NEET Biology Multiple Choice Questions – Structural Organization In Animals

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Structural Organization In Animals Multiple Choice Questions And Answers

Question 1. Epithelial tissues lie on the basement membrane. It is made up of

  1. Basal lamina composed of mucopolysaccharides and glycoproteins secreted by epithelial cells
  2. Fibrous lamina composed of collagen and reticular fibers of underlying connective tissue
  3. Both (1) and (2)
  4. Cellular layer

Answer: 3. Cellular layer

Question 2. Simple epithelium is not effective in

  1. Nutrition
  2. Excretion
  3. Secretion
  4. Protecting the underlying tissues

Answer: 4. Protecting the underlying tissues

Question 3. Which of the following epithelial forms the inner lining of the lung alveoli, blood vessels, and peritoneum of the body cavity?

  1. Cuboidal
  2. Squamous
  3. Columnar
  4. Ciliated columnar

Answer: 2. Squamous

Question 4. Which of the following mammalian tissues is associated with filtration and diffusion?

  1. Simple columnar
  2. Simple squamous
  3. Stratified squamous
  4. Stratified columnar

Answer: 2. Simple squamous

Question 5. Simple squamous epithelium lining the blood vessels is called

  1. Mesothelium
  2. Endothelium
  3. Pavement epithelium
  4. Tessellated epithelium

Answer: 2. Endothelium

Question 6. Ciliated columnar epithelium called ependyma is present in the lining of

  1. Fallopian tubes
  2. Ventricles of brain
  3. Nasal passage
  4. Bronchioles

Answer: 2. Ventricles of brain

Question 7. Brush-bordered cuboidal epithelium is present in

  1. Intestine
  2. Proximal convoluted tubule
  3. Stomach
  4. Gall bladder

Answer: 2. Proximal convoluted tubule

Question 8. Ciliated epithelium occurs in

  1. Stomach
  2. Trachea and bronchi
  3. Duodenum
  4. Ileum

Answer: 2. Trachea and bronchi

Question 9. The germinal epithelium of the testis and ovary is made up of

  1. Columnar epithelium
  2. Squamous epithelium
  3. Cuboidal epithelium
  4. Stratified epithelium

Answer: 3. Cuboidal epithelium

Question 10. All the statements about stereocilia are correct except

  1. They are non-motile
  2. These are found in epididymis and vas deferens
  3. It has 9 + 2 ultrastructure
  4. The basal granule is absent

Answer: 3. It has 9 + 2 ultrastructure

Question 11. Which of the following epithelia covers the inner linings of the trachea, and large bronchi, and helps to remove mucus?

  1. Ciliated columnar
  2. Pseudo-stratified epithelium
  3. Compound epithelium
  4. Cuboidal epithelium

Answer: 2. Pseudo-stratified epithelium

Question 12. The epithelium found in the inner lining of the stomach and intestine is

  1. Columnar
  2. Squamous
  3. Stratified
  4. Pseudostratified

Answer: 1. Columnar

Question 13. The adjacent epithelial cells are held together by means of

  1. Liposomes
  2. Glyoxysomes
  3. Desmosomes
  4. Microsomes

Answer: 3. Desmosomes

Question 14. Pavement epithelium is the name of

  1. Cuboidal epithelium
  2. Squamous epithelium
  3. Columnar epithelium
  4. Ciliated epithelium

Answer: 2. Squamous epithelium

Question 15. Pseudostratified non-ciliated columnar epithelial tissue is found in the

  1. Urethra of male and parotid salivary gland
  2. Trachea and large bronchi
  3. Vas deferens and epididymis
  4. Buccopharyngeal cavity and oviduct

Answer: 1. Urethra of male and parotid salivary gland

Question 16. Stratified squamous non-keratinized epithelium is present in the lining of

  1. Buccal cavity, esophagus, cornea of the eye
  2. Skin, hair, horn, nail
  3. Small pancreatic ducts, thyroid follicles, ovary
  4. Intestine, stomach, gall bladder

Answer: 1. Buccal cavity, esophagus, cornea of the eye

Question 17. Which of the following epithelia is much thinner and more stretchable than the stratified epithelium and covers the inner surface of the urinary bladder and ureter?

  1. Transitional
  2. Compound
  3. Simple
  4. Stratified

Answer: 1. Transitional

Question 18. Which of the following cells are specialized for sensory functions, as cells of taste bud?

  1. Myoepithelial
  2. Neuroepithelial
  3. Cuboidal
  4. Codified

Answer: 2. Neuroepithelial

Question 19. Cells of the peritoneum comprise

  1. Ciliated epithelium
  2. Columnar epithelium
  3. Glandular epithelium
  4. Squamous epithelium

Answer: 4. Squamous epithelium

Question 20. Which of the following matches is incorrect?

  1. Holocrine—Sebaceous
  2. Merocrine—Pancreas
  3. Apocrine—Mammary glands
  4. Eccrine (merocrine)—Mammary gland

Answer: 4. Eccrine (merocrine)—Mammary gland

Question 21. Human mammary glands belong to which one of the following types of glands?

  1. Simple alveolar
  2. Coiled tubular
  3. Compound tubule-alveolar
  4. Simple tubular

Answer: 3. Compound tubule-alveolar

Question 22. Apocrine secretion of the gland means

  1. When the product is released but cell remains intact
  2. When the entire contents of the cell are discharged with the destruction of the cell
  3. When a part of the apical cytoplasm is lost
  4. None of these

Answer: 3. When a part of apical cytoplasm is lost

Question 23. Which of the following tissues is present in the maximum amount, joins different tissues, forms the packing between them and helps to keep the organs in place and normal shape?

  1. Areolar
  2. Adipose
  3. Tendon
  4. Ligament

Answer: 1. Areolar

Question 24. The epithelium covering the tongue is

  1. Pseudostratified
  2. Squamous keratinized
  3. Squamous non-keratinized
  4. Simple cuboidal

Answer: 3. Squamous non-keratinized

Question 25. Which of the following are principal cells of areolar connective tissue and secrete the maximum amount of matrix?

  1. Macrophage
  2. Mast
  3. Fibroblast
  4. Histiocyte

Answer: 3. Fibroblast

Question 26. Which one of the following contains the largest quantity of extra-cellular material?

  1. Striated muscle
  2. Areolar tissue
  3. Stratified epithelium
  4. Myelinated nerve fibers

Answer: 2. Areolar tissue

Question 27. Where would you find mast cells?

  1. Adipose tissue
  2. Yellow fibrous tissue
  3. Areolar tissue
  4. White fibrous tissue

Answer: 3. Areolar tissue

Question 28. Areolar tissue connects

  1. Muscles with muscles
  2. Bone with muscle
  3. Skin with muscles
  4. Bone with bone

Answer: 3. Skin with muscles

Question 29. Heparin, histamine, and serotonin are secreted by

  1. Lymphoid cells
  2. Mast cells
  3. Fibroblasts
  4. Macrophages

Answer: 2. Mast cells

Question 30. Colloidal protein gelatin is obtained by boiling

  1. Collagen
  2. Elastin
  3. Both (1) and (2)
  4. None of these

Answer: 1. Collagen

Question 31. Fibers present in connective tissue are

  1. Reticular
  2. Elastic
  3. Collagen
  4. All of these

Answer: 4. All of these

Question 32. A newborn baby has a cold-resisting device due to

  1. Brown fat
  2. Adipose fat
  3. Fat rich in reticular tissue
  4. None of these

Answer: 1. Brown fat

Question 33. Which of the following tissues is present at the joints between skull bones and makes them immovable?

  1. Cartilage
  2. White fibrous connective tissue
  3. Ligament
  4. Areolar

Answer: 2. White fibrous connective tissue

Question 34. The nucleus pulposus is present in

  1. Intervertebral disc
  2. Kidney
  3. Testis
  4. Cartilage

Answer: 1. Intervertebral disc

Question 35. Which of the following tissues connects bones at joints and enables us to move and rotate our neck, limbs, and fingers comfortably?

  1. Tendon
  2. Cartilage
  3. Ligament
  4. White fibrous cartilage

Answer: 3. Ligament

Question 36. A sprain is caused by

  1. Excessive pulling of tendons
  2. Excessive pulling of muscles
  3. Excessive pulling of ligaments in which some fibers of supporting ligaments are ruptured
  4. Too much stretching and tearing of all ligaments

Answer: 3. Excessive pulling of ligaments in which some fibers of supporting ligaments are ruptured

Question 37. The connective tissue which mainly consists of yellow clastic fibers and binds the bones together is known as

  1. Ligament
  2. Tendon
  3. Reticular fibers
  4. None of these

Answer: 1. Ligament

Question 38. All the following statements are correct, except

  1. Hyaline cartilage lacks fibers and is present in the sternum, hyoid, and ribs.
  2. White fibrous cartilage is the strongest and is present in intervertebral discs.
  3. Elastic cartilage is present in the tip of the nose and ear pinna.
  4. Calcified cartilage is not present in the pubis of the pelvic girdle of the frog.

Answer: 4. Calcified cartilage is not present in the pubis of the pelvic girdle of the frog.

Question 39. Hyaline cartilage is found in

  1. Eustachian tube, epiglottis, and pinna
  2. Larynx, nasal septum, tracheal rings, and ribs
  3. Joints between vertebrae
  4. Between the rows of chondrocytes in lacunae

Answer: 2. Larynx, nasal septum, tracheal rings, and ribs

Question 40. Bone-forming cells that secrete ossein protein are called

  1. Chondroblasts
  2. Chondrocytes
  3. Osteoblasts
  4. Osteocytes

Answer: 3. Osteoblasts

Question 41. The bone matrix consists of

  1. 65% inorganic matter and 35% organic matter
  2. 30% inorganic matter and 70% organic matter
  3. 60% inorganic matter and 40% organic matter
  4. 40% inorganic matter and 60% organic matter

Answer: 1. 65% inorganic matter and 35% organic matter

Question 42. Protein found in cartilage is

  1. Ossein
  2. Chondrin
  3. Myosin
  4. Elastin

Answer: 2. Chondrin

Question 43. One of the following salts predominates in the bone matrix.

