NEET Biology Multiple Choice Questions – Sexual Reproduction In Flowering Plants

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Sexual Reproduction In Flowering Plants Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. A stamen is regarded as a

  1. Microsporophyll
  2. Megasporophyll
  3. Microsporangium
  4. Megasporangium

Answer. 1. Microsporophyll

Question 2. A typical anther is generally

  1. Bisporangiate
  2. Tetrasporangiate
  3. Monosporangiate
  4. Multisporangiate

Answer. 2. Tetrasporangiate

Question 3. Development of anther in angiosperms is

  1. Leptosporangiate
  2. Eusporangiate
  3. Gradate
  4. Simple

Answer. 2. Eusporangiate

Question 4. The tapetal cells of anther show

  1. Haploidy
  2. Diploidy
  3. Triploidy
  4. Polyploidy

Answer. 4. Polyploidy

Question 5. Pro-Ubisch bodies are secreted by

  1. Endothecium
  2. Middle layers
  3. Tapetum
  4. Ubisch bodies

Answer. 3. Tapetum

Question 6. Fibrous bands present in endothecium of anther wall are made up of

  1. Sporopollenin
  2. α-cellulose
  3. Pectin
  4. Liguin

Answer. 2. α-cellulose

Question 7. Glandular type of tapetum secretes

  1. Sporopollenin
  2. Pollen kit
  3. Compatibility proteins
  4. All of these

Answer. 4. All of these

Question 8. The exine of pollen grains (microspores) is composed of

  1. Pollen kit
  2. α-cellulose
  3. Sporopollenin
  4. Lignin

Answer. 3. Sporopollenin

Question 9. The number of germ pores in dicots and monocots pollen grains are, respectively,

  1. 1,3
  2. 2,3
  3. 3,1
  4. 3,2

Answer. 2. 3,1

Question 10. The two cells at which pollen grains are discharged are

  1. Larger generative cell and smaller vegetative cell
  2. Larger vegetative cell and smaller body cell
  3. Smaller vegetative cell and larger body cell
  4. Smaller generative cell and larger vegetative cell

Answer. 4. Smaller generative cell and larger vegetative cell

Question 11. Minerals required for the germination of pollen grains on stigma are

  1. Ca, B
  2. Mn, Ca
  3. N, S
  4. Fe, Ca

Answer. 1. Ca, B

Question 12. Pollen tube is produced by

  1. Exine
  2. Mn, Ca
  3. Both exine and intine
  4. Fe, Ca

Answer. 2. Mn, Ca

Question 13. Number of male gametes in one pollen tube is

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 4
  4. 6

Answer. 2. 2

Question 14. The chemical complex which controls the chemotrophic movement of pollen tube in style is

  1. K+, salts, amino acids
  2. Organic acids, K+
  3. Ca, B, inositol sugar complex
  4. Phenols and lignins

Answer. 3. Ca, B, inositol sugar complex

Question 15. The_____serves as a landing platform for pollen grains.

  1. Stigma
  2. Style
  3. Ovary
  4. Pollen sac

Answer. 2. Style

Question 16. Chasmogamy is pollination in

  1. Bud condition
  2. Closed flowers
  3. Open flowers
  4. Unrelated flowers

Answer. 3. Open flowers

Question 17. Which of the following is/are ornithophilous?

  1. Erythrina
  2. Agave
  3. Grevillea
  4. All of these

Answer. 4. All of these

Question 18. Maturation of gynoecium before anthers of the same flower is called

  1. Protogyny
  2. Protandry
  3. Heterogamy
  4. Dichogamy

Answer. 1. Protogyny

Question 19. When pollen grains of a flower fall on the stigma of an- other flower of the same plant, this condition is called

  1. Genetically self-pollination
  2. Genetically self-pollination and ecologically cross- pollination
  3. Ecologically cross-pollination
  4. Genetically cross-pollination and ecologically self-pollination

Answer. 2. Genetically self-pollination and ecologically cross- pollination

Question 20. In geitonogamy, pollen grains are transferred to

  1. Genetically different flower
  2. Genetically similar flower
  3. Stigma of another flower of a different plant
  4. Stigma of the same flower

Answer. 2. Genetically similar flower

Question 21. Which is not a contrivance for self-pollination?

  1. Homogamy
  2. Bud pollination
  3. Cleistogamy
  4. Dichogamy

Answer. 4. Dichogamy

Question 22. Which is generally not a characteristic of anemophilous flower?

  1. Unisexual nature
  2. Abundant pollen grains
  3. Bright color
  4. Reduction in number of sepals, petals, and ovules

Answer. 3. Bright color

Question 23. A characteristic of entomophilous pollen grains is the presence of

  1. Powdery nature
  2. Sticky pollen kit material
  3. Carotenoids
  4. Ubisch bodies

Answer. 2. Sticky pollen kit material

Question 24. Dioecious condition and epihydrophily is found in

  1. Vallisneria
  2. Salvia
  3. Zostera
  4. Coconut

Answer. 1. Vallisneria

Question 25. Bats are pollinator of

  1. Butea
  2. Adansonia
  3. Sunflower
  4. Callistemon

Answer. 2. Adansonia

Question 26. Pollen tube in Portulaca was first observed by

  1. P.Maheswari
  2. R.Cameraius
  3. G.B.Amici
  4. Nawaschin

Answer. 3. G.B.Amici

Question 27. When some natural barriers exist between the stamens and pistil to check self-pollination, it is known as

  1. Heterostyly
  2. Dichogamy
  3. Herkogamy
  4. Dicliny

Answer. 3. Herkogamy

Question 28. When the pollen tube enters the embryo sac, which one of the following is always destroyed?

