Question 40. Which of the following antibody is mediator in allergic response?

  1. IgA
  2. IgD
  3. IgE
  4. IgG

Answer. 3. IgE

Question 41. Which of the following is not a difference between IgG and IgM?

  1. IgM is a pentamer while IgG is a monomer.
  2. IgG is formed early during the primary response; IgM is formed later.
  3. IgG can cross the placenta, IgM usually does not.
  4. IgG has two antigen binding sites, IgM has ten.

Answer. 2. IgG is formed early during the primary response; IgM is formed later.

Question 42. The hepatitis B vaccine is

  1. Interferon
  2. First-generation vaccine
  3. Second-generation vaccine
  4. Third-generation vaccine

Answer. 3. Second-generation vaccine

Question 43. Which of the following is/are example/s of autoimmune disease?

  1. Multiple sclerosis
  2. Insulin dependent diabetes
  3. Rheumatoid arthritis
  4. All of these

Answer. 4. All of these

Question 44. An autoimmune disease is

  1. Hemophilia
  2. AIDS
  3. Allergy
  4. Myasthenia gravis

Answer. 4. Myasthenia gravis

Question 45. One of the following drugs depresses (switch off) the activities of eNS and is known as sedative. It gives feeling of calmness, relaxation, or drowsiness. It is

  1. Opium
  2. Heroin
  3. Cocaine
  4. Barbiturate

Answer. 4. Barbiturate

Question 46. Sleeping pills contain

  1. Benzodiazepines
  2. Psilocybin
  3. Tranquilizers
  4. LSD

Answer. 1. Benzodiazepines

Question 47. Opium is obtained from which part of poppy plant?

  1. Leaf
  2. Flower
  3. Root
  4. Fruit

Answer. 4. Fruit

Question 48. Which of the following is obtained from Papaver somniferum?

  1. Opium
  2. Heroin
  3. Methadone
  4. All of these

Answer. 4. All of these

Question 49. Marijuana is obtained from

  1. Ergot
  2. Cannabis
  3. Papaver
  4. Coffea

Answer. 2. Cannabis

Question 50. Which of the following belongs to “pain killers”?

  1. Sedatives
  2. Opiates
  3. Hallucinogens
  4. Stimulants

Answer. 2. Opitates

Question 51. One of the following is called

  1. Whooping cough
  2. Tetanus
  3. Hepatitis
  4. Hydrophobia

Answer. 2. Tetanus

Question 52. Quartan malaria is caused by

  1. Plasmodium vivax
  2. P. ovals
  3. P. falciparum
  4. P. malariae

Answer. 4. P. malariae

Question 53. The cancer caused in tissues derived from mesoderm such as connective tissues (bones, cartilages, tendons) is known as

  1. Leukemia
  2. Sarcomas
  3. Carcinomas
  4. None of these

Answer. 2. Sarcomas

Question 54. Liver cancer is caused by

  1. Aflatoxin
  2. N-nitraso dimethylene
  3. Cadmium oxide
  4. Mustard gas

Answer. 1. Aflatoxin

Question 55. Antihistamine relieves

  1. Nephritis
  2. Allergy
  3. Stroke
  4. Angina pectoris

Answer. 2. Allergy

Question 56. Leprosy is due to

  1. Mycobacterium
  2. Corynebacterium
  3. Treponema
  4. Neisseria

Answer. 1. Mycobacterium

Question 57. A disease with social stigma is

  1. Chicken pox
  2. Measles
  3. Trachoma
  4. Leprosy

Answer. 4. Leprosy

Question 58. A disease that destroys the ventral horn cells of spinal cord is

  1. Polio
  2. Malaria
  3. Leprosy
  4. Arthritis

Answer. 1. Polio

Question 59. Malarial parasite can be obtained from patient

  1. During fever
  2. Before temperature rise
  3. After temperature becomes normal
  4. All of these

Answer. 1. During fever

Question 60. Entamoeba histolytica causes

  1. Chicken pox
  2. Tetanus
  3. Dysentery
  4. Elephantiasis

Answer. 3. Dysentery

Question 61. Filariasis is caused by

  1. Wuchereria bancrofti
  2. Glossina palpalis
  3. Phlebotomus argentipes
  4. All of these

Answer. 1. Wuchereria bancrofti

Question 62. Neoplasms are

  1. Nuclei with massive DNA
  2. Cells without covering membranes
  3. Cells capable of unlimited division
  4. Newly produced cells formed through uncontrolled cell proliferation

Answer. 4. Newly produced cells formed through uncontrolled cell proliferation

Question 63. In leukemia, there is tremendous increase in the number of

  1. RBCs
  2. Immature cells
  3. WBCs
  4. Both white blood cells and immature cells

Answer. 4. Both white blood cells and immature cells

Question 64. Carcinogen present in coal tar is

  1. Nitroso dimethylene
  2. 3,4-Benzopyrene
  3. 2-Naphthylamine
  4. 4-Amino biphenyl

Answer. 2. 3,4-Benzopyrene

Question 65. A disease which often produces deformities of fingers and toes is

  1. Poliomyelitis
  2. Tuberculosis
  3. Typhoid
  4. Leprosy

Answer. 4. Leprosy

Question 66. Which of the following statement is incorrect?