  1. Sodium chloride
  2. Magnesium phosphate
  3. Calcium carbonate
  4. Calcium phosphate

Answer: 4. Calcium phosphate

Question 44. If a clean dry bone is kept in diluted HCl for about three days, it

  1. Breaks into pieces
  2. Becomes soft and elastic
  3. Dissolves
  4. Remains unchanged

Answer: 2. Becomes soft and elastic

Question 45. The transverse canal that joins longitudinal Haversian canals is known as Volkmann’s canal. It is a characteristic feature of the bone of

  1. Frog
  2. Fish
  3. Toad
  4. Rabbit

Answer: 4. Rabbit

Question 46. The bone of a mammal contains Haversian canals which are interconnected by transverse canals known as

  1. Canaliculi
  2. Volkmann’s canal
  3. Trabeculae
  4. Bidder’s canal

Answer: 2. Volkmann’s canal

Question 47. Spongy or chancellors bone is present in vertebrae, ribs, skull, and epiphysis of long bones. They have

  1. Haversian canals
  2. Trabeculae
  3. Red bone marrow
  4. Both (2) and (3)

Answer: 4. Both (2) and (3)

Question 48. RBCs of mammals are

  1. Non-nucleated, biconcave, and circular
  2. Nucleated, biconvex, oval
  3. Non-nucleated, biconvex, oval
  4. Non-nucleated, biconvex, circular

Answer: 1. Non-nucleated, biconcave, and circular

Question 49. Which of the following is incorrect?

  1. An increase in RBC count is polycythemia.
  2. A decrease in leukocyte count is called leukopenia.
  3. A decrease in thrombocyte count is called thrombocytopenia.
  4. Purpura (a group of bleeding disorders) is due to an increase in platelet count.

Answer: 4. Purpura (a group of bleeding disorders) is due to increase in platelet count.

Question 50. Which of the following precipitates Ca2+ ions and consequently prevents coagulation?

  1. Heparin
  2. Thrombin
  3. Potassium oxalate/Sodium citrate
  4. Antithrombin

Answer: 3. Potassium oxalate/Sodium citrate

Question 51. Erythropoiesis in the fetus occurs in

  1. Spleen
  2. Liver
  3. Both (1) and (2)
  4. Bone marrow

Answer: 3. Both (1) and (2)

Question 52. Anemia is caused due to the deficiency of

  1. Folic acid
  2. Vitamin B12
  3. Hemoglobin
  4. All of these

Answer: 4. All of these

Question 53. An abnormal rise in RBC count can be found during exercise and at high altitude to cope with the oxygen demand is known as

  1. Polycythemia
  2. Thrombosis
  3. Leukemia
  4. Angina pectoris

Answer: 1. Polycythemia

Question 54. Which of the following is not an anticoagulant?

  1. Histamine
  2. Hirudin
  3. Heparin
  4. Citrate

Answer: 1. Histamine

Question 55. Old RBCs are destroyed in the “tissue macrophage system.” In the breakdown of hemoglobin, bilirubin is formed from

  1. Glob in part
  2. Porphyrin
  3. Mainly from Globin and a part from Heme
  4. Iron part

Answer: 2. Porphyrin

Question 56. Which of the following has a kidney-shaped nucleus?

  1. Neutrophils
  2. Monocytes
  3. Lymphocytes
  4. Eosinophils

Answer: 2. Monocytes

Question 57. Which one of the following act as a soldier in the human body?

  1. Monocytes
  2. Lymphocytes
  3. Erythrocytes
  4. All of these

Answer: 1. Monocytes

Question 58. The maximum number of WBCs in the body is

  1. Eosinophils
  2. Basophils
  3. Monocytes
  4. Neutrophils

Answer: 4. Neutrophils

Question 59. Cardiac muscles are

  1. Striated, voluntary with syncytial condition
  2. Unstriated, involuntary, uninucleated
  3. Striated, involuntary with intercalated disc
  4. Involuntary and unstriated

Answer: 3. Striated, involuntary with intercalated disc

Question 60. Where would you find oblique cross-connections forming a contractile network of fibers and intercalated discs?

  1. Voluntary muscles
  2. Cardiac muscles
  3. Involuntary muscles
  4. None of these

Answer: 2. Cardiac muscles

Question 61. Covering membrane around muscle fiber is known as

  1. Neurilemma
  2. Plasmalemma
  3. Sarcolemma
  4. Myolemma

Answer: 3. Sarcolemma

Question 62. A long refractory period is present in

  1. Smooth muscles
  2. Cardiac muscles
  3. Striated muscles
  4. None of these

Answer: 2. Cardiac muscles

Question 63. Erector pili muscles are

  1. Voluntary, multiunit
  2. Involuntary, multiunit
  3. Involuntary, single-unit
  4. Voluntary, single unit

Answer: 2. Involuntary, multiunit

Question 64. Diapedesis means

  1. Movement of the food in the gut
  2. Formation of WBCs
  3. The process by which monocytes and neutrophils squeeze through thin capillary wall
  4. Formation of RBCs

Answer: 3. The process by which monocytes and neutrophils squeeze through the thin capillary wall

Question 65. The membrane of Krause or Z line is a dark membrane that bisects

  1. A band or anisotropic band
  2. Henson’s line
  3. I band or isotropic band
  4. Sarcomere

Answer: 1. A band or anisotropic band

Question 66. Nissl granules are made up of

  1. Ribosomes and RNA
  2. DNA and proteins
  3. Ribosomes and DNA
  4. RNA, DNA, and proteins

Answer: 3. Ribosomes and DNA

Question 67. In the central nervous system, the myelin sheath around the nerve fiber is formed by the spiral wrapping of

  1. Neurilemma
  2. Schwann cells
  3. Oligodendrocytes
  4. Neurolemmocytes

Answer: 3. Oligodendrocytes

Question 68. The brain barrier is formed by

  1. Astrocytes
  2. Oligodendrocytes
  3. Glial cells
  4. Microglial cells

Answer: 1. Astrocytes

Question 69. Neuroglia cells consist of packing cells and occur in

  1. Brain
  2. Spinal cord
  3. Ganglia
  4. All of these

Answer: 4. All of these

Question 70. A nerve is a bundle of

  1. Ganglia
  2. Dendrites
  3. Synapse
  4. Axons

Answer: 4. Axons

Questions Related To Earthworm, Cockroach, And Frog

Question 71. Which of the following statements is not correct about earthworms?

  1. It shows metamerism and the number of segments varies from 100-120.
  2. The first segment at the anterior end of the body is called as the buccal segment or
  3. The first segment is prostomium.
  4. The skin of earthworms is brown due to the presence of porphyrin.

Answer: 3. The first segment is prostomium.

Question 72. The earthworms move with the help of

  1. Setae, muscles, and hydrostatic skeleton
  2. Setae alone
  3. Muscles alone
  4. Parapodia

Answer: 1. Setae, muscles, and hydrostatic skeleton

Question 73. In earthworms, there is a ring of S-shaped setae, embedded in the epidermal pit at the middle of each segment except

  1. First
  2. Last
  3. Clitellar
  4. First, last, and clitellar segments

Answer: 4. First, last, and clitellar segments

Question 74. There are four pairs of spermathecal pores in Pheretima which are located in intersegmental grooves between segments

  1. 5/6, 6/7, 7/8, 8/9
  2. 6/7, 7/8, 8/9, 9/10
  3. 14/15, 15/16, 16/17, 17/18
  4. 1/2, 2/3, 3/4, 4/5

Answer: 1. 5/6, 6/7, 7/8, 8/9

Question 75. Tick mark the wrong match (in earthworm).

  1. Female genital aperture—Midventral line of 14th segment
  2. A pair of male genital apertures—Ventrolateral sides of the 18th segment
  3. Genital papillae—Ventral surface of 17th and 19th segments
  4. Clitellum or Cingulum—9th to 14th segment

Answer: 4. Clitellum or Cingulum—9th to 14th segment

Question 76. Which of the following are analogous to vertebrate liver cells?

  1. Chromophil cells
  2. Chloragogen cells
  3. Calciferous gland cells
  4. Albumen cells

Answer: 2. Chloragogen cells

Question 77. In earthworms, typhlosole extends between 27th and 95th segments. Its function is

  1. Excretion
  2. Enhances effective area of absorption after digestion
  3. Respiration
  4. Locomotion

Answer: 2. Enhances effective area of absorption after digestion

Question 78. Which of the following statements is incorrect about the circulatory system of earthworms?

  1. Pheretima represents a closed type of blood vascular system.
  2. Blood glands are present in 4th, 5th. and 6th segments; they produce blood cells and hemoglobin dissolved in plasma.
  3. There are four pairs of hearts in earthworms present in the 7th, 9th, 12th, and 13th segments.
  4. In the dorsal vessel, blood flows in the forward direction and is without valves.

Answer: 4. In the dorsal vessel, blood flows in the forward direction and is without valves.

Question 79. Testes in earthworms are present in the segments

  1. 11 and 12
  2. 12 and 13
  3. 14 and 15
  4. 10 and 11

Answer: 4. 10 and 11

Question 80. During copulation in earthworms, sperms are transferred between copulating individuals from

  1. Female genital pore to spermathecae
  2. Male genital pores to spermathecae
  3. Spermathecae to cocoon
  4. Male genital pores to outside

Answer: 2. Male genital pores to spermathecae

Question 81. All the following statements are correct about the reproductive system of earthworms except

  1. Fertilization is external and cross-fertilization
  2. There are two pairs of testes in the 10th and 11th segments and one pair of ovaries attached at the intersegmental septum of the 12th and 13th segments.
  3. Accessory glands are present on the ventral surface of 17th and 19th segments.
  4. Earthworms is unisexual.

Answer: 4. Fertilization is external and cross-fertilization

Question 82. The dorsal blood vessel in Pheretima is

  1. Distributing in whole body
  2. Collecting in whole body
  3. Distributing in first 13 segments
  4. Collecting in first 13 segments

Answer: 3. Distributing in first 13 segments

Question 83. In Pheretima, clitellum is primarily meant for

  1. Burrowing
  2. Fertilization
  3. Producing cocoons
  4. Locomotion

Answer: 3. Producing cocoons

Question 84. Lateral oesophageal hearts in earthworms connect

  1. Supra-oesophageal and dorsal vessel to ventral vessel
  2. Dorsal vessel to sub-oesophageal vessel
  3. Lateral oesophageal vessel to sub-neural vessel
  4. Dorsal vessel to sub-neural vessel

Answer: 1. Supra-oesophageal and dorsal vessel to ventral vessel

Question 85. The flow of blood in the ventral vessel of earthworms is

  1. Forwards
  2. Backwards
  3. Backwards in half of it and forwards in another halt
  4. None of these

Answer: 2. Backwards

Question 86. The ventral surface of a mature earthworm can be distinguished from the dorsal surface by

  1. Absence of middorsal line
  2. Presence of clitellum
  3. Presence of genital papillae
  4. None of these

Answer: 3. Presence of genital papillae

Question 87. Which of the following parts of the gut occupies most part of the 8th segment?