  1. Antipodal
  2. Egg
  3. Synergid
  4. Polar nucleus

Answer. 3. Synergid

Question 29. Germination of pollen grain on the stigma is called

  1. Autogamy
  2. In situ germination
  3. In vivo germination
  4. In vitro germination

Answer. 4. In vitro germination

Question 30. In pea, the pollen tube comes out of the pollen grains present on slide having 10% sugar solution in about

  1. 5-10 min
  2. 15-30 min
  3. 5-7 days
  4. 1 month

Answer. 2. 15-30 min

Question 31. Types of ovules in angiosperms are

  1. 6
  2. 5
  3. 4
  4. 3

Answer. 1. 6

Question 32. The tetrad of megaspores produced from the megaspore mother cell is

  1. Isobilateral
  2. Linear
  3. Tetrahedral
  4. Decussate

Answer. 2. Linear

Question 33. When the body of the ovule, the embryo sac, and the micropyle lie at right angles to the funiculus, the ovule is called

  1. Amphitropous
  2. Anatropous
  3. Campylotropous
  4. Hemianatropous

Answer. 4. Hemianatropous

Question 34. When the hilum, chalaza, and micropyle of ovule lie in the same long axis, it is known as

  1. Amphitropous
  2. Anatropous
  3. Orthotropous
  4. Campylotropous

Answer. 3. Orthotropous

Question 35. How many megaspore mother cells are required to produce 100 eggs during meiosis?

  1. 1
  2. 100
  3. 50
  4. 25

Answer. 2. 100

Question 36. Ategmic ovule is found in

  1. Loranthus
  2. Tagetes
  3. Santalum
  4. Both (1) and (3)

Answer. 4. Both (1) and (3)

Question 37. Polygonum type of embryo sac is

  1. 7-celled, 8-nucleated structure
  2. 8-celled, 8-nucleated structure
  3. 6-celled, 8-nucleated structure
  4. 6-celled, 6-nucleated structure

Answer. 1. 7-celled, 8-nucleated structure

Question 38. The fusion of second male gamete with secondary nucleus is called

  1. Double fertilization
  2. Triple fusion
  3. Syngamy
  4. Triple fertilization

Answer. 2. Triple fusion

Question 39. Egg apparatus is situated at the composed of______end and is______cells.

  1. Micropylar, 2
  2. Chalazal, 3
  3. Micropylar, 3
  4. Chalazal, 2

Answer. 3. Micropylar, 3

Question 40. The phenomenon of double fertilization was discovered by

  1. Strasberger
  2. P. Maheshwari
  3. Amici
  4. Nawaschin

Answer. 4. Nawaschin

Question 41. In female gametophyte, which cell is the mother cell of endosperm?

  1. Synergid
  2. Antipodal
  3. Central cell
  4. Egg

Answer. 3. Synergid

Question 42. Ploidy level of endosperm in angiosperm is generally

  1. n
  2. 2n
  3. 3n
  4. 6n

Answer. 3. 3n

Question 43. Most common type of endosperm is

  1. Nuclear
  2. Cellular
  3. Helobial
  4. Any of these

Answer. 1. Nuclear

Question 44. Coconut milk is a

  1. Solid endosperm
  2. Liquid endosperm
  3. Helobial type of endosperm
  4. Degenerated product of cellular endosperm

Answer. 2. Liquid endosperm

Question 45. Ruminate endosperm is commonly found in the seeds of

  1. Euphorbiaceae
  2. Cruciferae
  3. Annonaceae (areca nut)
  4. Compositae

Answer. 3. Annonaceae (areca nut)

Question 46. Perisperm is

  1. Degenerate secondary nucleus
  2. Remnant of nucellus
  3. Peripheral part of endosperm
  4. Degenerate synergids

Answer. 2. Remnant of nucellus

Question 47. Suspensor in a dicot embryogeny is

  1. 6-10 celled
  2. I-celled
  3. 10-20 celled
  4. Absent

Answer. 1. 6-10 celled

Question 48. Epiblast is

  1. Reduced cotyledon in grass embryo
  2. Embryo of grass
  3. Covering of radical
  4. Covering of plumule

Answer. 1. Covering of plumule

Question 49. Which is not true regarding gametophytic self-incompatibility?

  1. It is controlled by multiple alleles.
  2. It is due to genotype of pollen.
  3. Germination of pollen grain is prevented.
  4. Sporopollenin is involved.

Answer. 4. Sporopollenin is involved.

Question 50. The production of apomitic embryo from the cells of nucellus or integument is called

  1. Parthenocarpy
  2. Sporophytic budding
  3. Adventive polyembryony
  4. Both (2) and (3)

Answer. 2. Sporophytic building

Question 51. What will be the ploidy of endosperm and zygote if the cross is made between 6n plant and 4n plant?