  1. Epitopes are antigen-determining sites which are recognized by antibodies.
  2. Nowadays, for the treatment of cancer, the patients are given substances called biological response modifiers such as a-interferon which activate their immune system and help in destroying the tumor.
  3. Toxoids provide passive immunity.
  4. “ATS” (anti tetanus serum) provides us artificially acquired passive immunity.

Answer. 3. Toxoids provide passive immunity.

Question 67. The side-effects of the use of anabolic steroids in females include

a. Masculinization (features like males)

b. Increased aggressiveness

c. Mood swings

d. Premature baldness

Choose the correct option:

  1. (a) and (b) only
  2. (a), (b), and (c) only
  3. (a) only
  4. (a), (b), (c), and (d)

Answer. 2. (a), (b), and (c) only

Question 68. Which of the following is incorrect with respect to HIV infection?

  1. HIV/AIDS is not spread by mere touch or physical contact; it spreads only through body fluids.
  2. Macrophages continue to produce virus and, in this way, act like an HIV factory
  3. HIV enters into the helper T-lymphocytes (TH), replicates, and produces progeny virus which leads to a progressive decrease in the number of helper T-lymphocytes in the body of infected person.
  4. HIV does not get transmitted through organ trans- plant from an HIV infected person.

Answer. 4. HIV does not get transmitted through organ trans- plant from an HIV infected person.

Question 69. If a person is infected with some deadly microbes to which quick immune response is required as in tetanus, the doctor needs to directly inject

  1. Antigenic protein of pathogen
  2. Inactivated/weakened pathogens
  3. Killed pathogens
  4. Preformed antibodies/antitoxin

Answer. 4. Preformed antibodies/antitoxin

Question 70. Which of the following lymphoid organ does not provide the sites for the interaction of lymphocytes with the antigen, which then proliferate to become effector cells?

  1. Tonsils
  2. Peyer’s patches
  3. Bone marrow
  4. Spleen

Answer. 3. Bone marrow

Question 71. Humoral immunity is due to

  1. B-lymphocytes
  2. T-lymphocytes
  3. L-lymphocytes
  4. P-lymphocytes

Answer. 1. B-lymphocytes

Question 72. Passive immunity is one which is obtained by injecting

  1. Antibiotics
  2. Vaccines containing weakened germs
  3. Antibodies
  4. Antigens

Answer. 2. Vaccines containing weakened germs

Question 73. During allergic reactions, the destructive substances produced are

  1. Allergens
  2. Histamines
  3. Immunoglobulins
  4. Antibodies

Answer. 4. Antibodies

Question 74. The B- and T-cells that are critical for immune system are produced in

  1. Bone marrow cells
  2. Spleen
  3. Lymph nodes
  4. Bone marrow and thymus

Answer. 1. Bone marrow cells

Question 75. On the basis of heavy chains, immunoglobulins are classified into how many types?

  1. Two
  2. Three
  3. Four
  4. Five

Answer. 4. Five

Question 76. The process in which all living organisms are killed by heat treatment is known as

  1. Pasteurization
  2. Immunity
  3. Sterilization
  4. None of these

Answer. 3. Sterilization

Question 77. Vaccination against smallpox means the introduction into our body of

  1. Leucocytes obtained from animals
  2. Antibodies produced in other animal
  3. Antibodies
  4. Attenuated smallpox virus

Answer. 1. Leucocytes obtained from animals

Question 78. Hypersensitivity to an allergen is associated with

  1. Aberrant functioning of the immune mechanism
  2. Increase in ambient temperature
  3. Age of the individual
  4. Food habits

Answer. 1. Aberrant functioning of the immune mechanism

Question 79. Antibodies are produced by

  1. Lymphocytes
  2. Leucocytes
  3. Monocytes
  4. Spleen

Answer. 1. Lymphocytes

Question 80. Vaccines are prepared from immune

  1. Vitamins
  2. Blood
  3. Serum
  4. Plasma

Answer. 3. Serum

Question 81. Which one of the following is true for T-lymphocytes?

  1. They cannot release antibodies.
  2. They mature in lymph nodes.
  3. They comprise 10-15% of lymphocytes.
  4. They are principal cells in lymph nodes’ cortical center.

Answer. 4. They are principal cells in lymph nodes’ cortical center.