  1. Oesophagus
  2. Gizzard
  3. Stomach
  4. Intestine

Answer: 2. Gizzard

Question 88. Photoreceptors (phagosomes) in earthworms occur in

  1. Epidermis of dorsal body wall and prostomium
  2. Epidermis of ventral body wall
  3. Both (1) and (2)
  4. Epidermis of prostomium only

Answer: 1. Epidermis of dorsal body wall and prostomium

Question 89. By which of the following nephridia excretion is exonephric?

  1. Pharyngeal nephridia
  2. Septal nephridia
  3. Integumentary nephridia
  4. Integumentary and pharyngeal nephridia

Answer: 3. Integumentary nephridia

Question 90. Earthworm is

  1. Ammonotelic
  2. Ureotelic
  3. Uricotelic
  4. Ureotelic and ammonotetic

Answer: 4. Ureotelic and ammonotetic

Question 91. In Pheretima. pharyngeal nephridia occur in the segments

  1. 3, 4, 5
  2. 4, 5, 6
  3. 5, 6, 7
  4. 6, 7, 8

Answer: 2. 4, 5, 6

Question 92. Periplaneta americana and Blatta orientalis differ mainly from each other in

  1. Body size
  2. Wing length
  3. Length of antenna
  4. Life history

Answer: 2. Life history

Question 93. In cockroaches, the body in spite of being covered by an exoskeleton of strong chitinous cuticle remains flexible due to

  1. Tergites
  2. Stemites
  3. Pleurites
  4. Arthrodial membranes

Answer: 4. Arthrodial membranes

Question 94. Vestigial wings are found in

  1. Male Blatta
  2. Female Blatta
  3. Maiz Periplaneta
  4. Female Periplaneta

Answer: 2. Female Blatta

Question 95. Structures which help in distinguishing a male cockroach from a female cockroach are

  1. Anal styles
  2. Anal cerci
  3. Colleterial glands
  4. Ocelli

Answer: 1. Anal styles

Question 96. In cockroaches, elytra are articulated to the trails of

  1. Prothorax
  2. Mesothorax
  3. Metathorax
  4. Abdomen

Answer: 2. Mesothorax

Question 97. Which mouth part of the cockroach acts as the upper lip?

  1. Labium
  2. Labrum
  3. First maxilla
  4. Hypopharynx

Answer: 2. Labrum

Question 98. The position of the head in relation to the body axis of the cockroach is known as

  1. Epignathous
  2. Hypognathous
  3. Prognathous
  4. None of these

Answer: 2. Hypognathous

Question 99. Endoskeletal structure present in the head is

  1. Apodeme
  2. Tentorium
  3. Fenestra
  4. Clypeus

Answer: 2. Tentorium

Question 110. Periplaneta has a mosaic vision. Each ommatidium is composed of the following parts except

  1. Corneal lens
  2. Refractive crystalline cone
  3. Rhabdome
  4. Phagosome

Answer: 4. Phaosome

Question 111. Which of the following is a wrong match in a cockroach?

  1. Head—Hypognathous
  2. Heart—13-chambered
  3. Anal styles—Female cockroach
  4. Excretion—Malpighian tubules

Answer: 3. Excretion—Malpighian tubules

Question 112. Movement of which muscles can alter the pericardial space in cockroaches?

  1. Circular
  2. Longitudinal
  3. Alary
  4. Ciliary

Answer: 3. Alary

Question 113. The number of segments in the leg of a cockroach is

  1. Five
  2. Three
  3. Six
  4. Nine

Answer: 1. Five

Question 114. The main function of the blood vascular system in cockroaches is

  1. Distribution of oxygen
  2. Distribution of absorbed nutrients
  3. Distribution of heat
  4. All of these

Answer: 2. Distribution of absorbed nutrients

Question 115. In Periplaneta, each walking leg consists of five segments. Which of the following is a correct sequence?

  1. Trochanter, coxa, femur, tibia, tarsus
  2. Coxa, trochanter, femur, tibia, tarsus
  3. Coxa, femur, trochanter, tibia, tarsus
  4. Trochanter, femur, coxa, tibia, tarsus

Answer: 3. Coxa, femur, trochanter, tibia, tarsus

Question 116. In cockroaches, malpighian tubules are the main organs of

  1. Respiration
  2. Digestion
  3. Excretion
  4. Reproduction

Answer: 3. Excretion

Question 117. The structure that helps the cockroach to walk on smooth surfaces is

  1. Trochanter
  2. Plantulae
  3. Cardo
  4. Scape

Answer: 2. Plantulae

Question 118. An open blood vascular system without any respiratory pigment is found in

  1. Earthworm
  2. Cockroach
  3. Nereis
  4. Hydro

Answer: 2. Cockroach

Question 119. The number of spiracles in Periplaneta Americana is

  1. 10
  2. 20
  3. 8
  4. 6

Answer: 2. 20

Question 120. The function of the stomodaeal valve in the gut of the cock-roach is to prevent the regurgitation of partially digested food from

  1. Midgut into crop
  2. Pre-oral cavity
  3. Midgut into hindgut
  4. None of these

Answer: 1. Midgut into crop

Question 121. A unit of photoreception in the compound eye of a cockroach is

  1. Crystalline cone
  2. Rhabdome
  3. Ommatidium
  4. Facet

Answer: 3. Ommatidium

Question 122. Which of the two parts in a cockroach are fundamentally similar in structure?

  1. Anal styles and labrum
  2. Wings and anal cerci
  3. Maxillae and legs
  4. Mandibles and antennae

Answer: 3. Maxillae and legs

Question 123. The number of chambers in the heart of a cockroach is

  1. 3
  2. 4
  3. 13
  4. 23

Answer: 3. 13

Question 124. Ootheca in Periplcinata Americana is secreted by

  1. Colleterial glands
  2. Conglobate gland
  3. Mushroom glands
  4. Gynatrium

Answer: 1. Colleterial glands

Question 125. The number of eggs contained in an ootheca of cockroach is

  1. 8
  2. 16
  3. 32
  4. 4

Answer: 2. 16

Question 126. The conglobate organ is a part of male reproductive system of

  1. Prawn
  2. Cockroach
  3. Earthworm
  4. Frog

Answer: 2. Cockroach

Question 127. The number of ganglia in the abdominal nerve cord of a cockroach is

  1. 6
  2. 9
  3. 10
  4. 12

Answer: 1. 6

Question 128. The frog’s body is divisible into

  1. Head, neck, abdomen
  2. Head, neck, trunk
  3. Head, trunk
  4. None of these

Answer: 3. Head, trunk

Question 129. Which of the following statements is not true?

  1. The body color of frog offers it protective coloration.
  2. The summer sleep of frog is called aestivation.
  3. Tail is present in the lifecycle of a frog.
  4. A frog’s mouth is bounded by a pair of lips.

Answer: 4. A frog’s mouth is bounded by a pair of lips.

Question 130. In a frog, a shank or crus is associated with

  1. Forelimb
  2. Hind limb
  3. Head
  4. Trunk

Answer: 2. Hind limb

Question 131. Which of the following is present in the skin of a frog?

  1. Serous gland
  2. Mucus gland
  3. Chromatophore cells
  4. All of these

Answer: 4. All of these

Question 132. The total number of bones in frog is

  1. 145
  2. 153
  3. 352
  4. 178

Answer: 2. 153

Question 133. Which of the following vertebra is an amphicoelous type in a frog?

  1. 3rd
  2. 9th
  3. 8th
  4. 10th

Answer: 2. 9th

Question 134. The digital formula for the hind limbs of frog is

  1. 0, 2, 2, 3, 3
  2. 2,2, 3,3.3
  3. 2, 2, 3, 4, 3
  4. 0,2, 1,2,3

Answer: 3. 2, 2, 3, 4, 3

Question 135. Poison glands are usually present in the skin of

  1. Frogs
  2. Toads
  3. Newts
  4. None of these

Answer: 2. Toads

Question 136. Frog is

  1. Homoeothermic
  2. Poikilothermic
  3. Homeostatic
  4. Warm-blooded

Answer: 2. Poikilothermic

Question 137. The most common Indian toad is

  1. Bufo melanostictus
  2. Rana grinch
  3. Alytes
  4. Helociermo

Answer: 1. Bufo melanostictus

Question 138. The capacity of amphibians to change color is called

  1. Synchronous
  2. Metachronous
  3. Metachrosis
  4. None of these

Answer: 3. Metachrosis

Question 139. Which is not true about frogs?

  1. Salivary glands are absent.
  2. Maxillary teeth are arranged along the margin of the upper jaw and the lower jaw is toothless.
  3. The muscular tongue is bilobed at tip and free from behind.
  4. The tadpole larva of frog has a short alimentary canal.

Answer: 4. The tadpole larva of frog has a short alimentary canal.

Question 140. Bidder’s canal in frogs is present in

  1. Testes
  2. Kidney
  3. Ovary
  4. Brain

Answer: 2. Kidney

Question 141. During the active period, maximum respiratory activity is through

  1. Cutaneous respiration
  2. Branchial respiration
  3. Pulmonary respiration
  4. Buccopharyngeal respiration

Answer: 3. Pulmonary respiration

Question 142. How many lymph hearts are present in frog?

  1. Single
  2. One pair
  3. Two pairs
  4. Three pairs

Answer: 3. Two pairs

Question 143. Which of the following parts of frog’s heart has spiral valve?

  1. Conus arteriosus
  2. Synangium
  3. Pylangium
  4. Both (1) and (2)

Answer: 3. Pylangium

Question 144. The middle ear of Rana Tigrina has

  1. Three ear ossicles, i.e., malleus, incus, and stapes
  2. One ear ossicle columella auris
  3. Two ear ossicles columella auris and stapedial plate
  4. No ear ossicle

Answer: 2. One ear ossicle columella auris

Question 145. Cerebrum is the part of

  1. Forebrain
  2. Midbrain
  3. Hindbrain
  4. Rhombencephalon

Answer: 1. Forebrain

Question 146. The number of cranial nerves and spinal nerves in frogs is

  1. 10 and 20
  2. 10 and 10
  3. 20 and 10
  4. 20 and 20

Answer: 4. 20 and 20

Question 147. Which of the following is true?