  1. 5n, 8n
  2. 8n, 5n
  3. 10n, 7n
  4. 6n, 4n

Answer. 3. 10n, 7n

Question 52. Development of sporophyte without gametic fusion is known as

  1. Apomixis
  2. Apospory
  3. Apogamy
  4. Agamospermy

Answer. 4. Agamospermy

Question 53. Agamospermy is

  1. Adventive embryony
  2. Diplospory
  3. Apospory
  4. All of these

Answer. 3. Apospory

Question 54. The terms “sporoderm” and “spermoderm” are used to represent, respectively,

  1. Spore wall and sperm wall
  2. Anther wall and seed coat
  3. Spore wall and seed coat
  4. Integument of ovule and sperm wall

Answer. 4. Integument of ovule and sperm wall

Question 55. In some angiosperms and gymnosperms, multiple embryos are produced in which of the following way/ways?

  1. By fertilization of synergids or antipodal cells by sperms.
  2. By cleavage of single zygote.
  3. One or more cells of the nucellus or integument develop into embryo.
  4. All of these.

Answer. 3. One or more cells of the nucellus or integument develop into embryo.

Question 56. There exists a close association between the alga and the fungus within lichen. The fungus

  1. Fixes atmospheric nitrogen for the alga
  2. Provides protection, anchorage, and absorption for the alga
  3. Provides food for the alga
  4. Releases oxygen for the alga

Answer. 2. Provides protection, anchorage, and absorption for the alga

Question 57. Fungal flagellum originates from

  1. Dictyosomes
  2. Kinetosomes
  3. Glyxisomes
  4. Oxysomes

Answer. 2. Kinetosomes

Question 58. The famous Irish famine is related to a disease of potato known as

  1. Late blight
  2. Early blight
  3. Dry rot of potato
  4. None of the above

Answer. 1. Late blight

Question 59. ________ constitutes an edible fungus.

  1. Agaricus
  2. Morchella
  3. Lycoperodon
  4. Both (1) and (2)

Answer. 4. Both (1) and (2)

Question 60. Dolipore septum is only characteristic of

  1. Phycomycetes
  2. Zygomycetes
  3. Ascomycetes
  4. Basidiomycetes

Answer. 4. Basidiomycetes

Question 61. Vitamin B12 is released by [Maharashtra CET 2005]

  1. Penicillium
  2. Ustilago
  3. Puccinia
  4. Smut

Answer. 1. Penicillium

Question 62. Litmus is obtained from

  1. Lecanora
  2. Cetreria
  3. Cladonia
  4. None of the above

Answer. 1. Lecanora

Question 63. Zygospore formation occurs in

  1. Mucor
  2. Plasmodium
  3. Lentinus
  4. Peciza

Answer. 1. Mucor

Question 64. Fungi causing white rust belong to which order?

  1. Ustilaginales
  2. Chytridiates
  3. Uredineles
  4. Perenosporales

Answer. 2. Chytridiates

Question 65. Zygospore is formed from

  1. Gametangial copulation
  2. Gametic union
  3. Zygote
  4. Oogamy

Answer. 3. Zygote

Question 66. Fungi differ from algae in having

  1. Chitinous cell wall and chlorophyll absent
  2. Chitinous cell wall and chlorophyll present
  3. Cellulosic cell wall and chlorophyll absent
  4. Cellulosic cell wall and chlorophyll present

Answer. 1. Chitinous cell wall and chlorophyll absent

Question 67. In the following question, an Assertion (A) is followed by a corresponding Reason (R). Consider them and answer accordingly.

Assertion: Fungi are widespread in distribution and they even live on or inside other plants and animals.

Reason: Fungi are able to grow anywhere on land, water, or on other organisms because they have a variety of pig- ments, including chlorophyll, carotenoids, fucoxanthin, and phycoerythrin.

  1. If A is correct and R is its explanation.
  2. If A is correct and R is not its explanation.
  3. If A is correct but R is wrong.
  4. If both A and R are wrong.

Answer. 3. If A is correct but R is wrong.

Question 68. Which of the following fungus can cause diseases in humans?

  1. Saccharomyces cerevisiae
  2. Rhizopus stolonifer
  3. Ashbya gossypii
  4. Propionibacterium

Answer. 1. Saccharomyces cerevisiae

Question 69. Red rot of sugarcane and white rust of radish are, respectively, caused by

  1. Albugo candida and Cercospora
  2. Colletotrichum and Fusarium
  3. Pythium and Phytophthora
  4. Albugo candida and Puccinia graminis
  5. Colletotrichum and Albugo candida

Answer. 5. Colletotrichum and Albugo candida

Question 70. Terrestrial fungus is

  1. Utricularia
  2. Sargassum
  3. Agaricus
  4. Albugo

Answer. 3. Agaricus

Question 71. The fungus in which sexual reproduction is absent or is under abnormal conditions is

  1. Phycomycetes
  2. Ascomycetes
  3. Basidiomycetes
  4. Deuteromycetes

Answer. 4. Deuteromycetes

Question 72. The edible part of mushroom is

  1. Basidiocarp
  2. Primary mycelium
  3. Secondary mycelium
  4. Tertiary mycelium

Answer. 1. Basidiocarp

Question 73. VAM stands for

  1. Vesicular Arbuscular Mycorrhizae
  2. Vesicle Arbuscular Mycorrhizae
  3. Veremicular Arbuscular Mycorrhizae
  4. Vacuolar Arbuscular Mycorrhizae