Question 82. Certain children are immune to certain disease due to

  1. T-cells immune system
  2. B-cells immune system
  3. Memory cells
  4. Phagocyte-antigen reaction

Answer. 3. Memory cells

Question 83. Mast cells secrete a protein which causes the dilation of blood vessels. The protein is

  1. Pyrogens
  2. Histamine
  3. Interferon
  4. None of these

Answer. 2. Histamine

Question 84. The cells which suppress the entire immune system from their attack in the same body are known as

  1. Helper T-cells
  2. Killer B-cells
  3. Suppressor cells
  4. Suppressor T-cells

Answer. 4. Suppressor T-cells

Question 85. Memory cells are

  1. Cells responsible for immunologic memory
  2. Antigens
  3. Cells of cerebrum
  4. Cells responsible for memory in brain

Answer. 1. Cells responsible for immunologic memory

Question 86. An auto-immune disease is

  1. B-lymphocytes induced
  2. Hemophilia
  3. Myasthenia gravis
  4. None of these

Answer. 3. Myasthenia gravis

Question 87. Hormone produced against allergic reaction is

  1. Epinephrine
  2. Nor-epinephrine
  3. Glucocorticoid
  4. Mineralocorticoid

Answer. 1. Epinephrine

Question 88. Antigen binding site on antibodies is at

  1. Light chain
  2. Strong chain
  3. Variable position
  4. Any of above

Answer. 3. Variable position

Question 89. Active immunity means

  1. Resistance developed after disease
  2. Resistance developed before disease
  3. Increasing rate of heart beat
  4. Increasing quantity of blood

Answer. 1. Resistance developed after disease

Question 90. B- and T-cells which are considered critical for immune system are produced in

  1. Bone marrow
  2. Lymphoid
  3. Spleen
  4. None of the above

Answer. 1. Bone marrow

Question 91. The site of B-cell maturation in the human body is

  1. Thymus
  2. Tonsils and adenoids
  3. Not yet identified
  4. Brain and spinal cord

Answer. 3. Not yet identified

Question 92. Which antibody molecule is made of two monomers?

  1. IgM
  2. IgG
  3. IgD
  4. IgE

Answer. 4. IgE

Question 93. Allergens are

  1. Certain microbes which are pathogenic
  2. Weak antibodies produced by certain substances in the body
  3. Weak antigens which produce sensitive reactions in the body
  4. None of these

Answer. 3. Weak antigens which produce sensitive reactions in the body

Question 94. Immunoglobulin related with opsonization is

  1. IgA
  2. IgM
  3. IgA and IgG
  4. IgE

Answer. 3. IgA and IgG

Question 95. Antiserum contains

  1. Antigen
  2. Leucocytes
  3. Antibodies
  4. None of these

Answer. 3. Antibodies

Question 96. The type of immunoglobulin present in the colostrum secreted by mammary glands is

  1. IgA
  2. IgG
  3. IgD
  4. IgE

Answer. 1. IgA

Question 97. Gamma-globulins are synthesized in

  1. Lymph and lymph nodes
  2. Liver
  3. Bone marrow
  4. Kidney

Answer. 1. Lymph and lymph nodes

Question 98. Which is not an immunological technique?

  1. Antibiotic injection
  2. Tetanus toxoid
  3. Gamma-globulin
  4. Smallpox vaccination

Answer. 1. Antibiotic injection

Question 99. Which is wrong?

  1. Body’s first line of defense is skin.
  2. The second line of defense is skin and phagocytic cells.
  3. The third line of defense is immune system.
  4. Lines of body defense are skin, phagocytic cells, and immune system.

Answer. 2. The second line of defense is skin and phagocytic cells.

Question 100. Squeezing of leucocytes from capillary walls is

  1. Diakinesis
  2. Diapedesis
  3. Diapause
  4. Diaphysis

Answer. 2. Diapedesis

Question 101. Binding of antigen to antibody is through

  1. Electrostatic interactions
  2. Covalent bonds
  3. Disulfide bridge
  4. Amide formation

Answer. 1. Electrostatic interactions

Question 102. Interferon was discovered by

  1. Gajdusek
  2. Stanley and Prusiner
  3. Isaacs and Lindermann
  4. Randles

Answer. 3. Isaacs and Lindermann

Question 103. Antibodies in our body are produced by

  1. B-lymphocyte
  2. T-lymphocyte
  3. Monocytes
  4. RBCs

Answer. 1. B-lymphocyte

Question 104. Acquired immuno deficiency syndrome (AIDS) is

  1. Characterized by a reduction in the number of killer T-cells
  2. An autoimmune disease
  3. Characterized by a reduction in the number of helper T-cells
  4. The result of the inability of the body to produce interferons

Answer. 3. Characterized by a reduction in the number of helper T-cells

Question 105. Which is a water-borne disease?

  1. Smallpox
  2. Tuberculosis
  3. Malaria
  4. Cholera

Answer. 4. Cholera

Question 106. AIDS related complex (ARC) is a disease which leads to fever, swollen lymph nodes, loss in weight, etc. It represents

  1. Severe form of AIDS
  2. Initial form of AIDS
  3. No link with AIDS
  4. None of the above

Answer. 2. Initial form of AIDS

Question 107. Bhang, charas, and ganja are resinous materials of Cannabis indica and are psychotropic intoxicating drugs. These drugs are used as

  1. Hallucinogens
  2. Narcotics
  3. Stimulants
  4. Sedatives

Answer. 1. Hallucinogens

Question 108. “Brown sugar” is the commonly used name for

  1. LSD
  2. Hashish
  3. Heroin
  4. Barbiturates

Answer. 3. Heroin

Question 109. Bhang and hemp are obtained from

  1. Mesua ferrea
  2. Cannabis sativa
  3. Viola odorata
  4. Centella asiatica

Answer. 2. Cannabis sativa

Question 110. The use of cannabis products (bhang, charas, ganja, marijuana, and hashish)