  1. Frog has monocular vision.
  2. Frog has membranes present on all the body surfaces.
  3. Frog is myopic (short-sighted) on land.
  4. All of these are true.

Answer: 4. All of these are true.

Question 148. Spawning is termed as

  1. Release of sperm in male
  2. Release of the ovum in female
  3. Another term for fertilization
  4. None of these

Answer: 2. Release of ovum in female

Question 149. Which of the following systems undergoes maximum changes in frog during metamorphosis?

  1. Digestive system
  2. Circulatory system
  3. Reproductive system
  4. Nervous system

Answer: 2. Circulatory system

Question 150. Respiration in the tadpole of frog takes place by

  1. Lungs
  2. Gills
  3. Buccal cavity
  4. Skin

Answer: 2. Gills

Question 151. Frog is

  1. Fully aquatic
  2. Terrestrial
  3. Both aquatic and terrestrial
  4. Arboreal

Answer: 3. Both aquatic and terrestrial

Question 152. Fertilization in frogs takes place in

  1. Mud
  2. Land
  3. Water
  4. Air

Answer: 3. Water

Question 153. Frog skull is

  1. Non-conflict
  2. Dicondylic
  3. Monocondylic
  4. None of these

Answer: 2. Dicondylic

Question 154. On removing the thyroid from the tadpole of a frog

  1. Metamorphosis will stop
  2. ft grows into a giant frog
  3. It grows into a dwarf frog
  4. Normal metamorphosis occurs

Answer: 1. Metamorphosis will stop

Question 155. At a time, a mature female frog can lay

  1. 2500-3000 fertilized eggs
  2. 2500-3000 unfertilized egg
  3. 200-300 fertilized eggs
  4. 200-300 unfertilized eggs

Answer: 2. 2500-3000 unfertilized egg

Question 156. The body of nephridia is V-shaped in

  1. Septal nephridia
  2. Integumentary nephridia
  3. Pharyngeal nephridia
  4. All the above

Answer: 2. Integumentary nephridia

Question 157. Which of the following is not correctly matched?

  1. Lumbricus—Europe
  2. Megascolex and Drawida—South India
  3. Pheretima—Sri Lanka. North India
  4. Eutyphaeus-—N. America

Answer: 4. Eutyphaeus-—N. America

Question 158. Clitellum of Pheretima is

  1. Permanent
  2. Multilayered
  3. Single layered
  4. (1) and (2) both

Answer: 4. (1) and (2) both

Question 159. Which structure secretes hormones in earthworms?

  1. Nerve cord
  2. Lymph gland
  3. Cerebral ganglia
  4. Chloragogen cells

Answer: 3. Cerebral ganglia

Question 160. Calciferous glands are present in earthworms in

  1. Pharynx and gizzard
  2. Stomach and buccal cavity
  3. Pharynx and stomach
  4. Only in stomach

Answer: 4. Only in the stomach

Question 161. In earthworms, skeleton-like function is performed by

  1. Coclomic fluid
  2. The alimentary canal filled with food
  3. Typhlosole
  4. Clitellum

Answer: 1. Coclomic fluid

Question 162. Appendages in earthworms are

  1. Monoramus
  2. Biramus
  3. Polyramus
  4. Absent

Answer: 4. Absent

Question 163. The normal speed of locomotion in earthworms is

  1. 25 m/s
  2. 75 cm/min
  3. 25 cm/min
  4. 25 km/h

Answer: 3. 25 cm/min

Question 164. One of the following is unpaired in earthworms.

  1. Male genital pore
  2. Female genital pore
  3. Genital papillae
  4. Spermathecae

Answer: 2. Female genital pore

Question 165. Which of the following is incorrectly matched?

  1. Male genital pore—18th segment
  2. Female genital pore—14th segment
  3. Lateral oesophageal hearts—7th and 9th segments
  4. Seminal vesicles-11th and 12th segments

Answer: 3. Lateral oesophageal hearts—7th and 9th segments

Question 166. Compound squamous epithelium occurs in

  1. Stomach
  2. Pharynx
  3. Intestine
  4. Trachea

Answer: 2. Pharynx

Question 167. Epithelial tissue is found in

  1. Protective covering
  2. Reproductive structure
  3. Nerve cells
  4. Corpuscles

Answer: 1. Protective covering

Question 168. Epithelium of bronchioles is

  1. Simple cuboidal
  2. Pseudostratified columnar
  3. Simple squamous
  4. Pseudostratified sensory

Answer: 3. Simple squamous

Question 169. Stratified and non-keratinized squamous epithelium occurs in

  1. Epidermis of skin
  2. Vagina and cervix
  3. Buccal cavity
  4. Both (2) and (3)

Answer: 4. Both (2) and (3)

Question 170. The basement membrane is formed of

  1. Epidermal cells
  2. Endodermal cells
  3. Both (1) and (2)
  4. None of the above but present below epithelial cells

Answer: 4. None of the above but present below epithelial cells

Question 171. The inner lining of the gut, stomach, and liver is made of

  1. Simple squamous epithelium
  2. Simple columnar epithelium
  3. Simple cuboidal epithelium
  4. All the above

Answer: 2. Simple columnar epithelium

Question 172. Gastric glands are

  1. Simple tubular
  2. Simple coiled tubular
  3. Branched tubular
  4. Compound tubular

Answer: 3. Branched tubular

Question 173. Regeneration after injury is absent in

  1. Nervous tissue
  2. Skin epidermis
  3. Tendon
  4. Smooth muscles

Answer: 1. Nervous tissue

Question 174. Brush border epithelium occurs in

  1. Trachea
  2. Stomach
  3. Small intestine
  4. Fallopian tube

Answer: 3. Small intestine

Question 175. Adjacent epithelial cells are held together by means of

  1. Liposomes
  2. Glyoxisomes
  3. Desmosomes
  4. Microsoft

Answer: 3. Desmosomes

Question 176. Vertebrate salivary glands and the exocrine part of the pancreas are

  1. Apocrine
  2. Holocrine
  3. Epicrine
  4. Merocrine

Answer: 4. Merocrine

Question 177. Simple epithelium is made of

  1. Non-cellular layer of hyaluronic acid
  2. Actively dividing cells
  3. Loosely arranged cells
  4. A compactly packed single layer of cells.

Answer: 4. Compactly packed single layer of cells

Question 178. Goblet cells are

  1. Unicellular glands
  2. Multicellular glands
  3. Loosely arranged cells
  4. Dead keratinized cells

Answer: 1. Unicellular glands

Question 179. Sebaceous glands are

  1. Apocrine
  2. Holocrine
  3. Medicine
  4. Epicrine

Answer: 2. Holocrine

Question 180. Squamous epithelium occurs in the inner lining of

  1. Kidney
  2. Pancreatic duct
  3. Lung alveoli
  4. Liver

Answer: 3. Lung alveoli

Question 181. The branched tubular gland is

  1. Salivary
  2. Gastric
  3. Sebaceous
  4. Sweat

Answer: 2. Gastric

Question 182. Characteristic of epithelial tissues is

  1. Never produce glands
  2. Cells can undergo rapid divisions
  3. Abundant vascularization
  4. Large intercellular spaces

Answer: 2. Cells can undergo rapid divisions

Question 183. Blood platelets are found only in the blood of

  1. Birds
  2. Reptiles
  3. Mammals
  4. Amphibians

Answer: 3. Mammals

Question 184. Ligament connects

  1. Bone to bone
  2. Bone to muscle
  3. Muscle to muscle
  4. Both (2) and (3)

Answer: 1. Bone to bone

Question 185. Mammary glands are modified

  1. Sweat gland
  2. Sebaceous gland
  3. Laciymal gland
  4. Endocrine gland

Answer: 1. Sweat gland

Question 186. The term hematocrit means

  1. The percentage of blood having red blood cells
  2. The ratio of blood volume to extracellular space
  3. The percentage of new blood cells formed every 120 days
  4. The percentage of blood having white blood cells

Answer: 1. The percentage of blood having red blood cells

Question 187. What is the main difference in human and frog RBCs?

  1. Human RBCs are non-nucleated.
  2. Hemoglobin is found only in human RBCs.
  3. Human RBCs have a nucleus.
  4. Human RBCs are multinucleated.

Answer: 1. Human RBCs are non-nucleated.

Question 188. Prothrombin is found in

  1. Intestine and helps in cellulose digestion
  2. Liver helps in the production of bile
  3. Blood and gives a red color
  4. Blood helps in blood clotting

Answer: 4. Blood and helps in blood clotting

Question 189. Which type of WBCs are most abundant in the blood of rabbits and other vertebrates?

  1. Acidophils
  2. Basophils
  3. Lymphocytes
  4. Neutrophils

Answer: 4. Neutrophils

Question 190. Blood clotting in a test tube can be prevented by adding a little of

  1. Sodium oxalate
  2. Sodium chloride
  3. Sodium hydroxide
  4. Ammonium chloride

Answer: 1. Sodium oxalate

Question 191. Oval, biconvex, and nucleated RBCs are found in

  1. Camel
  2. Rabbit
  3. Man
  4. Rat

Answer: 1. Camel

Question 192. Which of the following is an anticoagulant and checks blood coagulation in blood vessels?

  1. Prothrombin
  2. Globulin
  3. Thromboplastin
  4. Heparin

Answer: 4. Heparin

Question 193. In a normal healthy female, the number of RBCs/mm³ of blood is

  1. 6.5-7.0 million
  2. 5.5-6.0 million
  3. 4.5-5.0 million
  4. 3.5-4.0 million

Answer: 3. 4.5-5.0 million

Question 194. The tissue which forms the basic structure of lymphoid organs, spleen, etc., is

  1. Lymphoid tissue
  2. Cartilage tissue
  3. Elastic tissue
  4. Areolar tissue

Answer: 1. Lymphoid tissue

Question 195. Which of the following should be avoided in biological marriage?

  1. A+ boy and A+ girl
  2. A+ boy and A- girl
  3. 0+ boy and 0+ girl
  4. O- boy and O- girl

Answer: 2. A+ boy and A+ girl

Question 196. After examining the blood group of husband and wife, the doctor advised them not to have more than one child. The blood groups of the couple are likely to be

  1. Male Rh- and male Rh+
  2. Female Rh- and male Rh+
  3. Male Rh+ and female Rh+
  4. Male Rh- and female Rh-

Answer: 2. Female Rh- and male Rh+

Question 197. Blood colloidal osmotic pressure is maintained by

  1. Albumin
  2. Globulin
  3. Fibrinogen
  4. Thrombin

Answer: 1. Albumin

Question 198. Haversian canal is situated in

  1. Glandular connective tissue
  2. Skeletal connective tissue
  3. Fibrous connective tissue
  4. Nervous tissue

Answer: 2. Skeletal connective tissue

Question 199. Histamine is secreted by

  1. Neutrophils
  2. Basophils
  3. Leukocytes
  4. Monocytes

Answer: 2. Basophils

Question 200. Which one of the following is an agranulocyte?