Answer. 1. Vesicular Arbuscular Mycorrhizae

Question 74. Ascomycetes are

  1. Club fungi
  2. Algal fungi
  3. Pin molds
  4. sac fungi

Answer. 4. sac fungi

Question 75. Genus Aspergillus and Claviceps belong to

  1. Phycomycetes
  2. Asomycetes
  3. Basidiomycetes
  4. Deuteromycetes

Answer. 2. Asomycetes

Question 76. Among rust, smut, and mushroom, all three

  1. Are pathogens
  2. Are saprobes
  3. Bear ascocarbs
  4. Bear basidiocarps

Answer. 4. Bear basidiocarps

Question 77. In the following table, identify the correct matching of the crop, its disease, and the corresponding pathogen:

Crop-Disease                            Pathogen
1. Citrus-Canker                        A. Pseudomonas rubrilineans
2. Potato-Late blight                 B. Fusarium udum
3. Root-Root-knot                    C. Meloidogyne injection
4. Pigeonpea-See gall              D. Phytophthora infestans

A      B      C     D
(1)      1      2      3      4
(2)      1      4      3      2
(3)      4      3      2      1
(4)      3      4      1      2

Answer. 2.  1    4   3    2

Question 78. The cell walls of fungi consist of

  1. Cellulose
  2. Hemicellulose
  3. Chitin
  4. Both (1) and (3)

Answer. 4. Both (1) and (3)

Question 79. Aspergillus niger is used for the manufacture of

  1. Citric acid and gluconic acid
  2. HCl and HNO3
  3. Fumaric and malic acids
  4. Succinic and fumaric acids

Answer. 1. Succinic and fumaric acids

Question 80. Beedle and Tatum gave “one gene and one enzyme” hypothesis while working on

  1. Salmonelly typhimurium
  2. Neurospora crassa
  3. Escherichia coli
  4. Diplococcus pneumoniae

Answer. 2. Neurospora crassa

Question 81. An organism with eukaryotic multicellular nature obtains its nutrition through its cell wall. It should be placed under

  1. Mycota
  2. Plantae
  3. Animalia
  4. Monera

Answer. 1. Mycota

Question 82. Which of the following pair belongs to basidiomycetes?

  1. Puffballs and Claviceps
  2. Morchella and mushrooms
  3. Peziza and stink horns
  4. Bird’s nest fungi and puffballs

Answer. 4. Bird’s nest fungi and puffballs

Question 83. Toxins released by plants to save themselves from fungal attack are

  1. Phytotoxins
  2. Phytoalexins
  3. Calmodulins
  4. Aquaporins

Answer. 2. Phytoalexins

Question 84. LSD is extracted from

  1. Claviceps
  2. Cannabis
  3. Agaricus
  4. Amanita

Answer. 1. Claviceps

Question 85. The pathogen for leaf spot disease in Arachis hypogea is

  1. Fusarium
  2. Cercosporia
  3. Alternaria
  4. Hemianatropous

Answer. 2. Cercosporia

Question 86. Tundu disease of wheat is due to infection caused by

  1. Nematode and fungi
  2. Fungi and bacteria
  3. Nematode and bacteria
  4. Algae and fungi

Answer. 3. Nematode and bacteria

Question 87. “Ergot of rye” is caused by

  1. Claviceps purpurea
  2. Sclerospora graminicola
  3. Cannabis sativa
  4. Algae and fungi

Answer. 1. Claviceps purpurea

Question 88. Which of these is foliose lichen?

  1. Cladonia
  2. Graphis
  3. Parmeia
  4. Lecanora

Answer. 3. parmeia

Question 89. Saccharomyces is commercially used in industry.

  1. Baking
  2. Wine
  3. Butter
  4. Both (1) and (2)

Answer. 4. Both (1) and (2)

Question 90. Black rust of wheat is a fungal disease caused by

  1. Puccinia tritici
  2. Claviceps purpurea
  3. Melampsora lini
  4. Sclerospora graminicola

Answer. 1. Puccinia tritici

Question 91. Taxonomy of fungi is based on

  1. Sexual reproduction
  2. Nutrition
  3. Shape of sporocarp
  4. Cell wall

Answer. 1. Sexual reproduction

Question 92. Cellulose is a major component of cell walls of

  1. Pythium
  2. Xanthomonas
  3. Pseudomonas
  4. Saccharomyces

Answer. 1. Pythium

Question 93. Trichoderma harzianum has proved a useful microorganism for

  1. Bioremediation of contaminated soils
  2. Reclamation of wastelands
  3. Gene transfer in higher plants
  4. Biological control of soil-borne plant pathogens

Answer. 4. Biological control of soil-borne plant pathogens

Question 94. The athlete’s foot disease in humans is caused due to

  1. Bacteria
  2. Fungi
  3. Virus
  4. None of the above

Answer. 2. Fungi

Question 95. Which one is the wrong pairing for the disease and its causal organism?

  1. Loose smut of wheat-Ustilago nuda
  2. Root knot of vegetables-Meloidogyne sp.
  3. Late blight of potato-Alternaria solani
  4. Black rust of wheat-Puccinia graminis

Answer. 3. Late blight of potato-Alternaria solani

Question 96. Which one of the following has haplontic life cycle?