  1. Causes depression of brain activity and feeling of calmness
  2. Alters thought, perception, and feelings
  3. Suppresses brain function and relieves pain
  4. Stimulates the nervous system and increases alertness and activity

Answer. 2. Alters thought, perception, and feelings

Question 111. Caffeine, cocaine, and amphetamines are

  1. Sedatives
  2. Tranquilizers
  3. Stimulants
  4. Hallucinogens

Answer. 3. Stimulants

Question 112. Heroin is obtained from the plant of family

  1. Leguminosae
  2. Papaverceae
  3. Liliaceae
  4. Solanaceae

Answer. 2. Papaverceae

Question 113. Liver damage caused by excessive drinking of alcohol is called

  1. Hepatitis
  2. Dermatitis
  3. Liver cirrhosis
  4. Liver diarrhea

Answer. 3. Liver cirrhosis

Question 114. Addiction of LSD will eventually lead to

  1. Hallucination
  2. Damage of lungs
  3. Mental and emotional disturbances
  4. Damage to kidneys

Answer. 4. Damage to kidneys

Question 115. Addiction to tobacco is caused by the presence of

  1. Caffeine
  2. Nicotine
  3. Cocaine
  4. Histamine

Answer. 2. Nicotine

Question 116. Hallucinogen drug among the following is

  1. Lysergic acid diethylamide
  2. Heroin
  3. Morphine
  4. Cocaine

Answer. 1. Lysergic acid diethylamide

Question 117. Mental depression is caused by diminished activity of

  1. Histamine
  2. Norepinephrine
  3. Dopamine
  4. All of these

Answer. 2. Norepinephrine

Question 118. The final stage of drug addiction results in

  1. Drug immunity
  2. Drug dependence
  3. Drug resistance
  4. All of these

Answer. 2. Drug dependence

Question 119. The use of tobacco originated in

  1. India
  2. Africa
  3. America
  4. Germany

Answer. 3. America

Question 120. Sleeping pills are made from

  1. Barbiturates
  2. Amphetamines
  3. Cocaine
  4. LSD

Answer. 1. Barbiturates

Question 121. The term “brown sugar” is used for

  1. Diacetylmorphine hydrochloride
  2. 9-Tetrahydrocannabinol
  3. Lysergic acid diethylamide
  4. Acetyl salicylate

Answer. 1. Diacetylmorphine hydrochloride

Question 122. The Central Institute of Mental Retardation (CIMR) is situated at

  1. Agra
  2. New Delhi
  3. Thiruvananthapuram
  4. Guwahati

Answer. 3. Thiruvananthapuram

Question 123. AIDS Day is observed on

  1. 1st December
  2. 20th December
  3. 1st June
  4. 1st May

Answer. 1. 1st December

Question 124. In India, maximum death cases in children occur due to

  1. Measles
  2. TB
  3. Diphtheria
  4. None of these

Answer. 1. Measles

Question 125. Community health aims at

  1. Better health and family planning
  2. Better hygiene and clean environment
  3. Removing communicable diseases
  4. All the above

Answer. 4. All the above

Question 126. Which of the following is equivalent to madness?

  1. Neurosis
  2. Psychosis
  3. Epilepsy
  4. All of these

Answer. 2. Psychosis

Question 127. Cancer is related to

  1. Uncontrolled growth of tissues
  2. Old age
  3. Controlled division of tissues
  4. None of the above

Answer. 1. Uncontrolled growth of tissues

Question 128. Infection of Ascaris usually occurs by

  1. Eating imperfectly cooked pork
  2. Contaminated water and vegetables
  3. Mosquito bite
  4. Tsetse fly

Answer. 2. Contaminated water and vegetables

Question 129. Trypanosomiasis is transmitted by

  1. May fly
  2. Fire fly
  3. Tsetse fly
  4. Louse

Answer. 3. Tsetse fly

Question 130. Syphilis is a sexually transmitted disease caused by

  1. Pasteurella
  2. Leptospira
  3. Treponema pallidum
  4. Vibrio

Answer. 3. Treponema pallidum

Question 131. Influenza virus has

  1. DNA
  2. RNA
  3. Both DNA and RNA
  4. Only proteins and no nucleic acids

Answer. 2. RNA

Question 132. Diphtheria is caused by

  1. Poisons released from dead bacterial cells into the host tissues
  2. Poisons released by living bacterial cells into the host tissues
  3. Excessive immune response by the host’s body
  4. Poisons released by virus into the host tissues

Answer. 2. Poisons released by living bacterial cells into the host tissues

Question 133. A bacterial disease is accompanied by

  1. Peptic ulcers
  2. Rapid loss of fluid from the intestine
  3. Infection of heart muscles
  4. Rose spots

Answer. 2. Rapid loss of fluid from the intestine

Question 134. Hepatitis B is caused by

  1. RNA virus
  2. DNA virus
  3. Mycoplasma
  4. Rickettsia

Answer. 2. DNA virus

Question 135. Dengue virus has genetic material

  1. dsRNA
  2. dsDNA
  3. ssRNA
  4. ssDNA

Answer. 3. ssRNA

Question 136. Sick test is used for the diagnosis of

  1. TB
  2. AIDS
  3. Diphtheria
  4. Malaria

Answer. 3. Diphtheria

Question 137. Polio is caused by

  1. Virus with double-stranded DNA
  2. Virus with double-stranded RNA
  3. Virus with single-stranded DNA
  4. Virus with single-stranded RNA