  1. Neutrophil
  2. Eosinophil
  3. Basophil
  4. Monocyte

Answer: 4. Monocyte

Question 201. Stratified squamous epithelium is found in

  1. Pharynx
  2. Trachea
  3. Ileums
  4. Bowman’s capsule

Answer: 1. Pharynx

Question 202. During the process of blood coagulation, vitamin K helps in the

  1. Formation of thromboplastin
  2. Formation of prothrombin
  3. Conversion of prothrombin to thrombin
  4. Conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin

Answer: 2. Formation of prothrombin

Question 203. In mature RBC, the nucleus is present in

  1. Frog
  2. Rabbit
  3. Both (1) and (2)
  4. Neither in frog nor in rabbit

Answer: 1. Frog

Question 204. ABO blood group system was given by

  1. Landsteiner
  2. Wallace
  3. de Vries
  4. Lamarck

Answer: 1. Landsteiner

Question 205. Which of the following does not help in the clotting of blood?

  1. Heparin
  2. Prothrombin
  3. Ca2+
  4. Exposure to O2

Answer: 1. Heparin

Question 206. Collagen fibers are secreted by

  1. Mast cells
  2. Macrophage
  3. Histiocytes
  4. Fibroblasts

Answer: 4. Fibroblasts

Question 207. The haversian canal is found in the bone of

  1. Mammals
  2. Reptiles
  3. Aves
  4. Pisces

Answer: 1. Mammals

Question 208. The hematocrit value gives the

  1. Amount of RBC in blood
  2. Number of WBC in blood
  3. Amount of plasma in blood
  4. Hemoglobin concentration in blood

Answer: 1. Amount of RBC in blood

Question 209. Tendons and ligaments are specialized types of

  1. Nervous tissue
  2. Epithelial tissue
  3. Muscular tissue
  4. Fibrous connective tissue

Answer: 4. Fibrous connective tissue

Question 210. Which one of the following is a transparent tissue?

  1. Tendon
  2. Ligament
  3. Fibrous cartilage
  4. Hyaline cartilage

Answer: 4. Hyaline cartilage

Question 211. Ciliated epithelium is present in

  1. Trachea
  2. Ureter
  3. Intestine
  4. Nasal chamber

Answer: 1. Trachea

Question 212. The difference between bone and cartilage is

  1. Haversian canal
  2. Bloodvessel
  3. Lymph vessel
  4. None of these

Answer: 1. Haversian canal

Question 213. Minimum regeneration power is present in

  1. Nervous tissue
  2. Connective tissue
  3. Epithelial tissue
  4. None of these

Answer: 1. Nervous tissue

Question 214. Which one of the following couples was suggested by doctors to not have more than one child?

  1. Rh+ male and Rh- female
  2. Rh- male and Rh+ female
  3. Rh+ male and Rh+ female
  4. Rh- male and Rh- female

Answer: 1. Rh+ male and Rh- female

Question 215. The pH of blood is

  1. Between 7 and 8
  2. Between 2 and 4
  3. Between 12 and 14
  4. Between 2 and 5

Answer: 1. Between 7 and 8

Question 216. Histamine is secreted by

  1. Goblet cell
  2. Nerve cell
  3. Kupffer cell
  4. Mast cell

Answer: 4. Mast cell

Question 217. Universal blood recipient is

  1. Blood group O
  2. Blood group AB
  3. Blood group A
  4. Blood group B

Answer: 2. Blood group AB

Question 218. The lifespan of RBC is

  1. 50 days
  2. 70 days
  3. 120 days
  4. 220 days

Answer: 3. 120 days

Question 219. During blood clotting, which of the following is used?

  1. Co
  2. Ca++
  3. Na2
  4. Cl–

Answer: 2. Ca++

Question 220. Hemoglobin contains

  1. Fe++
  2. Mg++
  3. Na++
  4. Ca++

Answer: 1. Fe++

Question 221. Which of the following does not play a role in blood coagulation?

  1. Vitamin K
  2. Vitamin D
  3. Calcium ions
  4. Fibrinogen

Answer: 2. Vitamin D

Question 222. Which of the following cells of connective tissue secrete antibodies?

  1. Mast cells
  2. Reticular cells
  3. Adipose cells
  4. Plasma cells

Answer: 4. Plasma cells

Question 223. The cavities of the brain are lined by

  1. Cuboidal cells
  2. Polygonal cells
  3. Ependymal cells
  4. Simple squamous cells

Answer: 3. Ependymal cells

Question 224. Ligament is mainly made up of

  1. Reticulin
  2. Elastin
  3. Myosin
  4. Collagen

Answer: 2. Elastin

Question 225. Which is a sesamoid bone?

  1. Patella
  2. Femur
  3. Ulna
  4. Pterygoid

Answer: 1. Patella

Question 226. Mammary glands are modified

  1. Sweat glands
  2. Sebaceous glands
  3. Cutaneous glands
  4. Scent glands

Answer: 1. Sweat glands

Question 227. Anemia disease is caused by

  1. Deficiency of Fe
  2. Deficiency of Na
  3. Deficiency of Ca
  4. Deficiency of Mg

Answer: 1. Deficiency of Fe

Question 228. The main function of the ligament is

  1. Joining of two bones
  2. Joining of muscles
  3. Joining of muscle to bone
  4. Joining of muscle to nerves

Answer: 1. Joining of two bones

Question 229. The following are needed for blood clotting.

  1. Ca++ and vitamin E
  2. Ca++ and vitamin K
  3. Ca++ and vitamin A
  4. K+ and vitamin K

Answer: 2. Ca++ and vitamin K

Question 230. The type of epithelium found in the conjunctiva of eye is

  1. Stratified cuboidal
  2. Stratified columnar
  3. Stratified squamous
  4. Transitional epithelium

Answer: 1. Stratified cuboidal

Question 231. Haversian canals are found in the

  1. Bones of birds
  2. Bones of mammals
  3. Bones of frog
  4. Cartilage

Answer: 2. Bones of mammals

Question 232. One of the following is not found in the red blood corpuscles of human being.

  1. Hemoglobin
  2. Plasmalemma
  3. Nucleus
  4. Cytoplasm

Answer: 3. Nucleus

Question 233. The lifespan of human RBC is

  1. 120 days
  2. 90 days
  3. 2-3days
  4. 20 days

Answer: 1. 120 days

Question 234. Volkmann canals are found in

  1. Bones of birds
  2. Bones of amphibians
  3. Bones of mammals
  4. Cartilage of mammals

Answer: 3. Bones of mammals

Question 235. An example of a merocrine gland is

  1. Sebaceous gland
  2. Pineal gland
  3. Salivary gland
  4. Mammary gland

Answer: 3. Salivary gland

Question 236. Bone formed by the ossification of a tendon is called

  1. Membrane bone
  2. Sesamoid bone
  3. Dermal bone
  4. Cartilage

Answer: 2. Sesamoid bone

Question 237. Epithelial tissues arise from

  1. Ectoderm
  2. Endoderm
  3. Mesoderm
  4. All the above

Answer: 4. All the above

Question 238. The percentage of Hb in RBC is

  1. 48%
  2. 34%
  3. 10%
  4. 20%

Answer: 2. 34%

Question 239. White adipose tissue contains

  1. Multilocular fat cells
  2. Bilocular fat cells
  3. Unilocular fat cells
  4. Alocular fat cells

Answer: 3. Unilocular fat cells

Question 240. In humans, fibrous cartilage is found abundantly

  1. Hyaline cartilage of joints
  2. Nostrils
  3. Intervertebral discs
  4. External ear

Answer: 3. Intervertebral discs

Question 241. Which of the following is enucleate?

  1. Squamous epithelial cell
  2. Mature human erythrocyte
  3. Mature human leukocyte
  4. Mature frog erythrocyte

Answer: 2. Mature human erythrocyte

Question 242. Which one of the following is blood during storage?

  1. Sodium carbonate
  2. Sodium oxalate
  3. Sodium chloride
  4. Sodium hydroxide

Answer: 2. Sodium oxalate

Question 243. Blood clotting requires

  1. Na+ and K+
  2. Na+ and prothrombin
  3. Na++ and thromboplastin
  4. Ca2+ and thromboplastin

Answer: 4. Ca2+ and thromboplastin

Question 244. Mammalian pinna is supported by

  1. Hyaline cartilage
  2. Calcified cartilage
  3. Elastic cartilage
  4. White fibrous connective tissue

Answer: 3. Elastic cartilage

Question 245. Bone marrow takes part in

  1. Controlling blood pressure
  2. As hemopoietic tissue
  3. Assisting kidneys
  4. Assisting liver

Answer: 2. As hemopoietic tissue

Question 246. Agranulocytes are

  1. Eosinophils and neutrophils
  2. Monocytes and lymphocytes
  3. Eosinophils and lymphocytes
  4. Lymphocytes and basophils

Answer: 2. Monocytes and lymphocytes

Question 247. Platelets are a source of

  1. Fibrinogen
  2. Calcium
  3. Thromboplastin
  4. Hemoglobin

Answer: 2. Calcium

Question 248. Which is unrelated to blood plasma?

  1. Fibrinogen
  2. Fibrin
  3. Bilirubin
  4. Calcium

Answer: 3. Bilirubin

Question 249. A major component of blood plasma is

  1. Water
  2. Inorganic Substances
  3. Organic substances
  4. Blood cells

Answer: 1. Water

Question 250. Connective tissue belongs to

  1. Ectoderm
  2. Mesoderm
  3. Endoderm
  4. Any of the above

Answer: 2. Mesoderm

Question 251. Which one is unrelated?