  1. Ustilago
  2. Wheat
  3. Funaria
  4. Polytrichum

Answer. 1. Ustilago

Question 97. Sexual reproduction in fungi may occur by means of

  1. Sporangiospore, oospore, and ascospore
  2. Zoospore, oospore, and ascospore
  3. Sporangiospore, ascospore, and basidiospore
  4. Oospore, ascospore, and basidiospore

Answer. 4. Oospore, ascospore, and basidiospore

Question 98. Lichens growing on tree bark are called

  1. Lignicolous
  2. Terricolous
  3. Corticolous
  4. Saxicolous

Answer. 3. Corticolous

Question 99. Common mycobionts and phycobionts of lichen body are, respectively,

  1. Ascomycetes, Chlorophyceae
  2. Ascomycetes, Cyanophyceae
  3. Basidiomycetes, Chlorophyceae
  4. Basidiomycetes, Cyanophyceae

Answer. 1. Ascomycetes, Chlorophyceae

Question 100. Foliose lichens are attached to the substratum at one or few places with the help of

  1. Branched, multicellular rhizoids
  2. Holdfast
  3. Rhizines
  4. Rhizomorph

Answer. 3. Rhizines

Question 101. Specialized structure in the thallus of lichen for nitrogen fixation and retaining moisture is

  1. Cyphellae
  2. Isidia
  3. Cephalodia
  4. Soredia

Answer. 3. Cephalodia

Question 102. Select the correct statement with respect to mycorrhizal roots:

  1. These do not differ in shape from normal roots.
  2. These often show a wooly covering.
  3. These possess root cap but lack root hairs.
  4. Fungal partner is commonly a member of ascomycetes.

Answer. 2. These often show a wooly covering.

Question 103. Which of the following feature is not related with virus?

  1. Infectivity and host specificity.
  2. Presence of genetic material.
  3. Occurrence of certain enzymes.
  4. Presence of respiration.

Answer. 4. Presence of respiration.

Question 104. Most of the viruses are/have

  1. Enveloped nucleo-protein structure
  2. Non-enveloped nucleo-protein structure
  3. Infectious protein particles
  4. Double-stranded DNA as well as dsRNA

Answer. 2. Non-enveloped nucleo-protein structure

Question 105. Infectious RNA particles without protein coat

  1. Have high molecular weight
  2. Were discovered by Alper
  3. Are known to cause disease in plants only
  4. More than one option is correct

Answer. 3. Are known to cause disease in plants only

Question 106. Yeast is used in the production of

  1. Lipase and pectinase
  2. Bread and beer
  3. Cheese and butter
  4. Citric acid and lactic acid

Answer. 2. Bread and beer

Question 107. Which one of the following microbes forms symbiotic association with plants and helps them in their nutrition?

  1. Aspergillus
  2. Glomus
  3. Trichoderma
  4. Azotobacter

Answer. 2. Glomus

Question 108. Which statement is wrong for viruses?

  1. All of them have helical symmetry.
  2. They have the ability to synthesize nucleic acids and proteins.
  3. Antibiotics have no effect on them.
  4. All are parasites.

Answer. 1. All of them have helical symmetry.

Question 109. Bacteria can be considered to be a plant because

  1. Some bacteria are photosynthetic
  2. Some bacteria have chlorophyll
  3. Some bacteria can make their own food
  4. Bacteria have cell wall

Answer. 4. Bacteria have cell wall

Question 110. The major component of bacterial cell wall is a polymer called

  1. Chitin
  2. Xytan
  3. Cellulose
  4. Peptidoglycan

Answer. 4. Peptidoglycan

Question 111. Oxytetracycline is produced by

  1. Mycoplasma
  2. Actinomycetes
  3. Cyanobacteria
  4. Eubacteria

Answer. 2. Actinomycetes

Question 112. Cyanobacteria existed

  1. 2.9 billion
  2. 3.4 billion
  3. 1 million
  4. Peptidoglycan

Answer. 2. 3.4 billion

Question 113. Which of the following is nonsymbiotic, anaerobic, non- photosynthetic nitrogen-fixing bacteria?

  1. Clostridium
  2. Nostoc
  3. Anabaena
  4. Azotobacter

Answer. 1. Clostridium

Question 114. Bacterial cell includes all except

  1. Nuclear material without membrane
  2. Cell wall of murein
  3. DNA compound with histones
  4. Ribosomes

Answer. 3. DNA compound with histones

Question 115. Pigments phycocyanin and phycoerythrin are present in

  1. Bacillariophyceae
  2. Archeabacteria
  3. Eubacteria
  4. Cyanobacteria

Answer. 4. Cyanobacteria

Question 116. Barophilic prokaryotes

  1. Grow slowly in highly alkaline frozen lakes at high altitudes
  2. Occur in water containing high concentration of barium hydroxide
  3. Grow and multiply in very deep marine sediments
  4. Readily grow and divide in sea water enriched in any soluble salt of barium

Answer. 3. Grow and multiply in very deep marine sediments

Question 117. Teichoic acid is present in

  1. Gram +ve bacteria
  2. Gram-ve bacteria
  3. Spirochaete
  4. Actinomycetes

Answer. 2. Gram-ve bacteria

Question 118. For retting of jute, the fermenting microbe used is

  1. Helicobacter pylori
  2. Mesophilic bacteria
  3. Streptococcus lactis
  4. Butyric acid bacteria

Answer. 4. Butyric acid bacteria

Question 119. Free-living aerobic nitrogen-fixing bacterium is

  1. Azotobacter
  2. Rhizobium
  3. Clostridium
  4. Anabaena

Answer. 1. Azotobacter

Question 120. Cyanobacteria is

  1. Nitrogen-fixing free-living photosynthetic organism
  2. Symbiotic mycorrhizae
  3. Photosynthetic algae
  4. Saprophytic fungus