Answer. 4. Virus with single-stranded RNA

Question 138. During injury, mast cells secrete

  1. Histamine
  2. Heparin
  3. Prothrombin
  4. Antibodies

Answer. 1. Histamine

Question 139. Agglutination occurs in blood present in a test tube

  1. Antibodies are present in plasma
  2. Antigens are present on RBC
  3. Antigens are present in plasma
  4. Antibodies are present on RBC

Answer. 2. Antigens are present on RBC

Question 140. Which of the following is used in the treatment of thyroid cancer?

  1. 1131
  2. U238
  3. Ra224
  4. C14

Answer. 1. 1131

Question 141. Cancerous cells can easily be destroyed by radiations due to

  1. Rapid cell division
  2. Lack of nutrition
  3. Fast mutation
  4. Lack of oxygen

Answer. 1. Rapid cell division

Question 142. Carcinoma refers to

  1. Malignant tumors of the connective tissue
  2. Malignant tumors of the skin or mucous membrane
  3. Malignant tumors of the colon
  4. Benign tumors of the connective tissue

Answer. 2. Malignant tumors of the skin or mucous membrane

Question 143. Short-lived immunity acquired from mother to fetus across placenta or through mother’s milk to the infant is categorized as

  1. Active immunity
  2. Passive immunity
  3. Cellular immunity
  4. Innate non-specific immunity

Answer. 2. Passive immunity

Question 144. What is true about T-lymphocytes in mammals?

  1. There are three main types: cytotoxic T-cells, helper T-cells, and suppressor T-cells.
  2. These originate in secondary lymphoid tissues.
  3. These scavenge damaged cells and cellular debris.
  4. These are produced in thyroid.

Answer. 1. There are three main types: cytotoxic T-cells, helper T-cells, and suppressor T-cells.

Question 145. Cancer cells are more easily damaged by radiation than normal cells because they are

  1. Undergoing rapid division
  2. Different in structure
  3. Non-dividing
  4. Starved of mutation

Answer. 1. Undergoing rapid division

Question 146. Damage to thymus in child may lead to

  1. A reduction in hemoglobin content of blood
  2. A reduction in stem cell production
  3. Loss of antibody mediated immunity
  4. Loss of cell mediated immunity

Answer. 4. Loss of cell mediated immunity

Question 147. Electron beam therapy is a kind of radiation therapy to treat

  1. Enlarged prostate gland
  2. Gall bladder stones by breaking them
  3. Certain types of cancer
  4. Kidney stones

Answer. 3. Certain types of cancer

Question 148. The treatment of snake-bite by antivenin is an example of

  1. Artificially acquired active immunity
  2. Artificially acquired passive immunity
  3. Naturally acquired passive immunity
  4. Specific natural immunity

Answer. 2. Artificially acquired passive immunity

Question 149. An insect bite may result in the inflammation of that spot. This is triggered by the alarm chemicals such as

  1. Histamine and dopamine
  2. Histamine and kinin
  3. Interferons and opsonin
  4. Interferons and histones

Answer. 2. Histamine and kinin

Question 150. Antigen-binding site in an antibody is found between

  1. Two light chains
  2. Two heavy chains
  3. One heavy and one light chain
  4. Either between two light chains or between one heavy and one light chain depending upon the nature of antigen

Answer. 3. One heavy and one light chain

Question 151. Vaccination for which one of the following diseases is not covered in the immunization schedule so far?

  1. Tuberculosis
  2. Diphtheria
  3. Measles
  4. Pneumonia

Answer. 4. Pneumonia

Question 152. Antibodies in our body are complex

  1. Prostaglandins
  2. Glycoproteins
  3. Lipoproteins
  4. Steroids

Answer. 2. Glycoproteins

Question 153. Mast cells secrete

  1. Histamine
  2. Hemoglobin.
  3. Hippurin
  4. Myoglobin

Answer. 1. Histamine

Question 154. The most active phagocytic white blood cells are

  1. Lymphocytes and macrophages
  2. Eosinophils and lymphocytes
  3. Neutrophils and monocytes
  4. Neutrophils and eosinophils

Answer. 3. Neutrophils and monocytes

Question 155. Cornea transplant in humans is almost never rejected. This is because

  1. It has no blood supply
  2. It is composed of enucleated cells
  3. It is a non-living layer
  4. Its cells are the least penetrable by bacteria

Answer. 1. It has no blood supply

Question 156. LSD is

  1. Hallucinogenic
  2. Sedative
  3. Stimulant
  4. Tranquilizer

Answer. 1. Hallucinogenic

Question 157. A young drug addict used to show symptoms of depressed brain activity and feeling of calmness, relaxation, and drowsiness. Possibly he was taking

  1. Amphetamine
  2. Marijuana
  3. Pethidine
  4. Valium

Answer. 4. Valium

Question 158. Which one of the following is the correct statement regarding the particular psychotropic drug specified? 