  1. Keratin
  2. Elastin
  3. Dextrin
  4. Collagen

Answer: 3. Dextrin

Question 252. Thromboplastin required for by blood clotting is produced

  1. Platelets
  2. Erythrocytes
  3. Monocytes
  4. Lymphocytes

Answer: 1. Platelets

Question 253. The maximum number of white blood corpuscles is that of

  1. Basophils
  2. Neutrophils
  3. Monocytes
  4. Eosinophils

Answer: 2. Neutrophils

Question 254. Protein present in cartilage is

  1. Cartilage
  2. Chondrin
  3. Ossein
  4. Ossein

Answer: 2. Chondrin

Question 255. The lifespan of human white blood corpuscles is

  1. 24 h
  2. Less than 10 days
  3. 120 days
  4. 100h

Answer: 2. Less than 10 days

Question 256. Which of the following is not a granulocyte?

  1. Lymphocyte
  2. Basophil
  3. Neutrophil
  4. Eosinophil

Answer: 1. Lymphocyte

Question 257. Which of the following are involved in body defense?

  1. Neutrophils
  2. Lymphocytes
  3. Macrophages
  4. All the above

Answer: 4. All the above

Question 258. Ends of two long bones are connected by

  1. Cartilage
  2. Muscles
  3. Ligaments
  4. Tendons

Answer: 3. Ligaments

Question 259. Largest corpuscles in human blood are

  1. Erythrocytes
  2. Monocytes
  3. Lymphocytes
  4. Basophils

Answer: 2. Monocytes

Question 260. Heparin is formed by

  1. Liver cells
  2. Plasma cells
  3. Blood cells
  4. Spleen cells

Answer: 1. Liver cells

Question 261. Prothrombin, albumin, and fibrinogen are synthesized by

  1. Pancreas
  2. Bone marrow
  3. Spleen
  4. Liver

Answer: 4. Liver

Question 262. Regeneration of cartilage can occur from its

  1. Matrix
  2. Plasma
  3. Perichondrium
  4. A piece without perichondrium

Answer: 3. Perichondrium

Question 263. Mast cells occur in

  1. Connective tissue
  2. Epithelial tissue
  3. Skeletal tissue
  4. Nervous tissue

Answer: 1. Connective tissue

Question 264. The ground substance of connective tissue is formed of

  1. Phospholipids
  2. Lipids
  3. Monosaccharides
  4. Mucopolysaccharides

Answer: 4. Mucopolysaccharides

Question 265. The matrix of hyaline cartilage contains

  1. Collagen
  2. Chondrin
  3. Ossein
  4. All the above

Answer: 2. Chondrin

Question 266. The ends of long bones are covered by

  1. Blood cells
  2. Ligaments
  3. Muscles
  4. Cartilage

Answer: 4. Cartilage

Question 267. Erythrocytes of adult mammals are formed in

  1. Spleen
  2. Liver
  3. Bone marrow
  4. Kidney

Answer: 3. Bone marrow

Question 268. Histamine is secreted by

  1. Mast cells
  2. Histiocytes
  3. Lymphocytes
  4. Fibroblasts

Answer: 1. Mast cells

Question 269. Blood leukocytes are

  1. Epithelial
  2. Endothelial
  3. Glandular
  4. Connective

Answer: 4. Connective

Question 270. Which one is a factor for the maturation of erythrocytes?

  1. Vitamin B12
  2. Vitamin A
  3. Vitamin D
  4. Vitamin C

Answer: 1. Vitamin B12

Question 271. Antibodies are

  1. Albumins
  2. Gamma-globulins
  3. Sucrose
  4. Vitamin C

Answer: 2. Gamma-globulins

Question 272. In which state iron is present in hemoglobin?

  1. Anionic
  2. Fe2+
  3. Fe3+
  4. None of these

Answer: 2. Fe2+

Question 273. White fibrous tissue is

  1. Nervous
  2. Muscular
  3. Ligaments
  4. Tendons

Answer: 4. Tendons

Question 274. Loose connective tissue is

  1. Areolar
  2. Adipose
  3. Blood
  4. Cartilage

Answer: 1. Areolar

Question 275. Ligament is

  1. Modified white fibrous tissue
  2. Inelastic white fibrous tissue
  3. Modified elastic connective tissue
  4. None of these

Answer: 3. Modified elastic connective tissue

Question 276. The percentage of hemoglobin in RBCs is

  1. 10%
  2. 20%
  3. 34%
  4. 48%

Answer: 3. 34%

Question 277. Immature RBCs of mammals have

  1. No nucleus
  2. Single beaded nucleus
  3. Many nuclei
  4. Single nucleus

Answer: 1. No nucleus

Question 278. Megakaryocytes

  1. Produce leukocytes
  2. Forms blood platelets
  3. Are carriers of oxygen
  4. Are carriers of oxygen

Answer: 2. Forms blood platelets

Question 279. During blood clotting, fibrin is produced by

  1. Thrombokinase
  2. Prothrombin
  3. Liver
  4. Proteolysis

Answer: 2. Prothrombin

Question 280. Cartilage present in trachea, larynx, and bronchi is

  1. Fibrous
  2. Biotic
  3. Hyaline
  4. Calcified

Answer: 3. Hyaline

Question 281. The number of erythrocytes per mm³ of human blood is

  1. 4 million
  2. 5 million
  3. 6 million
  4. 0.5 million

Answer: 2. 5 million

Question 282. The number of WBCs per mm of human blood is

  1. 8000
  2. 7000
  3. 6500
  4. 6000

Answer: 1. 8000

Question 283. RBCs are nucleated in

  1. Man
  2. Rabbit
  3. Rat
  4. Frog

Answer: 4. Frog

Question 284. Cartilage is

  1. Non-vascular
  2. Poorly vascular
  3. Highly vascular
  4. Irregular vascular

Answer: 1. Non-vascular

Question 285. An anticoagulant is

  1. Heparin
  2. Hirudin
  3. EDTA
  4. All the above

Answer: 4. All the above

Question 286. Collagen and elastin are formed by

  1. Macrophages
  2. Fibroblasts
  3. Mast cells
  4. Chondrocytes

Answer: 2. Fibroblasts

Question 287. The rarest leukocyte of human blood is

  1. Basophil
  2. Monocyte
  3. Neutrophil
  4. Eosinophil

Answer: 1. Basophil

Question 288. Blood plasma has a pH of

  1. 7.4
  2. 7.8
  3. 6.9
  4. 6.3

Answer: 1. 7.4

Question 289. In camel, the RBCs are

  1. Oval and nucleated
  2. Circular, biconcave and nucleated
  3. Circular, biconcave and non-nucleated
  4. Oval and non-nucleated

Answer: 1. Oval and nucleated

Question 290. Bilirubin and biliverdin are derived from

  1. Globulin
  2. Heme
  3. Iron
  4. Fat

Answer: 1. Globulin

Question 291. The protein required for the coagulation of blood is

  1. Hemoglobin
  2. Globulin
  3. Fibrinogen
  4. Albumin

Answer: 3. Fibrinogen

Question 292. Globulin is

  1. Plasma protein
  2. Antigen
  3. Serum
  4. Found in lymphatic tissue

Answer: 1. Plasma protein

Question 293. Which is not a component of areolar tissue?

  1. Macrophage
  2. Plasma cell
  3. Schwann cell
  4. Adipose cell

Answer: 3. Schwann cell

Question 294. The structure absent from fresh frozen blood plasma is

  1. Immunoglobulin
  2. Plasma
  3. Albumin
  4. Platelets

Answer: 4. Platelets

Question 295. To prevent clotting, the donor’s blood is treated with

  1. Sodium glycocholate
  2. Sodium citrate
  3. Heparin
  4. Sodium taurocholate

Answer: 2. Sodium citrate

Question 296. Bones are mainly formed of

  1. Calcium and magnesium
  2. Calcium and phosphorus
  3. Calcium and sulfur
  4. Calcium and iron

Answer: 2. Calcium and phosphorus

Question 297. The nasal septum gets damaged. Its recovery requires cartilage called

  1. Fibrous cartilage
  2. Elastic cartilage
  3. Hyaline cartilage
  4. Calcified cartilage

Answer: 3. Hyaline cartilage

Question 298. Which cartilage is present at the end of long bones?

  1. Calcified cartilage
  2. Hyaline cartilage
  3. Elastic cartilage
  4. Fibrous cartilage

Answer: 2. Hyaline cartilage

Question 299. Continuous bleeding from an injured part of body is due to the deficiency of

  1. Vitamin A
  2. Vitamin B
  3. Vitamin K
  4. Vitamin E

Answer: 3. Vitamin K

Question 330. What will happen if ligaments are cut or broken?

  1. Bones will move freely at joints
  2. No movement at joint
  3. Bone will become unfix
  4. Bone will become fixed

Answer: 3. Bone will become unfix

Question 331. An abnormal increase in the number of RBC in the blood is called

  1. Anemia
  2. Polycythemia
  3. Leukemia
  4. Sarcoma

Answer: 2. Polycythemia

Question 332. Which one of the following contains the largest quantity of extracellular material?

  1. Striated muscle
  2. Areolar tissue
  3. Stratified epithelium
  4. Myelinated nerve fibers

Answer: 2. Areolar tissue

Question 333. Liquid that remains after clotting of blood is called as

  1. Serum
  2. Plasma
  3. Lymph
  4. Blood

Answer: 1. Serum

Question 334. Four healthy people in their twenties got involved in injuries resulting in the damage and death of a few cells of the following. Which of the cells are least likely to be replaced by new cells?

  1. Osteocytes
  2. Liver cells
  3. Neurons
  4. Malpighian layer of the skin

Answer: 3. Neurons

Question 335. Which of the following substances, if introduced into the bloodstream, would cause coagulation of blood at the site of its introduction?

  1. Thromboplastin
  2. Fibrinogen
  3. Heparin
  4. Prothrombin

Answer: 1. Thromboplastin

Question 336. Examination of the blood of a person suspected of having anemia shows large, immature, nucleated erythrocytes without hemoglobin. Supplementing his diet with which of the following is likely to alleviate his symptoms?

  1. Thiamine
  2. Folic acid and cobalamine
  3. Riboflavin
  4. Iron compounds

Answer: 2. Folic acid and cobalamine

Question 337. Areolar connective tissue joins

  1. Fat body with muscles
  2. Integument with muscles
  3. Bones with muscles
  4. Bones with bones

Answer: 2. Integument with muscles

Question 338. Mast cells secrete

  1. Hippurin
  2. Myoglobin
  3. Histamine
  4. Hemoglobin

Answer: 3. Histamine

Question 339. Which one of the following mammalian, cells is not capable of metabolizing glucose to carbon dioxide aerobically?

  1. Red blood cells
  2. White blood cells
  3. Unstriated muscle cells
  4. White blood cells

Answer: 1. Red blood cells

Question 340. In which one of the following preparations are you likely to come across cell junctions most frequently?