Answer. 1. Nitrogen-fixing free-living photosynthetic organism

Question 121. Genetic elements which may be present inside as well as in extrachromosomal entities are

  1. Episomes
  2. Mesosomes
  3. Oxysomes
  4. Autosomes

Answer. 1. Episomes

Question 122. The bacterial cell wall is made up of

  1. Cellulose
  2. Hemicellulose
  3. Both (1) and (2)
  4. Peptidoglycan
  5. Glycogen

Answer. 4. Peptidoglycan

Question 123. The most widely used bioweapon is

  1. Bacillus subtilis
  2. Pseudomonas putida
  3. Bacillus anthracis
  4. None of the above

Answer. 3. Bacillus anthracis

Question 124. A bacterial cell divides once every minute and it takes 1 h to fill a cup. How much time will it take to fill half the cup?

  1. 30 min
  2. 60 min
  3. 29 min
  4. 59 min

Answer. 4. 59 min

Question 125. Bacteria is pathogenic due to

  1. Mitochondria
  2. Cell membrane
  3. Cell wall
  4. Nuclic acid

Answer. 4. Nuclic acid

Question 126. Which of the following is non-pathogenic bacteria of colon?

  1. Escherichia coli
  2. Balantidium coli
  3. Entamoeba coli
  4. Enterobius vermicularis

Answer. 2. Balantidium coli

Question 127. Treponema pallidum is

  1. Causative agent of syphilis
  2. The example of spirochaete bacterium
  3. The causative agent of sexually transmitted disease
  4. All are correct

Answer. 4. All are correct

Question 128. Which of the following is correct?

  1. Bacteria are only autotrophic.
  2. Bacteria are only heterotrophic.
  3. Most are heterotrophic but a few are autotrophic.
  4. Most bacteria are autotrophic but a few are heterotrophic.

Answer. 3. Most are heterotrophic but a few are autotrophic.

Question 129. The Widal test is performed as diagnostic value in

  1. Tuberculosis
  2. Typhoid
  3. Cholera
  4. Tetanus

Answer. 2. Typhoid

Question 130. The two bacteria found to be very useful in genetic engineering experiments are

  1. Nitrosomonas and Klebsiella
  2. Escherichia and Agrobacterium
  3. Nitrobacter and Azotobacter
  4. Rhizobium and Diplococcus

Answer. 2. Escherichia and Agrobacterium

Question 131. Pili of bacteria are useful for

  1. Locomotion
  2. Sexual contacts
  3. Asexual reproduction
  4. Transformation
  5. Feeding

Answer. 2. Sexual contacts

Question 132. The bacterium (Clostridium botulinum) that causes botulism is

  1. An obligate acrobe
  2. A facultative anaerobe
  3. An obligate anaerobe
  4. A facultative acrobe

Answer. 3. An obligate anerobe

Question 133. In prokaryotes, what helps in anaerobic respiration?

  1. Mitochondria
  2. Folds of plasma membrane
  3. Ribosomes
  4. Cell wall

Answer. 2. Folds of plasma membrane

Question 134. Blue green algae as Nostoc and Anabaena can photosynthesize due to the presence of 

  1. Heterocysts
  2. Akinetes
  3. Chromatophores
  4. Leghemoglobin

Answer. 3. Chromatophores

Question 135. The exceptional feature of blue green algae which is the basis of their study is

  1. Aplanospores
  2. Sclerodia
  3. Heterocysts
  4. Haplospores

Answer. 3. Heterocysts

Question 136. Crown galls are caused in plants due to the infection of

  1. Insects
  2. Virus
  3. Bacteria
  4. Fungi

Answer. 3. Bacteria

Question 137. Curing of tea leaves is brought about by the activity of

  1. Fungi
  2. Bacteria
  3. Micorrhizae
  4. Viruses

Answer. 2. Bacteria

Question 138. In prokaryotes, chromatophores are

  1. Specialized granules responsible for coloration of cells
  2. Structures responsible for organizing the shape of the organism
  3. Inclusion bodies lying free inside the cells for carry- ing out various metabolic activities
  4. Internal membrane systems that may become exten- sive and complex in photosynthesis bacteria

Answer. 4. Internal membrane systems that may become exten- sive and complex in photosynthesis bacteria

Question 139. Which one of the following pathogens causes canker discase?

  1. Meloidogyne ineognita
  2. Anguina tritici
  3. Xanthomonas citri
  4. Pseudomonas rubilineans
  5. Phytophthora infestans

Answer. 3. Xanthomonas citri

Question 140. Find out the pairs which are correctly matched:

(a) Cyanobacteria           (1) Biopesticides

(b) Mycorrhiza                (2) Solubilization of phosphate

(c) Bacillus                       (3) Cry protein thuringiensis

(d) Single-cell protein     (4) Rhizobia

  1. (a) and (2)
  2. (b) and (3)
  3. (c) and (3)
  4. (a) and (3)
  5. (b) and (4)

Answer. 2. (b) and (3)

Question 141. Which one of the following statements about mycoplasma is wrong?

  1. They are pleomorphic.
  2. They are sensitive to penicillin.
  3. They cause diseases in plants.
  4. They are called PPLO (pleuropneumonia-like organisms).