  1. Opium stimulates nervous system and causes hallucinations.
  2. Morphine leads to delusions and disturbed emotions.
  3. Barbiturates cause relaxation and temporary euphoria.
  4. Hashish causes after thought perceptions and hallucinations.

Answer. 3. Morphine leads to delusions and disturbed emotions.

Question 159. AIDS is caused by HIV that principally infects

  1. All lymphocytes
  2. Activator B-cells
  3. T-4 lymphocytes
  4. Cytotoxic T-cells

Answer. 3. T-4 lymphocytes

Question 160. Which one of the following depresses brain activity and produces feelings of calmness, relaxation, and drowsiness?

  1. Hashish
  2. Morphine
  3. Amphetamines
  4. Valium

Answer. 4. Valium

Question 161. The disease tetanus is also known as

  1. Gangrene
  2. Shingles
  3. Lockjaw
  4. Whooping cough

Answer. 3. Lockjaw

Question 162. Smallpox and rabies are caused by

  1. Virus
  2. Protozoan
  3. Typhoid
  4. Polio

Answer. 1. Virus

Question 163. Which is a viral disease?

  1. Tetanus
  2. Dysentery
  3. Typhoid
  4. Polio

Answer. 4. Polio

Question 164. ELISA is used to detect viruses where the key reagent is

  1. Alkaline phosphatase
  2. Catalase
  3. DNA probe
  4. RNase

Answer. 1. Alkaline phosphatase

Question 165. ELISA is used to detect viruses where

  1. Southern blotting is done
  2. Alkaline phosphatase is the key reagent
  3. Catalase is the key reagent
  4. DNA probes are required

Answer. 2. Alkaline phosphatase is the key reagent

Question 166. Broad spectrum antibiotics are those which

  1. Act on all bacteria and viruses
  2. Are effective in very small amounts
  3. Act on both pathogen and host
  4. Act on a variety of pathogenic microorganisms

Answer. 4. Act on a variety of pathogenic microorganisms

Question 167. Which is not a type of T-lymphocyte?

  1. Helper
  2. Suppressor
  3. Cytotoxic
  4. Repressor

Answer. 4. Repressor

Question 168. Which is not cancer?

  1. Leukemia
  2. Trachoma
  3. Carcinoma
  4. Sarcoma

Answer. 2. Trachoma

Question 169. HIV has a protein coat and a genetic material which is

  1. ssRNA
  2. dsRNA
  3. dsDNA
  4. ssDNA

Answer. 1. ssRNA

Question 170. The Widal test is performed for

  1. Malaria fever
  2. Cholera
  3. Typhoid fever
  4. Dengue fever

Answer. 3. Typhoid fever

Question 171. Allergy involves

  1. IgE
  2. IgG
  3. IgA
  4. IgM

Answer. 1. IgE

Question 172. Hepatitis B is also called

  1. Epidemic jaundice
  2. Serum jaundice
  3. Catarrhal jaundice
  4. None of the above

Answer. 2. Serum jaundice

Question 173. The most radiosensitive tissue of the body is

  1. Bone marrow
  2. Platelet
  3. Nervous tissue
  4. Lymphocyte

Answer. 1. Bone marrow

Question 174. DPT provides immunity against

  1. Diphtheria
  2. Whooping cough
  3. Tetanus
  4. All of these

Answer. 4. All of these

Question 175. In India, AIDS was reported in

  1. 1932
  2. 1986
  3. 1990
  4. 1992

Answer. 2. 1986

Question 176. Plague is caused by

  1. Diplococcus pneumoniae
  2. Yersinia pestis
  3. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
  4. All of the above

Answer. 2. Yersinia pestis

Question 177. An antibody is a

  1. White corpuscle which attacks invading bacteria
  2. Molecule that specifically inactivates an antigen
  3. Component of the blood
  4. Secretion of mammalian erythrocyte