  1. Hyaline cartilage
  2. Ciliated epithelium
  3. Thrombocytes
  4. Tendon

Answer: 2. Ciliated epithelium

Question 341. A drop of each of the following is placed separately on four slides. Which of them will not coagulate?

  1. Whole blood from the pulmonary vein
  2. Blood plasma
  3. Blood serum
  4. Sample from the thoracic duct of the lymphatic system

Answer: 3. Blood serum

Question 342. Which one is the most abundant protein in the animal world?

  1. Hemoglobin
  2. Collagen
  3. Insulin
  4. Trypsin

Answer: 2. Collagen

Question 343. Compared to those of humans, the erythrocytes in frogs are

  1. Nucleated and with hemoglobin.
  2. Very much smaller and fewer.
  3. Nucleated and without hemoglobin.
  4. Without nucleus but with hemoglobin.

Answer: 1. Nucleated and with hemoglobin.

Question 344. Select the correct statement regarding the specific disorder of a muscular or skeletal system.

  1. Osteoporosis: Decrease in bone mass and higher chances of fractures with advancing age.
  2. Myasthenia gravis: Autoimmune disorder that inhibits sliding of myosin filaments
  3. Gout: Inflammation of joints due to extra deposition of calcium.
  4. Muscular dystrophy: Age-related shortening of muscles.

Answer: 1. Osteoporosis: Decrease in bone mass and higher chances of fractures with advancing age.

Question 345. The diagrammatic sketch of a certain type of connective tissue. Identify the parts labeled 1, 2, 3, and 4 and select the right option for them.

NEET Biology Structural Organization In Animals Certain Type Of Connective Tissues

NEET Biology Structural Organization In Animals ertain Type Of Connective Tissue

Answer: 3

Question 346. Which one of the following pairs of chemical substances is correctly categorized?

NEET Biology Structural Organization In Animals Chemical Substances

Answer: 3

Question 347. The supportive skeletal structures in the human external ears and in the nose tip are examples of

  1. Ligament
  2. Areolar tissue
  3. Bone
  4. Cartilage

Answer: 4. Cartilage

Question 348. The four sketches (1, 2, 3, and 4) given below represent four different types of animal tissues. Which one of these is correctly identified in the options given, along with its correct location and function?

NEET Biology Structural Organization In Animals Four Sketches Represent Four Different Types Of Animal Tissues 1

NEET Biology Structural Organization In Animals Four Sketches Represent Four Different Types Of Animal Tissues

Answer: 1

Question 349. The H-zone in the skeletal muscle fiber is due to

  1. The central gap between myosin filaments in the A band.
  2. The central gap between actin filaments extending through myosin filaments in the A band.
  3. The extension of myosin filaments in the central portion of the A band.
  4. The absence of myofibrils in the central portion of A band.

Answer: 2. The central gap between actin filaments extending through myosin filaments in the A band

Questions Related to Earthworm, Cockroach, and Frog

Question 350. What is common between earthworms, leeches, and centipedes

  1. Absence of legs
  2. Presence of ventral nerve cord
  3. Presence of malpighian tubules
  4. They are hermaphrodite

Answer: 2. Presence of ventral nerve cord

Question 351. Photoreceptors in Pheretima are present

  1. On the ventral side of skin
  2. On the dorsal side of skin
  3. On both sides
  4. In clitellum

Answer: 2. On the dorsal side of skin

Question 352. In earthworms, the arrangement of blood vessels is

  1. Different in last 15 segments
  2. Different in first 13 segments
  3. Same throughout
  4. Different in the middle 13 segments

Answer: 2. Different in first 13 segments

Question 353. In a copulatory pair of earthworms, there occur

  1. Reciprocal fertilization and internal fertilization
  2. Cross-fertilization and external fertilization
  3. External fertilization and internal fertilization
  4. Cross-fertilization and reciprocal fertilization

Answer: 4. Cross-fertilization and reciprocal fertilization

Question 354. In earthworms, setae are absent from

  1. Clitellum
  2. First segment
  3. Clitellum and last segment
  4. Clitellum, first and last segment

Answer: 4. Clitellum, first and last segment

Question 355. The excretory organs of earthworms are

  1. Nephridia
  2. Solenocytes
  3. Green glands
  4. Kidneys

Answer: 1. Nephridia

Question 356. Just as there are nephridia in earthworms, so are

  1. Myotomes in fish
  2. StatOcysts in prawn
  3. Parotid glands in toad
  4. Flame cells in the liver fluke

Answer: 4. Flame cells in liver fluke

Question 357. Spermathecal pores in Pheretima are present in segments

  1. 1/2, 2/3, 3/4,4/5
  2. 6/7, 7/8, 8/9, 9/10
  3. 5/6, 6/7, 7/8, 8/9
  4. 14/15, 15/16, 16/17, 17/18

Answer: 3. 5/6, 6/7, 7/8, 8/9

Question 358. The lifespan of an earthworm is

  1. 1-3 years
  2. 2-8 years
  3. 3.5-10.5 years
  4. 6-8 years

Answer: 3. 3.5-10.5 years

Question 359. The copulation period of earthworms is

  1. One hour
  2. Two hours
  3. Four hours
  4. About one week

Answer: 1. One hour

Question 360. The dorsal vessel of an earthworm is

  1. Distributing
  2. Collecting
  3. Collecting in the first 13 segments and distributing in the rest
  4. Distribution in the first 13 segments and collection in the rest

Answer: 4. Distribution in the first 13 segments and collecting in the rest

Question 361. Who wrote the memoirs on Pheretima and described its anatomy?

  1. M.L. Bhatia
  2. B.I. Sunderraj
  3. K.N. Bahl
  4. Beni Prasad

Answer: 3. K.N. Bahl

Question 362. Spermatheceae of earthworms take part in

  1. Collection of sperms of other worm
  2. Collection of sperms of the same worm
  3. Sperm maturation
  4. Fertilization

Answer: 1. Collection of sperms of other worm

Question 363. Hemoglobin is dissolved in the blood plasma of

  1. Rabbit
  2. Cockroach
  3. Earthworm
  4. Frog

Answer: 3. Earthworm

Question 364. The role of typhlosole of earthworms is to

  1. Emulsify
  2. Control blood flow
  3. Increase absorption area of digested food
  4. Produce digestive enzymes

Answer: 3. Increase absorption area of digested food

Question 365. The closed circulatory system occurs in

  1. Earthworm
  2. Cockroach
  3. Grasshopper
  4. Housefly

Answer: 1. Earthworm

Question 366. In earthworms, the mouth is situated on

  1. Prostomium
  2. Peristomium
  3. Stomium
  4. Protostomium

Answer: 2. Peristomium

Question 367. Annelida is advanced over Nematoda in having

  1. Closed circulation
  2. Metameric segmentation
  3. True coelom
  4. All the above

Answer: 4. All the above

Question 368. Segments of earthworms are called

  1. Metainere
  2. Sarcomere
  3. Prostomium
  4. Podomercs

Answer: 1. Metainere

Question 369. In Earthworm, the dorsal blood vessel is collecting channel

  1. Behind 13th segment
  2. Anterior 13 segment
  3. Throughout
  4. In typhlosolar region

Answer: 1. Behind 13th segment

Question 370. Blood vessel in Pheretima having valves is

  1. Dorsal
  2. Ventral
  3. Lateral
  4. Integumentary

Answer: 1. Dorsal

Question 371. The male genital apertures of earthworms are located in the segments

  1. 14
  2. 18
  3. 13
  4. 19

Answer: 2. 18

Question 372. The chloragogen cells of earthworms are similar to an organ of vertebrates

  1. Liver
  2. Lung
  3. Kidney
  4. Spleen

Answer: 1. Liver

Question 373. In Pheretima, which nephridia are present?

  1. Protonephridia
  2. Coelom duct
  3. Micro-metanephridia
  4. Solenocytes

Answer: 3. Micro-metanephridia

Question 374. Septum is lacking in Pheretima in segments

  1. 7/8,6/7
  2. 3/4,9/10
  3. 4/5, 8/9
  4. 6/7, 8/9

Answer: 3. 4/5, 8/9

Question 375. The blood vessels in earthworms are

  1. Different in last 15 segments
  2. Different in first 13 segments
  3. Same throughout
  4. Differences in middle segments

Answer: 2. Different in the first 13 segments

Question 376. Which one is not true about earthworms?

  1. It can live in the deficiency of O2 for 3-10 h.
  2. It has a life span of 3.5-10 years.
  3. Pineal setae are dissolved in KOH.
  4. It is omnivorous.

Answer: 3. Pineal setae are dissolved in KOH.

Question 377. The enteronephric nephridia of earthworms also perform the function of

  1. Respiration
  2. Excretion
  3. Osmoregulation
  4. Thermoregulation

Answer: 3. Osmoregulation

Question 378. In Pheretima, locomotion occurs with the help of

  1. Circular muscles
  2. Longitudinal muscles and setae
  3. Circular, longitudinal muscles and setae
  4. Parapodia

Answer: 2. Longitudinal muscles and setae

Question 379. Earthworm takes food by which method?

  1. Ciliary feeding
  2. Detritus feeding
  3. Liquid feeding
  4. None of these

Answer: 2. Detritus feeding

Question 380. Cocoon is formed in earthworms in

  1. Chitinous setae
  2. Cuticle
  3. Clitellum
  4. Epidermal muscles

Answer: 3. Clitellum

Question 381. The total number of ganglia present oh the nerve cord of a cockroach is

  1. 6
  2. 9
  3. 10
  4. 12

Answer: 2. 9

Question 382. A: Periplaneta americana is a nocturnal omnivorous, household pest.

R: It is because it acts as a scavenger.

  1. (A) is true but (R) is false.
  2. (A) is false but (R) is true.
  3. (A) and (R) is true and (R) is the right explanation of (A).
  4. (A) and (R) is true but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).

Answer: 1. (A) is true but (R) is false.