Answer. 2. They are sensitive of penicillin.

Question 142. The presence of a cluster of polar flagella is termed as

  1. Monotrichous
  2. Amphitrichous
  3. Lophotrichous
  4. Peritrichous

Answer. 3. Lophotrichous

Question 143. Some bacteria can live also in the absence of oxygen. These are

  1. Obligate aerobes
  2. Facultative aerobes
  3. Obligate anaerobes
  4. Facultative anaerobes

Answer. 2. Facultative aerobes

Question 144. What are the infoldings of plasma membrane called in prokaryotes which store respiratory pigments?

  1. Glyoxysomes
  2. Oxysomes
  3. Mesosomes
  4. Cristae

Answer. 3. Mesosomes

Question 145. Plasmid is

  1. Small extrachromosomal circular self-replicating DNA that can carry genes into the host organism
  2. Bacteriophage
  3. DNA found in mitochondria
  4. DNA incorporated in bacteria

Answer. 1. Small extrachromosomal circular self-replicating DNA that can carry genes into the host organism

Question 146. Difference between Gram -ve and Gram +ve bacteria is in their

  1. Cell membrane
  2. Cell wall
  3. Ribosome
  4. Mitochondria

Answer. 2. Hemicellulose

Question 147. The cell wall of bacterium is made up of

  1. Cellulose
  2. Hemicellulose
  3. Lignin
  4. Peptidoglycan
  5. Glycogen

Answer. 4. Peptidoglycan

Question 148. Which of the following monerans lack cell wall?

  1. Actinomycetes
  2. Photosynthetic bacteria
  3. Eubacteria
  4. None of the above

Answer. 4. None of the above

Question 149. Bacteria can live under sub-zero temperature for

  1. More than 1000 years
  2. 100-1000 years
  3. Few years
  4. Few days

Answer. 1. More than 1000 years

Question 150. Set of bacterial diseases is

  1. Diphtheria, leprosy, and plague
  2. Malaria, mumps, and polio
  3. Cholera, typhoid, and mumps
  4. Tetanus, TB, and malaria

Answer. 1. Diphtheria, leprosy, and plague

Question 151. In prokaryotes, genetic recombination can occur during

  1. Transduction
  2. Transformation
  3. Conjugation
  4. All of these

Answer. 1. Transduction

Question 152. Thermococcus, Methanococcus, and Methanobacterium exemplify

  1. Archaebacteria that contain protein homologous to eukaryotic core histones
  2. Archaebacteria that lack any histones resembling those found in eukaryotes but whose DNA is negatively supercoiled
  3. Bacteria whose DNA is relaxed or positively su- percoiled but which have a cytoskeleton as well as mitochondria
  4. Bacteria that contain a cytoskeleton and ribosomes

Answer. 1. Archaebacteria that contain protein homologous to eukaryotic core histones

Question 153. Which one of the following is not a characteristic of Gram-positive bacteria?

  1. Cell wall is smooth.
  2. Mesosomes are distinctively prominent.
  3. Basal body of flagellum contains two rings.
  4. Outer membrane is present.
  5. Murein content of cell wall is 70-80%.

Answer. 1. Cell wall is smooth.

Question 154. Pathogenicity of bacteria causing tuberculosis and leprosy is due to

  1. Cholesterol
  2. Ergosterol
  3. Prostaglandins
  4. Glycerol
  5. Wax-D

Answer. 5. Wax-D

Question 155. Bacterial leaf blight of rice is caused by a species of

  1. Xanthomonas
  2. Pseudomonas
  3. Alternaria
  4. Erwinia

Answer. 4. Erwina

Question 156. Streptomyces griseus gives which of these antibiotics?

  1. Chloramphenicol
  2. Sterptomycin
  3. Tetracycline
  4. Penicillin

Answer. 1. Chloramphenicol

Question 157. Indirect transfer of genetic material from one bacterium to another through bacteriophase is

  1. Transduction
  2. Transcription
  3. Conjugation
  4. Translation
  5. Transformation

Answer. 2. Transcription

Question 158. Bacterial brown rot of potato is caused by

  1. Xanthomonas citri
  2. Escherichia coli
  3. Agrobacterium tumefaciens
  4. Pseudomonas solanacearum
  5. Salmonella typhosa

Answer. 1. Xanthomonas citri

Question 159. Which of the following is a bacterial disease?

  1. Red rust of tea
  2. Citrus canker
  3. Red rot of sugarcane
  4. Late blight of potato

Answer. 4. Late blight of potato

Question 160. Shorter generation time of E. coli compared to eukaryotes may be explained on the basis of

  1. Shape
  2. Large surface: volume ratio
  3. Presence of cell wall
  4. Absence of organelles

Answer. 2. Large surface: volume ratio

Question 161. Division in a bacteria cell is carried out through

  1. Multiple fission
  2. Binary fission
  3. Budding
  4. Plasmotomy

Answer. 2. Binary fission

Question 162. Antibiotic resistance genes are present on

  1. Plastid
  2. DNA
  3. Plasmid
  4. RNA

Answer. 2. DNA

Question 163. Cyanobacteria is the member of

  1. Fungi
  2. Protozoa
  3. Monera
  4. Pteridophytes

Answer. 3. Monera

Question 164. The Gram-negative bacteria detect and respond to the chemicals in their surroundings by

  1. Muramic acid
  2. Lipopolysaccharide
  3. Volutin granules
  4. Porins

Answer. 3. Volutin granules

Question 165. Which of the following is not a bacterium?