Answer. 2. Molecule that specifically inactivates an antigen

Question 178. ELISA test is used for the detection of

  1. Antibodies
  2. Viral disease
  3. AIDS
  4. All of these

Answer. 4. All of these

Question 179. The vaccine of hepatitis B is a/an

  1. First-generation vaccine
  2. Interferon
  3. Second-generation vaccine
  4. Third-generation vaccine

Answer. 3. Second-generation vaccine

Question 180. Cancer cells are characterized by

  1. Uncontrolled growth
  2. Invasion of local tissue
  3. Spreading to other body parts
  4. All of the above

Answer. 4. All of the above

Question 181. The cause of kala-azar disease is

  1. Trypanosoma gambiense
  2. Wuchereria bancrofti
  3. Leishmania donovani
  4. Taenia solium

Answer. 3. Leishmania donovani

Question 182. Leprosy is caused by

  1. Mycobacterium
  2. Salmonela
  3. Monocystis
  4. TMV

Answer. 1. Mycobacterium

Question 183. The disease caused by Entamoeba gingivalis is transmitted by

  1. Flies
  2. Kissing
  3. Using the same bowl
  4. Kissing and using the same bowl

Answer. 4. Kissing and using the same bowl

Question 184. Vibrio cholerae is a motile bacteria belonging to the group of

  1. Monotrichous
  2. Lophotrichous
  3. Amphitrichous
  4. Peritrichous

Answer. 1. Monotrichous

Question 185. Bacillary dysentery is caused by

  1. Salmonella
  2. Shigella
  3. Proteus
  4. Entamoeba

Answer. 2. Shigella

Question 186. Symptom of diphtheria is

  1. Suffocation
  2. Hydrophobia
  3. Excessive watering
  4. Gum bleeding

Answer. 1. Suffocation

Question 187. If a person shows the production of interferon in his body, the chances are that he has got an infection of

  1. Typhoid
  2. Measles
  3. Tetanus
  4. Malaria

Answer. 2. Measles

Question 188. Jaundice is caused by

  1. Contaminated water
  2. Pork
  3. Excessive sugar
  4. Excessive eating of curcuma

Answer. 1. Excessive eating of curcuma

Question 189. Tuberculosis is caused by

  1. Mycobacterium
  2. Vibrio
  3. Clostridium
  4. None of these

Answer. 1. Mycobacterium

Question 190. Pulse-Polio Program is organized in our country

  1. To cure polio
  2. To eradicate polio
  3. To spread polio
  4. None of these

Answer. 2. To eradicate polio

Question 191. Paraplegia refers to the paralysis of

  1. Both legs
  2. Both upper limbs
  3. The entire body
  4. Only one limb

Answer. 1. Both legs

Question 192. Chicken pox is caused by

  1. Adenovirus
  2. Varicella virus
  3. SV-40 virus
  4. Bacteriophage T-2

Answer. 2. Varicella virus

Question 193. Out of the following, which disease is caused by virus?

  1. Malaria
  2. Influenza
  3. Diphtheria
  4. Typhoid

Answer. 2. Influenza

Question 194. Plague is transmitted by

  1. House fly
  2. Tsetse fly
  3. Rat flea
  4. Mosquito

Answer. 3. Rat flea

Question 195. Dengue fever is caused by

  1. Bacteria
  2. Plasmodium
  3. Virus
  4. Entamoeba histolytica

Answer. 3. Virus

Question 196. Mumps is a

  1. Viral disease
  2. Fungal disease
  3. Bacterial disease
  4. Protozoan disease

Answer. 1. Viral disease

Question 197. The disease caused by viruses is

  1. Tuberculosis
  2. Smallpox
  3. Cholera
  4. Typhoid

Answer. 2. Smallpox

Question 198. Which one of the following is a common disease caused

  1. Yellow fever
  2. Typhoid
  3. Syphilis
  4. Tetanus

Answer. 1. Yellow fever

Question 199. Which virus, for the first time, was synthesized in the form of non-living crystals?

  1. Bacteriophage
  2. Flu virus
  3. Pox virus
  4. Tobacco mosaic virus

Answer. 4. Tobacco mosaic virus

Question 200. It helps in differentiation of cells. It is

  1. Cortisol
  2. Thyroxine
  3. Thymosin
  4. Steroid

Answer. 3. Thymosin

Question 201. Complexes formed during immune complex mediated hypersensitivity are removed by

  1. Eosinophils and T-cells
  2. Monocytes and B-cells
  3. Eosinophils and monocytes
  4. Eosinophils and basophils

Answer. 3. Eosinophils and monocytes

Question 202. Wuchereria is found in

  1. Lungs
  2. Lymph nodes
  3. Eye
  4. Gonads

Answer. 2. Lymph nodes

Question 203. Antigen determinant differs from antigen-binding site in its

  1. Location
  2. Function
  3. Structure
  4. All the above

Answer. 4. All the above

Question 204. The letter T in T-lymphocytes refers to

  1. Thyroid
  2. Thymus
  3. Thalamus
  4. Tonsil

Answer. 2. Thymus

Question 205. After entering T-cell, HIV first forms

  1. mRNA
  2. ssDNA
  3. dsDNA
  4. dsRNA

Answer. 4. dsRNA

Question 206. The predominant antibody in saliva is

  1. IgA
  2. IgDD
  3. IgC
  4. IgM

Answer. 1. IgA

Question 207. Which of the following techniques is the safest for the detection of cancer?

  1. Magnetic resonance imaging
  2. Radiography
  3. Computed tomography
  4. Histopathological study

Answer. 1. Magnetic resonance imaging

Question 208. Which one of the following cannot be used for the preparation of vaccination against plague?

  1. Heat-killed suspension of virulent bacteria
  2. Formaline-inactivated suspension of virulent bacteria
  3. A virulent live bacteria
  4. Synthetic capsular polysaccharide material

Answer. 3. A virulent live bacteria

Question 209. Ringworm in humans is caused by

  1. Fungi
  2. Nematodes
  3. Viruses
  4. Bacteria

Answer. 1. Fungi

Question 210. Which one of the following statements is correct with respect to AIDS?