Question 383. Alary muscles in cockroaches occur in the

  1. Heart wall and help in blood circulation
  2. Dorsal septum and connect the septum with heart and tergite
  3. Wall of gizzard and help in its contraction
  4. Intestinal wall and help in digestion

Answer: 1. Heart wall and help in blood circulation

Question 384. Young cockroach is called

  1. Maggot
  2. Ephyra
  3. Nymph
  4. Pupa

Answer: 3. Heart wall and help in blood circulation

Question 385. Periplaneta americana differs from Blatta orientals in having

  1. No wings
  2. Only first pair of wings
  3. Well-developed wings
  4. Only second pair of wings

Answer: 2. Only the first pair of wings

Question 386. In Arthropoda, the body cavity is called

  1. Interon
  2. Pseudocoel
  3. Hemocoel
  4. Coelom

Answer: 3. Hemocoel

Question 387. Thirteen-chambered tubular heart is present in

  1. Cockroach
  2. Earthworm
  3. Frog
  4. Rabbit

Answer: 1. Cockroach

Question 388. Open blood vascular system without hemoglobin or any other respiratory pigment is found in

  1. Cockroach
  2. Earthworm
  3. Hydra
  4. Nereis

Answer: 1. Cockroach

Question 389. Colleterial gland is found in

  1. Male cockroach
  2. Female cockroach
  3. None
  4. Both male and female cockroach

Answer: 2. Female cockroach

Question 390. If corpora allata are removed from the first instar of a nymph, then

  1. It will remain nymph forever
  2. It will enter into the secondary stage of juvenile
  3. It will become adult immediately
  4. None

Answer: 3. It will become adult immediately

Question 391. An insect which undergoes complete metamorphosis is called

  1. Ametabola
  2. Hemimetabola
  3. Holometabola
  4. None of these

Answer: 3. Holometabola

Question 392. Pericardial space in cockroaches is regularly altered by muscles

  1. Ciliary
  2. Alary
  3. Circular
  4. Longitudinal

Answer: 2. Alary

Question 393. The function of ecdysone hormone in insects is

  1. The growth and development of larva
  2. The maturation into an adult and laying eggs
  3. To carry molting in the larval stage to form pupa
  4. The secretion of cuticle in adult

Answer: 3. To carry molting in larval stage to form a pupa

Question 394. Oxygen-carrying respiratory pigment of cockroaches and other insects is

  1. Hemoglobin
  2. Hemocyanin
  3. Hemoerythrin
  4. None

Answer: 4. None

Question 395. The body of an insect is divisible into

  1. Head, thorax, and abdomen
  2. Head, trunk, and abdomen
  3. Cephalothorax, head, and abdomen
  4. Trunk, thorax, and abdomen

Answer: 2. Head, trunk, and abdomen

Question 396. What is the similarity between fly, mosquitoes, and cockroaches?

  1. Thirteen-chambered heart
  2. Three pairs of legs
  3. Open excretory system
  4. Housefly

Answer: 2. Three pairs of legs

Question 397. The respiration pigment of blood in cockroaches is

  1. Hemozoin
  2. Hemocyanin
  3. Hemoglobin
  4. Absent

Answer: 4. Absent

Question 398. Which type of image is found in the eye of a cockroach?

  1. Mosaic
  2. Superposition
  3. Overlapping
  4. None of these

Answer: 1. Mosaic

Question 399. Mandibles are present in the mouth parts of

  1. Locust
  2. Cockroach
  3. Bedbug
  4. Housefly

Answer: 2. Cockroach

Question 400. In Periplaneta, the cuticular lipid is secreted by

  1. Hypodennal cells
  2. Oenocyte cell
  3. Dermal gland cells
  4. Basal cell

Answer: 2. Oenocyte cell

Question 401. The mouth parts of cockroaches is

  1. Piercing and sucking type
  2. Biting and sucking type
  3. Biting and chewing type
  4. Sponging type

Answer: 3. Biting and chewing type

Question 402. In cockroaches, vision is due to

  1. One compound eye
  2. Only two compound eyes
  3. Two simple eyes
  4. Two compounds and two simple eyes

Answer: 2. Only two compound eyes

Question 403. Hemocoel is present in

  1. Pheretima
  2. Periplaneta
  3. Sponge
  4. Ascaris

Answer: 2. Periplaneta

Question 404. The chitinous exoskeleton is found in

  1. Periplaneta
  2. Ascaris
  3. Pheretima
  4. Hydra

Answer: 1. Periplaneta

Question 405. The common Indian bullfrog is

  1. Rana tigrina
  2. Rana esculenta
  3. Rana limnocharis
  4. Rana cyanophlyctis

Answer: 1. Rana tigrina

Question 406. Male frogs can croak louder than females because of being

  1. Vocal sacs
  2. Stronger
  3. Larger in size
  4. Larger sound box

Answer: 1. Vocal sacs

Question 407. Crocking of frog is

  1. Hunger call
  2. Danger call
  3. Musical tone
  4. Sex call for female

Answer: 4. Sex call for female

Question 408. The opening of the rectum in frogs is called

  1. Vestibule
  2. Cloaca
  3. Coccyx
  4. None of the above

Answer: 2. Cloaca

Question 409. The number of fingers in the hindlimb of a frog is

  1. 4
  2. 5
  3. 6
  4. 7

Answer: 2. 5

Question 410. Mucus helps frogs in making

  1. Dry skin
  2. Moist skin
  3. Rough skin
  4. Thick skin

Answer: 2. Moist skin

Question 411. Chromatophores in the skin of frogs found in the stratum are

  1. Chromium
  2. Compactum
  3. Germination
  4. Mostly spongiosum

Answer: 4. Mostly spongiosum

Question 412. One of the main functions of a frog’s skin is

  1. Diffusion of respiratory gases
  2. Absorption of ultraviolet rays to produce vitamin D
  3. Storage of excess food in the form of subcutaneous fat
  4. Excretion of nitrogenous waste in the form of uric acid

Answer: 1. Diffusion of respiratory gases

Question 413. In frogs, the surface of the attachment of the tongue is

  1. Palatine
  2. Sphenoid
  3. Pterygoid
  4. Hyoid apparatus

Answer: 4. Hyoid apparatus

Question 414. In frogs, the digestion of fats occurs mostly in

  1. Rectum
  2. Stomach
  3. Duodenum
  4. Small intestine

Answer: 4. Small intestine

Question 415. A fully grown tadpole larva of frog respires through

  1. Gills
  2. Skin
  3. Lungs
  4. Tail fin

Answer: 2. Skin

Question 416. During hibernation, frog respires with

  1. Lung only
  2. Moist skin only
  3. Buccal cavity only
  4. External gills and lungs

Answer: 3. Buccal cavity only

Question 417. The oxygen carrier or respiratory pigment in the blood of frog and other vertebrates is

  1. Myoglobin
  2. Cytochrome
  3. Hemoglobin
  4. Hemocyanin

Answer: 2. Cytochrome

Question 418. In frog, cutaneous respiration takes place

  1. Always
  2. Only on land
  3. Only in water with pulmonary respiration
  4. Only in water pulmonary respiration is not occurring

Answer: 1. Always

Question 419. The epithelial lining of the respiratory system in frogs is denied by

  1. Ectoderm
  2. Endoderm
  3. Mesoderm
  4. Mesoderm and endoderm

Answer: 2. Endoderm

Question 420. Amphibian heart is

  1. One-chambered
  2. Three chambered
  3. Two-chambered
  4. Four chambered

Answer: 2. Three chambered

Question 421. The sciatic vein of the frog opens in

  1. Heart
  2. Kidney
  3. Pelvic region
  4. Liver

Answer: 3. Pelvic region

Question 422. The functional kidney of a frog tadpole is

  1. Pronephros
  2. Archinephros
  3. Metanephros
  4. Metanephros

Answer: 1. Pronephros

Question 423. Frog is

  1. Ureotelic
  2. Uricotelic
  3. Ammonotelic
  4. None of the above

Answer: 1. Ureotelic

Question 424. The nitrogenous excretory product of tadpoles of frog is

  1. Urea
  2. Guanine
  3. Uric acid
  4. Ammonia

Answer: 4. Ammonia

Question 425. In frog,

  1. Acetylcholine is the only neurotransmitter
  2. Noradrenaline is the only neurotransmitter
  3. Both acetylcholine and noradrenaline act as neurotransmitters
  4. Neither acetylcholine nor noradrenaline acts as a neurotransmitter

Answer: 3. Both acetylcholine and noradrenaline act as neurotransmitters

Question 426. What will happen if the eyes of a frog are covered by paper?

  1. Frog will soon die
  2. Frog will not move
  3. Frog will not do anything
  4. Frog will move to one side only

Answer: 3. Frog will not do anything

Question 427. A frog has

  1. Eyes but no lids
  2. Jaws but no teeth
  3. Hands but not fingers
  4. Ears but not pinnae

Answer: 4. Ears but not pinnae

Question 428. Which of these is an ear ossicle in frog?

  1. Incus
  2. Auricle
  3. Malleus
  4. Columella auris

Answer: 4. Columella auris

Question 429. Columella auris is a modified

  1. Quadrate
  2. Article
  3. Hyomandibular
  4. Sphenethmoid

Answer: 3. Hyomandibular

Question 430. Fenestra, ovalis in frog is the

  1. The air-filled cavity of the middle ear
  2. Communication between the pharynx and tympanic cavity
  3. The external opening of tympanic cavity is covered by the tympanic membrane
  4. Opening of the auditory capsule which separates the middle ear from the internal ear

Answer: 4. Opening of the auditory capsule which separates the middle ear from the internal ear

Question 431. Chromatophores in frog’s skin arc controlled by

  1. Hormones
  2. Environment
  3. Nervous activity
  4. Nervous and hormonal activities

Answer: 1. Hormones

Question 432. Mesotvhium in frogs refers to

  1. Fold of peritoneum between a kidney and a testis
  2. Internal tissue of testes
  3. Capsules of testes
  4. None of these

Answer: 1. Fold of peritoneum between a kidney and a testis

Question 433. In frogs, the ureter is a urinogenital duct in

  1. Male
  2. Female
  3. Male and female
  4. Male or female

Answer: 1. Male

Question 434. In frogs, jelly around the eggs is deposited in

  1. Ovary
  2. Oviduct
  3. Water after fertilization
  4. Water during fertilization

Answer: 2. Oviduct

Question 435. The acrosome of the sperm of a frog helps in fertilization by

  1. Activating the oocyte to engulf the sperm
  2. Inducing the formation of cone of reception in oocyte
  3. Stimulating oocyte to undergo second maturation division
  4. Secreting sperm Iysin to dissolve covering the membrane of the oocyte

Answer: 4. Secreting sperm Iysin to dissolve and covering the membrane of the oocyte

Question 436. An enzyme secreted from the acrosome of a frog’s sperm is

  1. Sperm lysin
  2. Testosterone
  3. Sperm trypsin
  4. Sperm gastrin

Answer: 1. Sperm lysin

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