  1. Methanogens
  2. Diatoms
  3. Archaebacteria
  4. Blue green algae

Answer. 2. Diatoms

Question 166. A bacterium is capable of withstanding extreme heat, dryness, and toxic chemicals. This indicates that it is probably able to form

  1. A thick peptidoglycan wall
  2. Endospores
  3. Endotoxins
  4. Endogenous buds

Answer. 2. Endospores

Question 167. The vector for plague is

  1. Anopheles
  2. Aedes
  3. Xenopsylla
  4. Culex

Answer. 2.

Question 168. Lung tuberculosis is caused by

  1. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
  2. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
  3. Streptococcus pneumoniae
  4. Escherichia coli

Answer. 3. Streptococcus pneumoniae

Question 169. An example of symbiotic bacteria is

  1. Erwinia amylovora
  2. Rhizobium leguminosarum
  3. Xanthomonas campestris
  4. Agrobacterium tumefaciens

Answer. 2.

Question 170. Nonpathogenic bacteria found in our vermiform appendix is

  1. Entamoeba histolytica
  2. Shigella
  3. Escherichia coli
  4. Ascaris

Answer. 2. Shigella

Question 171. Which one of the following organisms possesses characteristics of both plant and animal?

  1. Euglena
  2. Bacteria
  3. Mycoplasma
  4. Paramecium

Answer. 3. Mycoplasma

Question 172. The scientist who coined the term “protista” to include both plant- and animal-like unicellular organisms was

  1. Robert Koch
  2. (2) E.F. Haeckel
  3. L. Pasteur
  4. Joseph Lister

Answer. 1. Robert Koch

Question 173. Protista includes

  1. Protozoa, algae, and fungi
  2. Algae, bryophyta, bacteria, and fungi
  3. Fungi, slime molds, and vascular plants
  4. Protozoa, bacteria, algae, and bryophyta

Answer. 2. Algae, bryophyta, bacteria, and fungi

Question 174. Slime molds belong to kingdom

  1. Monera
  2. Protista
  3. Plantae
  4. Animalia

Answer. 1. Monera

Question 175. Which protist reproduces both by binary fission and conjugation?

  1. Amoeba
  2. Paramecium
  3. Euglena
  4. Monocystis

Answer. 2. Paramecium

Question 176. Total parasites belongs to protozoan group

  1. Sporozoa
  2. Ciliata
  3. Sarcodina
  4. Zooflagellata

Answer. 2. Ciliata

Question 177. Protozoan protists respire through

  1. Pseudopodia
  2. Contractile vacuole
  3. Mitochondria
  4. General surface

Answer. 1. Pseudopodia

Question 178. Which one is not a protozoan protist?

  1. Plasmodium vivax
  2. Paramecium caudatum
  3. Enterobius vermiclaris
  4. Trypanosoma gambiense

Answer. 2. Paramecium caudatum

Question 179. Protozoan protists are differentiated on the basis of

  1. Nuclei
  2. Size
  3. Shape
  4. Locomotory structures

Answer. 3. Shape

Question 180. Endoparasitic protistan protozoans belong to

  1. Sporozoa
  2. Ciliata
  3. Sarcodina
  4. Mastigophora

Answer. 4. Mastigophora

Question 181. Protozoan found commonly in human colon is

  1. Entamoeba coli
  2. Plasmodium. vivax
  3. Aedes. aegypti
  4. All of these

Answer. 1. Entamoeba coli

Question 182. Primary grouping of protozoan protists is based on

  1. Locomotor organelles
  2. Size and shape
  3. Mode of feeding
  4. Mode of reproduction

Answer. 1. Locomotor organelles

Question 183. Protozoans are able to live efficiently due to their

  1. Motility
  2. Rapid reproduction
  3. Ability to manufacture food
  4. Specialized organelles

Answer. 1. Motility

Question 184. Protista contains

  1. Euglena, dinoflagellates, and yeast
  2. Amoeba, Paramecium, and Hydra
  3. Euglena, Paramecium, and mushroom
  4. Amoeba, Paramecium, and dinoflagellates

Answer. 4. Amoeba, Paramecium, and dinoflagellates

Question 185. Cyanobacteria are also referred to as

  1. Golden algae
  2. Slime molds
  3. Blue green algae
  4. Protists

Answer. 3. Blue green algae

Question 186. Which one of the following does not differ in E.coli and Chlamydomonas?

  1. Chromosomal organization
  2. Cell wall
  3. Cell membrane
  4. Ribosomes

Answer. 3. Cell membrane

Question 187. Nuclear membrane is absent in

  1. Agaricus
  2. Volvox
  3. Nostoc
  4. Penicillium

Answer. 3. Nostoc

Question 188. Maximum nutritional diversity is found in the group

  1. Antimalia
  2. Monera
  3. Plantae
  4. Fungi

Answer. 2. Monera

Question 189. The most abundant prokaryotes helpful to humans in making curd from milk and in the production of antibiotics are the ones categorized as

  1. Archaebacteria
  2. Chemosynthetic autotrophs
  3. Heterotrophic bacteria
  4. Cyanobacteria

Answer. 3. Heterotrophic bacteria

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