  1. Drug addicts are least susceptible to HIV infection.
  2. AIDS patients are being fully cured cent percent with proper care and nutrition.
  3. The causative HIV retrovirus enters helper T-lymphocytes, thus, reducing their number.
  4. HIV can be transmitted through eating food together with an infected person.

Answer. 3. The causative HIV retrovirus enters helper T-lymphocytes, thus, reducing their number.

Question 211. AIDS does not spread through

  1. Using a syringe used by an AIDS patient
  2. Contact with clothes of an AIDS patient
  3. Mother with AIDS to the fetus during pregnancy
  4. Breast feeding by AIDS-suffering mother to a child

Answer. 2. Contact with clothes of an AIDS patient

Question 212. Vaccine against rabies was first developed by

  1. Jenner
  2. Shull
  3. Pasteur
  4. Goror

Answer. 3. Pasteur

Question 213. At which stage of HIV infection does one usually show symptoms of AIDS?

  1. When the infecting retrovirus enters host cells.
  2. When viral DNA is produced by reverse transcriptase.
  3. When HIV replicates rapidly in helper T-lymphocytes and damages large number of these.
  4. Within 15 days of sexual contact with an infected person.

Answer. 3. When HIV replicates rapidly in helper T-lymphocytes and damages large number of these.

Question 214. A patient is suspected to be suffering from AIDS. Which diagnostic technique will you recommend for its detection?

  1. ELISA
  2. MRI
  3. Ultrasound
  4. Widal

Answer. 1. ELISA

Question 215. Which one of the following is not a property of cancerous cells whereas the remaining three are?

  1. They do not remain confined in the area of formation.
  2. They show non-contact inhibition.
  3. They show contact inhibition.
  4. They compete with normal cells for vital nutrients.

Answer. 3. They show contact inhibition.

Question 216. Common cold differs from pneumonia in that

  1. Pneumonia can be prevented by a live attenuated bacterial vaccine whereas common cold has no effective vaccine.
  2. Pneumonia is caused by a virus while common cold is caused by bacterium Haemophilus influenzae.
  3. Pneumonia pathogen infects alveoli whereas common cold affects nose and respiratory passage but not the lungs.
  4. Pneumonia is a communicable disease whereas common cold is a nutritional deficiency disease.

Answer. 3. Pneumonia pathogen infects alveoli whereas common cold affects nose and respiratory passage but not the lungs.

Question 217. In which one of the following options are the two examples correctly matched with their particular type of immunity?

Examples                                                                          Type of immunity

(1) Anti-tetanus and anti snake bite                              Active immunity injections

(2) Saliva in mouth and tears in eyes                              Physical barriers

(3) Mucus coating of epithelium lining                           Physiological barriers

(4) Polymorphonuclear leukocytes and monocytes          Cellular barriers

Answer. 4. Polymorphonuclear leukocytes and monocytes Cellular barriers

Question 218. Widal test is carried out to test

  1. Diabetes mellitus
  2. HIV/AIDS
  3. Typhoid fever
  4. Malaria

Answer. 3. Typhoid fever

Question 219. A patient brought to a hospital with myocardial infarction is normally immediately given

  1. Streptokinase
  2. Cyclosporin-A
  3. Statins
  4. Penicillin

Answer. 1. Streptokinase

Question 220. Read the following four statements (A-D):

(A) Colostrum is recommended for the new born because it is rich in antigens.

(B) Chikungunya is caused by a Gram-negative bacterium.

(C) Tissue culture has proved useful in obtaining virus free plants.

(D) Beer is manufactured by the distillation of fermented grape juice.

How many of the above statements are wrong?

  1. Two
  2. Three
  3. Four
  4. One

Answer. 1. Two

Question 221. Identify molecules (a) and (b) shown and select the right option giving their source and use.

NEET Biology Human Health And Disease Question 84

Options:

Molecule                                  Source                                          Use

(1) (a) Cocaine                  Erythroxylum coca                      Accelerates the transport of dopamine

(2) (b) Heroin                    Connabis saliva                          Depressant and slows down body functions

(3) (b)Cannabinoid           Atropa belladona                       Produces hallucinations

(4) (a) Morphine              Papaver somniferum                  Sedative and painkiller

Answer. 4. (a) Morphine Papaver somniferum Sedative and painkiller

Question 222. Which one of the following statements is correct with respect to immunity?

  1. Preformed antibodies need to be injected to treat the bite by a viper snake.
  2. The antibodies against smallpox pathogen are produced by T-lymphocytes.
  3. Antibodies are protein molecules, each of which has four light chains.
  4. Rejection of a kidney graft is the function of B-lymphocytes.

Answer. 1. Preformed antibodies need to be injected to treat the bite by a viper snake.

Question 223. Which of the following cannot be detected in a developing fetus by amniocentesis?

  1. Sex of the fetus
  2. Down syndrome
  3. Jaundice
  4. Klinefelter syndrome

Answer. 3. Jaundice

Question 224. The cell-mediated immunity inside the human body is carried out by

  1. B-lymphocytes
  2. Thrombocytes
  3. Erythrocytes
  4. T-lymphocytes

Answer. 4. T-lymphocytes

Leave a Comment